Chapter 20 & 21 Visual and Auditory Problems

A patient with septic shock is receiving multiple medications. Which intravenous (IV) medication is most likely to cause a hearing loss? a. Dopamine b. Ampicillin c. Aspirin d. Vancomycin

d. Vancomycin The IV medication in use that is most likely to cause a hearing loss is vancomycin (Vancocin) because it is an ototoxic medication. For that reason, serum drug levels are monitored to maintain therapeutic levels and reduce the risk of ototoxicity. Aspirin can also cause hearing loss, but it is not administered IV. Neither dopamine nor ampicillin is likely to cause hearing loss.

Which assessment finding alerts the nurse to provide patient teaching about cataract development? a. History of hyperthyroidism b. Unequal pupil size and shape c. Blurred vision and light sensitivity d. Loss of peripheral vision in both eyes

ANS: C Classic signs of cataracts include blurred vision and light sensitivity. Thyroid problems are a major cause of exophthalmos. Unequal pupil is indicative of anisocoria, not cataracts. Loss of peripheral vision is a sign of glaucoma

The nurse will instruct a patient who has undergone a left tympanoplasty to a. remain on bed rest. b. keep the head elevated c. avoid blowing the nose d. irrigate the left ear canal.

ANS: C Coughing or blowing the nose increases pressure in the eustachian tube and middle ear cavity and disrupts postoperative healing. There is no postoperative need for prolonged bed rest, elevation of the head, or continuous antibiotic irrigation.

Which information will the nurse provide to the patient scheduled for refractometry? a. "You will need to wear sunglasses for a few hours after the exam." b. "The surface of your eye will be numb while the doctor does the exam." c. "You should not take any of your eye medicines before the examination." d. "The doctor will shine a bright light into your eye during the examination."

ANS: A The pupils are dilated using cycloplegic medications during refractometry. This effect will last several hours and cause photophobia. The other teaching would not be appropriate for a patient who was having refractometry.

The nurse evaluates that wearing bifocals improved the patient's myopia and presbyopia by assessing for a. strength of the eye muscles. b. both near and distant vision. c. cloudiness in the eye lenses. d. intraocular pressure changes.

ANS: B The lenses are prescribed to correct the patient's near and distant vision. The nurse may also assess for cloudiness of the lenses, increased intraocular pressure, and eye movement, but these data do not evaluate whether the patient's bifocals are effective.

The patient reports a loss of central vision. What test should the nurse teach the patient about to identify changes in macular function? A) Amsler grid test B) B-scan ultrasonography C) Fluorescein angiography D) Intraocular pressure testing with Tono-Pen

A) Amsler grid test Rationale: The Amsler grid test is self-administered and regular testing is necessary to identify any changes in macular function. B-scan ultrasonography is used to diagnose ocular pathologic conditions (e.g., intraocular foreign bodies or tumors, vitreous opacities, retinal detachments). Fluorescein angiography is used to diagnose problems related to the flow of blood through pigment epithelial and retinal vessels. Intraocular pressure testing with a Tono-Pen is done to test for glaucoma.

A college student reports eye pain after studying for finals. What assessment should the nurse make first in determining the possible etiology of this eye pain? A) Do you wear contacts? B) Do you have any allergies? C) Do you have double vision? D) Describe the change in your vision.

A) Do you wear contacts? Rationale: College students frequently wear contact lenses and stay up late or all night studying for finals. If the student wears contacts, the wearing of them while studying, care of them, and length of wear time will be assessed before looking for a corneal abrasion from extended wear with fluorescein dye. There are no manifestations of allergies, diplopia, or visual changes mentioned.

A patient reporting frequent vertigo is scheduled for electronystagmography to test vestibular function. Which instructions should the nurse provide to the patient before the procedure? A) Eat a light meal before the procedure. B) Avoid carbonated beverages before the procedure. C) Take nothing by mouth for 3 hours before the procedure. D) No special dietary restrictions are needed until after the procedure.

A) Eat a light meal before the procedure. Rationale: Instruct patient to eat a light meal before the test to avoid nausea. Results of vestibular tests can be altered by use of caffeine, other stimulants, sedatives, and antivertigo drugs.

An older adult patient states they don't seem to hear well and have to ask people to repeat themselves. What should the nurse do first to determine the cause of the hearing loss? A) Look for cerumen in the ear. B) Assess for increased hair growth in the ear. C) Tell the patient it is probably related to aging. D) Ask the patient if he has fallen because of dizziness.

A) Look for cerumen in the ear. Rationale: Gerontologic differences in the assessment of the auditory system include increased production of and drier cerumen, which can become impacted in the ear canal and contribute to hearing loss. Conductive hearing loss with impacted cerumen may lead to speaking softly as the patient's voice conducted through bone seems loud to the patient. Although increased hair growth occurs, it will not impact the hearing. Presbycusis may be occurring, but it should not be assumed. There is no reason to ask the patient if he has fallen because dizziness and vertigo are not a normal change of aging of the ear.

A nurse should instruct a patient with recurrent staphylococcal and seborrheic blepharitis to a. irrigate the eyes with saline solution. b. schedule an appointment for eye surgery. c. use a gentle baby shampoo to clean the eyelids. d. apply cool compresses to the eyes three times daily.

ANS: C Baby shampoo is used to soften and remove crusts associated with blepharitis. The other interventions are not used in treating this disorder.

The nurse is assessing a patient who was recently treated with amoxicillin for acute otitis media of the right ear. Which finding is a priority to report to the health care provider? a. The patient has a temperature of 100.6° F. b. The patient complains of "popping" in the ear. c. Clear fluid is visible through the tympanic membrane. d. The patient frequently asks the nurse to repeat information.

ANS: A The fever indicates that the infection may not be resolved, and the patient might need further antibiotic therapy. A feeling of fullness, "popping" of the ear, decreased hearing, and fluid in the middle ear are indications of otitis media with effusion. These symptoms are normal for weeks to months after an episode of acute otitis media and usually resolve without treatment.

A patient with Ménière's disease is admitted with vertigo, nausea, and vomiting. Which nursing intervention will be included in the care plan? a. Dim the lights in the patient's room. b. Encourage increased oral fluid intake. c. Change the patient's position every 2 hours. d. Keep the head of the bed elevated 45 degrees.

ANS: A A darkened, quiet room will decrease the symptoms of the acute attack of Ménière's disease. Because the patient will be nauseated during an acute attack, fluids are administered IV. Position changes will cause vertigo and nausea. The head of the bed can be positioned for patient comfort.

The priority nursing diagnosis for a patient experiencing an acute attack with Meniere's disease is a. risk for falls related to episodic dizziness. b. impaired verbal communication related to tinnitus. c. self-care deficit (bathing and dressing) related to vertigo. d. imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements related to nausea.

ANS: A All the nursing diagnoses are appropriate, but because sudden attacks of vertigo can lead to "drop attacks," the major focus of nursing care is to prevent injuries associated with dizziness.

Which information about a patient who had a stapedotomy yesterday is most important for the nurse to communicate to the health care provider? a. Oral temperature is 100.8° F (38.1° C). b. The patient complains of ear "fullness." c. Small amount of dried drainage on dressing. d. The patient reports that hearing has gotten worse.

ANS: A An elevated temperature may indicate a postoperative infection. Although the nurse would report all the data, a temporary decrease in hearing, bloody drainage on the dressing, and a feeling of congestion (because of the accumulation of blood and drainage in the ear) are common after this surgery.

During the preoperative assessment of a patient scheduled for a right cataract extraction and intraocular lens implantation, it is important for the nurse to assess a. the visual acuity of the patient's left eye. b. how long the patient has had the cataract. c. for presence of a white pupil in the right eye. d. for a history of reactions to general anesthetics.

ANS: A Because it can take several weeks before the maximum improvement in vision occurs in the right eye, patient safety and independence are determined by the vision in the left eye. A white pupil in the operative eye would not be unusual for a patient scheduled for cataract removal and lens implantation. The length of time that the patient has had the cataract will not affect the perioperative care. Cataract surgery is done using local anesthetics rather than general anesthetics.

The nurse is providing health promotion teaching to a group of older adults. Which information will the nurse include when teaching about routine glaucoma testing? a. A Tono-pen will be applied to the surface of the eye. b. The test involves reading a Snellen chart from 20 feet. c. Medications will be used to dilate the pupils for the test. d. The examination involves checking the pupil's reaction to light.

ANS: A Glaucoma is caused by an increase in intraocular pressure, which would be measured using the Tono-pen. The other techniques are used in testing for other eye disorders

The nurse is assessing a 65-year-old patient for presbyopia. Which instruction will the nurse give the patient before the test? a. "Hold this card and read the print out loud." b. "Cover one eye at a time while reading the wall chart." c. "You'll feel a short burst of air directed at your eyeball." d. "A light will be used to look for a change in your pupils."

ANS: A The Jaeger card is used to assess near vision problems and presbyopia in persons over 40 years of age. The card should be held 14 inches away from eyes while the patient reads words in various print sizes. Using a penlight to determine pupil change is testing pupil response. A short burst of air may be used to test intraocular pressure but is not used for testing presbyopia. Covering one eye at a time while reading a wall chart at 20 feet describes the Snellen test

The nurse developing a teaching plan for a patient with herpes simplex keratitis should include which instruction? a. Wash hands frequently and avoid touching the eyes. b. Apply antibiotic drops to the eye several times daily. c. Apply a new occlusive dressing to the affected eye at bedtime. d. Use corticosteroid ophthalmic ointment to decrease inflammation.

ANS: A The best way to avoid the spread of infection from one eye to another is to avoid rubbing or touching the eyes and to use careful hand washing when touching the eyes is unavoidable. Occlusive dressings are not used for herpes keratitis. Herpes simplex is a virus, and antibiotic drops will not be prescribed. Topical corticosteroids are immunosuppressive and typically are not ordered because they can contribute to a longer course of infection and more complications.

Assessment of a patient's visual acuity reveals that the left eye can see at 20 feet what a person with normal vision can see at 50 feet and the right eye can see at 20 feet what a person with normal vision can see at 40 feet. The nurse records which finding? a. OS 20/50; OD 20/40 b. OU 20/40; OS 50/20 c. OD 20/40; OS 20/50 d. OU 40/20; OD 50/20

ANS: A When documenting visual acuity, the first number indicates the standard (for normal vision) of 20 feet and the second number indicates the line that the patient is able to read when standing 20 feet from the Snellen chart. OS is the abbreviation for left eye and OD is the abbreviation for right eye. The remaining three answers do not correctly describe the patient's visual acuity

The nurse is testing the visual acuity of a patient in the outpatient clinic. The nurse's instructions for this test include asking the patient to a. stand 20 feet from the wall chart. b. follow the examiner's finger with the eyes only. c. look at an object far away and then near to the eyes. d. look straight ahead while a light is shone into the eyes.

ANS: A When the Snellen chart is used to check visual acuity, the patient should stand 20 feet away. Accommodation is tested by looking at an object at both near and far distances. Shining a pen light into the eyes tests for pupil response. Following the examiner's fingers with the eyes tests extraocular movements.

Which topic will the nurse teach after a patient has had outpatient cataract surgery and lens implantation? a. Use of oral opioids for pain control b. Administration of corticosteroid drops c. Importance of coughing and deep breathing exercises d. Need for bed rest for the first 1 to 2 days after the surgery

ANS: B Antibiotic and corticosteroid eye drops are commonly prescribed after cataract surgery. The patient should be able to administer them using safe technique. Pain is not expected after cataract surgery, and opioids will not be needed. Coughing and deep breathing exercises are not needed because a general anesthetic agent is not used. There is no bed rest restriction after cataract surgery.

Which nursing activity is appropriate for the registered nurse (RN) working in the eye clinic to delegate to experienced unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? a. Instilling antiviral drops for a patient with a corneal ulcer b. Application of a warm compress to a patient's hordeolum c. Instruction about hand washing for a patient with herpes keratitis d. Looking for eye irritation in a patient with possible conjunctivitis

ANS: B Application of cold and warm packs is included in UAP education and the ability to accomplish this safely would be expected for UAP working in an eye clinic. Medication administration, patient teaching, and assessment

The charge nurse observes a newly hired nurse performing all the following interventions for a patient who has just undergone right cataract removal and an intraocular lens implant. Which one requires that the charge nurse intervene? a. The nurse leaves the eye shield in place. b. The nurse encourages the patient to cough. c. The nurse elevates the patient's head to 45 degrees. d. The nurse applies corticosteroid drops to the right eye.

ANS: B Because coughing will increase intraocular pressure, patients are generally taught to avoid coughing during the acute postoperative time. The other actions are appropriate for a patient after having this surgery.

Which statement by a patient with bacterial conjunctivitis indicates a need for further teaching? a. "I will wash my hands often during the day." b. "I will remove my contact lenses at bedtime." c. "I will not share towels with my friends or family." d. "I will monitor my family for eye redness or drainage."

ANS: B Contact lenses should not be used when patients have conjunctivitis because they can further irritate the conjunctiva. Hand washing is the major means to prevent the spread of conjunctivitis. Infection may be spread by sharing towels or other contact. It is common for bacterial conjunctivitis to spread through a family or other group in close contact.

A patient arrives in the emergency department complaining of eye itching and pain after sleeping with contact lenses in place. To facilitate further examination of the eye, fluorescein angiography is ordered. The nurse will teach the patient to a. hold a card and fixate on the center dot. b. report any burning or pain at the IV site. c. remain still while the cornea is anesthetized. d. let the examiner know when images shown appear clear.

ANS: B Fluorescein angiography involves injecting IV dye. If extravasation occurs, fluorescein is toxic to the tissues. The patient should be instructed to report any signs of extravasation such as pain or burning. The nurse should closely monitor the IV site as well. The cornea is anesthetized during ultrasonography. Refractometry involves measuring visual acuity and asking the patient to choose lenses that are the sharpest; it is a painless test. The Amsler grid test involves using a hand held card with grid lines. The patient fixates on the center dot and records any abnormalities of the grid lines

A nurse should include which instructions when teaching a patient with repeated hordeolum how to prevent further infection? a. Apply cold compresses. b. Discard used eye cosmetics. c. Wash the scalp and eyebrows with an antiseborrheic shampoo. d. Be examined for recurrent sexually transmitted infections (STIs).

ANS: B Hordeolum (styes) are commonly caused by Staphylococcus aureus, which may be present in cosmetics that the patient is using. Warm compresses are recommended to treat hordeolum. Antiseborrheic shampoos are recommended for seborrheic blepharitis. Patients with adult inclusion conjunctivitis, which is caused by Chlamydia trachomatis, should be referred for STI testing.

The occupational health nurse is caring for an employee who is complaining of bilateral eye pain after a cleaning solution splashed into the employee's eyes. Which action will the nurse take? a. Apply cool compresses. b. Flush the eyes with saline. c. Apply antiseptic ophthalmic ointment to the eyes. d. Cover the eyes with dry sterile patches and shields.

ANS: B In the case of chemical exposure, the nurse should begin treatment by flushing the eyes until the patient has been assessed by a health care provider and orders are available. No other interventions should delay flushing the eyes.

A patient with presbycusis is fitted with binaural hearing aids. Which information will the nurse include when teaching the patient how to use the hearing aids? a. Keep the volume low on the hearing aids for the first week. b. Experiment with volume and hearing in a quiet environment. c. Add the second hearing aid after making adjustments to the first hearing aid. d. Begin wearing the hearing aids for an hour a day, gradually increasing the use.

ANS: B Initially the patient should use the hearing aids in a quiet environment such as the home, experimenting with increasing and decreasing the volume as needed. There is no need to gradually increase the time of wear. The patient should experiment with the level of volume to find what works well in various situations. Both hearing aids should be used.

When teaching a patient about the treatment of acoustic neuroma, the nurse will include information about a. applying sunscreen. b. preventing fall injuries c. decreasing dietary sodium. d. chemotherapy side effects.

ANS: B Intermittent vertigo occurs with acoustic neuroma, so the nurse should include information about how to prevent falls. Diet is not a risk factor for acoustic neuroma and no dietary changes are needed. Sunscreen would be used to prevent skin cancers on the external ear. Acoustic neuromas are benign and do not require chemotherapy.

To determine whether treatment is effective for a patient with primary open-angle glaucoma (POAG), the nurse can evaluate the patient for improvement by a. questioning the patient about blurred vision. b. noting any changes in the patient's visual field. c. asking the patient to rate the pain using a 0 to 10 scale. d. assessing the patient's depth perception when climbing stairs.

ANS: B POAG develops slowly and without symptoms except for a gradual loss of visual fields. Acute closed-angle glaucoma may present with excruciating pain, colored halos, and blurred vision. Problems with depth perception are not associated with POAG.

A patient with glaucoma who has been using timolol (Timoptic) drops for several days tells the nurse that the eye drops cause eye burning and visual blurriness for a short time after administration. The best response to the patient's statement is a. "Those symptoms may indicate a need for a change in dosage of the eye drops." b. "The drops are uncomfortable, but it is important to use them to retain your vision." c. "These are normal side effects of the drug, which should be less noticeable with time." d. "Notify your health care provider so that different eye drops can be prescribed for you."

ANS: B Patients should be instructed that eye discomfort and visual blurring are expected side effects of the ophthalmic drops but that the drops must be used to prevent further visual-field loss. The temporary burning and visual blurriness might not lessen with ongoing use and do not indicate a need for a dosage or medication change.

The nurse is developing a plan of care for an adult patient diagnosed with adult inclusion conjunctivitis (AIC) caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. Which action should be included in the plan of care? a. Applying topical corticosteroids to decrease inflammation b. Discussing the need for sexually transmitted infection testing c. Educating about the use of antiviral eyedrops to treat the infection d. Assisting with applying for community visual rehabilitation services

ANS: B Patients with AIC have a high risk for concurrent genital Chlamydia infection and should be referred for sexually transmitted infection testing. AIC is treated with antibiotics. Antiviral and corticosteroid medications are not appropriate therapies. Although some types of Chlamydia infection do cause blindness, AIC does not lead to blindness, so referral for visual rehabilitation is not appropriate.

The nurse is performing an eye examination on a 76-year-old patient. The nurse should refer the patient for a more extensive assessment based on which finding? a. The patient's sclerae are light yellow. b. The patient reports persistent photophobia. c. The pupil recovers slowly after responding to a bright light. d. There is a whitish gray ring encircling the periphery of the iris.

ANS: B Photophobia is not a normally occurring change with aging, and would require further assessment. The other assessment data are common gerontologic differences and would not be unusual in a 76-year-old patient

Which action will the nurse take when performing ear irrigation for a patient with cerumen impaction? a. Assist the patient to a supine position for the irrigation. b. Fill the irrigation syringe with body-temperature solution. c. Use a sterile applicator to clean the ear canal before irrigating. d. Occlude the ear canal completely with the syringe while irrigating.

ANS: B Solution at body temperature is used for ear irrigation. The patient should be sitting for the procedure. Use of cotton-tipped applicators to clear the ear may result in forcing the cerumen deeper into the ear canal. The ear should not be completely occluded with the syringe.

Which patient arriving at the urgent care center will the nurse assess first? a. Patient with purulent left eye discharge and conjunctival inflammation b. Patient with acute right eye pain that began while using home power tools c. Patient who is complaining of intense discomfort after an insect crawled into the right ear d. Patient who has Ménière's disease and is complaining of nausea, vomiting, and dizziness

ANS: B The history and symptoms suggest eye trauma with a possible penetrating injury. Blindness may occur unless the patient is assessed and treated rapidly. The other patients should be treated as soon as possible, but do not have clinical manifestations that indicate any acute risk for vision or hearing loss.

A patient who underwent eye surgery is required to wear an eye patch until the scheduled postoperative clinic visit. Which nursing diagnosis will the nurse include in the plan of care? a. Disturbed body image related to eye trauma and eye patch b. Risk for falls related to temporary decrease in stereoscopic vision c. Ineffective health maintenance related to inability to see surroundings d. Ineffective denial related to inability to admit the impact of the eye injury

ANS: B The loss of stereoscopic vision created by the eye patch impairs the patient's ability to see in three dimensions and to judge distances. It also increases the risk for falls. There is no evidence in the assessment data for ineffective health maintenance, disturbed body image, or ineffective denial

Which prescribed medication should the nurse give first to a patient who has just been admitted to a hospital with acute angle-closure glaucoma? a. Morphine sulfate 4 mg IV b. Mannitol (Osmitrol) 100 mg IV c. Betaxolol (Betoptic) 1 drop in each eye d. Acetazolamide (Diamox) 250 mg orally

ANS: B The most immediate concern for the patient is to lower intraocular pressure, which will occur most rapidly with IV administration of a hyperosmolar diuretic such as mannitol. The other medications are also appropriate for a patient with glaucoma but would not be the first medication administered.

A 75-yr-old patient who lives alone at home tells the nurse, "I am afraid of losing my independence because my eyes don't work as well they used to." Which action should the nurse take first? a. Discuss the increased risk for falls that is associated with impaired vision. b. Ask the patient about what type of vision problems are being experienced. c. Explain that there are many ways to compensate for decreases in visual acuity. d. Suggest ways of improving the patient's safety, such as using brighter lighting.

ANS: B The nurse's initial action should be further assessment of the patient's concerns and visual problems. The other actions may be appropriate, depending on what the nurse finds with further assessment.

The nurse is observing a student who is preparing to perform an ear examination for a 30-year-old patient. The nurse will need to intervene if the student a. pulls the auricle of the ear up and posterior. b. chooses a speculum larger than the ear canal. c. stabilizes the hand holding the otoscope on the patient's head. d. stops inserting the otoscope after observing impacted cerumen.

ANS: B The speculum should be smaller than the ear canal so it can be inserted without damage to the external ear canal. The other actions are appropriate when performing an ear examination

Which action could the registered nurse (RN) who is working in the eye and ear clinic delegate to a licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/LVN)? a. Evaluate a patient's ability to administer eye drops. b. Check a patient's visual acuity using a Snellen chart. c. Inspect a patient's external ear for signs of irritation caused by a hearing aid. d. Teach a patient with otosclerosis about use of sodium fluoride and vitamin D.

ANS: B Using standardized screening tests such as a Snellen chart to test visual acuity is included in LPN education and scope of practice. Evaluation, assessment, and patient teaching are higher level skills that require RN education and scope of practice.

Unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) perform all the following actions when caring for a patient with Ménière's disease who is experiencing an acute attack. Which action by UAP indicates that the nurse should intervene? a. UAP raise the side rails on the bed. b. UAP turn on the patient's television. c. UAP place an emesis basin at the bedside. d. UAP helps the patient turn to the right side.

ANS: B Watching television may exacerbate the symptoms of an acute attack of Ménière's disease. The other actions are appropriate because the patient will be at high fall risk and may suffer from nausea during the acute attack.

Which statement by the patient to the home health nurse indicates a need for more teaching about self-administering eardrops? a. "I will leave the ear wick in place while administering the drops." b. "I will hold the tip of the dropper above the ear to administer the drops." c. "I will refrigerate the medication until I am ready to administer the drops." d. "I should lie down before and for 5 minutes after administering the drops."

ANS: C Administration of cold eardrops can cause dizziness because of stimulation of the semicircular canals. The other patient actions are appropriate.

A patient with a right retinal detachment had a pneumatic retinopexy procedure. Which information will be included in the discharge teaching plan? a. The use of eye patches to reduce movement of the operative eye b. The need to wear dark glasses to protect the eyes from bright light c. The purpose of maintaining the head resting in a prescribed position d. The procedure for dressing changes when the eye dressing is saturated

ANS: C Following pneumatic retinopexy, the patient will need to position the head so the air bubble remains in contact with the retinal tear. Dark lenses and bilateral eye patches are not required after this procedure. Saturation of any eye dressings would not be expected following this procedure.

A patient diagnosed with external otitis is being discharged from the emergency department with an ear wick in place. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching? a. "I will apply the eardrops to the cotton wick in the ear canal." b. "I can use aspirin or acetaminophen (Tylenol) for pain relief." c. "I will clean the ear canal daily with a cotton-tipped applicator." d. "I can use warm compresses to the outside of the ear for comfort."

ANS: C Insertion of instruments such as cotton-tipped applicators into the ear should be avoided. The other patient statements indicate that the teaching has been successful

A 65-year-old patient is being evaluated for glaucoma. Which information given by the patient has implications for the patient's treatment? a. "I use aspirin when I have a sinus headache." b. "I have had frequent episodes of conjunctivitis." c. "I take metoprolol (Lopressor) daily for angina." d. "I have not had an eye examination for 10 years."

ANS: C It is important to note whether the patient takes any b-adrenergic blockers because this classification of medications is also used to treat glaucoma, and there may be an increase in adverse effects. The use of aspirin does not increase intraocular pressure and is safe for patients with glaucoma. Although older patients should have yearly eye examinations, the treatment for this patient will not be affected by the 10-year gap in eye care. Conjunctivitis does not increase the risk for glaucoma

The nurse learns that a newly admitted patient has functional blindness and that the spouse has cared for the patient for many years. During the initial assessment of the patient, it is most important for the nurse to a. obtain more information about the cause of the patient's vision loss. b. obtain information from the spouse about the patient's special needs. c. make eye contact with the patient and ask about any need for assistance. d. perform an evaluation of the patient's visual acuity using a Snellen chart.

ANS: C Making eye contact with a partially sighted patient allows the patient to hear the nurse more easily and allows the nurse to assess the patient's facial expressions. The patient (rather than the spouse) should be asked about any need for assistance. The information about the cause of the vision loss and assessment of the patient's visual acuity are not priorities during the initial assessment.

The nurse at the outpatient surgery unit obtains the following information about a patient who is scheduled for cataract extraction and implantation of an intraocular lens. Which information is important to report to the health care provider at this time? a. The patient has had blurred vision for 3 years. b. The patient has not eaten anything for 8 hours. c. The patient takes 2 antihypertensive medications. d. The patient gets nauseated with general anesthesia.

ANS: C Mydriatic medications used for pupil dilation are sympathetic nervous system stimulants and may increase heart rate and blood pressure. Using punctal occlusion when administering the mydriatic and monitoring of blood pressure are indicated for this patient. Blurred vision is an expected finding with cataracts. Patients are expected to be NPO before the surgical procedure. Cataract extraction and intraocular lens implantation are done using local anesthesia.

Which action will the nurse include in the plan of care for a patient with benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV)? a. Teach the patient about use of medications to reduce symptoms. b. Place the patient in a dark, quiet room to avoid stimulating BPPV attacks. c. Teach the patient that canalith repositioning may be used to reduce dizziness. d. Speak with a low-pitched voice so that the patient is able to hear instructions.

ANS: C The Epley maneuver is used to reposition "ear rocks" in BPPV. Medications and placement in a dark room may be used to treat Ménière's disease, but are not necessary for BPPV. There is no hearing loss with BPPV.

A patient who has bacterial endophthalmitis in the left eye is restless, frequently asking whether the eye is healing and whether removal of the eye will be necessary. Based on the assessment data, which nursing diagnosis is appropriate at this time? a. Grieving related to current loss of functional vision b. Ineffective health management related to inability to see c. Anxiety related to the possibility of permanent vision loss d. Situational low self-esteem related to loss of visual function

ANS: C The patient's restlessness and questioning of the nurse indicate anxiety about the future possible loss of vision. Because the patient can see with the right eye, functional vision is relatively intact. There is no indication of impaired self-esteem at this time.

A patient with a head injury after a motorcycle crash arrives in the emergency department (ED) complaining of shortness of breath and severe eye pain. Which action will the nurse take first? a. Assess cranial nerve functions. b. Administer the prescribed analgesic. c. Check the patient's oxygen saturation. d. Examine the eye for evidence of trauma.

ANS: C The priority action for a patient after a head injury is to assess and maintain airway and breathing. Because the patient is complaining of shortness of breath, it is essential that the nurse assess the oxygen saturation. The other actions are also appropriate but are not the first action the nurse will take.

A patient who received a corneal transplant 2 weeks ago calls the ophthalmology clinic to report that his vision has not improved with the transplant. Which action should the nurse take? a. Suggest the patient arrange a ride to the clinic immediately. b. Ask about the presence of "floaters" in the patient's visual field. c. Remind the patient it may take months to restore vision after transplant. d. Teach the patient to continue using prescribed pupil-dilating medications.

ANS: C Vision may not be restored for up to 1 year after corneal transplant. Because the patient is not experiencing complications of the surgery, an emergency clinic visit is not needed. Because "floaters" are not associated with complications of corneal transplant, the nurse will not need to ask the patient about their presence. Corticosteroid drops, not mydriatic drops, are used after corneal transplant surgery.

The nurse performing an eye examination will document normal findings for accommodation when a. shining a light into the patient's eye causes pupil constriction in the opposite eye. b. a blink reaction follows touching the patient's pupil with a piece of sterile cotton. c. covering one eye for 1 minute and noting pupil constriction as the cover is removed. d. the pupils constrict while fixating on an object being moved closer to the patient's eyes.

ANS: D Accommodation is defined as the ability of the lens to adjust to various distances. The pupils constrict while fixating on an object being moved far away to near the eyes. The other responses may also be elicited as part of the eye examination, but they do not indicate accommodation

Which information will the nurse include for a patient contemplating a cochlear implant? a. Cochlear implants are not useful for patients with congenital deafness. b. Cochlear implants are most helpful as an early intervention for presbycusis. c. Cochlear implants improve hearing in patients with conductive hearing loss. d. Cochlear implants require extensive training in order to reach the full benefit.

ANS: D Extensive rehabilitation is required after cochlear implants for patients to receive the maximum benefit. Hearing aids, rather than cochlear implants, are used initially for presbycusis. Cochlear implants are used for sensorineural hearing loss and would not be helpful for conductive loss. They are appropriate for some patients with congenital deafness.

Which information will the nurse include when teaching a patient with herpes simplex type 1 keratitis? a. Use of natamycin (Natacyn) antifungal eyedrops b. Application of corticosteroid ophthalmic ointment c. Avoidance of nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) d. Completion of the prescribed series of oral acyclovir (Zovirax)

ANS: D Oral acyclovir may be ordered for herpes simplex infections. Corticosteroid ointments are usually contraindicated because they prolong the course of the infection. Herpes simplex type 1 is viral, not parasitic or fungal. Natamycin may be used for Acanthamoeba keratitis caused by a parasite. NSAIDs can be used to treat the pain associated with keratitis.

The nurse at the eye clinic made a follow-up telephone call to a patient who underwent cataract extraction and intraocular lens implantation the previous day. Which information is the priority to communicate to the health care provider? a. The patient requests a prescription refill for next week. b. The patient feels uncomfortable wearing an eye patch. c. The patient complains that the vision has not improved. d. The patient reports eye pain rated 5 (on a 0 to 10 scale).

ANS: D Postoperative cataract surgery patients usually experience little or no pain, so pain at a level 5 on a 10-point pain scale may indicate complications such as hemorrhage, infection, or increased intraocular pressure. The other information given by the patient indicates a need for patient teaching or follow-up does not indicate that complications of the surgery may be occurring.

The nurse is completing the admission database for a patient admitted with abdominal pain and notes a history of hypertension and glaucoma. Which prescribed medication should the nurse question? a. Morphine sulfate 4 mg IV b. Diazepam (Valium) 5 mg IV c. Betaxolol (Betoptic) 0.25% eyedrops d. Scopolamine patch (Transderm Scop) 1.5 mg

ANS: D Scopolamine is a parasympathetic blocker and will relax the iris, causing blockage of aqueous humor outflow and an increase in intraocular pressure. The other medications are appropriate for this patient.

When assessing a patient's consensual pupil response, the nurse should a. have the patient cover one eye while facing the nurse. b. observe for a light reflection in the center of both corneas. c. instruct the patient to follow a moving object using only the eyes. d. shine a light into one pupil and observe the response of both pupils.

ANS: D The consensual pupil response is tested by shining a light into one pupil and observing for both pupils to constrict. Observe the corneal light reflex to evaluate for weakness or imbalance of the extraocular muscles. In a darkened room, ask the patient to look straight ahead while a penlight is shone directly on the cornea. The light reflection should be located in the center of both corneas as the patient faces the light source. To perform confrontation visual field testing, the patient faces the examiner and covers one eye, then counts the number of fingers that the examiner brings into the visual field. Instructing the patient to follow a moving object only with the eyes is testing for visual fields and extraocular movements

When obtaining a health history from a 49-year-old patient, which patient statement is most important to communicate to the primary health care provider? a. "My eyes are dry now." b. "It is hard for me to see at night." c. "My vision is blurry when I read." d. "I can't see as far over to the side."

ANS: D The decrease in peripheral vision may indicate glaucoma, which is not a normal visual change associated with aging and requires rapid treatment. The other patient statements indicate visual problems (presbyopia, dryness, and lens opacity) that are considered a normal part of aging

To decrease the risk for future hearing loss, which action should the nurse implement with college students at the on-campus health clinic? a. Perform tympanometry. b. Schedule otoscopic examinations. c. Administer influenza immunizations. d. Discuss exposure to amplified music.

ANS: D The nurse should discuss the impact of amplified music on hearing with young adults and discourage listening to very amplified music, especially for prolonged periods. Tympanometry measures the ability of the eardrum to vibrate and would not help prevent future hearing loss. Although students are at risk for the influenza virus, being vaccinated does not help prevent future hearing loss. Otoscopic examinations are not necessary for all patients.

In reviewing a patient's medical record, the nurse notes that the last eye examination revealed an intraocular pressure of 28 mm Hg. The nurse will plan to assess a. visual acuity. b. pupil reaction. c. color perception. d. peripheral vision.

ANS: D The patient's increased intraocular pressure indicates glaucoma, which decreases peripheral vision. Because central visual acuity is unchanged by glaucoma, assessment of visual acuity could be normal even if the patient has worsening glaucoma. Color perception and pupil reaction to light are not affected by glaucoma.

Which finding in an emergency department patient who reports being struck in the right eye with a fist is a priority for the nurse to communicate to the health care provider? a. The patient complains of a right-sided headache. b. The sclera on the right eye has broken blood vessels. c. The area around the right eye is bruised and tender to the touch. d. The patient complains of "a curtain" over part of the visual field.

ANS: D The patient's sensation that a curtain is coming across the field of vision suggests retinal detachment and the need for rapid action to prevent blindness. The other findings would be expected with the patient's history of being hit in the eye.

A 72-yr-old patient with age-related macular degeneration (AMD) has just had photodynamic therapy. Which statement by the patient indicates that the discharge teaching has been effective? a. "I will use drops to keep my pupils dilated until my appointment." b. "I will need to use brighter lights to read for at least the next week." c. "I will not use facial lotions near my eyes during the recovery period." d. "I will cover up with long-sleeved shirts and pants for the next 5 days."

ANS: D The photosensitizing drug used for photodynamic therapy is activated by exposure to bright light and can cause burns in areas exposed to light for 5 days after the treatment. There are no restrictions on the use of facial lotions, medications to keep the pupils dilated would not be appropriate, and bright lights would increase the risk for damage caused by the treatment.

The nurse is working in an urgent care clinic that has standardized treatment protocols for implementation by nursing staff. After reviewing the history, physical assessment, and vital signs for a 60-yr-old patient as shown in the accompanying figure, which action should the nurse take first? a. Check the patient's blood glucose level. b. Take the blood pressure on the left arm. c. Use an irrigating syringe to clean the ear canals. d. Report a vision change to the health care provider.

ANS: D The sudden change in peripheral vision may indicate an acute problem, such as retinal detachment, that should be treated quickly to preserve vision. The other data about the patient are not indicative of any acute problem. The other actions are also appropriate, but the highest priority for this patient is prevention of blindness.

Which teaching point should the nurse plan to include when caring for a patient whose vision is corrected to 20/200? a. How to access audio books b. How to use a white cane safely c. Where Braille instruction is available d. Where to obtain hand-held magnifiers

ANS: D Various types of magnifiers can enhance the remaining vision enough to allow the performance of many tasks and activities of daily living. Audio books, Braille instruction, and canes usually are reserved for patients with no functional vision.

The safest technique for the nurse to use when assisting a blind patient in ambulating to the bathroom is to a. have the patient place a hand on the nurse's shoulder and guide the patient. b. lead the patient slowly to the bathroom, holding on to the patient by the arm. c. stay beside the patient and describe any obstacles on the path to the bathroom. d. walk slightly ahead of the patient, allowing the patient to hold the nurse's elbow.

ANS: D When using the sighted-guide technique, the nurse walks slightly in front and to the side of the patient and has the patient hold the nurse's elbow. The other techniques are not as safe in assisting a blind patient.

A patient complains of intermittent eye dryness. Which question should the nurse ask the patient to determine the etiology of this symptom? A) "Do you take ginkgo to treat asthma or tinnitus?" B) "What do you take if you have allergy symptoms?" C) "Are you taking propranolol for an anxiety disorder?" D) "How long have you been taking prednisone (Deltasone)?"

B) "What do you take if you have allergy symptoms?" Rationale: Antihistamines or decongestants taken for allergies or colds can cause ocular dryness. Ginkgo biloba is an herbal product and has been used to treat asthma and tinnitus. Side effects of ginkgo may include headache, nausea, gastrointestinal upset, diarrhea, dizziness, allergic skin reactions, and increased bleeding. β-Adrenergic blockers can potentiate drugs used to treat glaucoma. Long-term use of prednisone (corticosteroids) may contribute to the development of glaucoma or cataracts.

A patient has ptosis resulting from myasthenia gravis. Which assessment finding would the nurse expect to see in this patient? A) Redness and swelling of the conjunctiva B) Drooping of the upper lid margin in one or both eyes C) Redness, swelling, and crusting along the eyelid margins D) Small, superficial white nodules along the eyelid margin

B) Drooping of the upper lid margin in one or both eyes Rationale: Ptosis is the term used to describe drooping of the upper eyelid margin, which may be either unilateral or bilateral. Ptosis can be a result of mechanical causes, such as an eyelid tumor or excess skin, or from myogenic causes such as myasthenia gravis. Redness, swelling of the conjunctive, or crusting along the eyelid margins may indicate an infection such as viral or bacterial conjunctivitis. Small superficial white nodules along the eyelid margin may indicate hordeolum (sty).

The nurse is assessing a patient's medical history. What aspects of the patient's medical history are most likely to have potential consequences for the patient's visual system? A) Hypothyroidism and polycythemia B) Hypertension and diabetes mellitus C) Atrial fibrillation and atherosclerosis D) Vascular dementia and chronic fatigue

B) Hypertension and diabetes mellitus Rationale: Hypertension and diabetes frequently contribute to visual pathologies. The other health problems are less likely to have a direct, deleterious effect on a patient's vision.

When examining the patient's ear with an otoscope, the nurse observes discharge in the canal and the patient reports pain with the examination. What should the nurse next assess the patient for? A) Sebaceous cyst B) Swimmer's ear C) Metabolic disorder D) Serous otitis media

B) Swimmer's ear Rationale: Swimmer's ear or an infection of the external ear is probably the cause of the discharge and pain. Asking the patient about swimming, ear protection, and exposure to types of water can identify contact with contaminated water. After clearing the discharge, the tympanic membrane can be assessed for otitis media. A sebaceous cyst and metabolic disorders would not cause drainage or discomfort in the external ear canal.

A patient working in a noisy factory reports being off balance when standing or walking but not while lying down. What term will the nurse use to document this patient's symptoms? A) Vertigo Incorrect B) Syncope C) Dizziness Correct D) Nystagmus

C) Dizziness Rationale: Dizziness is a sensation of being off balance that occurs when standing or walking; it does not occur when lying down. Nystagmus is an abnormal eye movement that may be observed as a twitching of the eyeball or described by the patient as a blurring of vision with head or eye movement. Vertigo is a sense that the person or objects around the person are moving or spinning and is usually stimulated by movement of the head. Syncope is a brief lapse in consciousness accompanied by a loss in postural tone (fainting).

When assessing an adult patient's external ear canal and tympanum, what assessment techniques should the nurse use? A) Ask the patient to tip his or her head toward the nurse. B) Identify a pearl gray tympanic membrane as a sign of infection. C) Gently pull the auricle up and backward to straighten the canal. D) Identify a normal light reflex by the appearance of irregular edges.

C) Gently pull the auricle up and backward to straighten the canal. Rationale: When examining a patient's external ear canal and tympanum, ask the patient to tilt the head toward the opposite shoulder. Grasp and gently pull the auricle up and backward to straighten the canal. A healthy, normal tympanic membrane will appear pearl gray, white, or pink and have a cone-shaped light reflex.

A patient newly diagnosed with glaucoma asks the nurse what has made the pressure in the eyes so high. Which is the nurse's most accurate response? A) Back pressure from cardiac congestion causes corneal edema. B) Cerebral venous dilation prevents normal interstitial fluid resorption. C) Increased production of aqueous humor or blocked drainage increases pressure. Correct D) Congenital anomalies of the lacrimal gland or duct obstruct the passage of tears.

C) Increased production of aqueous humor or blocked drainage increases pressure. Rationale: Intraocular pressure is increased in glaucoma as a result of excess aqueous humor production or decreased outflow. Cardiac or cerebral circulation changes do not cause glaucoma. Lacrimal anomalies do not affect aqueous humor production.

Otoscopic examination of the patient's left ear indicates the presence of an exostosis. What does the nurse prepare to teach the patient about regarding the growth? A) Surgery B) Electrocochleography C) Monitoring of the growth D) Irrigation of the ear canal

C) Monitoring of the growth Rationale: An exostosis is a bony growth into the ear canal that normally does not require intervention or correction.

During a health history, a 43-yr-old teacher complains of increasing difficulty reading printed materials for the past year. What change related to aging does the nurse suspect? A) Myopia Incorrect B) Hyperopia C) Presbyopia Correct D) Astigmatism

C) Presbyopia Rationale: Presbyopia is a loss of accommodation causing an inability to focus on near objects. This occurs as a normal part of aging process starting around age 40 years. Myopia is nearsightedness (near objects are clear and far objects are blurred). Astigmatism results in visual distortion related to unevenness in the cornea. Hyperopia is farsightedness (near objects are blurred and far objects are clearly seen).

The nurse is assessing an older adult patient who has just been transferred to the long-term care facility. Which assessment question will best allow the nurse to assess for the presence of presbycusis? A) "Do you ever experience any ringing in your ears?" B) "Have you ever fallen down because you became dizzy?" C) "Do you ever have pain in your ears when you're chewing or swallowing?" D) "Have you noticed any change in your hearing in recent months and years?"

D) "Have you noticed any change in your hearing in recent months and years?" Rationale: Presbycusis is an age-related change in auditory acuity. Whereas ringing in the ears is termed tinnitus, dizziness and falls are related to balance and the function of the vestibular system. Presbycusis is not associated with pain during chewing and swallowing.

During the course of an interview to assess vision, a patient complains of dry eyes. What should the nurse implement next? A) Assess for contact lenses. B) Suggest saline eye drops. C) Ask about eyeglass usage. D) Check the medication list.

D) Check the medication list. Rationale: The nurse should evaluate the patient's medication list to identify agents that can contribute to dry eyes so follow-up nursing care can be planned. Dry eyes aggravate wearing contact lenses, but contact lenses do not normally cause dry eyes. The nurse should not suggest saline eye drops until the etiology of the dry eyes is determined. Eyeglasses do not cause dry eyes.

An older patient who is being admitted to the hospital repeatedly asks the nurse to "speak up so that I can hear you." Which action should the nurse take? a. Increase the speaking volume. b. Overenunciate while speaking. c. Speak normally but more slowly. d. Use more facial expressions when talking.

Patient understanding of the nurse's speech will be enhanced by speaking at a normal tone, but more slowly. Increasing the volume, overenunciating, and exaggerating facial expressions will not improve the patient's ability to comprehend.

The patient informs the nurse that he has a "sty" that has been present for some time on the upper eyelid and reports using warm moist compresses with no improvement. What is the best response by the nurse? a. "Go to the pharmacy to get some eye drops." b. "Come in so the ophthalmologist can assess the lesion." c. "The health care provider will need to inject it with an antibiotic." d. "Wash the eyelid margins with baby shampoo to remove the crusting."

a. "Come in so the ophthalmologist can assess the lesion." A chalazion may evolve from a "sty" or hordeolum as it did for this patient. Initial treatment is with warm compresses, but when they are ineffective, the lesion may be surgically removed or injected with corticosteroids. Washing the eyelid margins with baby shampoo is done with blepharitis.

Which finding related to primary open-angle glaucoma would the nurse expect to find when reviewing a patient's history and physical examination report? a. Absence of pain or pressure b. Blurred vision in the morning c. Seeing colored halos around lights d. Eye pain accompanied with nausea and vomiting

a. Absence of pain or pressure Primary open-angle glaucoma is typically symptom free, which explains why patients can have significant vision loss before a diagnosis is made unless regular eye examinations are being performed. Primary angle-closure glaucoma manifestations include sudden, excruciating pain in or around the eye, seeing colored halos around lights, and nausea and vomiting.

The nurse is providing discharge instructions for a patient using contact lenses who is diagnosed with bacterial conjunctivitis. What is most important for the nurse to include in the instructions? a. Discard all opened or used lens care products. b. Disinfect contact lenses by soaking in a cleaning solution for 48 hours. c. Put all used cosmetics in a plastic bag for 1 week to kill any bacteria before reusing. d. Disinfect all lens care products with the prescribed antibiotic drops for 1 week after infection.

a. Discard all opened or used lens care products. The patient who wears contact lenses and develops infections should discard all opened or used lens care products and cosmetics to decrease the risk of reinfection from contaminated products. The risk of conjunctivitis is increased with not disinfecting lenses properly, wearing contact lenses too long, or using water or homemade solutions to store and clean lenses.

A patient is prescribed intravenous (IV) gentamicin after repair of an intestinal perforation. The nurse should assess for which adverse effect of this medication? a. Hearing loss b. Exophthalmos c. Conjunctivitis d. Recurrent fever

a. Hearing loss Aminoglycosides such as gentamicin are drugs that are potentially ototoxic and may cause damage to the auditory nerve. When this drug is used, careful monitoring for hearing and balance problems (e.g., hearing loss, tinnitus, vertigo) is essential. Exophthalmos is related to a symptom of hyperthyroidism. Conjunctivitis is a bacterial or a viral infection of the conjunctiva. Recurrent fever can be related to many issues and is not related to the use of IV gentamicin.

The triage nurse at an ambulatory clinic receives a call from an individual with possible metal fragments in both eyes. Which instructions would the nurse provide for emergency care of this possible eye injury? a. "Remove any visible metal fragments." b. "Apply a loose dressing over your eyes." c. "Rinse your eyes immediately with water." d. "Keep your eyes open to allow tears to form."

b. "Apply a loose dressing over your eyes." An initial intervention for a penetrating eye injury includes covering the eye(s) with a dry, sterile patch and protective shield. The fragments should not be removed by the individual or others. Penetrating eye injuries should not be irrigated (only irrigate for chemical eye injuries).

The nurse is providing care for a patient with loss of hearing acuity over the past several years. Which statement by the nurse is most accurate? a. "This is often due to an infection that will resolve on its own." b. "Many people experience an age-related decline in their hearing." c. "This is likely an effect of your medications. Try stopping them for a few days." d. "You can likely accommodate for your hearing loss with a few small changes in your routine."

b. "Many people experience an age-related decline in their hearing." Presbycusis is a loss of hearing that is both common and age-related. Infections are most often accompanied by different symptoms. It would be inappropriate to counsel the patient to stop his medications. It would be simplistic to advise the patient to accommodate the hearing loss rather than seek intervention.

When teaching a patient about the pathophysiology related to open-angle glaucoma, which statement is most appropriate? a. "The retinal nerve is damaged by an abnormal increase in the production of aqueous humor." b. "There is decreased draining of aqueous humor in the eye, causing pressure damage to the optic nerve." c. "The lens enlarges with normal aging, pushing the iris forward, which then covers the outflow channels of the eye." d. "There is a decreased flow of aqueous humor into the anterior chamber by the lens of the eye blocking the papillary opening."

b. "There is decreased draining of aqueous humor in the eye, causing pressure damage to the optic nerve." With primary open-angle glaucoma, there is increased intraocular pressure because the aqueous humor cannot drain from the eye. This leads to damage to the optic nerve over time. Primary angle-closure glaucoma is caused by the lens bulging forward and blocking the flow of aqueous humor into the anterior chamber.

When using the otoscope, the nurse is unable to see the landmarks or light reflex of the tympanic membrane. The tympanic membrane is bulging and red. What does the nurse determine is most likely occurring in the patient's ear? a. Swimmer's ear b. Acute otitis media c. Impacted cerumen d. Chronic otitis media

b. Acute otitis media The manifestations of inability to see the landmarks or light reflex of the tympanic membrane and the bulging and redness of the tympanic membrane are those of acute otitis media. With swimmer's ear and chronic otitis media, there is frequently drainage in the external auditory canal. Impacted cerumen would block the visualization of the tympanic membrane.

A patient with Ménière's disease had decompression of the endolymphatic sac to reduce the frequent and incapacitating attacks being experienced. What should the nurse include in the discharge teaching for this patient? a. Airplane travel will be more comfortable now. b. Avoid sudden head movements or position changes. c. Cough or blow the nose to keep the Eustachian tubes clear. d. Take antihistamines, antiemetics, and sedatives for recovery.

b. Avoid sudden head movements or position changes. After ear surgery, the patient should avoid sudden head movements or position changes. The patient should not cough or blow the nose because this increases pressure in the Eustachian tube and middle ear cavity and may disrupt healing. Airplane travel should be avoided at first as increased pressure and ear popping is normally experienced, which will disrupt healing. Antihistamines, antiemetics, and sedatives are used to decrease the symptoms of acute attacks of Ménière's disease.

An acoustic neuroma is removed from a patient. The nurse instructs the patient about tumor recurrence. What should the nurse instruct the patient to monitor (select all that apply.)? Select all that apply. a. Lack of coordination b. Episodes of dizziness c. Worsening of hearing d. Inability to close the eye e. Clear drainage from the nose

b. Episodes of dizziness c. Worsening of hearing d. Inability to close the eye An acoustic neuroma is a unilateral benign tumor that occurs where the vestibulocochlear nerve (cranial nerve [CN] VIII) enters the internal auditory canal. Clinical manifestations of tumor recurrence including facial nerve (CN VII) paralysis can be manifested by intermittent vertigo, hearing loss, and inability to close the eye. Lack of coordination and clear nasal drainage do not manifest with acoustic neuroma.

A patient is diagnosed with severe myopia. Which type of correction is the patient planning to have if they state, "I can't wait to be able to see after they implant a contact lens over my lens"? a. Photorefractive keratectomy (PRK) b. Phakic intraocular lenses (phakic IOLs) c. Refractive intraocular lens (refractive IOL) d. Laser-assisted in situ keratomileusis (LASIK)

b. Phakic intraocular lenses (phakic IOLs) Phakic intraocular lenses (phakic IOLs) is the implantation of a contact lens in front of the natural lens. PRK is used with low to moderate amounts of myopia, and the epithelium is removed and the laser sculpts the cornea to correct the refractive error. Refractive IOL is also for patients with a high degree of myopia or hyperopia and involves removing the natural lens and implanting an intraocular lens. LASIK surgery is similar to PRK except that the epithelium is replaced after surgery.

The nurse is examining a patient's ear in the clinic to determine if recent treatment for acute otitis media has been effective. Which assessment finding indicates resolution of the middle ear infection? a. Fenestrations are visible in the tympanic membrane. b. Tympanic membrane is gray, shiny, and translucent. c. Cone of light is not visible on the tympanic membrane. d. Tympanic membrane is blue and bulging with no landmarks.

b. Tympanic membrane is gray, shiny, and translucent. The tympanic membrane (TM) is normally pearly gray, white or pink, shiny, and translucent. Perforation of the TM that has not healed will appear as open areas of the tympanic membrane. The absence of the cone of light indicates a retracted TM. A bulging red or blue eardrum and lack of landmarks indicates a fluid-filled middle ear. The fluid may be pus or blood.

The nurse is preparing to administer timolol eye drops for treatment of glaucoma. What statement made by the patient would cause the nurse to hold the medication and report to the health care provider? a. "I have sinusitis." b. "I have migraine headaches a lot." c. "I have chronic obstructive pulmonary disease." d. "I have a history of chronic urinary tract infections."

c. "I have chronic obstructive pulmonary disease." Timolol is a nonselective β-adrenergic blocker that could lead to bronchoconstriction and bronchospasm. For this reason, it should not be used in patients with COPD. Timolol may be used to treat migraine headaches, and it does not affect sinusitis or chronic urinary tract infections.

The nurse is providing discharge teaching to a patient with type 2 diabetes after a scleral buckling procedure. Which statement, if made by the patient, indicates that the discharge teaching is effective? a. "I doubt my other eye will ever be affected." b. "I can expect severe pain after this procedure." c. "I should avoid lifting heavy objects and straining." d. "The procedure will correct my vision immediately."

c. "I should avoid lifting heavy objects and straining." Patients should avoid heavy lifting (more than 20 lb.) and straining. A patient with a detached retina is at risk for detachment of the other retina. Patients usually have little to no discomfort after scleral buckling. Severe, persistent pain should be reported immediately to the health care provider. Vision is restored in about 90% of retinal detachments. Vision will not be restored immediately and takes days to weeks to improve.

When planning care for a patient with disturbed sensory perception related to increased intraocular pressure caused by primary open-angle glaucoma, what nursing action would be a priority? a. Recognizing that eye damage caused by glaucoma can be reversed in the early stages b. Giving anticipatory guidance about the eventual loss of central vision that will occur c. Encouraging compliance with drug therapy for the glaucoma to prevent loss of vision d. Managing the pain experienced by patients with glaucoma that persists until the optic nerve atrophies

c. Encouraging compliance with drug therapy for the glaucoma to prevent loss of vision Drug therapy is necessary to prevent the eventual vision loss that may occur as a consequence of glaucoma. For this reason, encourage the patient to remain compliant with drug therapy.

When administering eye drops to a patient with glaucoma, which nursing measure is most appropriate to minimize systemic effects of the medication? a. Apply pressure to each eyeball for a few seconds after administration. b. Have the patient close the eyes and move them back and forth several times. c. Have the patient put pressure on the inner canthus of the eye after administration. d. Have the patient try to blink out excess medication immediately after administration.

c. Have the patient put pressure on the inner canthus of the eye after administration. Systemic absorption can be minimized by applying pressure to the inner canthus of the eye. The other options will not minimize systemic effects of the medication.

A patient is recovering from a motor vehicle crash that resulted in blindness. The patient is withdrawn and refuses to get out of bed. What is the nurse's priority goal for this patient? a. Use suitable coping strategies to reduce stress. b. Identify patient's strengths and support system. c. Verbalize feelings related to visual impairment. d. Transition successfully to the sudden vision loss.

c. Verbalize feelings related to visual impairment. The nurse's priority is to help the patient express his feelings about the vision loss resulting from the lack of coping effectively with the situation. Until the patient expresses how they feel, they will be unable to progress in the rehabilitation process.

The nurse is teaching a patient about timolol eye drops for the treatment of glaucoma. What statement made by the patient demonstrates that teaching was effective? a. "I may feel some palpitations after instilling these eye drops." b. "I should withhold this medication if my blood pressure becomes elevated." c. "I should keep my eyes closed for 15 minutes after instilling these eye drops." d. "I may have some temporary blurring of vision after instilling these eye drops."

d. "I may have some temporary blurring of vision after instilling these eye drops." It is common for patients to have a temporary blurring of vision for a few minutes after instilling eye drops. This should not cause concern to the patient. Because timolol is a β-blocker, heart rate may slow, and blood pressure is more likely to decrease if absorbed systemically.

The nurse instructs a patient prescribed dipivefrin eye drops to manage chronic open-angle glaucoma. Which statement, if made by the patient to the nurse, indicates that further teaching is needed? a. "The eye drops could cause a fast heart rate and high blood pressure." b. "I will need to take the eye drops twice a day for at least 2 to 3 months." c. "I may experience eye discomfort and redness from the use of these eye drops." d. "I will apply gentle pressure on the inside corner of my eye after each eye drop."

d. "I will apply gentle pressure on the inside corner of my eye after each eye drop." To avoid systemic reactions such as tachycardia and hypertension, the patient should apply punctual occlusion after instillation of the eye drops. Dipivefrin will control chronic open-angle glaucoma but will not cure the disease. Side effects associated with dipivefrin include ocular discomfort and redness, tachycardia, and hypertension.

The nurse is teaching a patient with glaucoma about administration of pilocarpine. What statement is important for the nurse to include during the instructions? a. "Prolonged eye irritation is an expected adverse effect of this medication." b. "This medication will help to raise intraocular pressure to a near normal level." c. "This medication needs to be continued for at least 5 years after your initial diagnosis." d. "It is important not to do activities requiring visual acuity immediately after administration."

d. "It is important not to do activities requiring visual acuity immediately after administration." Pilocarpine causes blurred vision and difficulty in focusing, so it is important not to engage in any activities requiring visual acuity until the vision clears. It should not cause prolonged eye irritation, and this should be immediately reported to the prescribing care provider. This medication will decrease intraocular pressure.

A patient with poor visual acuity is diagnosed with age-related macular degeneration (AMD). Which nursing action should be the nurse's priority? a. Teach about visual enhancement techniques. b. Teach nutritional strategies to improve vision. c. Assess coping strategies and support systems. d. Assess impact of vision on normal functioning.

d. Assess impact of vision on normal functioning. The most important nursing intervention is to assess the patient's ability to function with the visual impairment. The nurse will use this information to plan nursing care, including assessment of the patient's coping strategies and teaching about vision enhancement techniques and nutrition.

When administering a scheduled dose of pilocarpine, in which area should the nurse place the drops? a. Inner canthus b. Outer canthus c. Center of the eyeball d. Lower conjunctival sac

d. Lower conjunctival sac Ocular medications such as pilocarpine should be instilled into the lower conjunctival sac. Never apply eye drops directly to the cornea. Applying the drops to the inner canthus will cause them to be distributed systemically.

A patient is scheduled for a corneal transplant and is concerned regarding the difficulty with vision that may last for up to 12 months after the transplant. What is the best response by the nurse? a. If the transplant is done soon after the donor dies, there will not be as much trouble recovering vision. b. The astigmatism the patient is experiencing may be corrected with glasses or rigid contact lenses. c. Increasing the amount of light and using a magnifier to read will be helpful if a transplant is not wanted. d. There are newer procedures in which only the damaged cornea epithelial layer is replaced, and they have a faster recovery.

d. There are newer procedures in which only the damaged cornea epithelial layer is replaced, and they have a faster recovery. The new procedures are called Descemet's stripping endothelial keratoplasty (DSEK) and Descemet's membrane endothelial keratoplasty (DMEK). Corneal transplants should be done as soon as possible, but this does not affect the rate of visual recovery. Astigmatism is not experienced with corneal scars and opacities requiring a corneal transplant. Increasing light and magnification helps a person with cataracts to read.