Chapter 13

52) Which of the following is an organizational factor that increases illegitimate political behavior? A) internal locus of control B) low expectations of success C) high trust D) low organizational investment E) zero-sum reward practice

Answer: E Explanation: E) Cultures characterized by low trust, role ambiguity, unclear performance evaluation systems, zero-sum reward allocation practices, democratic decision making, high pressures for performance, and self-serving senior managers will also create breeding grounds for politicking.

51) If an individual ________, then he or she is less likely to engage in illegitimate political behavior. A) has invested a lot in the organization in terms of time and efforts B) possesses a scarce skill or knowledge C) has influential contacts outside the organization D) does not expect any future benefits from the organization E) has an external locus of control

Answer: A Explanation: A) An individual's investment in the organization, perceived alternatives, and expectations of success influence the degree to which he or she will pursue illegitimate means of political action. The more a person expects increased future benefits from the organization, the more that person has to lose if forced out and the less likely he or she is to use illegitimate means.

61) Which of the following defensive behaviors involves rigorously documenting activity to project an image of competence and thoroughness? A) buffing B) justifying C) scapegoating D) stretching E) overconforming

Answer: A Explanation: A) Buffing describes the practice of rigorously documenting activity to project an image of competence and thoroughness.

7) The two general groupings into which power may be categorized are ________. A) informational and personal B) formal and informal C) informal and legitimate D) formal and personal E) direct and indirect

Answer: D Explanation: D) The bases or sources of power are divided into two general groupings, formal and personal. These two groupings are then broken down into more specific categories.

16) At the PR firm where Gerald works, everyone considers him to be very good with his work and depends heavily on his knowledge to help the organization to solve its problems. Gerald is often seen teaching interns a simpler way to present an article, helping project managers with scheduling, and even the CEO often asks him for his opinion on important matter because of his experience and skill. Gerald's specialized knowledge depicts his ________. A) expert power B) coercive power C) legitimate power D) referent power E) reward power

Answer: A Explanation: A) Expert power is influence wielded as a result of expertise, special skill, or knowledge. As jobs become more specialized, we become increasingly dependent on experts to achieve goals. It is generally acknowledged that physicians have expertise and hence expert power: Most of us follow our doctor's advice.

27) The power tactic of using flattery and creating goodwill before making a request is known as ________. A) ingratiation B) consultation C) inspirational appeal D) motivational appeal E) affective appeal

Answer: A Explanation: A) Ingratiation is defined as using flattery, praise, or friendly behavior prior to making a request, hoping that the kindness will help get what is desired.

46) Political behaviors usually ________. A) lie outside of an individual's specified job requirements B) are counterproductive to individual goals C) are seen only in large organizations D) are sanctioned by organizational leaders E) are expected as part of each job requirement

Answer: A Explanation: A) Political behavior is defined as activities that are not required as part of a person's formal role in the organization but that influence, or attempt to influence, the distribution of advantages and disadvantages within the organization.

62) Placing the blame for a negative outcome on external factors that are not entirely blameworthy is known as ________. A) scapegoating B) buffing C) stalling D) justifying E) overconforming

Answer: A Explanation: A) Scapegoating is placing the blame for a negative outcome on external factors that are not entirely blameworthy.

35) Which of the following power tactics would be considered a soft tactic? A) rational persuasion B) exchange C) coalition D) politicking E) pressure

Answer: A Explanation: A) Soft tactics are those that rely on personal power such as personal and inspirational appeals, rational persuasion, and consultation.

37) Which of the following statements is true with regard to the effectiveness of tactics? A) Soft tactics are less effective than hard tactics when used individually. B) The combination of a soft tactic with reasonable persuasion is more effective than a combination of two hard tactics. C) All tactics are equally effective with regard to upward influence. D) Individuals from collectivist cultures are typically more likely to use soft tactics that reflect personal power. E) Individuals from individualistic cultures are typically more likely to use coalition and other hard power tactics.

Answer: B Explanation: B) A single soft tactic is more effective than a single hard tactic, and combining two soft tactics or a soft tactic and rational persuasion is more effective than any single tactic or combination of hard tactics

68) Which of the following is a self-focused impression management technique? A) flattery B) enhancement C) apologies D) excuses E) conformity

Answer: B Explanation: B) Enhancement and self-promotion are self-focused impression management techniques.

72) Winston Mayer is a sales manager for a large company producing beverages and ready-to-eat meals. Winston is often seen working late and on weekends although the company stipulates a five-day workweek. Winston justifies his working extra by claiming that "in sales, one cannot afford to waste a minute" and he is often condescending when subordinates take their allotted time off. He frequently speaks to his manager about the deals he finalizes when he is working beyond the normal working hours to prove his point. From the information provided, we can say that Winston is using ________ as an impression management technique here. A) flattery B) exemplification C) favors D) apologies E) conformity

Answer: B Explanation: B) Exemplification is an impression management technique that involves an individual doing more than he or she needs to in an effort to show how dedicated and hard-working he or she is.

75) Victor Ortiz was a successful and popular manager at the marketing division of a consumer goods company. Many attributed the company's immense success in the last two years to Victor's highly creative marketing plans, which cost the company very little but increased the visibility of its products. He also effectively tied up with new retail chains so the demand for their products grows as the new retail chains grow. Recently, a subordinate alleged that Victor had sexually harassed her, and stories of similar allegations made against him in the past resurfaced. The situation was laid to rest when Victor made an appearance with the victim by his side claiming that the allegations were baseless as he was romantically involved with her. Though this announcement did not convince people, the allegations against Victor were withdrawn. From the information provided in this scenario, this outcome can be explained by the fact that ________. A) Victor has a high degree of referent power B) Victor has enough power to get away with his misdeeds C) Victor has abided by the standards of equity and justice D) Victor has used a defensive impression management technique E) Victor has used scapegoating to free himself from the charges

Answer: B Explanation: B) Immoral people can justify almost any behavior. Those who are powerful, articulate, and persuasive are most vulnerable to ethical lapses because they are likely to be able to get away with unethical practices successfully.

48) ________ occurs when people within organizations use whatever influence they can to taint the facts to support their goals and interests. A) Legitimate political behavior B) Politicking C) Illegitimate political behavior D) Sabotage E) Whistle-blowing

Answer: B Explanation: B) Most decisions in an organization have to be made in a climate of ambiguity where facts are rarely fully objective and thus are open to interpretation. Under such circumstances, people within organizations will use whatever influence they can to taint the facts to support their goals and interests. That creates the activities called politicking.

43) Which of the following factors can lead to greater probability of sexual harassment at the workplace? A) an active sexual harassment policy B) large power differentials C) a no-retaliation policy for victims seeking justice D) awareness regarding sexual harassment E) larger percentage of women in positions of power

Answer: B Explanation: B) Most studies confirm that the concept of power is central to understanding sexual harassment. This seems true whether the harassment comes from a supervisor, a co-worker, or an employee. Sexual harassment is more likely to occur when there are large power differentials.

28) Rational persuasion is a power tactic that involves the use of ________. A) formal authority B) logical arguments and factual evidence C) emotions to target the values, needs, and hopes of the other party D) benefits or favors in exchange for following a request E) warnings, repeated demands, and threats

Answer: B Explanation: B) Rational persuasion is a power tactic that involves presenting logical arguments and factual evidence to demonstrate that a request is reasonable.

31) Which of the following power tactics is more effective when the audience is highly interested in the outcomes of a decision process? A) ingratiation B) consultation C) personal appeals D) exchange E) pressure

Answer: B Explanation: B) Rational persuasion, inspirational appeals, and consultation tend to be the most effective power tactics, especially when the audience is highly interested in the outcomes of a decision process.

39) Which of the following statements is true? A) The impact of sexual harassment is individual, not organizational. B) A clear understanding of the actions that constitute sexual harassment does not exist. C) Today, the rise of overt forms of sexual harassment presents a major concern for organizations. D) Women in positions of power in an organization are free from sexual harassment by male subordinates. E) Curtailing sexual harassment requires higher-order intervention programs as managers cannot be expected to help in this regard.

Answer: B Explanation: B) Sexual harassment is defined as any unwanted activity of a sexual nature that affects an individual's employment and creates a hostile work environment. However, there is a disagreement about what specifically constitutes sexual harassment.

8) ________ power is based on the fear of the negative results from failing to comply. A) Legitimate B) Coercive C) Punitive D) Referent E) Abusive

Answer: B Explanation: B) The coercive power base depends on fear of the negative results from failing to comply. It rests on the application, or the threat of application, of physical sanctions such as the infliction of pain, frustration through restriction of movement, or the controlling by force of basic physiological or safety needs.

21) Joanna Mills has recently been promoted to the position of a project manager at Palmer Inc., a software development firm. As a project manager, she now has the authority to delegate work, provide supervision and feedback, and monitor employee performance. Ever since her promotion, she has been preparing herself to guide her subordinates in different project activities. However, she feels that the employees do not proactively approach her for help. Which of the following, if true, would best explain this situation? A) Joanna has several years of experience in working on software programs. B) The sole criterion for Joanna's promotion was her effectiveness in meeting individual targets. C) Employees identify with Joanna because she successfully rose from the position of a programmer to that of a manager. D) The managers who promoted her believed that her approachable nature would be a key factor in improving team performance. E) The company follows a 360-degree performance evaluation system.

Answer: B Explanation: B) The fact that Joanna has several years of experience in working on software programs does not explain why her team members do not approach her for help. The fact that the sole criterion for Joanna's promotion was her effectiveness in meeting individual targets does explain why her team members do not proactively approach her for help. While the promotion provided her with legitimate power, she does not enjoy referent power, which would encourage team members to reach out to her for help. The fact that the employees identify with Joanna because she successfully rose from the position of a programmer to that of a manager does not explain the current situation. The fact that the managers who promoted her believed that her approachable nature would be a key factor in improving team performance does not explain why her team does not approach her for help. The fact that the company follows a 360-degree performance evaluation system does not explain why her team does not approach her for help.

23) Levin and Co. is a group of oil refineries that has been in the news recently. The company had to stop production for over two weeks because their key supplier refused to sell them crude oil at the old prices. Even after rounds of negotiations, the supplier refused to give in to the demands of Levin and Co., and finally, the company had to acquire the raw material from the same supplier because alternative suppliers, though abundant, could not provide the quantities the company demanded at such short notice. This shows the role of ________ in increasing the power one enjoys. A) alternatives B) dependence C) abundance D) substitutability E) exchange

Answer: B Explanation: B) The most important aspect of power is that it is a function of dependence. Dependence increases when the resource you control is important, scarce, or nonsubstitutable

58) Reactive and protective behaviors designed to avoid action, blame, or change are termed ________. A) repressive behaviors B) defensive behaviors C) submissive behaviors D) impression management behaviors E) proactive behaviors

Answer: B Explanation: B) When employees see politics as a threat, they often respond with defensive behaviors, which are reactive and protective behaviors to avoid action, blame, or change.

74) Which of the following can be used to understand how power and politics in an organization can help you achieve your career goals? A) counseling B) power base relationships C) political mapping D) power struggles E) equity positioning

Answer: C Explanation: C) A political map can help you sketch out your relationships with the people upon whom your career depends.

69) Which of the following impression management techniques involves an individual admitting responsibility for an undesirable event and simultaneously seeking to get a pardon for the action? A) flattery B) favors C) apologies D) misrepresentation E) exemplification

Answer: C Explanation: C) Apologies involve admitting responsibility for an undesirable event and simultaneously seeking to get a pardon for the action. It is a defensive impression management technique.

2) Which of the following statements is true regarding power? A) A is said to have power over B if B controls something that A desires. B) The greater A's dependence on B, the greater A's power in the relationship. C) If A has the capacity to influence the behavior of B, then A is said to have power over B. D) A can have power over B only if A is B's leader. E) A can have power over B only when A and B have similar goals.

Answer: C Explanation: C) If A has the capacity to influence the behavior of B, then A is said to have power over B. The most important aspect of power is that it is a function of dependence. The greater B's dependence on A, the greater A's power in the relationship.

22) Which of the following types of power is most likely to be negatively related to employee satisfaction and commitment? A) expert power B) reward power C) legitimate power D) coercive power E) referent power

Answer: D Explanation: D) The coercive power base depends on fear of the negative results from failing to comply. It is negatively related to employee satisfaction and commitment

12) Legitimate power is directly based on ________. A) charisma of the leader B) interpersonal trust and commitment of the manager C) structural position of the manager in the organization D) personality traits of the manager E) ability of the manager to serve his or her subordinates

Answer: C Explanation: C) In formal groups and organizations, probably the most common access to one or more of the power bases is through legitimate power. It represents the formal authority to control and use organizational resources based on structural position in the organization.

13) Which of the following statements is true regarding legitimate power? A) Legitimate power develops out of admiration of another and a desire to be like that person. B) Legitimate power comes from an individual's unique characteristics. C) Legitimate power is broader than the power to coerce and reward. D) Celebrities who endorse products in commercials wield legitimate power over people. E) Legitimate power is a type of personal power.

Answer: C Explanation: C) In formal groups and organizations, probably the most common access to one or more of the power bases is through legitimate power. It represents the formal authority to control and use organizational resources based on structural position in the organization. Legitimate power is broader than the power to coerce and reward.

66) Which of the following differentiates between high self-monitors and low self-monitors? A) High self-monitors are more likely to use defensive impression management techniques, while low self-monitors are more likely to use self-focused impression management techniques. B) High self-monitors are commonly seen in collectivist cultures, while low self-monitors are commonly seen in individualist cultures. C) High self-monitors tend to mold their appearances and behavior to fit each situation, while low self-monitors tend to present images of themselves that are consistent with their personalities. D) High self-monitors prefer to avoid using power and politics at the workplace, while low self-monitors engage in a lot of politicking. E) High self-monitors have an external locus of control as they attribute successes or failures to luck and fate, while low self-monitors have an internal locus of control and believe that they control the outcomes.

Answer: C Explanation: C) Low self-monitors tend to present images of themselves that are consistent with their personalities, regardless of the beneficial or detrimental effects for them. In contrast, high self-monitors are good at reading situations and molding their appearances and behavior to fit each situation.

18) Carl believes that he is lucky to be working under a manager like Mr. Parker—conscientious, flexible and easy to work with. It was Mr. Parker who helped Carl learn the demands of the job, gave him opportunities to learn from the mistakes he made, and always provided sound advice. Mr. Parker, who has been in the field for over eighteen years, never made Carl feel like a novice and this only increased Carl's personal confidence in his work and his loyalty toward his manager. Carl, who is now doing very well on the job, aims to be a manager like Mr. Parker. From this scenario, which of the following conclusions can be drawn? A) Mr. Parker is an authoritarian manager. B) Carl has a low degree of trust propensity. C) Mr. Parker has a high degree of referent power. D) Mr. Parker engages in a lot of ingratiation. E) Mr. Parker exercises a high degree of coercive power.

Answer: C Explanation: C) Mr. Parker has a high degree of referent power as Carl identifies with him and wishes to be like him. Referent power is based on identification with a person who has desirable resources or personal traits.

64) Which of the following defensive behaviors involves developing explanations that lessen one's responsibility for a negative outcome and apologizing to demonstrate remorse? A) scapegoating B) misrepresenting C) justifying D) overconforming E) stretching

Answer: C Explanation: C) One of the defensive behaviors used to avoid blame is justifying. Justifying involves developing explanations that lessen one's responsibility for a negative outcome and/or apologizing to demonstrate remorse, or both.

41) Which of the following is a subtle form of sexual harassment? A) requesting repeatedly for a date when the other person is clearly disinterested B) forcing someone to accept a sexual proposition C) making jokes with sexual overtones D) engaging in unwanted physical touching E) forcing someone to provide sexual favors in return for a promotion

Answer: C Explanation: C) Organizations have generally made progress toward limiting overt forms of sexual harassment. This includes unwanted physical touching, recurring requests for dates when it is made clear the person isn't interested, and coercive threats that a person will lose his or her job for refusing a sexual proposition. Problems today are likely to surface around more subtle forms of sexual harassment—unwanted looks or comments, off-color jokes, sexual artifacts like pinups posted in the workplace, or misinterpretations of where the line between being friendly ends and harassment begins.

34) Which of the following power tactics can be used most effectively for exerting lateral influence? A) legitimacy B) inspirational appeal C) coalition D) ingratiation E) pressure

Answer: C Explanation: C) Personal appeals and coalitions are most effective as lateral influence.

38) For a person to be recognized as having a high degree of political skill, he or she must have the ________. A) ability to recognize that power in an organization does not translate into success B) ability to submit to the demands made by others at all times C) ability to influence others to enhance their own objectives D) ability to respect and consider the needs of others first E) ability to make sacrifices for the betterment of others

Answer: C Explanation: C) Political skills of people indicate their ability to influence others to enhance their own objectives.

26) Which of the following power tactics uses warnings and threats and is typically the least effective of all the power tactics? A) coalitions B) exchange C) pressure D) rational persuasion E) consultation

Answer: C Explanation: C) Pressure tends to backfire and is typically the least effective of the nine tactics.

17) ________ power is based on identification with a person who has desirable resources or personal traits. A) Coercive B) Legitimate C) Referent D) Expert E) Reward

Answer: C Explanation: C) Referent power is based on identification with a person who has desirable resources or personal traits. If I like, respect, and admire you, you can exercise power over me because I want to please you.

6) Research on power is likely to provide information on the most effective ________. A) leadership styles for motivating followers B) methods to reduce dependence on leaders C) tactics for gaining compliance of employees D) methods of rewarding successful employees E) modes of assessing employee performance

Answer: C Explanation: C) Research on power focuses on tactics for gaining compliance. It goes beyond the individual as the exerciser of power because groups as well as individuals can use power to control other individuals or groups

9) In the last one week, May and Phyllis have been putting in extra hours at work so that the project assigned to them by their manager is completed well within time. Though the manager was due to assign two more people to this project, he had not done so. As a result, May and Phyllis, who were having to do double their routine workload, went and complained to the division manager. May was promptly suspended from work for complaining about her immediate supervisor. This represents the operation of ________ power. A) reward B) legitimate C) coercive D) expert E) referent

Answer: C Explanation: C) The coercive power base depends on fear of the negative results from failing to comply. At the organizational level, A has coercive power over B if A can dismiss, suspend, or demote B, assuming B values his or her job.

33) ________ is the only tactic effective across organizational levels. A) Legitimacy B) Inspirational appeal C) Rational persuasion D) Ingratiation E) Pressure

Answer: C Explanation: C) The effectiveness of some influence tactics depends on the direction of influence. For instance, rational persuasion is the only tactic effective across organizational levels.

53) Which of the following organizational factors encourages political behavior? A) using objective criteria in the appraisal B) using multiple outcomes to measure performance C) allowing significant time to pass between the time of an action and its appraisal D) avoiding the zero-sum approach for resource allocation E) ensuring role clarity

Answer: C Explanation: C) The more organizations use subjective criteria in the appraisal, emphasize a single outcome measure, or allow significant time to pass between the time of an action and its appraisal, the greater the likelihood that an employee can get away with politicking.

10) ________ power represents the compliance that is achieved based on the ability to distribute positive benefits that others view as valuable. A) Legitimate B) Coercive C) Reward D) Personal E) Reflective

Answer: C Explanation: C) The opposite of coercive power is reward power, with which people comply because it produces positive benefits; someone who can distribute rewards others view as valuable will have power over them. These rewards can be either financial, such as controlling pay rates, or nonfinancial, including recognition or promotions.

25) Which of the following power tactics involves increasing the target's support by involving him or her in decision making? A) legitimacy B) rational persuasion C) consultation D) ingratiation E) pressure

Answer: C Explanation: C) The power tactic of consultation involves increasing the target's support by involving him or her in decision making.

30) When the contract with one of their major suppliers was about to expire, the management of Pierre and Collins began seeking tenders from potential vendors. One of the top management executives, Todd Hughes, wanted the contract to go to a vendor he personally knew. In order to do so, he held separate discussions with two key members of the organization wherein he downplayed the potentials of the competing tenders and convinced them to support this offer. At the meeting to finalize a supplier, Todd and his supporters strongly supported the tender of the supplier they had chosen amongst themselves and convinced their CEO to hire this supplier despite the higher price quoted by him. Which of the following power tactics is being used here? A) ingratiation B) legitimacy C) coalition D) pressure E) inspirational appeals

Answer: C Explanation: C) Todd Hughes used the power tactic of creating a coalition by enlisting the aid or support of others to persuade the target to agree. Coalitions represent a hard power tactic which emphasizes formal power and involves greater costs and risks.

32) When the audience does not care about the outcomes, using a combination of ________ can help lessen negative reactions to the feeling that one is dictating outcomes. A) ingratiation and personal appeals B) pressure and exchange C) legitimacy and ingratiation D) exchange and rational persuasion E) inspirational appeals and consultation

Answer: C Explanation: C) Using both ingratiation and legitimacy can lessen negative reactions to one's appearing to dictate outcomes, but only when the audience does not really care about the outcome of a decision process or the policy is routine.

50) Which of the following is an individual factor that influences political behavior? A) reallocation of resources B) unclear performance evaluation system C) high performance pressures D) perceived job alternatives E) zero-sum reward practice

Answer: D Explanation: D) An individual's investment in the organization, perceived alternatives, and expectations of success influence the degree to which he or she will pursue illegitimate means of political action.

70) Which of the following impression management techniques uses ingratiation? A) flattery B) exemplification C) enhancement D) conformity E) apologies

Answer: D Explanation: D) Conformity, which involves agreeing with someone else's opinion to gain his or her approval, is a form of ingratiation.

15) ________ power is influence wielded as a result of proficiency, special skill, or knowledge. A) Legitimate B) Reward C) Referent D) Expert E) Coercive

Answer: D Explanation: D) Expert power is influence wielded as a result of expertise, special skill, or knowledge. As jobs become more specialized, we become increasingly dependent on experts to achieve goals. It is generally acknowledged that physicians have expertise and hence expert power: Most of us follow our doctor's advice.

67) Which of the following is an assertive impression management technique? A) conformity B) apologies C) self-promotion D) flattery E) buffing

Answer: D Explanation: D) Flattery and exemplification are assertive impression management techniques

36) Which of the following power tactics would be considered a hard tactic? A) rational persuasion B) inspirational appeals C) personal appeals D) coalition E) consultation

Answer: D Explanation: D) Hard tactics are those that emphasize formal power such as exchange, coalitions, and pressure.

5) Which of the following is true with regard to leadership? A) It maximizes the importance of lateral and upward influence patterns. B) It eliminates the requirement of goal compatibility. C) It stimulates research in the area of tactics of influence. D) It focuses on downward influence on followers. E) It encourages dependence of followers on leaders.

Answer: D Explanation: D) Leadership focuses on the downward influence on followers. It minimizes the importance of lateral and upward influence patterns, while power does not.

19) Which of the following is true with regard to bases of power? A) Coercive power involves an identification with and imitation of the person in power. B) Legitimate power is used by companies when they hire celebrities to promote their products. C) Expert and referent power are the two major types of formal power. D) The personal sources of power are most effective for increasing employee performance and satisfaction. E) Reward power is the most common and broad type of power seen in operation in organizations.

Answer: D Explanation: D) Of the three bases of formal power (coercive, reward, legitimate) and two bases of personal power (expert, referent), research suggests pretty clearly that the personal sources of power are most effective.

47) Which of the following factors contributes to political behavior in the organization? A) presence of pure and objective facts B) existence of uniform goals and interests among all employees C) provision of clear and objective performance outcomes D) presence of limited resources in the organization E) perception that gains of one group are not at the expense of the loss incurred by another group

Answer: D Explanation: D) Organizations are made up of individuals and groups with different values, goals, and interests, and this sets up the potential for conflict over the allocation of limited resources, such as departmental budgets, space, project responsibilities, and salary adjustments. As resources are limited, not everyone's interests can be satisfied. Furthermore, gains by one individual or group are often perceived as coming at the expense of others within the organization.

40) Which of the following is an overt form of sexual harassment? A) being too friendly B) pinups posted in the workplace C) off-color jokes D) unwanted physical touching E) unwanted looks or comments

Answer: D Explanation: D) Organizations have generally made progress toward limiting overt forms of sexual harassment. This includes unwanted physical touching, recurring requests for dates when it is made clear the person isn't interested, and coercive threats that a person will lose his or her job for refusing a sexual proposition. Problems today are likely to surface around more subtle forms of sexual harassment like unwanted looks or comments, off-color jokes, sexual artifacts like pinups posted in the workplace, or misinterpretations of where the line between being friendly ends and harassment begins.

14) Which of the following types of power can be categorized as personal power? A) coercive B) legitimate C) reward D) referent E) positional

Answer: D Explanation: D) Personal power comes from an individual's unique characteristics. There are two bases of personal power: expert power and referent power.

3) Which of the following is a differentiating factor between power and leadership? A) control B) influence C) ability D) goal compatibility E) negative affect

Answer: D Explanation: D) Power does not require goal compatibility, merely dependence. Leadership, on the other hand, requires some congruence between the goals of the leader and those being led.

4) Which of the following is a feature of power? A) lack of dependence of followers B) use of positive styles over negative tactics C) downward influence of leader on followers D) lack of goal compatibility between leaders and followers E) lack of control on behavior of followers

Answer: D Explanation: D) Power does not require goal compatibility, merely dependence. Leadership, on the other hand, requires some congruence between the goals of the leader and those being led.

1) Power is a function of ________. A) goal congruency B) realization C) inheritance D) dependence E) altruism

Answer: D Explanation: D) Power is a function of dependence.

44) Which of the following is true with regard to sexual harassment at the workplace? A) An aggressive tone is the most effective for women to make their complaints of sexual harassments known. B) Women in positions of power typically do not perpetrate sexual harassment of their male employees. C) The supervisor-employee dyad best characterizes an equal power relationship that can be used to prevent sexual harassment. D) The best approach to preventing accusations of sexual harassment is to refrain from any behavior that may be taken as harassing. E) Women in positions of power in an organization are typically not sexually harassed by males who occupy less powerful positions

Answer: D Explanation: D) Research suggests that people may not be able to be entirely objective when listening to sexual harassment complaints, taking the tone of the victim into account when making judgments rather than simply relying on the facts of the case at hand. The best approach is to be careful and refrain from any behavior that may be taken as harassing, even if that was not the intent.

42) Connie Cole works as a junior market analyst at SPS Services. Her previous manager retired a couple of months back, and she now has a younger male manager who repeatedly insists that she accompany him for a coffee or dinner after work. Initially, Connie was unsuspecting and refused because she did not have the time for such engagements during weekdays. Later, when her manager's requests became frequent, she grew uncomfortable and firmly told him that she was not interested in him and his attempts were not welcome. She realized that this step could backfire because, as her superior, he has complete control over her appraisals, bonuses, and promotions. Her manager even told her that if she does not agree, he will "find other ways." Connie's experiences are best described as ________. A) whistle-blowing B) scapegoating C) domestic abuse D) sexual harassment E) ambient abuse

Answer: D Explanation: D) Sexual harassment is defined as any unwanted activity of a sexual nature that affects an individual's employment and creates a hostile work environment. Organizations have generally made progress toward limiting overt forms of sexual harassment. This includes unwanted physical touching, recurring requests for dates when it is made clear the person isn't interested, and coercive threats that a person will lose his or her job for refusing a sexual proposition.

49) Employees exhibiting which of the following features are more likely to engage in political behavior? A) lack of organizational investment B) external locus of control C) low need for power D) Machiavellian personality E) low self-monitoring

Answer: D Explanation: D) The Machiavellian personality—characterized by the will to manipulate and the desire for power—is comfortable using politics as a means to further his or her self-interest.

20) Will Paten is the manager of a team of twelve people in the marketing division of Palmer Inc. Will, who has been working in the company for eleven years, is held in high regard and liked by all his colleagues and subordinates. However, Aaron and Abby, two of his subordinates, are noted for frequently flouting his rules and directives. They continue behaving in this manner even after Will had categorically requested them to refrain from upsetting the momentum of the team. Which of the following, if true, would best explain Aaron and Abby's continued noncompliance with Will's requests? A) The promotions and bonuses of the team members depend heavily on Will's performance ratings. B) The company had provided Will with additional duties, and he was left with little time to ensure that his team members performed well. C) Will believes that since the job demands in marketing are ambiguous and ever-changing, a supportive approach to leadership would suffice. D) Will is uncomfortable exercising coercive measures to control employees. E) Will is considered an expert at analyzing market trends and making accurate projections about demand and revenue.

Answer: D Explanation: D) The fact that promotions and bonuses of the team members depend heavily on Will's performance ratings does not explain Aaron and Abby's noncompliance with his requests. The fact that the company had provided Will with additional duties and he was left with little time to ensure that his team members performed well does not adequately explain Aaron and Abby's behavior especially since other team members were working well. The fact that Will believes that a supportive approach to leadership would suffice when faced with ambiguous job demands is false and does not explain Aaron and Abby's behavior. The fact that Will is uncomfortable exercising coercive measures to control employees does explain Aaron and Abby's behavior. Will has the right to exercise legitimate, coercive, and reward powers, but his personality is such that he is not at ease forcing people to follow his command. The fact that Will is considered an expert at analyzing market trends and making accurate projections about demand and revenue does not explain Aaron and Abby's behavior toward him.

45) Tina Simmons worked as a welder at a shipyard company where she was forced to encounter nude and partially nude pictures posted by her male co-workers in common areas. The men also referred to her using obscene nicknames and made offensive remarks concerning her body. When Tina complained, her supervisor took no corrective action despite having an active sexual harassment policy approved by the EEOC. Tina wished to file a discrimination suit but instead she chose to endure the harassment as she could not risk losing her job. Which of the following, if true, would have strengthened her resolve to file a discrimination suit? A) The colleagues who sexually harassed Tina shared a great rapport with her supervisor. B) Tina had heard of only one prior instance wherein an employee in the company had filed a discrimination suit. C) Tina shared a strained working relationship with her supervisor. D) The company policy prescribed that Tina would face no backlash if she approached the EEOC. E) Tina had few female colleagues at the shipyard where she worked.

Answer: D Explanation: D) The fact that the colleagues who sexually harassed Tina shared a great rapport with her supervisor is likely to weaken her resolve to file a discrimination suit. The fact that Tina had heard of only one prior instance wherein an employee in the company had filed a discrimination suit does not necessarily weaken her resolve to file a discrimination suit. The fact that Tina shared a strained working relationship with her supervisor may weaken her resolve. The fact that the company policy prescribed that Tina would face no backlash if she approached the EEOC would strengthen her resolve as she would not lose her job following her action. The fact that Tina had few female colleagues at the shipyard where she worked may weaken her resolve.

54) Timothy Jenkins had been working for six years at Hartford Mills, a company that takes a strong stand against unionization. Though Timothy's designation was that of a production supervisor, as the company grew, he also took on additional duties like keeping a check on employee safety, ensuring that legal measures are followed, and implementing programs for labor welfare that the company planned. Many believed that Timothy was doing a great job for the company, and so it came as a surprise when Timothy was rumored to face severe disciplinary action, as he was encouraging the workers to join a union. However, he was let off with a mere warning. Which of the following, if true, would explain this paradox? A) The management had recently instituted a formal employee welfare committee. B) Timothy stressed the fact that he was a meticulous worker who always adhered to company policies. C) The management had recently moved from an open shop mechanism to a closed shop mechanism. D) Timothy claimed that he was only looking to ensure greater employee welfare, which was one of the duties the company had assigned to him. E) Timothy argued that allowing unionization had increased the levels of employee satisfaction in one of their rival companies.

Answer: D Explanation: D) The fact that the management had recently instituted a formal employee welfare committee does not explain this paradox. The fact that Timothy was a meticulous worker who always adhered to company policies does not explain this paradox. The fact that the management had recently moved from an open shop mechanism to a closed shop mechanism does not explain why the company let Timothy go with just a warning. The fact that Timothy claimed that he was only looking to ensure greater employee welfare, which was one of the duties the company had assigned to him, does explain this paradox. Since the company had not clearly defined the scope and functions of Timothy's role, he had greater freedom to engage in political activities that the company did not formally prohibit. The fact that Timothy argued that allowing unionization had increased the levels of employee satisfaction in one of their rival companies does not explain this paradox.

56) To avoid politicking during performance evaluations, an organization should ________. A) create role ambiguity B) use democratic decision making C) use a single outcome measure D) use objective criteria E) allow a significant lapse

Answer: D Explanation: D) The more organizations use subjective criteria in the appraisal, emphasize a single outcome measure, or allow significant time to pass between the time of an action and its appraisal, the greater the likelihood that an employee can get away with politicking.

11) As a regional sales officer, one of Brandon's job responsibilities is to process the yearly appraisal forms of his subordinates and provide them with increments, bonuses, or benefits based on their performance that year. This job responsibility directly reflects his ________. A) active power B) expert power C) referent power D) reward power E) coercive power

Answer: D Explanation: D) The opposite of coercive power is reward power, with which people comply because it produces positive benefits; someone who can distribute rewards others view as valuable will have power over them. These rewards can be either financial, such as controlling pay rates, or nonfinancial, including recognition and promotions.

73) In the last month, Stacey, an intelligent and astute employee, has finished only half the work she was scheduled to complete. In addition, she has been taking frequent leaves, citing her ill health as the reason, but her manager suspects she has been playing truant. When the manager confronted her about her pending work, Stacey gave excuses: the work was time-consuming, she was unwell, and it was not a high-priority project in the first place. In this scenario, Stacey is using a(n) ________ impression management technique. A) self-focused B) assertive C) aggressive D) defensive E) ingratiation-based

Answer: D Explanation: D) When one provides explanations of a predicament-creating event aimed at minimizing the apparent severity of the predicament, it represents a defensive IM technique

60) Buck passing is seen when an employee ________. A) avoids an unwanted task by falsely pleading ignorance or inability B) prolongs a task to give the appearance of being occupied C) documents his or her activity rigorously to project an image of competence and thoroughness D) develops explanations that lessen his or her responsibility for a negative outcome E) transfers responsibility for the execution of a task or decision to someone else

Answer: E Explanation: E) Buck passing means transferring responsibility for the execution of a task or decision to someone else.

71) Recently, Curtis Gibson had an interview for the position of a senior manager at a transit service. At the interview, the interviewer made a passing remark about how policies can make or break the best economy in the world. Immediately, Curtis launched into a discussion of how true the interviewer was, substantiating his claim with stories from real economies around the world. Similarly, when the interviewer suggested that Curtis work the earlier shift because, if selected, he would have to commute a significant bit to reach work, Curtis vehemently agreed, saying, "You couldn't be more right." Which of the following impression management techniques is Curtis using? A) favors B) exemplification C) enhancement D) self-promotion E) conformity

Answer: E Explanation: E) Conformity, which involves agreeing with someone else's opinion to gain his or her approval, is a form of ingratiation.

63) Daphne is one of the three project managers at Virgo Inc., an art and design studio. Raymond and Gabriel, the other two project managers, are unhappy working with Daphne as she always selects projects that suit her area of expertise and avoids projects which require more ambiguous work, have tight deadlines, and represent a low probability of success. Raymond and Gabriel feel that they deserve greater credit than Daphne for being open and accepting different work demands and situations, as opposed to Daphne, who always takes a conservative and risk-averse approach. Daphne is using the defensive behavior of ________ here. A) scapegoating B) ingratiating C) stalling D) retaliating E) playing safe

Answer: E Explanation: E) Daphne is playing safe here. This involves evading situations that may reflect unfavorably. It includes taking on only projects with a high probability of success, having risky decisions approved by superiors, qualifying expressions of judgment, and taking neutral positions in conflicts.

24) Dependence would be low when ________. A) the goods have very few suppliers B) the goods have low accessibility C) the goods in question are scarce D) the products are important E) the goods have substitutes

Answer: E Explanation: E) Dependence increases when the resource you control is important, scarce, or nonsubstitutable. The fewer viable substitutes for a resource, the more power control over that resource provides.

55) Timothy Jenkins had been working for six years at Hartford Mills, a company that takes a strong stand against unionization. Though Timothy's designation was that of a production supervisor, as the company grew, he also took on additional duties like keeping a check on employee safety, ensuring that legal measures are followed, and implementing programs for labor welfare that the company planned. Many believed that Timothy was doing a great job for the company, and so it came as a surprise when Timothy was rumored to face severe disciplinary action, as he was encouraging the workers to join a union. However, he was let off with a mere warning. Timothy argued that he was only doing his job—a job in which he had responsibility for improving the welfare of employees. Which of the following, if true, would help Hartford Mills avoid such situations in the future? A) ensuring the provision of a retaliatory policy for employees who go against the company B) holding town hall meetings to explain to employees why Timothy was suspected C) enlisting the support of popular employees like Timothy to discharge the employee welfare duties D) engaging in collective bargaining as it is the only way to motivate employees to work efficiently E) specifying the permissible and prohibited aspects of an employee's formal role in the organization

Answer: E Explanation: E) Ensuring the provision of a retaliatory policy for employees who go against the company is likely to cause problems for the company as it goes against EEOC directives. Holding town hall meetings to explain to employees why Timothy was suspected is not going to avoid such problems in the future; it may help control the present situation. Enlisting the support of popular employees like Timothy to discharge the employee welfare duties is not a solution to this problem. Engaging in collective bargaining to motivate employees goes against the company's policy of non-unionization and is not a solution. Specifying the permissible and prohibited aspects of an employee's formal role in the organization is a solution as it would limit the scope and functions of the employee's political actions.

65) Which of the following is a defensive behavior that is used to avoid change? A) stalling B) scapegoating C) misrepresenting D) stretching E) preventing

Answer: E Explanation: E) Prevention is a defensive behavior that involves trying to prevent a threatening change from occurring.

59) Will Cears works at Mesner Corp. as a middle-level manager. Will recognizes that his firm is plagued by organizational politics. Since he is not good at playing games, he frequently engages in defensive behaviors in order to protect himself and his interests. Will is frustrated because he believes that he has little control over his environment and his environment is uncomfortable to him. He has had some success at establishing a sense of control for himself by appearing to be cooperative and supportive to his colleagues. However, he continues to hold his reservations against politicking and does not engage in it. This is an example of ________ in order to avoid action, blame, or change. A) buffing B) buck passing C) scapegoating D) misrepresenting E) stalling

Answer: E Explanation: E) Stalling is appearing to be more or less supportive publicly while doing little or nothing privately.

29) Mike Ford is a senior accountant at Coleman and Co., which is a financial management company. Mike has wanted to be on the board of representatives of his company for a long time, but the company stipulates a minimum number of years an employee must work at the organization before he or she makes it to the board. Mike is unwilling to work two more years to reach that stipulated experience and so he found a way to transgress this rule. He met up with one of the existing board members who was having problems accounting for allocated funds that went missing and offered to settle that for him in his department provided he nominate Mike to the board. Which of the following power tactics is being used here? A) ingratiation B) legitimacy C) inspirational appeals D) pressure E) exchange

Answer: E Explanation: E) The power tactic used here is exchange, which involves rewarding the target with benefits or favors in exchange for following a request.

57) Under the zero-sum approach, rewards are distributed such that ________. A) rewards are equal and do not increase or decrease with changes in profit margins B) rewards increase for all employees at an identical rate C) any drop in profits reduces the pay of employees by an identical amount D) amount allocated for rewards is variable E) rewards increase for a group at the expense of loss for another group

Answer: E Explanation: E) The zero-sum approach treats the amount allocated for rewards as fixed so any gain one person or group achieves has to come at the expense of another person or group.