chapter 22

Which of the following is an important function of the skin? a. Control body temperature b. Hold muscle to bone c. Produce antibodies d. Manufacture blood cells e. All of the answer choices are correct.

a. Control body temperature

the main effect of staphylococcal protein A is to a. interfere with phagocytosis b. enhance the attachment of the Fc portion of antibody to phagocytes c. coagulate plasma d. kill white blood cells e. degrade collagen

a. interfere with phagocytosis

Why is Rickettsia rickettsii difficult to grow in culture? a. it is an obligate intracellular parasite. b. It is Gram-negative. c. It is an obligate anaerobe. d. It is a double-stranded DNA virus. e. It is resistant to multiple antibiotics.

a. it is an obligate intracellular parasite.

which of the following statements is more likely to be true of measles (rubeola) than of german measles (rubella) a. koplik spots are present b. it causes birth defects c. it causes only a mild disease d. humans are the only natural host e. attenuated virus vaccine is available for prevention

a. koplik spots are present

Warts are caused by a. papillomaviruses. b. herpes virus. c. coronavirus. d. adenoviruses. e. parvovirus.

a. papillomaviruses.

all of the following are true of Rocky Mountain spotted fever except a. the disease is most prevalent in the western US b. it is caused by an obligate intracellular bacterium c. it is a zoonosis transmitted to humans by ticks d. those with the disease characteristically develop a hemorrhagic rash e. antibiotic therapy is usually curative if given early in the disease

a. the disease is most prevalent in the western US

The main vector(s) of Rocky Mountain spotted fever in the western United States is/are ________. a. ticks b. mosquitoes AND ticks c. fleas AND mites d. bats AND humans e. humans

a. ticks

Chickenpox and measles are both acquired by the respiratory route. a. true b. false

a. true

Coagulase-positive S. aureus is often involved in disease. a. true b. false

a. true

Complications of measles may include pneumonia and encephalitis. a. true b. false

a. true

Humans are the only reservoir for varicella-zoster virus. a. true b. false

a. true

The skin-invading molds are collectively called dermatophytes a. true b. false

a. true

The secretions of the sweat and sebaceous glands provide ________ to the microbiota. a. water, amino acids, AND lipids b. lipids AND amino acids c. sebum OR amino acids d. amino acids OR water e. water

a. water, amino acids, AND lipids

Which of the following virulence factors used by Staphylococcus puts holes in host cells? a. Clumping factor b. Alpha toxin c. Membrane attack complex d. Leukocidin e. Protein A

b. Alpha toxin

If an individual in the infectious stage of chickenpox comes into contact with a person who had chickenpox as a child, that second person a. will develop shingles. b. will be unaffected by the contact. c. will develop a second case of chickenpox OR will develop shingles. d. will remain healthy if they receive zoster immune globulin. e. will develop a second case of chickenpox.

b. will be unaffected by the contact.

The protein produced by S. aureus that interferes with phagocytosis is a. collagen. b. M protein. c. protein A. d. capsular protein. e. flagellin.

c. protein A.

if a woman begins to develop shingles, which of the following can you conclude a. she was recently exposed to someone who had chickenpox b. she was recently exposed to someone who had shingles c. she had chickenpox in the past d. she had shingles in the past e. the rash will likely spread over her entire trunk and extremities

c. she had chickenpox in the past

Reactivation of chickenpox is called a. herpes zoster. b. exanthems. c. shingles AND herpes zoster d. pneumonia. e. shingles.

c. shingles AND herpes zoster

all of the following must be cultivated in cell cultures instead of cell free media except a. rickettsia rickettsii b. rubella virus c. varicella zoster virus d. Candida albcians e. rubeola virus

d. Candida albcians

Which of the following may aid Staphylococcus in resisting phagocytosis? a. Lipase b. Hemolysin c. Leukocidin d. Coagulase e. Granulation enzyme

d. Coagulase

After being bitten by an infected tick, transfer of the rickettsial organism occurs a. within 20 minutes. b. immediately. c. within 5 minutes. d. after 7 days. e. within 4-10 hours.

e. within 4-10 hours.

A common viral rash of childhood with the popular name chickenpox is also known as a. rubella. b. rubeola. c. salmonella. d. bariola. e. varicella-zoster.

e. varicella-zoster.

The member of the normal microbiota sometimes considered responsible for tinea versicolor is a. Malassezia species. b. Candida species. c. Staphylococcus species. d. Streptococcus species. e. diphtheroids.

a. Malassezia species.

Which of the following is an obligate intracellular parasite? a. Rickettsia rickettsii b. Streptococcus pyogenes c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa d. Staphylococcus epidermidis e. Micrococcus luteus

a. Rickettsia rickettsii

The existence of extensive scalded skin syndrome does not indicate that Staphylococcus is growing in all the affected areas. Why not? a. This condition is caused by an exotoxin produced by certain strains of this microbe, and NOT directly by the microbe itself. b. Scalded skin occurs when a person eats exfoliatin-contaminated food, not by an infection. c. This microbe grows in the blood; endotoxins it releases are transported to the skin, where it causes the observed effect. d. This condition isn't caused by Staphylococcus at all. e. This condition is caused by an endotoxin produced by certain strains of this microbe, and NOT directly by the microbe itself.

a. This condition is caused by an exotoxin produced by certain strains of this microbe, and NOT directly by the microbe itself.

In many people, the growth of C. acnes within hair follicles leads toa, a. acne. b. carbuncles. c. boils. d. eczema. e. all of these.

a. acne.

The most serious consequence of rubella is a. birth defects. b. deafness. c. meningitis. d. encephalitis. e. subacute sclerosing panencephalitis.

a. birth defects.

Why would a non-immune pregnant woman not be given the MMRV vaccine? a. the MMRV vaccine is attenuated, and a pregnant woman is at great risk of developing a reaction to it. b. This is an attenuated vaccine, so there is a slight risk that her fetus might develop congenital rubella syndrome. c. The MMRV vaccine always affects stem fetal cells, causing severe and life-threatening birth defects. d. The adjuvant of the MMRV vaccine is highly toxic and damaging to a developing fetus. e. Babies of women vaccinated during pregnancy frequently develop the complication of pneumonia.

b. This is an attenuated vaccine, so there is a slight risk that her fetus might develop congenital rubella syndrome.

A protein associated with a more virulent form of Staphylococcus is a. mannose. b. coagulase. c. catalase. d. streptokinase. e. leukocidin.

b. coagulase.

The S. aureus product that causes scalded skin syndrome is a. peeling toxin. b. exfoliation toxin. c. protein M. d. lipases. e. leukocidins.

b. exfoliation toxin.

What is eschar (a sign of cutaneous anthrax)? a. a large black scar b. Swelling with trapped gas c. Dead tissue resembling a flat scab d. A small, red, fluid-filled vesicle e. An ulcer surrounded by swelling

c. Dead tissue resembling a flat scab

How does protein A help Staphylococcus aureus evade phagocytes? a. It binds the Fab portion of antibodies, interfering with opsonizaton and phagocytosis. b. It coats the bacterial cell, destroying LPS and preventing recognition by phagocytes. c. It binds the Fc portion of antibodies, interfering with opsonizaton and phagocytosis. d. It makes holes in the cytoplasmic membrane of phagocytes, killing them. e. It degrades complement protein C5a, preventing phagocyte recruitment and attachment.

c. It binds the Fc portion of antibodies, interfering with opsonizaton and phagocytosis.

In addition to S. aureus, impetigo may also involve a. Cutibacterium species. b. S. epidermidis. c. S. pyogenes. d. Pseudomonas species. e. M. luteus.

c. S. pyogenes.

Which of the following is not involved in the pathogenesis of RMSF? a. Host cells rupture following damage caused by bacterial cells propelling themselves from one cell to another. b. Vasculitis leads to clotting and small areas of necrosis, causing a hemorrhagic skin rash and damaging tissue in the brain, heart, kidneys, and other organs. c. The pathogen releases an A-B toxin that attaches to receptors on TH cell cytoplasmic membranes, leading to destruction of those cells. d. Disseminated intravascular coagulation that leads to organ damage may occur following release of endotoxin into the bloodstream. e. Endotoxin released into the bloodstream from the rickettsial cell walls results in systemic inflammation.

c. The pathogen releases an A-B toxin that attaches to receptors on TH cell cytoplasmic membranes, leading to destruction of those cells.

Which of the following is NOT true about diphtheroids? a. They are part of the normal microbiota of the skin. b. They are responsible for body odor. c. They include Malassezia species. d. They include Cutibacterium acnes. e. These are all true.

c. They include Malassezia species.

which of the following statements is true of streptococcal impetigo a. it is caused by a gram negative rod b. it cannot be transmitted from one person to another c. pathogenic streptococci all produce coagulase d. all of the above e. none of the above

e. none of the above

Why does the rash of shingles occur in only a limited region, as opposed to the widespread rash of chickenpox? a. In chickenpox, the replicating virus originates from multiple infected nerve cells, while in shingles it is limited to the bloodstream. b. This question is misleading because the rash of both chickenpox and shingles is widespread throughout the body. c. The chickenpox virus is a double-stranded DNA virus that is able to infect any nucleated cells, while the shingles virus is a single-stranded RNA virus that only infects epidermal cells. d. In shingles, the replicating virus originates from a single infected nerve cell, while in chickenpox it is spread throughout the bloodstream. e. In chickenpox, the virus spreads through the bloodstream to all parts of the body, while in shingles, the virus remains in the chest area after inhalation.

d. In shingles, the replicating virus originates from a single infected nerve cell, while in chickenpox it is spread throughout the bloodstream.

Why is Legionella pneumophila detected using immunofluorescence? a. It is an acid-fast bacterium. b. It is Gram-non-reactive. c. It lacks a peptidoglycan cell wall. d. It stains poorly with conventional dyes. d. It is a virus.

d. It stains poorly with conventional dyes.

Why is staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome sometimes fatal? a. The first line of defense is compromised, putting the patient at risk of severe dehydration. b. The first line of defense is compromised, putting the patient at risk secondary bacterial infection. c. The causative organism is Gram-negative and may cause endotoxic shock. d. The first line of defense is compromised, putting the patient at risk of both dehydration and secondary bacterial infection. e. Exfoliatin can bind to cardiac cells, causing disruption of the heart rhythm and heart failure.

d. The first line of defense is compromised, putting the patient at risk of both dehydration and secondary bacterial infection.

which of the following contributes to the virulence of Streptococcus pyogenes a. protease b. hyaluronidase c. DNase d. all of the above e. none of the above

d. all of the above

The portal(s) of entry for varicella-zoster virus is/are a. the genitourinary tract AND the gastrointestinal tract. b. the skin. c. the respiratory tract. d. the skin AND the respiratory tract. e. the genitourinary tract.

d. the skin AND the respiratory tract.

all of the following might contribute to the development of ringworm or other superficial cutaneous mycoses except a. obesity b. playing with kittens c. rubber boots d. using skin powder e. dermatophyte virulence

d. using skin powder

Which of the following is considered a function of the skin? a. Regulation of body temperature b. Synthesis of vitamin D c. Prevention of fluid loss d. Production of cytokines e. All of the choices are correct.

e. All of the choices are correct.

The vector for RMSF is a(n) a. mosquito. b. deer. c. fly. d. flea. e. tick.

e. tick.

Why is it important to continue vaccinating children in the United States against measles, even though it is now a rare disease in the Western Hemisphere? a. Encephalitis is a rare but serious complication of measles that sometimes results in permanent brain damage, with mental disability, deafness, and epilepsy. b. Occasionally, the measles virus causes viral pneumonia, with rapid breathing, shortness of breath, and dusky skin color from lack of adequate O2 in the blood. c. A rare complication of measles is subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE) that is characterized by progressive brain degeneration, and generally results in death within 2 years. d. Measles that occurs during pregnancy increases the risk of miscarriage, premature labor, and low-birth-weight babies. e. All of these complications are reasons that the measles vaccine should be continued in the United States.

e. All of these complications are reasons that the measles vaccine should be continued in the United States.

Which of the following organisms is not normally found on the skin? a. Malassezia species b. Staphylococci AND diphtheroids c. Diphtheroids d. Staphylococci e. Candida species

e. Candida species

Please select the TRUE statement regarding impetigo. a. Treatment of impetigo requires administering at least two different antibiotics. b. Patients with impetigo experience fever, pain, and malaise. c. The causative organism of impetigo is Cutibacterium acnes. d. Signs and symptoms of impetigo result from inflammation in the keratinized outer epidermal layer. e. Impetigo is an example of a pyoderma—a superficial skin disease characterized by pus production.

e. Impetigo is an example of a pyoderma—a superficial skin disease characterized by pus production.

How does coagulase help Staphylococcus aureus evade phagocytes? a. It coats the surface of bacterial cells with fibrin, a protein found in blood. b. It causes formation of small clots in capillaries, slowing progress of phagocytes to the infected area. c. It coats the surface of the bacterial cells with collagen, a tissue binding protein. d. It causes formation of small clots in capillaries, slowing progress of phagocytes to the infected area AND it coats the surface of the bacterial cells with collagen, a tissue binding protein. e. It causes formation of small clots in capillaries, slowing progress of phagocytes to the infected area AND it coats the surface of bacterial cells with fibrin, a protein found in blood.

e. It causes formation of small clots in capillaries, slowing progress of phagocytes to the infected area AND it coats the surface of bacterial cells with fibrin, a protein found in blood.

which description of vegetative Bacillus anthracis is correct? a. It is an endospore-forming, Gram-negative, non-motile, rod-shaped bacterium. b. It is a Gram-positive, non-motile, spherical, encapsulated bacterium. c. It is an acid-fast, non-motile, spherical, nonspore-forming, encapsulated bacterium. d. It is an endospore-forming, Gram-positive, motile, rod-shaped bacterium. e. It is a Gram-positive, non-motile, encapsulated, spore-forming, rod-shaped bacterium.

e. It is a Gram-positive, non-motile, encapsulated, spore-forming, rod-shaped bacterium.

An important diagnostic sign of measles is a. swollen lymph nodes. b. red, weepy eyes. c. giant cells. d. fever. e. Koplik's spots.

e. Koplik's spots.

Which of the following normal skin microbiota is a small yeast? a. Cutibacterium species b. Candida species c. Diphtheroids d. Staphylococci e. Malassezia species

e. Malassezia species

Does rubella always lead to congenital rubella syndrome? a. No. Some fetuses have a well developed adaptive immune response that prevents them from developing CRS. b. No. All fetuses have a well developed innate immune response that prevents them from producing damaging antibodies. c. Yes. Rubella virus can infect and damage every cell type in a developing fetus at any time. d. Yes. No matter when a woman is infected during her pregnancy, the rubella virus will cross the placenta and destroy the fetus. e. No. The risk of developing CRS decreases as the pregnancy progresses and the fetus develops

e. No. The risk of developing CRS decreases as the pregnancy progresses and the fetus develops

Which of the signs and symptoms of Rocky Mountain spotted fever is not typical of other diseases that manifest in a similar way? a. Joint pain b. Headache c. Fever d. Muscle pain e. Rash

e. Rash

Which of the following statements regarding S. aureus and S. pyogenes is FALSE? a. S. aureus is a facultative anaerobe while S. pyogenes is an obligate fermenter. b. S. aureus appears as clusters of spherical cells while S. pyogenes appears as chains of spherical cells. c. The Fc receptor of S. aureus is protein A while the Fc receptor of S. pyogenes is protein G. d. S. aureus is catalase positive and coagulase positive while S. pyogenes is catalase negative and coagulase negative. e. S. aureus stains purple with the Gram stain while S. pyogenes stains pink with this procedure.

e. S. aureus stains purple with the Gram stain while S. pyogenes stains pink with this procedure.

Which is true of MRSA strains? a. They carry the R plasmid AND they are all resistant to vancomycin. b. The carry the F plasmid AND they may be susceptible to linezolid. c. They may be susceptible to linezolid. d. They are all resistant to vancomycin. e. The carry the R plasmid AND they may be susceptible to linezolid.

e. The carry the R plasmid AND they may be susceptible to linezolid.

Why are secondary infections a common complication of measles? a. The causative agent severely suppresses the immune system. b. Phagocytes are killed by the causative agent of measles. c. The causative agent damages the keratinized epidermal layer. d. The causative agent prevents B cells from producing protective antigens. e. The causative agent damages the respiratory mucous membranes.

e. The causative agent damages the respiratory mucous membranes.

Rubella is a member of which virus family? a. Herpesviridae b. Papovaviridae c. Paramyxoviridae d. Retroviridae e. Togaviridae

e. Togaviridae

which of the following conditions is important in the ecology of the skin a. temperature b. salt concentration c. lipids d. pH e. all of the above

e. all of the above

Staphylococcus aureus can be responsible for all of the following conditions except a. impetigo b. food poisoning c. toxic shock syndrome d. scalded skin syndrome e. athlete's foot

e. athlete's foot

Rickettsia rickettsii is an obligate intracellular pathogen. This means that a. it cannot grow in the presence of oxygen. b. it is a virus. c. it is non-motile. d. it needs oxygen for growth. e. it can only grow within host cells.

e. it can only grow within host cells.