Chapter 19: Nursing Management of Pregnancy at Risk: Pregnancy-Related Complications

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A client has been admitted with placental abruption (abruptio placentae). She has lost 1,200 ml of blood, is normotensive, and ultrasound indicates approximately 30% separation. The nurse documents this as which classification of abruptio placentae?

grade 2 Explanation: The classifications for placental abruption (abruptio placentae) are: grade 1 (mild) - minimal bleeding (less than 500 ml), 10% to 20% separation, tender uterus, no coagulopathy, signs of shock or fetal distress; grade 2 (moderate) - moderate bleeding (1,000 to 1,500 ml), 20% to 50% separation, continuous abdominal pain, mild shock, normal maternal blood pressure, maternal tachycardia; grade 3 (severe) - absent to moderate bleeding (more than 1,500 ml), more than 50% separation, profound shock, dark vaginal bleeding, agonizing abdominal pain, decreased blood pressure, significant tachycardia, and development of disseminated intravascular coagulopathy. There is no grade 4.

A woman at 35 weeks' gestation with severe hydramnios is admitted to the hospital. The nurse recognizes that which concern is greatest regarding this client?

preterm rupture of membranes followed by preterm birth Explanation: Even with precautions, in most instances of hydramnios, there will be preterm rupture of the membranes because of excessive pressure, followed by preterm birth. The other answers are less concerning than preterm birth in this pregnancy.

A 35-year-old client is seen for her 2-week postoperative appointment after a suction curettage was performed to evacuate a hydatidiform mole. The nurse explains that the human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) levels will be reviewed every 2 weeks and teaches about the need for reliable contraception for the next 6 months to a year. The client states, "I'm 35 already. Why do I have to wait that long to get pregnant again?" What is the nurse's best response?

"A contraceptive is used so that a positive pregnancy test resulting from a new pregnancy will not be confused with the increased level of hCG that occurs with a developing malignancy." Explanation: Because of the risk of choriocarcinoma, the woman receives extensive treatment. Therapy includes baseline chest X-ray to detect lung metastasis, plus a physical exam (including a pelvic exam). Serum B-hCG levels weekly until negative results are obtained three consecutive times, then monthly for 6 to 12 months. The woman is cautioned to avoid pregnancy during this time because the increasing B-hCG levels associated with pregnancy would cause confusion as to whether cancer had developed. If after a year B-hCG serum titers are within normal levels, a normal pregnancy can be achieved.

A pregnant woman is diagnosed with placental abruption (abruptio placentae). When reviewing the woman's physical assessment in her medical record, which finding would the nurse expect?

firm, rigid uterus on palpation Explanation: The uterus is firm-to-rigid to the touch with abruptio placentae. It is soft and relaxed with placenta previa. Bleeding associated with abruptio placentae occurs suddenly and is usually dark in color. Bleeding also may not be visible. A gradual onset of symptoms is associated with placenta previa. Fetal distress or absent fetal heart rate may be noted with abruptio placentae. The woman with abruptio placentae usually experiences constant uterine tenderness on palpation.

A 28-year-old client with a history of endometriosis presents to the emergency department with severe abdominal pain and nausea and vomiting. The client also reports her periods are irregular with the last one being 2 months ago. The nurse prepares to assess for which possible cause for this client's complaints?

Ectopic pregnancy Explanation: The most commonly reported symptoms of ectopic pregnancy are pelvic pain and/or vaginal spotting. Other symptoms of early pregnancy, such as breast tenderness, nausea, and vomiting, may also be present. The diagnosis is not always immediately apparent because many women present with complaints of diffuse abdominal pain and minimal to no vaginal bleeding. Steps are taken to diagnose the disorder and rule out other causes of abdominal pain. Given the history of the client and the amount of pain, the possibility of ectopic pregnancy needs to be considered. A healthy pregnancy would not present with severe abdominal pain unless the client were term and she was in labor. With a molar pregnancy the woman typically presents between 8 to 16 weeks' gestation reporting painless (usually) brown to bright red vaginal bleeding. Placenta previa typically presents with painless, bright red bleeding that begins with no warning.

A pregnant women calls the clinic to report a small amount of painless vaginal bleeding. What response by the nurse is best?

" Please come in now for an evaluation by your health care provider." Explanation: Bleeding during pregnancy is always a deviation from normal and should be evaluated carefully. It may be life-threatening or it may be something that is not a threat to the mother and/or fetus. Regardless, it needs to be evaluated quickly and carefully. Telling the client it may be harmless is a reassuring statement, but does not suggest the need for urgent evaluation. Having the mother lay on her left side and drink water is indicated for cramping.

A client at 11 weeks' gestation experiences pregnancy loss. The client asks the nurse if the bleeding and cramping that occurred during the miscarriage were caused by working long hours in a stressful environment. What is the most appropriate response from the nurse?

"I can understand your need to find an answer to what caused this. Let's talk about this further." Explanation: Talking with the client may assist her to explore her feelings. She and her family may search for a cause for a spontaneous early bleeding so they can plan for future pregnancies. Even with modern technology and medical advances, however, a direct cause cannot usually be determined.

The nurse is teaching a prenatal class on potential problems during pregnancy to a group of expectant parents. The risk factors for placental abruption (abruptio placentae) are discussed. Which comment validates accurate learning by the parents?

"Placental abruption is quite painful and I will need to let the doctor know if I begin to have abdominal pain." Explanation: Placental abruption (abruptio placentae) occurs when there is a spontaneous separation of the placenta from the uterine wall. It can occur anywhere on the placenta and will cause painful, dark red vaginal bleeding. If the abruption is small, the ob/gyn will try to deliver the fetus vaginally. But if severe bleeding occurs or there is fetal distress, a cesarean birth will be performed. Women older than 35 are also at higher risk for developing placental abruption

A woman at 10 weeks' gestation comes to the clinic for an evaluation. Which assessment finding should the nurse prioritize?

A fundal height of 18 cm is larger than expected and should be further investigated for gestational trophoblastic disease (hydatidiform mole). One of the presenting signs is the uterus being larger than expected for date. Mild nausea would be a normal finding at 10 weeks' gestation. Blood pressure of 120/84 mm Hg would not be associated with hydatidiform mole and depending on the woman's baseline blood pressure may be within acceptable parameters for her. Bright red spotting might suggest a spontaneous abortion (miscarriage).

A client reporting she recently had a positive pregnancy test has reported to the emergency department stating one-sided lower abdominal pain. The health care provider has prescribed a series of tests. Which test will provide the most definitive confirmation of an ectopic pregnancy?

Abdominal ultrasound Explanation: An ectopic pregnancy refers to the implantation of the fertilized egg in a location other than the uterus. Potential sites include the cervix, uterus, abdomen, and fallopian tubes. The confirmation of the ectopic pregnancy can be made by an ultrasound, which would confirm that there was no uterine pregnancy. A quantitative hCG level may be completed in the diagnostic plan. hCG levels in an ectopic pregnancy are traditionally reduced. While this would be an indication, it would not provide a positive confirmation. The qualitative hCG test would provide evidence of a pregnancy, but not the location of the pregnancy. A pelvic exam would be included in the diagnostic plan of care. It would likely show an enlarged uterus and cause potential discomfort to the client but would not be a definitive finding.

A nurse is caring for a young woman who is in her 10th week of gestation. She comes into the clinic reporting vaginal bleeding. Which assessment finding best correlates with a diagnosis of hydatidiform mole?

Dark red, "clumpy" vaginal discharge Explanation: Women with hydatidiform mole ("molar pregnancy") often pass blood clots or watery brown/dark red discharge from the vagina in the first trimester. If a complete molar pregnancy continues into the second trimester undetected, other signs and symptoms appear. The woman often presents with complaints of dark to bright red vaginal bleeding and pelvic pain. Infrequently, she will report passage of grapelike vesicles.

A nurse is assessing a pregnant client with preeclampsia for suspected dependent edema. Which description of dependent edema is most accurate?

Dependent edema may be seen in the sacral area if the client is on bed rest. Explanation: The nurse should know that dependent edema may be seen in the sacral area if the client is on bed rest. Pitting edema leaves a small depression or pit after finger pressure is applied to a swollen area and can be measured. Dependent edema may occur in clients who are both ambulatory and on bed rest.

A client tells that nurse in the doctor's office that her friend developed high blood pressure on her last pregnancy. She is concerned that she will have the same problem. What is the standard of care for preeclampsia?

Have her blood pressure checked at every prenatal visit. Explanation: Preeclampsia and eclampsia are common problems for pregnant clients and require regular blood pressure monitoring at all prenatal visits. Antihypertensives are not prescribed unless the client is already hypertensive. Monitoring for headaches and swelling is a good predictor of a problem but doesn't address prevention—nor does it predict who will have hypertension. Taking aspirin has shown to reduce the risk in women who have moderate to high risk factors, but has shown no effect on those women with low risk factors.

Indications for Rho(D) immune globulin include isoimmunization, ectopic pregnancy, chorionic villus sampling, amniocentesis, prenatal hemorrhage, molar pregnancy, maternal trauma, percutaneous umbilical sampling, therapeutic or spontaneous abortion, fetal death, or fetal surgery.

Indications for Rho(D) immune globulin include isoimmunization, ectopic pregnancy, chorionic villus sampling, amniocentesis, prenatal hemorrhage, molar pregnancy, maternal trauma, percutaneous umbilical sampling, therapeutic or spontaneous abortion, fetal death, or fetal surgery.

A woman at 34 weeks' gestation presents to labor and delivery with vaginal bleeding. Which finding from the obstetric examination would lead to a diagnosis of placental abruption (abruptio placentae)?

Onset of vaginal bleeding was sudden and painful Explanation: Sudden onset of abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding with a rigid uterus that does not relax are signs of a placental abruption (abruptio placentae). The other findings are consistent with a diagnosis of placenta previa

A woman in labor suddenly reports sharp fundal pain accompanied by slight dark red vaginal bleeding. The nurse should prepare to assist with which situation?

Premature separation of the placenta Explanation: Premature separation of the placenta begins with sharp fundal pain, usually followed by dark red vaginal bleeding. Placenta previa usually produces painless bright red bleeding. Preterm labor contractions are more often described as cramping. Possible fetal death or injury does not present with sharp fundal pain. It is usually painless.

A client with a history of cervical insufficiency is seen for reports of pink-tinged discharge and pelvic pressure. The primary care provider decides to perform a cervical cerclage. The nurse teaches the client about the procedure. Which client response indicates that the teaching has been effective?

Purse-string sutures are placed in the cervix to prevent it from dilating." Explanation: The cerclage, or purse string suture, is inserted into the cervix to prevent preterm cervical dilation (dilatation) and pregnancy loss. Staples, glue, or a cervical cap will not prevent the cervix from dilating.

A woman at 28 weeks' gestation has been hospitalized with moderate bleeding that is now stabilizing. The nurse performs a routine assessment and notes the client sleeping, lying on the back, and electronic fetal heart rate (FHR) monitor showing gradually increasing baseline with late decelerations. Which action will the nurse perform first?

Reposition the client to left side. Explanation: The fetus is showing signs of fetal distress. The immediate treatment is putting the client in a side-lying position to ensure adequate perfusion to the fetus. After placing the client on the side, the nurse should re-assess the FHR and determine if oxygen, IV fluids, and calling the health care provider are needed.

A nurse is conducting a refresher program for a group of perinatal nurses. Part of the program involves a discussion of HELLP. The nurse determines that the group needs additional teaching when they identify which aspect as a part of HELLP?

elevated lipoproteins Explanation: The acronym HELLP represents hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelets. This syndrome is a variant of preeclampsia/eclampsia syndrome that occurs in 10% to 20% of clients whose diseases are labeled as severe

A novice nurse asks to be assigned to the least complex antepartum client. Which condition would necessitate the least complex care requirements?

gestational hypertension Explanation: Hypertensive disorders represent the most common complication of pregnancy. Gestational hypertension is elevated blood pressure without proteinuria, other signs of preeclampsia, or preexisting hypertension. Placental abruption (abruptio placentae), a separation of the placenta from the uterine wall; placenta previa (placenta covering the cervical os); and preeclampsia are high-risk, potentially life-threatening conditions for the fetus and mother during labor and birth.

The nurse is assessing a client at 12 weeks' gestation at a routine prenatal visit who reports something doesn't feel right. Which assessment findings should the nurse prioritize?

gestational hypertension, hyperemesis gravidarum, absence of FHR Explanation: The early development of gestational hypertension/preeclampsia, hyperemesis gravidarum, and the absence of FHR are suspicious for gestational trophoblastic disease. The elevated levels of hCG lead to the severe morning sickness. There is no fetus, so FHR, quickening, and evidence of a fetal skeleton would not be seen. The abdominal enlargement is greater than expected for pregnancy dates, but hCG, not hPL, levels are increased.

A client in her 20th week of gestation develops HELLP syndrome. What are features of HELLP syndrome? Select all that apply.

hemolysis elevated liver enzymes low platelet count Explanation: The HELLP syndrome is a syndrome involving hemolysis (microangiopathic hemolytic anemia), elevated liver enzymes, and a low platelet count. Hyperthermia and leukocytosis are not features of HELLP syndrome.

A woman at 8 weeks' gestation is admitted for ectopic pregnancy. She is asking why this has occurred. The nurse knows that which factor is a known risk factor for ectopic pregnancy?

history of endometriosis Explanation: The nurse needs to complete a full history of the client to determine if she had any other risk factors for an ectopic pregnancy. Adhesions, scarring, and narrowing of the tubal lumen may block the zygote's progress to the uterus. Any condition or surgical procedure that can injure a fallopian tube increases the risk. Examples include salpingitis, infection of the fallopian tube, endometriosis, history of prior ectopic pregnancy, any type of tubal surgery, congenital malformation of the tube, and multiple abortions (elective terminations of pregnancy). Conditions that inhibit peristalsis of the tube can result in tubal pregnancy. A high number of pregnancies, multiple gestation pregnancy, and the use of oral contraceptives are not known risk factors for ectopic pregnancy.

A nurse is providing care to a client who has been diagnosed with a common benign form of gestational trophoblastic disease. The nurse identifies this as:

hydatidiform mole. Explanation: Gestational trophoblastic disease comprises a spectrum of neoplastic disorders that originate in the placenta. The two most common types are hydatidiform mole (partial or complete) and choriocarcinoma. Hydatidiform mole is a benign neoplasm of the chorion in which the chorionic villi degenerate and become transparent vesicles containing clear, viscid fluid. Ectopic pregnancy, placenta accreta, and hydramnios fall into different categories of potential pregnancy complications.

Which measure would the nurse include in the plan of care for a woman with prelabor rupture of membranes if her fetus's lungs are mature?

labor induction Explanation: With prelabor rupture of membranes (PROM) in a woman whose fetus has mature lungs, induction of labor is initiated. Reducing physical activity, observing for signs of infection, and giving corticosteroids may be used for the woman with PROM when the fetal lungs are immature.

A 24-year-old client presents in labor. The nurse notes there is an order to administer Rho(D) immune globulin after the birth of her infant. When asked by the client the reason for this injection, which reason should the nurse point out?

prevent maternal D antibody formation. Explanation: Because Rho(D) immune globulin contains passive antibodies, the solution will prevent the woman from forming long-lasting antibodies which may harm a future fetus. The administration of Rho(D) immune globulin does not promote the formation of maternal D antibodies; it does not stimulate maternal D immune antigens or prevent fetal Rh blood formation.

The nurse is caring for a client with preeclampsia and understands the need to auscultate this client's lung sounds every 2 hours to detect which condition?

pulmonary edema Explanation: In the hospital, monitor blood pressure at least every 4 hours for mild preeclampsia and more frequently for severe disease. In addition, it is important to auscultate the lungs every 2 hours. Adventitious sounds may indicate developing pulmonary edema

A 44-year-old client has lost several pregnancies over the last 10 years. For the past 3 months, she has had fatigue, nausea, and vomiting. She visits the clinic and takes a pregnancy test; the results are positive. Physical examination confirms a uterus enlarged to 13 weeks' gestation; fetal heart tones are heard. Ultrasound reveals that the client is experiencing some bleeding. Considering the client's prenatal history and age, what does the nurse recognize as the greatest risk for the client at this time?

spontaneous abortion (miscarriage) Explanation: The client's advanced maternal age (pregnancy in a woman 35 years or older) increases her risk for spontaneous abortion (miscarriage). Hypertension, preterm labor, and prematurity are risks as this pregnancy continues. Her greatest risk at 13 weeks' gestation is losing this pregnancy.

A nurse is caring for a client with hyperemesis gravidarum. Which nursing action is the priority for this client?

Administer IV normal saline with vitamins and electrolytes. Explanation: The first choice for fluid replacement is generally normal saline with vitamins and electrolytes added. If the client does not improve after several days of bed rest, "gut rest," IV fluids, and antiemetics, then total parenteral nutrition or percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy tube feeding is instituted to prevent malnutrition.

A nurse is monitoring a client with PROM who is in labor and observes meconium in the amniotic fluid. What does the observation of meconium indicate?

fetal distress related to hypoxia Explanation: When meconium is present in the amniotic fluid, it typically indicates fetal distress related to hypoxia. Meconium stains the fluid yellow to greenish brown, depending on the amount present. A decreased amount of amniotic fluid reduces the cushioning effect, thereby making cord compression a possibility. A foul odor of amniotic fluid indicates infection. Meconium in the amniotic fluid does not indicate CNS involvement.

A pregnant client has been admitted with reports of brownish vaginal bleeding. On examination, there is an elevated human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) level, absent fetal heart sounds, and a discrepancy between the uterine size and the gestational age. The nurse interprets these findings to suggest which condition?

gestational trophoblastic disease Explanation: The client is most likely experiencing gestational trophoblastic disease, or a molar pregnancy. In gestational trophoblastic disease, there is an abnormal proliferation and eventual degeneration of the trophoblastic villi. The signs and symptoms of molar pregnancy include brownish vaginal bleeding, elevated hCG levels, discrepancy between the uterine size and the gestational age, and absent fetal heart sounds. Placental abruption is characterized by premature separation of the placenta. Ectopic pregnancy is a condition where there is implantation of the blastocyst outside the uterus. In placenta previa, the placental attachment is at the lower uterine segment.

What would be the physiologic basis for a placenta previa?

low placental implantation Explanation: The cause of placenta previa is usually unknown, but for some reason the placenta is implanted low instead of high on the uterus.

A pregnant woman has arrived to the office reporting vaginal bleeding. Which finding during the assessment would lead the nurse to suspect an inevitable spontaneous abortion (miscarriage)?

strong abdominal cramping Explanation: Strong abdominal cramping is associated with an inevitable spontaneous abortion (miscarriage). Slight vaginal bleeding early in pregnancy and a closed cervical os are associated with a threatened abortion. With an inevitable abortion, passage of the products of conception may occur. No fetal tissue is passed with a threatened abortion.

The nurse is caring for a pregnant client with fallopian tube rupture. Which intervention is the priority for this client?

Monitor the client's vital signs and bleeding. Explanation: A nurse should closely monitor the client's vital signs and bleeding (peritoneal or vaginal) to identify hypovolemic shock that may occur with tubal rupture. Beta-hCG level is monitored to diagnose an ectopic pregnancy or impending spontaneous abortion (miscarriage). Monitoring the mass with transvaginal ultrasound and determining the size of the mass are done for diagnosing an ectopic pregnancy. Monitoring the FHR does not help to identify hypovolemic shock.

A client at 27 weeks' gestation is admitted to the obstetric unit after reporting headaches and edema of her hands. Review of the prenatal notes reveals blood pressure consistently above 136/90 mm Hg. The nurse anticipates the health care provider will prescribe magnesium sulfate to accomplish which primary goal?

Prevent maternal seizures Explanation: The primary therapy goal for any client with preeclampsia is to prevent maternal seizures. Use of magnesium sulfate is the drug therapy of choice for severe preeclampsia and is only used to manage and attempt to prevent progression to eclampsia. Magnesium sulfate therapy does not have as a primary goal of decreasing blood pressure, decreasing protein in the urine, or reversing edema.

A woman at 9 weeks' gestation was unable to control the nausea and vomiting of hyperemesis gravidarum through conservative measures at home. With nausea and vomiting becoming severe, the woman was omitted to the obstetrical unit. Which action should the nurse prioritize?

establish IV for rehydration Explanation: With severe nausea and vomiting the client may be dehydrated upon coming to hospital for assistance, so establishing an IV line is the priority intervention. This will also allow for hydration, and if needed, the administration of an antiemetic to bypass the gastrointestinal tract. Although the nurse will explain the NPO status to the client (so that vomiting may be brought under control) and the likelihood of being placed on bed rest with bathroom privileges, these teaching are not the priority.

The following hourly assessments are obtained by the nurse on a client with preeclampsia receiving magnesium sulfate: 97.3oF (36.2oC), HR 88, RR 12 breaths/min, BP 148/110 mm Hg. What other priority physical assessments by the nurse should be implemented to assess for potential toxicity?

Reflexes Explanation: Reflex assessment is part of the standard assessment for clients on magnesium sulfate. The first change when developing magnesium toxicity may be a decrease in reflex activity. The health care provider needs to be notified immediately. A change in lung sounds and oxygen saturation are not indicative of magnesium sulfate toxicity. Hourly blood draws to gain information on the magnesium sulfate level are not indicated.

The nurse is caring for a woman at 32 weeks' gestation with severe preeclampsia. Which assessment finding should the nurse prioritize after the administration of hydralazine to this client?

Tachycardia Explanation: Hydralazine reduces blood pressure but is associated with adverse effects such as palpitation, tachycardia, headache, anorexia, nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. It does not cause gastrointestinal bleeding, blurred vision (halos around lights), or sweating. Magnesium sulfate may cause sweating.

A nurse is assessing a pregnant client for the possibility of preexisting conditions that could lead to complications during pregnancy. The nurse suspects that the woman is at risk for hydramnios based on which preexisting condition?

diabetes Explanation: Approximately 18% of all women with diabetes will develop hydramnios during their pregnancy. Hydramnios occurs in approximately 2% of all pregnancies and is associated with fetal anomalies of development.

Some women experience a rupture of their membranes before going into true labor. A nurse recognizes that a woman who presents with preterm premature rupture of membranes (PPROM) has completed how many weeks of gestation?

less than 37 weeks Explanation: Preterm premature rupture of membranes (PPROM) is defined as the rupture of the membranes prior to the onset of labor in a woman who is less than 37 weeks' gestation. PROM (premature rupture of membranes) refers to a woman who is beyond 37 weeks' gestation, has presented with spontaneous rupture of the membranes, and is not in labor.

A pregnant client with severe preeclampsia has developed HELLP syndrome. In addition to the observations necessary for preeclampsia, what other nursing intervention is critical for this client?

observation for bleeding Explanation: Because of the low platelet count associated with this condition, women with HELLP syndrome need extremely close observation for bleeding, in addition to the observations necessary for preeclampsia. Maintaining a patent airway is a critical intervention needed for a client with eclampsia while she is having a seizure. Administration of a tocolytic would be appropriate for halting labor. Monitoring for infection is not a priority intervention in this situation.


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