Chapter 32 Test

11. A painter falls from his ladder and tells you he has dislocated his shoulder again. When you attempt to splint the shoulder, it "pops back into place." What should your next step be? A. Check distal CSM, apply a traction splint, and transport the patient. B. Check distal CSM, apply a sling and swathe, and transport the patient. C. Report the popping sound to the receiving physician when you arrive at the hospital. D. Contact medical control for input into the best treatment for this patient.

B. Check distal CSM, apply a sling and swathe, and transport the patient.

13. You are treating a 16-year-old skateboarder who has fallen at the skate park. She has an angulated left forearm that she has in a guarded position. When do you splint this injury? A. During the primary exam B. During the secondary exam C. Immediately D. En route to the hospital

B. During the secondary exam

19. Which of the following statements is not true? A. A fracture is any break in a bone. B. An angulated break is when the broken bone segments are at an angle to one another. C. A comminuted break is when a bone is broken in only one place. D. A greenstick break is an incomplete break in a bone.

C. A comminuted break is when a bone is broken in only one place.

15. Which of the following allows for smooth movement of bone surfaces against one another at joints? A. Smooth muscle B. Ligaments C. Cartilage D. Tendons

C. Cartilage

8. Which of the following is not a principle of splinting that must be considered by the EMT? A. Splint an isolated extremity injury before moving the patient to the stretcher. B. Check the distal neurovascular function before and after splinting. C. Gently replace protruding bone ends back beneath the skin to prevent further contamination. D. Immobilize the site of an extremity injury from the joint above it to the joint below it.

C. Gently replace protruding bone ends back beneath the skin to prevent further contamination.

27. Which of the following bones is found in the chest? A. Ilium B. Metacarpal C. Sternum D. Tarsals

C. Sternum

45. The part of the skeleton that includes the skull and spinal column is called the: A. boney skeleton. B. appendicular skeleton. C. axial skeleton. D. torso.

C. axial skeleton.

29. The strong white fibrous material called the periosteum: A. surrounds the heart. B. protects the perineum. C. covers the bones. D. surrounds the abdominal cavity.

C. covers the bones.

16. Which of the following is a complication of bone fractures? A. Swelling B. Hemorrhage C. Nerve damage D. All of the above

D. All of the above

21. Your patient is a 70-year-old male whose tractor rolled over onto him. Your assessment makes you suspicious that the patient has a fractured pelvis. Which of the following signs and symptoms should you anticipate? A. Patient cannot lift legs when lying supine. B. Patient feels the need to empty his bladder. C. Patient demonstrates signs of shock. D. All of the above.

D. All of the above.

30. Which of the following describes an open extremity injury? A. A gunshot wound has penetrated the skin and then fractured the bone. B. Bone ends have lacerated the soft tissues and skin from the inside. C. The joint capsule has been torn open during a dislocation. D. Both A and B

D. Both A and B

6. Which of the following is appropriate in the examination of a painful, swollen extremity of a conscious patient? A. Asking the patient to see if he can bear weight on the extremity B. Gently attempting to flex the mid-portion of the bone to check for angulation C. Seeing if you can elicit crepitus on palpation D. Comparing the injured side to the uninjured side

D. Comparing the injured side to the uninjured side

14. One of the more serious conditions that EMTs are confronted with would occur as follows: A fracture or crush injury causes bleeding and swelling within the extremity. Pressure and swelling caused by the bleeding within the muscle compartment become so great that the body can no longer perfuse the tissues against the pressure. Cellular damage occurs and causes additional swelling. Blood flow to the area is lost. The limb itself may be lost if the pressure is not relieved. What is this condition called? A. Perfusing syndrome B. Fracture syndrome C. Crushing syndrome D. Compartment syndrome

D. Compartment syndrome

35. Which of the following is not a mechanism of musculoskeletal injury? A. Indirect force B. Direct force C. Twisting or rotational forces D. Extensive force

D. Extensive force

2. Although it can be difficult to definitively determine hip dislocation in the field, certain signs and symptoms are usually there. Which of the following statements is false? A. An anterior hip dislocation would probably present with the entire lower limb rotated inward. B. The posterior hip dislocation is the most common. C. A posterior hip dislocation presents with a bent knee and the foot may hang loose. D. Often there is lack of sensation in the limb.

A. An anterior hip dislocation would probably present with the entire lower limb rotated inward.

41. Your patient is an 11-year-old male who has a swollen, painful, and angulated right lower arm after falling from his bicycle onto his hands. Which of the following should be considered in the immobilization of his injured extremity? A. Check pulse, movement, and sensation distal to the injury before and after splinting. B. Do not attempt to realign the extremity before splinting. C. Use an upper extremity traction splint. D. Immobilize from the shoulder to the wrist.

A. Check pulse, movement, and sensation distal to the injury before and after splinting.

23. The PASG may be used as a splinting device for patients with which of the following suspected injuries? A. Fractured pelvis B. Compression fracture of the lumbar or sacral spine C. Hip dislocation D. None of the above

A. Fractured pelvis

28. Which one of the following statements is not true concerning a knee injury? A. Fractures can occur to the proximal femur. B. Fractures can occur to the patella. C. There could be pain and tenderness. D. Fractures can occur to the proximal tibia and fibula.

A. Fractures can occur to the proximal femur.

12. There are general rules that apply to all types of splinting. Which of the following is not a general rule of splinting? A. In order to avoid loss of use of a limb, it is important to splint before moving, even if the patient is unstable. B. Assess distal CSM. C. Expose the injury. D. Align long-bone injuries to anatomical position.

A. In order to avoid loss of use of a limb, it is important to splint before moving, even if the patient is unstable.

42. Your patient is a 12-year-old female who fell onto her outstretched hands while rollerblading. She has a deformity of her forearm, about 2 inches proximal to her wrist. This injury is a result of which of the following mechanisms? A. Indirect force B. Sudden acceleration C. Direct force D. Twisting motion

A. Indirect force

43. Which of the following structures connect bone ends and allow for a stable range of motion? A. Ligaments B. Periosteum C. Tendons D. Cartilage

A. Ligaments

22. Your patient is a 20-year-old college student who has fallen from a third-level balcony onto a wooden deck below. The patient responds to verbal stimuli, is pale in color with moist skin, and has a very obvious deformity with protruding bone ends of his right forearm. Which of the following is the best sequence of intervention for this patient? A. Provide manual in-line stabilization of the cervical spine along with assessment of breathing, pulse, and the presence of significant hemorrhage; apply high-concentration oxygen; perform a rapid trauma exam; immobilize to a long backboard; transport; and splint the extremity en route if time and resources allow. B. Open the airway; assess breathing; check the carotid pulse; splint the forearm injury; immobilize the patient to a long backboard; apply high-concentration oxygen; and transport. C. Provide immediate manual in-line stabilization of the cervical spine; apply high-concentration oxygen by nonrebreather mask; perform a focused history and assessment; apply the cervical collar; apply a padded board splint, sling, and swathe to the forearm injury; and transport. D. Provide manual in-line stabilization of the cervical spine along with assessment of breathing, pulse, and the presence of significant hemorrhage; apply high-concentration oxygen; perform a rapid trauma exam; immobilize to a long backboard; and check with medical control about the need to splint the forearm injury prior to transport.

A. Provide manual in-line stabilization of the cervical spine along with assessment of breathing, pulse, and the presence of significant hemorrhage; apply high-concentration oxygen; perform a rapid trauma exam; immobilize to a long backboard; transport; and splint the extremity en route if time and resources allow.

39. Which of the following is not a contraindication for the use of a traction splint? A. Severe swelling and redness at a midshaft femur B. Pelvis, hip, or knee injury C. Injury to the lower third of the leg that would interfere with the ankle hitch D. Avulsion or partial amputation where traction could separate the extremity

A. Severe swelling and redness at a midshaft femur

40. Which of the following is not a contraindication for the use of a traction splint? A. Severe swelling and redness at a midshaft femur B. Pelvis, hip, or knee injury C. Injury to the lower third of the leg that would interfere with the ankle hitch D. Avulsion or partial amputation where traction could separate the extremity

A. Severe swelling and redness at a midshaft femur

24. Which one of the following definitions is not true? A. Tendons connect muscles to ligaments. B. A sprain is the stretching and tearing of ligaments. C. Joints are places where bones articulate. D. Another name for manual traction is tension.

A. Tendons connect muscles to ligaments.

7. A new EMT who is treating a suspected femur injury asks his partner, "How much traction should I pull?" The partner's best reply is which of the following? A. The amount of traction applied should be roughly 10% of the patient's body weight and not exceed 15 pounds. B. The amount of traction applied should be 15 pounds. C. No traction splint applied in the field pulls true traction; they must pull 20 pounds of countertraction. D. Pull enough traction to give the patient some relief from the pain.

A. The amount of traction applied should be roughly 10% of the patient's body weight and not exceed 15 pounds.

44. The sound or feeling of the ends of broken bones rubbing together is called: A. crepitus. B. deformity. C. angulation. D. paresthesia.

A. crepitus.

3. Blood at the meatus of the penis (opening of the urethra) is a sign of: A. pelvic trauma/fracture. B. priapism. C. spinal fracture or injury. D. pelvic dislocation syndrome.

A. pelvic trauma/fracture.

34. Your patient is a 60-year-old woman who stepped off a curb and injured her ankle. Your exam shows that her left ankle is swollen and painful. Which of the following should you do? A. Explain to the patient that her ankle is sprained and transport her with her ankle elevated on a pillow and a cold pack applied to the injury. B. Explain to the patient that you cannot tell if her ankle is sprained or fractured until she is X-rayed at the emergency department, then splint the ankle. C. Transport the patient immediately to a trauma center, applying high-concentration oxygen en route. D. Explain to the patient that her ankle is fractured, and you must splint her ankle to prevent further injury and reduce pain.

B. Explain to the patient that you cannot tell if her ankle is sprained or fractured until she is X-rayed at the emergency department, then splint the ankle.

20. Your patient is a 37-year-old man who tripped while walking down a hill and now has a painful, deformed right leg. Your assessment reveals that the foot is cold and mottled in appearance. You cannot detect a pulse in the foot or ankle. Which of the following is the best course of action? A. Splint the leg in the position in which it was found and transport without delay. B. Gently attempt to straighten the leg to regain a pulse before splinting. C. Transport rapidly to the nearest trauma center. D. Explain to the patient that, because you cannot detect circulation in his foot, his leg will most likely have to be amputated above the site of the injury.

B. Gently attempt to straighten the leg to regain a pulse before splinting.

37. Where could you find the phalange bones? A. Skull and neck B. Hands and feet C. Arms D. Legs

B. Hands and feet

18. Which of the following hazards may arise from properly splinting an injured extremity? A. Converting a closed fracture to an open one B. Ignoring life-threatening problems while focusing on an extremity injury C. Compromising circulation to the extremity D. All of the above

B. Ignoring life-threatening problems while focusing on an extremity injury

4. Which of the following statements is not true concerning a pelvic wrap? A. It can be used if the pelvis shows deformity. B. It should not be used unless the patient shows signs of shock. C. It can be used if the pelvis shows instability. D. You can consider its use based on mechanism of injury (MOI).

B. It should not be used unless the patient shows signs of shock.

32. What is a primary problem when treating musculoskeletal injuries? A. Most musculoskeletal injuries are simply splinted and not a life threat to the patient. B. Many musculoskeletal injuries have a grotesque appearance, and the EMT cannot be distracted from life-threatening conditions by a deformed limb. C. Splints do not adequately fit the patient's extremities and must be modified with padding to ensure immobilization. D. All musculoskeletal injuries are life threatening due to the bone bleeding leading to hypoperfusion.

B. Many musculoskeletal injuries have a grotesque appearance, and the EMT cannot be distracted from life-threatening conditions by a deformed limb.

31. A suspected musculoskeletal injury of the shoulder is best managed by which of the following techniques? A. Placing two long padded board splints on either side of the extremity, extending from the shoulder to the wrist B. Placing the arm in a sling and using a triangular bandage to secure it to the body C. Using a long-arm air splint D. Using an upper extremity traction splint

B. Placing the arm in a sling and using a triangular bandage to secure it to the body

1. Which one of the following statements is not true? A. Ligaments are connective tissues that connect bone to bone. B. Tendons are bands of connective tissue that bind the ligaments to muscles. C. Muscles are the tissues or fibers that cause movement of body parts or organs. D. Cartilage is connective tissue that covers the outside of the bone end and acts as a surface for articulation.

B. Tendons are bands of connective tissue that bind the ligaments to muscles.

25. Your patient is a 28-year-old male who was ejected from his motorcycle after striking a parked vehicle. He has multiple deformities to his upper and lower extremities on both sides. Which of the following would be the best way to immobilize this patient's extremities prior to transport? A. Use moldable splints for the upper and lower extremities, padding any voids to fully stabilize the fractures. B. Use padded board splints for the upper extremities and a PASG for the lower extremities. C. Use traction splints for the lower extremities and allow the upper extremities to be immobilized by the long backboard. D. Immobilize the patient to a long backboard without splinting the extremities individually.

D. Immobilize the patient to a long backboard without splinting the extremities individually.

38. Distinguishing between a knee dislocation and a patella dislocation can sometimes be difficult. Which of the following statements is not true? A. You should always check for a distal pulse. B. In a knee dislocation, the tibia is forced anteriorly or posteriorly in relation to the distal femur. C. The lack of a distal pulse could be a signal of a real emergency. D. In a patellar dislocation, the knee will be stuck in flexion but the knee cap will not be displaced.

D. In a patellar dislocation, the knee will be stuck in flexion but the knee cap will not be displaced.

5. Which of the following is not a benefit of splinting an injury to bones and connective tissues? A. It reduces pain. B. It prevents neurological damage due to movement of bone ends or fragments. C. It may prevent a closed injury from becoming an open injury. D. It restricts blood flow to the site of the injury to prevent swelling.

D. It restricts blood flow to the site of the injury to prevent swelling.

9. When the EMT is assessing compromise to an extremity, perhaps due to an orthopedic injury, the EMT should initially check what "six Ps"? A. Pain, pallor, position, pulses, placement, and pressure B. Pain, pallor, paresthesia, pulses, placement, and pressure C. Pain, pallor, position, pulses, placement, and pad D. Pain, pallor, paresthesia, pulses, paralysis, and pressure

D. Pain, pallor, paresthesia, pulses, paralysis, and pressure

26. A method of assessing compromise to an extremity when a musculoskeletal injury is suspected is to learn and follow the six Ps. Which of the items below is not one of the six Ps? A. Pain B. Paresthesia C. Pallor D. Parenthesis

D. Parenthesis

36. A traction splint may be used on which of the following musculoskeletal injuries? A. Suspected multiple fractures of the femur, tibia, and fibula B. Possible fracture of the cervical spine C. Possible fracture of the humerus D. Possible fracture of the femur

D. Possible fracture of the femur

17. Which of the following is a muscle injury caused by overstretching or overexertion of the muscle? A. Sprain B. Fracture C. Luxation D. Strain

D. Strain

33. Your patient is a 3-year-old girl who is unable to move her elbow after her mother picked her up by the forearm. Proper splinting of this injury would be to immobilize from the ________ to the ________. A. fingertips; shoulder B. wrist; shoulder C. wrist; elbow D. forearm; humerus

D. forearm; humerus

10. A pillow is frequently used to splint an ankle or foot injury. It is effective, rapid, and can be used for most patients. Its main weakness is: A. you might not have a pillow on your ambulance. B. it is hard to access distal pulses after application. C. it requires three people to apply. D. you are not immobilizing the knee and the joint adjacent to the ankle.

D. you are not immobilizing the knee and the joint adjacent to the ankle.