Chapter 34: Assessment and Management of Patients with Inflammatory Rheumatic Disorders

A client with rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed a tumor necrosis factor (TNF)-alpha inhibitor. What medication might be prescribed? Etanercept Diclofenac Indomethacin Celecoxib

Etanercept Explanation: Etanercept is an example of a tumor necrosis factor (TNF)-alpha inhibitor used to treat rheumatoid arthritis. Diclofenac and indomethacin are nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). Celecoxib is a cyclooxygenase-2 (COX-2) inhibitor.

Which assessment suggests to the nurse that a client with systemic lupus erythematous is having renal involvement? Chest pain Decreased cognitive ability Behavioral changes Hypertension

Hypertension Explanation: Hypertension is suggestive of renal damage in the client with systemic lupus erythematous.

A nurse is teaching a client about rheumatoid arthritis. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of the disease process? "It will get better and worse again." "When it clears up, it will never come back." "I'll definitely need surgery for this." "It will never get any better than it is right now."

"It will get better and worse again." Explanation: The client demonstrates understanding of rheumatoid arthritis if he expresses that it's an unpredictable disease characterized by periods of exacerbation and remission. There's no cure for rheumatoid arthritis, but symptoms can be managed. Surgery may be indicated in some cases.

The nurse knows that a patient who presents with the symptom of "blanching of fingers on exposure to cold" would be assessed for what rheumatic disease? Ankylosing spondylitis Raynaud's phenomenon Reiter's syndrome Sjögren's syndrome

Raynaud's phenomenon Explanation: Blanching of fingers on exposure to cold is associated with Raynaud's phenomenon.

Which term indicates an accumulation of crystalline depositions in articular surfaces, bones, soft tissue, and cartilage? Subchondral bone Pannus Joint effusion Tophi

Tophi Explanation: Tophi, when problematic, are surgically excised. Subchondral bone refers to a bony plate that supports the articular cartilage. Pannus refers to newly formed synovial tissue infiltrated with inflammatory cells. Joint effusion refers to the escape of fluid from the blood vessels or lymphatic vessels into the joint cavity.

The nurse is planning teaching for a client with gout. Which topics will the nurse include in the teaching? Select all that apply. Weight loss Limiting exercise Decreasing alcohol intake Avoiding purine-rich foods Restricting the intake of water

Weight loss Decreasing alcohol intake Avoiding purine-rich foods Explanation: Management between the attacks of gout include lifestyle changes to include weight loss, decreasing alcohol intake, and avoiding purine-rich foods. Exercise does not need to be limited and water does not need to be restricted.

A nurse is assessing a client with possible osteoarthritis. What is the most significant risk factor for primary osteoarthritis? congenital deformity age trauma obesity

age Explanation: Age is the most significant risk factor for developing primary osteoarthritis. Development of primary osteoarthritis is influenced by genetic, metabolic, mechanical, and chemical factors. Secondary osteoarthritis usually has identifiable precipitating events such as trauma.

The nurse is caring for a client with a new onset of gout. What medication does the nurse anticipate will be ordered by the health care provider? colchicine probenecid anturane allopurinol

colchicine Explanation: The treatment of gout involves managing the acute inflammatory stage, preventing flare-ups, and controlling hyperuricemia. Colchicine, along with indomethacin, ibuprofen, or a corticosteroid, is prescribed to relieve an acute attack of gout. Probenecid and anturane increase the urinary excretion of uric acid, and allopurinol breaks down purines before uric acid is formed.

nurse is preparing a client with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) for discharge. Which instruction should the nurse include in the teaching plan? "Exposure to sunlight will help control skin rashes." "There are no activity limitations between flare-ups." "Monitor your body temperature." "Corticosteroids may be stopped when symptoms are relieved."

"Monitor your body temperature." Explanation: The nurse should instruct the client to monitor body temperature. Fever can signal an exacerbation and should be reported to the physician. Sunlight and other sources of ultraviolet light may precipitate severe skin reactions and exacerbate the disease. Fatigue can cause a flare-up of SLE. Clients should be encouraged to pace activities and plan rest periods. Corticosteroids must be gradually tapered because they can suppress the function of the adrenal gland. Abruptly stopping corticosteroids can cause adrenal insufficiency, a potentially life-threatening situation.

A client with a history of gout experiences an attack every 2 to 3 months despite losing weight and stopping all alcohol intake. Which question will the nurse ask when assessing this client? "Are you taking the medication as prescribed?" "Have you reduced the amount of daily exercise?" "Have you increased your intake of fat-soluble vitamins?" "Are you taking frequent rest periods throughout the day?"

"Are you taking the medication as prescribed?" Explanation: Medication adherence is critical but poor among clients prescribed urate lowering therapies for gout. Between acute episodes, the client feels well and may abandon medications and preventive behaviors, which may result in an acute attack. Asking about medication adherence is the appropriate. Exercise, fat-soluble vitamins, and rest periods will not increase the risk of having an attack of gout.

A client asks the nurse why his residual limb cannot be elevated on a pillow. What is the best response by the nurse? "Elevating the extremity may increase your chances of compartment syndrome." "I am sorry. We ran out of pillows. I can elevate it on a few blankets." "Elevating the leg might lead to a flexion contracture." "You need to turn yourself side to side. If your leg is on a pillow, you would not be able to do that."

"Elevating the leg might lead to a flexion contracture." Explanation: Elevating the residual limb on a pillow may lead to a flexion contracture; this could jeopardize the client's ability to use a prosthesis. The client does need to turn to both sides but might still be able to do it with the extremity elevated. Elevating the extremity would not increase the risk for compartment syndrome. The limb should not be elevated on pillows or blankets.

A client with fibromyalgia asks why physical therapy has been prescribed. Which response will the nurse make? "It will take your mind off your health problem." "I will ask the health care provider it if is necessary." "It is used instead of prescribing medications for the condition." "It will help with the overall deconditioning that has occurred."

"It will help with the overall deconditioning that has occurred." Explanation: Treatment of fibromyalgia consists of attention to the specific symptoms that the client is experiencing. An individualized program of exercise is used to decrease muscle weakness and discomfort and improve the general deconditioning that occurs in clients with the condition. Physical therapy is not used to take the health problem off of the client's mind. The health care provider is treating the client's symptoms and has determined that physical therapy would be helpful. There are a variety of medications available to treat the symptoms of fibromyalgia.

A client is being discharged from the hospital after being diagnosed with and treated for systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). What would the nurse not say when teaching the client and family information about managing the disease? If you have problems with a medication, you may stop it until your next physician visit. Avoid sunlight and ultraviolet radiation. Pace activities. Maintain a well-balanced diet and increase fluid intake to raise energy levels and promote tissue healing.

If you have problems with a medication, you may stop it until your next physician visit. Explanation: Take medications exactly as directed and do not stop the medication if symptoms are relieved unless advised to do so by the physician. Sunlight tends to exacerbate the disease. Because fatigue is a major issue, allow for adequate rest, along with regular activity to promote mobility and prevent joint stiffness. Maintain a well-balanced diet and increase fluid intake to raise energy levels and promote tissue healing.

Which intervention should the nurse implement with the client who has undergone a hip replacement? Place the client in high Fowler's position for meals. Instruct the client to avoid internal rotation of the leg. Adduct the legs by placing a pillow between the legs. Have the client bend forward to rise from the chair.

Instruct the client to avoid internal rotation of the leg. Explanation: The client should avoid all activities that can result in dislocation of the hip. The affected leg should not cross midline or be turned inward. A pillow is used to keep the legs in abduction. The hip should not bend more than 90 degrees when seated. The head of bed should be kept at 60 degrees or less.

Which points should be included in the medication teaching plan for a client taking adalimumab? The medication is administered intramuscularly. The client should continue taking the medication if fever occurs. The medication is given at room temperature. It is important to monitor for injection site reactions.

It is important to monitor for injection site reactions. Explanation: It is important to monitor for injection site reactions when taking adalimumab. The medication is injected subcutaneously and must be refrigerated. The medication should be withheld if fever occurs.

A client has a serum study that is positive for the rheumatoid factor. What will the nurse tell the client about the significance of this test result? It is diagnostic for Sjögren's syndrome. It is diagnostic for systemic lupus erythematosus. It is specific for rheumatoid arthritis. It is suggestive of rheumatoid arthritis.

It is suggestive of rheumatoid arthritis. Explanation: Rheumatoid factor is present in about 70% to 80% of patients with rheumatoid arthritis, but its presence alone is not diagnostic of rheumatoid arthritis, and its absence does not rule out the diagnosis. The antinuclear antibody (ANA) test is used to diagnose Sjögren's syndrome and systemic lupus erythematosus.

Which of the following maybe the first and only physical sign of symptomatic osteoarthritis (OA)? Limited passive movement Joint enlargement Joint instability Limb shortening

Limited passive movement Explanation: Limited passive movement can be the first and only physical sign of symptomatic OA. Physical assessment of the musculoskeletal system reveals joint enlargement, joint instability, and limb shortening.

A client is experiencing an acute exacerbation of rheumatoid arthritis. What should the nursing priority be? Providing comprehensive client teaching; including symptoms of the disorder, treatment options, and expected outcomes Administering ordered analgesics and monitoring their effects Performing meticulous skin care Supplying adaptive devices, such as a zipper-pull, easy-to-open beverage cartons, lightweight cups, and unpackaged silverware

Administering ordered analgesics and monitoring their effects Explanation: An acute exacerbation of rheumatoid arthritis can be very painful, and the nurse should make pain management her priority. Client teaching, skin care, and supplying adaptive devices are important, but these actions don't not take priority over pain management.

The nurse is caring for a client with hypertension and scleroderma. Which medication will the nurse expect to be prescribed for this client? Diuretic Vasodilator Beta blocker Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors

Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors Explanation: Treatment of scleroderma is mainly symptomatic and supportive. No medication regimen is effective in modifying the disease process in scleroderma, but various medications are used to treat organ system involvement. The use of angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors when there is kidney involvement has led to a substantial decrease in mortality from hypertensive kidney disease. Diuretics, vasodilators, and beta blockers are not used to treat hypertension caused by scleroderma.

Which term refers to fixation or immobility of a joint? Hemarthrosis Diarthrodial Arthroplasty Ankylosis

Ankylosis Explanation: Ankylosis is the fixation or immobility of a joint. It may result from a disease process or from scarring due to trauma. Hemarthrosis refers to bleeding into a joint. Diarthrodial refers to a joint with two freely moving parts. Arthroplasty refers to replacement of a joint.

A client has returned to the postsurgical unit from the PACU after an above-the-knee amputation of the right leg. Results of the nurse's initial postsurgical assessment were unremarkable but the client has called out. The nurse enters the room and observes copious quantities of blood at the surgical site. What should be the nurse's initial action? Apply sterile gauze. Apply a tourniquet. Elevate the residual limb. Call the surgeon.

Apply a tourniquet. Explanation: The nurse should apply a tourniquet in the event of postsurgical hemorrhage. Elevating the limb and applying sterile gauze are likely insufficient to stop the hemorrhage. The nurse should attempt to control the immediate bleeding before contacting the surgeon.

A client is treated in the emergency department for acute muscle strain in the left leg caused by trying a new exercise. During discharge preparation, the nurse should provide which instruction? "Apply ice packs for the first 12 to 18 hours." "Apply heat packs for the first 24 to 48 hours." "Apply heat packs for the first 24 hours, then apply ice packs for the next 48 hours." "Apply ice packs for the first 24 to 48 hours, then apply heat packs."

Apply ice packs for the first 24 to 48 hours, then apply heat packs." Explanation: The nurse should instruct the client to apply ice packs to the injured area for the first 24 to 48 hours to reduce swelling and then apply heat to increase comfort, promote reabsorption of blood and fluid, and speed healing. Applying ice for only 12 to 18 hours may not keep swelling from recurring. Applying heat for the first 24 to 48 hours would worsen, not ease, swelling. Applying ice 48 hours after the injury would be less effective because swelling already has occurred by that time.

When providing discharge teaching to a client with a fractured toe, the nurse should include which instruction? Use crutches for 1 week. Perform ankle dorsiflexion three times per day. Apply ice to the fracture site. Apply heat to the fracture site.

Apply ice to the fracture site. Explanation: Applying ice to the injury site soon after an injury causes vasoconstriction, helping to relieve or prevent swelling and bleeding. Applying heat to the fracture site may increase swelling and bleeding. Ankle dorsiflexion has no therapeutic use after a toe fracture. It's unlikely the client would need crutches after a toe fracture.

Which of the following procedures involves a surgical fusion of the joint? Arthrodesis Synovectomy Tenorrhaphy Osteotomy

Arthrodesis Explanation: An arthrodesis is a surgical fusion of the joint. Synovectomy is the excision of the synovial membrane. Tenorrhaphy is the suturing of a tendon. An osteotomy alters the distribution of the weight within the joint.

What is the priority intervention for a client who has been admitted repeatedly with attacks of gout? Assess diet and activity at home Place client on bed rest Increase fluids Insert a Foley catheter

Assess diet and activity at home Explanation: Clients with gout need to be educated about dietary restrictions in order to prevent repeated attacks. Foods high in purine need to be avoided, and alcohol intake has to be limited. Stressful activities should also be avoided. The nurse should assess to determine what is stimulating the repeated attacks of gout. The other interventions are not appropriate for a client with this problem.

Which action would be most important postoperatively for a client who has had a knee or hip replacement? Assisting in early ambulation. Encouraging expressions of anxiety. Providing crutches to the client. Using a continuous passive motion (CPM) machine. SUBMIT ANSWER

Assisting in early ambulation. Explanation: An anticoagulant therapy and early ambulation are important for clients who undergo a knee or hip replacement. A CPM machine or crutches may be provided when prescribed. It is important to encourage clients to express their feelings of anxiety or depression. This is more crucial for clients who undergo an amputation rather than for clients who undergo a replacement surgery.

A client is experiencing painful joints and changes in the lungs, heart, and kidneys. For which condition will the nurse schedule this client for diagnostic tests? Heart disease Vascular diseases Metabolic disorders Autoimmune disorders

Autoimmune disorders Explanation: A hallmark of inflammatory rheumatic diseases is autoimmunity, where the body mistakenly recognizes its own tissue as a foreign antigen. Although focused in the joints, inflammation and autoimmunity also involve other areas. The blood vessels (vasculitis and arteritis), lungs, heart, and kidneys may be affected by the autoimmunity and inflammation. It is unlikely that the client's array of symptoms is being caused by heart disease, vascular diseases, or metabolic disorders.

A client who has sustained a fracture reports an increase in pain and decreased function of the affected extremity. What will the nurse suspect? Infection Hypovolemic shock Pulmonary embolism Avascular necrosis

Avascular necrosis Explanation: Avascular necrosis refers to the death of the bone from insufficient blood supply, typically manifested by complaints of increased pain and decreased function. Fever or redness, purulent drainage, and swelling of the site would suggest infection. Respiratory distress would suggest a pulmonary embolism. Changes in vital signs, level of consciousness, and signs and symptoms of fluid loss would suggest hypovolemic shock.

The nurse is completing a physical assessment with a client demonstrating signs of rheumatoid arthritis. Which findings will the nurse associate with this condition? Select all that apply. Bruises Dry eyes Headaches Weight loss Thinning hair

Bruises Dry eyes Weight loss Thinning hair Explanation: Assessment for rheumatic diseases combines the physical examination with a functional assessment. Inspection of the client's general appearance occurs during the initial contact. Findings associated with rheumatoid arthritis include bruising, dry eyes, weight loss, and thinning hair. Headaches are associated with temporal arteritis.

The nurse intervenes to assist the client with fibromyalgia to cope with which symptoms? Chronic fatigue, generalized muscle aching, and stiffness Pain, viral infection, and tremors Diminished vision, chronic fatigue, and reduced appetite Generalized muscle aching, mood swings, and loss of balance

Chronic fatigue, generalized muscle aching, and stiffness Explanation: Fibromyalgia is a common condition that involves chronic fatigue, generalized muscle aching, and stiffness. The cause is unknown, and no pathologic characteristics specific for the condition have been identified. Treatment consists of attention to the specific symptoms reported by the client. NSAIDs may be used to treat the diffuse muscle aching and stiffness. Tricyclic antidepressants are used to improve or restore normal sleep patterns, and individualized programs of exercise are used to decrease muscle weakness and discomfort and to improve the general deconditioning that occurs in these individuals.

A client has a cast applied to the leg for treatment of a tibia fracture and also has a wound on the leg that requires dressing changes due to drainage. For what should the nurse prepare the client? Cutting a cast window Insertion of an external fixator Cutting of a bivalve cast Removal of the cast

Cutting a cast window Explanation: After the cast dries, a cast window, or opening, may be cut. This usually is done when the client reports discomfort under the cast or has a wound that requires a dressing change. The window permits direct inspection of the skin, a means to check the pulse in a casted arm or leg, or a way to change a dressing. A bivalve cast is when the cast is cut in two if the leg swells or if the client is being weaned from a cast, when a sharp x-ray is needed, or as a splint for immobilizing painful joints when a client has arthritis. The cast should not be removed due to the instability of a fracture. The client's condition does not indicate an external fixator is required.

A client with osteoarthritis asks for information concerning activity and exercise. When assisting the client, which concept should be included? The time of day when exercise is performed isn't important. Exercising in the evening before going to bed is beneficial. Exercising immediately upon awakening allows the client to participate in activities when he has the greatest amount of energy. Delaying exercise for at least 1 hour after awakening allows the client to participate in exercise after some of the morning-related stiffness has subsided.

Delaying exercise for at least 1 hour after awakening allows the client to participate in exercise after some of the morning-related stiffness has subsided. Explanation: A client with osteoarthritis has increased stiffness in the morning upon awakening. Exercise should be scheduled at least 1 hour after awakening. Exercising in the evening interferes with the client's ability to rest at bedtime.

The client who had a total hip replacement was discharged home and developed acute groin pain in the affected leg, shortening of the leg, and limited movement of the fractured leg. The nurse interprets these findings as indicating which complication? Avascular necrosis of the hip Re-fracture of the hip Contracture of the hip Dislocation of the hip

Dislocation of the hip Explanation: Manifestations of a dislocated hip prosthesis are increased pain at the surgical site, acute groin pain in the affected leg, shortening of the leg, abnormal external or internal rotation, and limited movement of the fractured leg. The client may report a "popping" sensation in the hip

Which is an appropriate nursing intervention in the care of the client with osteoarthritis? Provide an analgesic after exercise Encourage weight loss and an increase in aerobic activity Assess for gastrointestinal complications associated with COX-2 inhibitors Avoid the use of topical analgesics

Encourage weight loss and an increase in aerobic activity Explanation: Weight loss and an increase in aerobic activity such as walking, with special attention to quadriceps strengthening, are important approaches to pain management. Clients should be assisted to plan their daily exercise at a time when the pain is least severe, or plan to use an analgesic, if appropriate, before an exercise session. Gastrointestinal complications, especially bleeding, are associated with the use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs. Topical analgesics such as capsaicin and methyl salicylate may be used for pain management.

A client is experiencing symptoms of rheumatoid arthritis. Which laboratory tests will the nurse expect to be prescribed for this client? Select all that apply. Creatinine Hematocrit Erythrocyte count Rheumatoid factor Antinuclear antibody

Erythrocyte count Rheumatoid factor Antinuclear antibody Explanation: Various blood studies can be done to help diagnose rheumatic diseases. Erythrocyte count may be decreased in rheumatoid arthritis. Rheumatoid factor is present in 80% of those with rheumatoid arthritis. A positive antinuclear antibody test may be associated with rheumatoid arthritis. Creatinine and hematocrit are not used to diagnose rheumatoid arthritis.

A nurse assesses a client in the health care provider's office. Which assessment findings support a suspicion of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)? Facial erythema, pericarditis, pleuritis, fever, and weight loss Photosensitivity, polyarthralgia, and painful mucous membrane ulcers Weight gain, hypervigilance, hypothermia, and edema of the legs Hypothermia, weight gain, lethargy, and edema of the arms

Facial erythema, pericarditis, pleuritis, fever, and weight loss Explanation: An autoimmune disorder characterized by chronic inflammation of the connective tissues, SLE causes fever, weight loss, malaise, fatigue, skin rashes, and polyarthralgia. Nearly half of clients with SLE have facial erythema, (the classic butterfly rash). SLE also may cause profuse proteinuria (excretion of more than 0.5 g/day of protein), pleuritis, pericarditis, photosensitivity, and painless mucous membrane ulcers. Weight gain, hypervigilance, hypothermia, and edema of the legs and arms don't suggest SLE.

The nurse is very concerned about the potential debilitating complication of peroneal nerve injury. What symptom does the nurse recognize as a result of that complication? Infection Permanent paresthesias Foot drop Deep vein thrombosis (DVT)

Foot drop Explanation: Injury to the peroneal nerve as a result of pressure is a cause of foot drop (the inability to maintain the foot in a normally flexed position). Consequently, the patient drags the foot when ambulating.

The nurse teaches the client that the presence of crystals in the synovial fluid obtained from arthrocentesis confirms which disease process? Gout Infection Inflammation Degeneration

Gout Explanation: The presence of crystals is indicative of gout; the presence of bacteria is indicative of infective arthritis.

A client has just undergone a leg amputation. What will the nurse closely monitor the client for during the immediate postoperative period? Chronic osteomyelitis Unexplainable burning pain (causalgia) Neuroma Hematoma

Hematoma Explanation: Hematoma, hemorrhage, and infection are potential complications in the immediate postoperative period. Sleeplessness, nausea, and vomiting may occur but are adverse reactions, not complications. Chronic osteomyelitis and causalgia are potential complications that are likely to arise in the late postoperative period. A neuroma occurs when the cut ends of the nerves become entangled in the healing scar. This would occur later in the postoperative course.

A patient is hospitalized with a severe case of gout. The patient has gross swelling of the large toe and rates pain a 10 out of 10. With a diagnosis of gout, what should the laboratory results reveal? Hyperproteinuria Hyperuricemia Glucosuria Ketonuria

Hyperuricemia Explanation: Gout is caused by hyperuricemia (increased serum uric acid).

A patient has suffered a femoral shaft fracture in an industrial accident. What is an immediate nursing concern for this patient? Knee and hip dislocation Infection Hypovolemic shock Pain resulting from muscle spasm

Hypovolemic shock Explanation: Frequently, the patient develops shock, because the loss of 1,000 mL of blood into the tissues is common with fractures of the femoral shaft (ENA, 2013).

A patient sustains an open fracture with extensive soft tissue damage. The nurse determines that this fracture would be classified as what grade? I IV II III

III Explanation: Open fractures are graded according to the following criteria (Schaller, 2012): Grade I is a clean wound less than 1 cm long. Grade II is a larger wound without extensive soft tissue damage or avulsions. Grade III is highly contaminated and has extensive soft tissue damage. It may be accompanied by traumatic amputation and is the most severe.

The nurse assesses a client after total right hip arthroplasty and observes a shortening of the extremity. The client reports severe pain in the right side of the groin. What is the priority action of the nurse? Externally rotate the extremity. Bend the knee and rotate the knee internally. Notify the health care provider. Apply Buck's traction.

Notify the health care provider. Explanation: If any clinical manifestations of dislocation of the prosthesis occur, including acute groin pain in the affected hip or shortening of the affected extremity, the nurse (or the client, if at home) must immediately notify the surgeon, because the hip must be reduced and stabilized promptly so that the leg does not sustain circulatory and nerve damage. After closed reduction, the hip may be stabilized with Buck's traction or a brace to prevent recurrent dislocation. As the muscles and joint capsule heal, the chance of dislocation diminishes. Stresses to the new hip joint should be avoided for the first 8 to 12 weeks, when the risk of dislocation is greatest.

A nurse is admitting a client to the unit who presented with a lower extremity fracture. What signs and symptoms would suggest to the nurse that the client may have a peroneal nerve injury? Inadequate capillary refill to the toes Numbness and burning of the foot Visible cyanosis in the toes Pallor to the dorsal surface of the foot

Numbness and burning of the foot Explanation: Peroneal nerve injury may result in numbness, tingling, and burning in the feet. Cyanosis, pallor, and decreased capillary refill are signs of inadequate circulation.

Which is the leading cause of disability and pain in the elderly? Osteoarthritis (OA) Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) Scleroderma

Osteoarthritis (OA) Explanation: Osteoarthritis is the leading cause of disability and pain in the elderly. RA, SLE, and scleroderma are not leading causes of disability and pain in the elderly.

The nurse is caring for a client with palindromic rheumatism. The nurse knows that this type of rheumatism can lead to which diagnosis? Scleroderma Fibromyalgia Rheumatoid arthritis Systemic lupus erythematosus

Rheumatoid arthritis Explanation: Palindromic rheumatism is an uncommon variety of recurring and acute arthritis and periarthritis that in some may progress to rheumatoid arthritis (RA) but is characterized by symptom-free periods of days to months. Because of this, the nurse should plan care that would be similar to the client with RA. The symptoms of palindromic rheumatism are not similar to those of scleroderma, fibromyalgia, or systemic lupus erythematosus.

A client with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is prescribed hydroxychloroquine. Which teaching will the nurse include for this client? Exercise High-protein diet Smoking cessation Vitamin D supplements

Smoking cessation Explanation: An antimalarial medication, hydroxychloroquine, is effective for managing cutaneous, musculoskeletal, and mild systemic features of SLE. However, smoking inhibits the effectiveness of hydroxychloroquine. Because of this, teaching on smoking cessation would be a priority. Teaching about exercise would not be a priority because of the medication. A high-protein diet is not indicated as treatment for SLE. Vitamin D supplements would be applicable if the client is taking corticosteroids.

Which device is designed specifically to support and immobilize a body part in a desired position? Traction Splint Brace Sling

Splint Explanation: A splint may be applied to a fractured extremity initially until swelling subsides. Splints are designed to provide stability for fractures that are unstable and to immobilize and support the body part in a functional position. A brace is an externally applied device to support a body part, control movement, and prevent injury; braces are used to enhance movement while preventing injury. A sling is a bandage used to support an arm temporarily while the client ambulates; it is not designed to immobilize the body part. Traction is the use of a pulling force on a body part and thus it is not designed to immobilize; the goal of traction is to achieve or maintain alignment, decrease muscle spasms and pain, or correct or prevent deformities

A client reports pain in the right knee, stating, "My knee got twisted when I was going down the stairs." The client was diagnosed with an injury to the ligaments and tendons of the right knee. Which terminology, documented by the nurse, best reflects the injury? Strain Dislocation Sprain Subluxation

Sprain Explanation: A sprain is an injury to the ligaments and tendons surrounding a joint, usually caused by a wrenching or twisting motion. Dislocation refers to the separation of joint surfaces. Subluxation refers to partial separation or dislocation of joint surfaces. Strain refers to a muscle pull or tear

The nurse is completing a health history with a client diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). Which information will the nurse identify as environmental triggers for the condition? Select all that apply. Stress Sunlight Vegetarian diet Recent surgery Cigarette smoking

Stress Sunlight Recent surgery Cigarette smoking Explanation: It is hypothesized that exogenous or environmental triggers are implicated in the onset of SLE. These triggers include stress, sunlight, stress on the body from surgery, and cigarette smoking. A vegetarian diet is not identified as a trigger for SLE.

A client has severe osteoarthritis in the left hip and is having surgery to replace both articular surfaces of the hip. What type of surgical procedure will the nurse prepare the client for? Total arthroplasty Arthrodesis Hemiarthroplasty Osteotomy

Total arthroplasty Explanation: A total arthroplasty is a replacement of both articular surfaces within one joint. An arthrodesis is a fusion of a joint for stabilization and pain relief and is usually done on a wrist or knee. A hemiarthroplasty is the replacement of one of the articular surfaces in a joint, such as the femoral head but not the acetabulum. An osteotomy is the cutting and removal of a wedge of bone to change the bone's alignment, thereby improving function and relieving pain.

A nurse is managing the care of a client with osteoarthritis. What is the appropriate treatment strategy the nurse will teach the about for osteoarthritis? administration of opioids for pain control. administration of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) administration of monthly intra-articular injections of corticosteroids. vigorous physical therapy for the joints. TAKE ANOTHER QUIZ

administration of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) Explanation: NSAIDs are routinely used for anti-inflammatory and analgesic effects. NSAIDs reduce inflammation, which causes pain. Opioids aren't used for pain control in osteoarthritis. Intra-articular injection of corticosteroids is used cautiously for an immediate, short-term effect when a joint is acutely inflamed. Normal joint range of motion and exercise (not vigorous physical therapy) are encouraged to maintain mobility and reduce joint stiffness.

A physician orders corticosteroids for a child with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). The nurse knows that the purpose of corticosteroid therapy for this child is to: combat inflammation. prevent infection. prevent platelet aggregation. promote diuresis.

combat inflammation. Explanation: Corticosteroids are used to combat inflammation in a child with SLE. To prevent infection, the physician would order antibiotics. Aspirin is used to prevent platelet aggregation. Diuretics, not corticosteroids, promote diuresis.

A client has experienced increasing pain and progressing inflammation of the hands and feet. The rheumatologist has prescribed NSAID use to treat the condition. What client education is most important for the nurse to address with the use of these medications? activity restrictions common adverse effects loading-dose schedule dietary restrictions

common adverse effects Explanation: The most common adverse effects of NSAIDs are related to the GI tract: nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and constipation. GI bleeding, which in some cases is severe, has been reported with the use of these drugs. Use of NSAIDs does not pose significant dietary or activity restrictions nor is there a loading-dose schedule.

A client sustains an open fracture of the left arm after an accident. What does emergency management of this fracture involve? Select all that apply. asking the client if they are able to move the arm wrapping the arm in an ace bandage covering the area with a sterile dressing if the fracture is open immobilizing the affected site splinting the injured limb

covering the area with a sterile dressing if the fracture is open immobilizing the affected site splinting the injured limb Explanation: Immediately after injury, if a fracture is suspected, the body part must be immobilized before the client is moved. Adequate splinting is essential. Joints proximal and distal to the fracture also must be immobilized to prevent the movement of fracture fragments. In an upper extremity injury, the arm may be bandaged to the chest, or an injured forearm may be placed in a sling. The neurovascular status distal to the injury should be assessed both before and after splinting to determine the adequacy of peripheral tissue perfusion and nerve function. With an open fracture, the wound is covered with a sterile dressing to prevent contamination of deeper tissues.

The nurse is gathering a health history for a client with osteoarthritis. What clinical manifestation will the nurse expect to find? small joint involvement joint pain that increases with rest subcutaneous nodules early morning stiffness

early morning stiffness Explanation: Osteoarthritis is characterized by early morning stiffness that decreases with activity. Large joints are usually involved with osteoarthritis. Joint pain is a constant with osteoarthritis. Clients with rheumatoid arthritis have subcutaneous nodules.

A client is being treated for hyperuricemia. Part of the treatment strategy is for the client to avoid contributing factors whenever possible. Which activities might bring on an acute attack? eating organ meats and sardines frequently drinking coffee high carbohydrate intake frequently ingesting salicylates

eating organ meats and sardines Explanation: During an acute attack, high-purine foods are avoided, including organ meats, gravies, meat extracts, anchovies, herring, mackerel, sardines, and scallops. The other listed factors do not worsen attacks.

The presence of crystals in synovial fluid obtained from arthrocentesis is indicative of gout. infection. inflammation. degeneration.

gout. Explanation: The presence of crystals is indicative of gout, whereas the presence of bacteria is indicative of infective arthritis.

The nurse is discussing life management with the client with rheumatoid arthritis in a health clinic. What assessment finding indicates the client is having difficulty implementing self-care? ability to perform activities of daily living (ADL) decreased joint pain increased fatigue a weight gain of 2 pounds

increased fatigue Explanation: Fatigue is common with rheumatoid arthritis. Finding a balance between activity and rest is an essential part of the therapeutic regimen. The client is reporting being able to do ADLs and decreased joint pain. The client's weight gain of 2 pounds does not correlate with self-care problems.

Osteoarthritis is known as a disease that is the most common and frequently disabling of joint disorders. affects young males. requires early treatment because most of the damage seems to occur early in the course of the disease. affects the cartilaginous joints of the spine and surrounding tissues. TAKE ANOTHER QUIZ

is the most common and frequently disabling of joint disorders. Explanation: The functional impact of osteoarthritis on quality of life, especially for elderly clients, is often ignored. Reiter syndrome is a spondyloarthropathy that affects young adult males and is characterized primarily by urethritis, arthritis, and conjunctivitis. Psoriatic arthritis, characterized by synovitis, polyarthritis, and spondylitis, requires early treatment because of early damage caused by disease. Ankylosing spondylitis affects the cartilaginous joints of the spine and surrounding tissues, making them rigid and decreasing mobility; it is usually diagnosed in the second or third decade of life.

The nurse is completing a health history with a client in a clinic. What assessment finding best correlates with a diagnosis of osteoarthritis? joint stiffness that increases with activity erythema and edema over the affected joint anorexia and weight loss fever and malaise

joint stiffness that increases with activity Explanation: A characteristic feature of osteoarthritis (degenerative joint disease) is joint stiffness that increases with activity and movement. Erythema and edema over the affected joint, anorexia, weight loss, and fever and malaise are associated with rheumatoid arthritis, a more severe and destructive form of arthritis.

A client asks the nurse how to identify rheumatoid nodules with rheumatoid arthritis. What characteristic will the nurse include? tender to the touch reddened nonmovable located over bony prominence

located over bony prominence Explanation: Rheumatoid nodules usually are nontender, movable, and evident over bony prominences, such as the elbow or the base of the spine. The nodules are not reddened.

The nurse is performing a health history with a new client in the clinic. What is the most common reason for a client to seek medical attention for arthritis? pain joint swelling stiffness weakness

pain Explanation: The symptom that most commonly causes a person to seek medical attention is pain. Other common symptoms include joint swelling, limited movement, stiffness, weakness, and fatigue.

The nurse is teaching a client with osteoarthritis about the disease. What is the most important client focus for disease management? detection of systemic complications strategies for remaining active disease-modifying antirheumatic drug therapy prevention of joint deformity

strategies for remaining active Explanation: The goals of osteoarthritis disease management are to decrease pain and stiffness and improve joint mobility. Strategies for remaining active are the most important client focus. The detection of complications, disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs management, and prevention of joint deformity are considerations, but not the most important priorities for the client.

The client asks the nurse about types of exercise that do not stress the joints. What exercise will the nurse include in the teaching plan? jogging running on a treadmill tai chi weight lifting

tai chi Explanation: T'ai chi is low impact, so this is the best exercise for low joint impact. Jogging, weight lifting, and running on a treadmill are high-impact, jarring types of exercise.

The nurse is performing a health history with a new client with fibromyalgia. What will the nurse expect to assess as the most common finding associated with fibromyalgia? Heberden nodes jaw locking widespread chronic pain butterfly facial rash

widespread chronic pain Explanation: The most common finding associated with fibromyalgia is widespread and chronic pain. Heberden nodes are associated with osteoarthritis. Jaw locking is a manifestation of temporomandibular joint dislocation. A butterfly facial rash is associated with systemic lupus erythematosus.

A client with rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is being evaluated for medication therapy. Which testing will the nurse anticipate the client will need before medications are started? Select all that apply. Serum electrolytes Liver function tests Tuberculin skin test Testing for hepatitis B Testing for hepatitis C

Liver function tests Tuberculin skin test Testing for hepatitis B Testing for hepatitis C Explanation: Liver function tests are recommended for most disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARD) because it can cause elevation of the liver enzymes. A tuberculin (TB) skin test should be done prior to the initiation of certain medications to rule out tuberculosis. In the event the client has latent TB and has never been treated, the infection can be reactivated. The client should also be assessed for hepatitis B and hepatitis C, which could impact treatment strategies if positive. If the client tests positive for hepatitis, the infection should be treated prior to starting medication. Serum electrolytes are not identified as being routinely done before beginning medication therapy for RA because it is not part of the pharmacological side effects or adverse effects of DMARDs.

Which joint is most commonly affected in gout? Metatarsophalangeal Tarsal area Ankle Knee

Metatarsophalangeal Explanation: The metatarsophalangeal joint of the big toe is the most commonly affected joint (90% of clients); this is referred to as podagra. The wrists, fingers, and elbows are less commonly affected. The tarsal area, ankle, and knee are not the most commonly affected in gout.

The nurse is discussing the new medication that a client will be taking for treatment of rheumatoid arthritis. Which disease-modifying antirheumatic drug (DMARD) will the nurse educate the client about? Methotrexate Celecoxib Methylprednisolone Mercaptopurine azathioprine

Methotrexate Explanation: Methotrexate is a DMARD that reduces the amount of joint damage and slows the damage to other tissues as well. Celecoxib is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID). Methylprednisolone is a steroid to reduce pain and inflammation and slow joint destruction. Mercaptopurine azathioprine is a cytotoxic drug.

A client with rheumatoid arthritis reports joint pain. What intervention is a priority to assist the client? Opioid therapy Ice packs Surgery Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs

Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs Explanation: Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs are the mainstay of treatment for rheumatoid arthritis pain. They help to decrease inflammation in the joints. Heat, rather than ice packs, is used to relieve pain. Paraffin baths may also help. Surgery is reserved for joint replacement when the joint is no longer functional; it is not an intervention specific to relieving pain.

The nurse is caring for a client with ankylosing spondylitis (AS). Which medication will the nurse expect to be prescribed for this client? Antibiotics Anticoagulants Oral corticosteroids Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)

Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) Explanation: NSAIDs are the first-line therapy for treating all spondyloarthropathies. Antibiotics and anticoagulants are not used to treat AS. Corticosteroid injections may be used for periodic flares; however, oral and long-term use of steroids is not recommended.

Which term refers to the failure of fragments of a fractured bone to heal together? Subluxation Malunion Dislocation Nonunion

Nonunion Explanation: When nonunion occurs, the client reports persistent discomfort and movement at the fracture site. Dislocation refers to the separation of joint surfaces. Subluxation refers to partial separation or dislocation of joint surfaces. Malunion refers to growth of the fragments of a fractured bone in a faulty position, forming an imperfect union.

As part of the assessment process for a client suspected of having gout, the nurse evaluated the client's serum uric acid levels. Select the value that is considered above the saturation point for crystal formation. 3.2 mg/dL (0.19mmol/L) 4.0 mg/dL (0.24 mmol/L) 5.4 mg/dL (0.32 mmol/L) 6.8 mg/dL (0.40 mmol/L)

6.8 mg/dL (0.40 mmol/L) Explanation: Hyperuricemia, a serum uric acid concentration above 6.8 mg/dL (0.40 mol/L) can cause urate crystal deposition which can lead to gout.

A client with osteoarthritis expresses concerns that the disease will prevent the ability to complete daily chores. Which suggestion should the nurse offer? "Do all your chores in the morning, when pain and stiffness are least pronounced." "Do all your chores after performing morning exercises to loosen up." "Pace yourself and rest frequently, especially after activities." "Do all your chores in the evening, when pain and stiffness are least pronounced."

"Pace yourself and rest frequently, especially after activities." Explanation: A client with osteoarthritis must adapt to this chronic and disabling disease, which causes deterioration of the joint cartilage. The most common symptom of the disease is deep, aching joint pain, particularly in the morning and after exercise and weight-bearing activities. Because rest usually relieves the pain, the nurse should instruct the client to rest frequently, especially after activities, and to pace oneself during daily activities. Telling the client to do chores in the morning is incorrect because the pain and stiffness of osteoarthritis are most pronounced in the morning. Telling the client to do all chores after performing morning exercises or in the evening is incorrect because the client should pace oneself and take frequent rests rather than doing all chores at once.

A client suspected of having systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is being scheduled for testing. The client asks which of the tests ordered will determine positivity for the disorder. Which statement by the nurse is most accurate? "You should discuss that matter with your health care provider." "The diagnosis won't be based on the findings of a single test but by combining all data found." "SLE is a very serious systemic disorder." "Tell me more about your concerns about this potential diagnosis."

"The diagnosis won't be based on the findings of a single test but by combining all data found." Explanation: There is no single test available to diagnose SLE. Therefore, the nurse should inform the client that diagnosis is based on combining the findings from the physical assessment and the laboratory tests results. Advising the client to speak with the health care provider, stating that SLE is a serious systemic disorder, and asking the client to express feelings about the potential diagnosis do not answer the client's question.

A client with early-stage rheumatoid arthritis asks the nurse what the client can do to help ease the symptoms of the disease. What would be the best response by the nurse? "The doctor could prescribe anti-inflammatory drugs." "The doctor could prescribe antipyretic drugs." "The doctor could prescribe antineoplastic drugs." "The doctor could prescribe antihypertensive drugs."

"The doctor could prescribe anti-inflammatory drugs." Explanation: Drug therapy using anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressive agents is the mainstay for alleviating symptoms. Antipyretic and antihypertensive drugs are not prescribed for autoimmune diseases. An antineoplastic drug is not ordered for an autoimmune disorder until it is in its late stages and uncontrolled by the first-line drugs.

A client with a discoid facial rash caused by systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) asks why a urine sample is needed. Which response will the nurse make to the client? "It is a routine test done on everyone." "The lupus can affect your kidney function." "The medication you take can affect your bladder." "The test will determine how long you will have the rash."

"The lupus can affect your kidney function." Explanation: Nephritis as a result of SLE, also referred to as lupus nephritis, occurs due to a buildup of antibodies and immune complexes that cause damage to the nephrons. Early detection allows for prompt treatment so that renal damage can be prevented. Serum creatinine levels and urinalysis are used in screening for renal involvement. Urinalysis is not a routine test done on every client. The urinalysis is not being used to determine if the client's medication is affecting the bladder. The urinalysis will not determine the length of time the client will have the rash.

A client with gout has been advised to lose weight. The client informs the nurse of plans to go on a "guaranteed rapid weight loss" plan that involves fasting and heavy exercise. Which response would be most appropriate? "The fasting is okay, but make sure you drink fluids when exercising." "Make sure to eat some fat occasionally with all that exercise." "Try combining the fasting with moderate exercise." "There might be some difficulties with your plan and fasting."

"There might be some difficulties with your plan and fasting." Explanation: Clients should avoid fasting, low-carbohydrate diets, and rapid weight loss because these measures increase the likelihood of ketone formation, which inhibits uric acid excretion. Gradual weight loss helps reduce serum uric acid levels in clients with gout.

An older adult with rheumatoid arthritis says exercise was not effective. Which response will the nurse make to learn the reason for the failure of this treatment approach? "Does exercise usually work for you?" "Why do you think the exercise didn't work?" "Do you think you are too old to exercise?" "What types of exercise were you doing?"

"What types of exercise were you doing?" Explanation: In an older adult with rheumatoid arthritis, exercise programs may not be instituted or may be ineffective because the client expects results too quickly or fails to appreciate the effectiveness of a program of exercise. Strength training is encouraged in the older adult with chronic diseases. The other questions will not help the nurse understand what type of exercise was used and what it was not effective for the client.

A client with rheumatoid arthritis comes to the clinic for a second dose of etanercept. The dose prescribed is 25 mg subcutaneously. The medication is available in 50 mg per milliliter. How many milliliters will the nurse administer to the client? Record your answer using one decimal place.

0.5 Explanation: 25 mg/50 mg per mL = 0.5 mL.