Chapter 43- test 3
A nurse promotes the prevention of lower back pain by teaching clients at a community center. Which instruction should the nurse include in this education? a. Participate in an exercise program to strengthen muscles. b. Purchase a mattress that allows you to adjust the firmness. c. Wear flat instead of high-heeled shoes to work each day. d. Keep your weight within 20% of your ideal body weight.
ANS: A Exercise can strengthen back muscles, reducing the incidence of low back pain. The other options will not prevent low back pain.
After teaching a client with a spinal cord injury, the nurse assesses the clients understanding. Which client statement indicates a correct understanding of how to prevent respiratory problems at home? a. Ill use my incentive spirometer every 2 hours while Im awake. b. Ill drink thinned fluids to prevent choking. c. Ill take cough medicine to prevent excessive coughing. d. Ill position myself on my right side so I dont aspirate.
ANS: A Often, the person with a spinal cord injury will have weak intercostal muscles and is at higher risk for developing atelectasis and stasis pneumonia. Using an incentive spirometer every 2 hours helps the client expand the lungs more fully and prevents atelectasis. Clients should drink fluids that they can tolerate; usually thick fluids are easier to tolerate. The client should be encouraged to cough and clear secretions. Clients should be placed in high-Fowlers position to prevent aspiration.
A nurse assesses a client who is recovering from anterior cervical diskectomy and fusion. Which complication should alert the nurse to urgently communicate with the health care provider? a. Auscultated stridor b. Weak pedal pulses c. Difficulty swallowing d. Inability to shrug shoulders
ANS: A Postoperative swelling can narrow the trachea, cause a partial airway obstruction, and manifest as stridor. The client may also have trouble swallowing, but maintaining an airway takes priority. Weak pedal pulses and an inability to shrug the shoulders are not complications of this surgery.
A nurse plans care for a client with a halo fixator. Which interventions should the nurse include in this clients plan of care? (Select all that apply.) a. Tape a halo wrench to the clients vest. b. Assess the pin sites for signs of infection. c. Loosen the pins when sleeping. d. Decrease the clients oral fluid intake. e. Assess the chest and back for skin breakdown.
ANS: A, B, E A special halo wrench should be taped to the clients vest in case of a cardiopulmonary emergency. The nurse should assess the pin sites for signs of infection or loose pins and for complications from the halo. The nurse should also increase fluids and fiber to decrease bowel straining and assess the clients chest and back for skin breakdown from the halo vest.
After teaching a client with a spinal cord tumor, the nurse assesses the clients understanding. Which statements by the client indicate a correct understanding of the teaching? (Select all that apply.) a. Even though turning hurts, I will remind you to turn me every 2 hours. b. Radiation therapy can shrink the tumor but also can cause more problems. c. Surgery will be scheduled to remove the tumor and reverse my symptoms. d. I put my affairs in order because this type of cancer is almost always fatal. e. My family is moving my bedroom downstairs for when I am discharged home.
ANS: A, B, E Although surgery may relieve symptoms by reducing pressure on the spine and debulking the tumor, some motor and sensory deficits may remain. Spinal tumors usually cause disability but are not usually fatal. Radiation therapy is often used to shrink spinal tumors but can cause progressive spinal cord degeneration and neurologic deficits. The client should be turned every 2 hours to prevent skin breakdown and arrangements should be made at home so that the client can complete activities of daily living without needing to go up and down stairs.
A nurse assesses a client who experienced a spinal cord injury at the T5 level 12 hours ago. Which manifestations should the nurse correlate with neurogenic shock? (Select all that apply.) a. Heart rate of 34 beats/min b. Blood pressure of 185/65 mm Hg c. Urine output less than 30 mL/hr d. Decreased level of consciousness e. Increased oxygen saturation
ANS: A, C, D Neurogenic shock with acute spinal cord injury manifests with decreased oxygen saturation, symptomatic bradycardia, decreased level of consciousness, decreased urine output, and hypotension.
A nurse teaches a client who is recovering from a spinal fusion. Which statement should the nurse include in this clients postoperative instructions? a. Only lift items that are 10 pounds or less. b. Wear your brace whenever you are out of bed. c. You must remain in bed for 3 weeks after surgery. d. You are prescribed medications to prevent rejection.
ANS: B Clients who undergo spinal fusion are fitted with a brace that they must wear throughout the healing process (usually 3 to 6 months) whenever they are out of bed. The client should not lift anything. The client does not need to remain in bed. Medications for rejection prevention are not necessary for this procedure.
A nurse assesses a client who recently experienced a traumatic spinal cord injury. Which assessment data should the nurse obtain to assess the clients coping strategies? (Select all that apply.) a. Spiritual beliefs b. Level of pain c. Family support d. Level of independence e. Annual income f. Previous coping strategies
ANS: A, C, D, F Information about the clients preinjury psychosocial status, usual methods of coping with illness, difficult situations, and disappointments should be obtained. Determine the clients level of independence or dependence and his or her comfort level in discussing feelings and emotions with family members or close friends. Clients who are emotionally secure and have a positive self-image, a supportive family, and financial and job security often adapt to their injury. Information about the clients spiritual and religious beliefs or cultural background also assists the nurse in developing the plan of care. The other options do not supply as much information about coping.
A nurse assesses the health history of a client who is prescribed ziconotide (Prialt) for chronic back pain. Which assessment question should the nurse ask? a. Are you taking a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug? b. Do you have a mental health disorder? c. Are you able to swallow medications? d. Do you smoke cigarettes or any illegal drugs?
ANS: B Clients who have a mental health or behavioral health problem should not take ziconotide. The other questions do not identify a contraindication for this medication.
An emergency department nurse cares for a client who experienced a spinal cord injury 1 hour ago. Which prescribed medication should the nurse prepare to administer? a. Intrathecal baclofen (Lioresal) b. Methylprednisolone (Medrol) c. Atropine sulfate d. Epinephrine (Adrenalin)
ANS: B Methylprednisolone (Medrol) should be given within 8 hours of the injury. Clients who receive this therapy usually show improvement in motor and sensory function. The other medications are inappropriate for this client.
A nurse is teaching a client with multiple sclerosis who is prescribed cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan) and methylprednisolone (Medrol). Which statement should the nurse include in this clients discharge teaching? a. Take warm baths to promote muscle relaxation. b. Avoid crowds and people with colds. c. Relying on a walker will weaken your gait. d. Take prescribed medications when symptoms occur.
ANS: B The client should be taught to avoid people with any type of upper respiratory illness because these medications are immunosuppressive. Warm baths will exacerbate the clients symptoms. Assistive devices may be required for safe ambulation. Medication should be taken at all times and should not be stopped.
A nurse cares for a client with a lower motor neuron injury who is experiencing a flaccid bowel elimination pattern. Which actions should the nurse take to assist in relieving this clients constipation? (Select all that apply.) a. Pour warm water over the perineum. b. Provide a diet high in fluids and fiber. c. Administer daily tap water enemas. d. Implement a consistent daily time for elimination. e. Massage the abdomen from left to right. f. Perform manual disimpaction.
ANS: B, D, F For the client with a lower motor neuron injury, the resulting flaccid bowel may require a bowel program for the client that includes stool softeners, increased fluid intake, a high-fiber diet, and a consistent elimination time. If the client becomes impacted, the nurse would need to perform manual disimpaction. Pouring warm water over the perineum, administering daily enemas, and massaging the abdomen would not assist this client.
A nurse cares for several clients on a neurologic unit. Which prescription for a client should direct the nurse to ensure that an informed consent has been obtained before the test or procedure? a. Sensation measurement via the pinprick method b. Computed tomography of the cranial vault c. Lumbar puncture for cerebrospinal fluid sampling d. Venipuncture for autoantibody analysis
ANS: C A lumbar puncture is an invasive procedure with many potentially serious complications. The other assessments or tests are considered noninvasive and do not require an informed consent.
A nurse assesses a client with early-onset multiple sclerosis (MS). Which clinical manifestation should the nurse expect to find? a. Hyperresponsive reflexes b. Excessive somnolence c. Nystagmus d. Heat intolerance
ANS: C Early signs and symptoms of MS include changes in motor skills, vision, and sensation. Hyperresponsive reflexes, excessive somnolence, and heat intolerance are later manifestations of MS.
A nurse assesses a client with multiple sclerosis after administering prescribed fingolimod (Gilenya). For which adverse effect should the nurse monitor? a. Peripheral edema b. Black tarry stools c. Bradycardia d. Nausea and vomiting
ANS: C Fingolimod (Gilenya) is an antineoplastic agent that can cause bradycardia, especially within the first 6 hours after administration. Peripheral edema, black and tarry stools, and nausea and vomiting are not adverse effects of fingolimod.
A nurse plans care for a client with lower back pain from a work-related injury. Which intervention should the nurse include in this clients plan of care? a. Encourage the client to stretch the back by reaching toward the toes. b. Massage the affected area with ice twice a day. c. Apply a heating pad for 20 minutes at least four times daily. d. Advise the client to avoid warm baths or showers.
ANS: C Heat increases blood flow to the affected area and promotes healing of injured nerves. Stretching and ice will not promote healing, and there is no need to avoid warm baths or showers.
A nurse assesses clients at a community center. Which client is at greatest risk for lower back pain? a. A 24-year-old female who is 25 weeks pregnant b. A 36-year-old male who uses ergonomic techniques c. A 45-year-old male with osteoarthritis d. A 53-year-old female who uses a walker
ANS: C Osteoarthritis causes changes to support structures, increasing the clients risk for low back pain. The other clients are not at high risk
A nurse is caring for a client with paraplegia who is scheduled to participate in a rehabilitation program. The client states, I do not understand the need for rehabilitation; the paralysis will not go away and it will not get better. How should the nurse respond? a. If you dont want to participate in the rehabilitation program, Ill let the provider know. b. Rehabilitation programs have helped many clients with your injury. You should give it a chance. c. The rehabilitation program will teach you how to maintain the functional ability you have and prevent further disability. d. When new discoveries are made regarding paraplegia, people in rehabilitation programs will benefit first.
ANS: C Participation in rehabilitation programs has many purposes, including prevention of disability, maintenance of functional ability, and restoration of function. The other responses do not meet this clients needs.
A nurse assesses a client with a spinal cord injury at level T5. The clients blood pressure is 184/95 mm Hg, and the client presents with a flushed face and blurred vision. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Initiate oxygen via a nasal cannula. b. Place the client in a supine position. c. Palpate the bladder for distention. d. Administer a prescribed beta blocker.
ANS: C The client is manifesting symptoms of autonomic dysreflexia. Common causes include bladder distention, tigh clothing, increased room temperature, and fecal impaction. If persistent, the client could experience neurologic injury. Precipitating conditions should be eliminated and the physician notified. The other actions would not be appropriate.
A nurse cares for a client with a spinal cord injury. With which interdisciplinary team member should the nurse consult to assist the client with activities of daily living? a. Social worker b. Physical therapist c. Occupational therapist d. Case manager
ANS: C The occupational therapist instructs the client in the correct use of all adaptive equipment. In collaboration with the therapist, the nurse instructs family members or the caregiver about transfer skills, feeding, bathing, dressing, positioning, and skin care. The other team members are consulted to assist the client with unrelated issues.
A nurse assesses a client who is recovering from a lumbar laminectomy. Which complications should alert the nurse to urgently communicate with the health care provider? (Select all that apply.) a. Surgical discomfort b. Redness and itching at the incision site c. Incisional bulging d. Clear drainage on the dressing e. Sudden and severe headache
ANS: C, D, E Bulging at the incision site or clear fluid on the dressing after a laminectomy strongly suggests a cerebrospinalfluid leak, which constitutes an emergency. Loss of cerebral spinal fluid may cause a sudden and severe headache, which is also an emergency situation. Pain, redness, and itching at the site are normal.
After teaching a male client with a spinal cord injury at the T4 level, the nurse assesses the clients understanding. Which client statements indicate a correct understanding of the teaching related to sexual effects of this injury? (Select all that apply.) a. I will explore other ways besides intercourse to please my partner. b. I will not be able to have an erection because of my injury. c. Ejaculation may not be as predictable as before. d. I may urinate with ejaculation but this will not cause infection. e. I should be able to have an erection with stimulation.
ANS: C, D, E Men with injuries above T6 often are able to have erections by stimulating reflex activity. For example, stroking the penis will cause an erection. Ejaculation is less predictable and may be mixed with urine. However, urine is sterile, so the clients partner will not get an infection.
A nurse assesses a client who is recovering from a diskectomy 6 hours ago. Which assessment finding should the nurse address first? a. Sleepy but arouses to voice b. Dry and cracked oral mucosa c. Pain present in lower back d. Bladder palpated above pubis
ANS: D A distended bladder may indicate damage to the sacral spinal nerves. The other findings require the nurse to provide care but are not the priority or a complication of the procedure.
A nurse cares for a client with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS). The client states, I do not want to be placed on a mechanical ventilator. How should the nurse respond? a. You should discuss this with your family and health care provider. b. Why are you afraid of being placed on a breathing machine? c. Using the incentive spirometer each hour will delay the need for a ventilator. d. What would you like to be done if you begin to have difficulty breathing?
ANS: D ALS is an adult-onset upper and lower motor neuron disease characterized by progressive weakness, muscle wasting, and spasticity, eventually leading to paralysis. Once muscles of breathing are involved, the client mus indicate in the advance directive what is to be done when breathing is no longer possible without intervention.
A nurse assesses a client with a neurologic disorder. Which assessment finding should the nurse identify as a late manifestation of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)? a. Dysarthria b. Dysphagia c. Muscle weakness d. Impairment of respiratory muscles
ANS: D In ALS, progressive muscle atrophy occurs until a flaccid quadriplegia develops. Eventually, the respiratory muscles are involved, which leads to respiratory compromise. Dysarthria, dysphagia, and muscle weakness are early clinical manifestations of ALS.
A nurse teaches a client with a lower motor neuron lesion who wants to achieve bladder control. Which statement should the nurse include in this clients teaching? a. Stroke the inner aspect of your thigh to initiate voiding. b. Use a clean technique for intermittent catheterization. c. Implement digital anal stimulation when your bladder is full. d. Tighten your abdominal muscles to stimulate urine flow.
ANS: D In clients with lower motor neuron problems such as spinal cord injury, performing a Valsalva maneuver or tightening the abdominal muscles are interventions that can initiate voiding. Stroking the inner aspect of the thigh may initiate voiding in a client who has an upper motor neuron problem. Intermittent catheterization and digital anal stimulation do not initiate voiding or bladder control.
A nurse prepares a client for prescribed magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). Which action should the nurse implement prior to the test? a. Implement nothing by mouth (NPO) status for 8 hours. b. Withhold all daily medications until after the examination. c. Administer morphine sulfate to prevent claustrophobia during the test. d. Place the client in a gown that has cloth ties instead of metal snaps.
ANS: D Metal objects are a hazard because of the magnetic field used in the MRI procedure. Morphine sulfate is not administered to prevent claustrophobia; lorazepam (Ativan) or diazepam (Valium) may be used instead. The client does not need to be NPO, and daily medications do not need to be withheld prior to MRI.
A nurse cares for a client who presents with an acute exacerbation of multiple sclerosis (MS). Which prescribed medication should the nurse prepare to administer? a. Baclofen (Lioresal) b. Interferon beta-1b (Betaseron) c. Dantrolene sodium (Dantrium) d. Methylprednisolone (Medrol)
ANS: D Methylprednisolone is the drug of choice for acute exacerbations of the disease. The other drugs are not used to treat acute exacerbations of MS. Interferon beta-1b is used to treat and control MS, decrease specific symptoms, and slow the progression of the disease. Baclofen and dantrolene sodium are prescribed to lessen muscle spasticity associated with MS.
An emergency room nurse initiates care for a client with a cervical spinal cord injury who arrives via emergency medical services. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Assess level of consciousness. b. Obtain vital signs. c. Administer oxygen therapy. d. Evaluate respiratory status
ANS: D The first priority for a client with a spinal cord injury is assessment of respiratory status and airway patency. Clients with cervical spine injuries are particularly prone to respiratory compromise and may even require intubation. The other assessments should be performed after airway and breathing are assessed.
A client with severe muscle spasticity has been prescribed tizanidine (Zanaflex, Sirdalud). The nurse instructs the client about which adverse effect of tizanidine? Drowsiness Hirsutism Hypertension Tachycardia
Adverse effects of tizanidine include drowsiness and sedation. Tizanidine (Zanaflex, Sirdalud) is a centrally acting skeletal muscle relaxant.It does not cause hirsutism, hypertension, or tachycardia.
A nurse assesses a client with paraplegia from a spinal cord injury and notes reddened areas over the clients hips and sacrum. Which actions should the nurse take? (Select all that apply.) a. Apply a barrier cream to protect the skin from excoriation. b. Perform range-of-motion (ROM) exercises for the hip joint. c. Re-position the client off of the reddened areas. d. Get the client out of bed and into a chair once a day. e. Obtain a low-air-loss mattress to minimize pressure.
C, E Appropriate interventions to relieve pressure on these areas include frequent re-positioning and a low-air-loss mattress. Reddened areas should not be rubbed because this action could cause more extensive damage to the already fragile capillary system. Barrier cream will not protect the skin from pressure wounds. ROM exercises are used to prevent contractures. Sitting the client in a chair once a day will decrease the clients risk of respiratory complications but will not decrease pressure on the clients hips and sacrum.
A client who has just undergone spinal surgery must be moved. How does the nurse plan to move this client? Getting the client up in a chair Keeping the client in the Trendelenburg position Lifting the client in unison with other health care personnel Log rolling the client
Log rolling the client who has undergone spinal surgery is the best way to keep the spine in alignment. The client who has undergone spinal surgery must remain straight and turned as a unit.The Trendelenburg position is not indicated for the client who has undergone spinal surgery, nor should the client be lifted or encouraged to get up in a chair.
Which nursing intervention is best for preventing complications of immobility when caring for a client with spinal cord problems? Encouraging nutrition Frequent ambulation Regular turning and repositioning Special pressure-relief devices
Regular turning and repositioning are the best way to prevent complications of immobility in clients with spinal cord problems.A registered dietitian may be consulted to encourage nutrition to optimize diet for general health and to reduce osteoporosis. Frequent ambulation may not be possible for these clients. Use of special pressure-relief devices is important but is not the best way to prevent immobility complications.
The nurse is caring for a client with a spinal cord injury resulting from a diving accident, who has a halo fixator and an indwelling urinary catheter in place. The nurse notes that the blood pressure is elevated and that the client is reporting a severe headache. The nurse anticipates that the primary health care provider will prescribe which medication? Dopamine hydrochloride (Inotropin) Methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol) Nifedipine (Procardia) Ziconotide (Prialt)
The nurse anticipates that the primary health care provider will prescribe nifedipine for a spinal cord injury client who has an elevated blood pressure and severe headache. This client is experiencing autonomic dysreflexia (AD). Nifedipine (Procardia), a calcium channel blocker, can be administered to treat AD and lower blood pressure. If AD is not treated, a hemorrhagic stroke can occur.Dopamine hydrochloride (Inotropin) is an inotropic agent used to treat severe hypotension. Methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol) is a glucocorticoid and is not indicated because it may further increase blood pressure. Ziconotide (Prialt) is an N-type calcium channel blocker on those nerves that usually transmit pain signals to the brain.
The nurse is developing a teaching plan for a client with a history of low back pain. Which instructions does the nurse plan to include in teaching the client about preventing low back pain and injury? "Do not wear high-heeled shoes." "Keep weight within 50% of ideal body weight." "Begin a regular exercise program." "When lifting something, the back should be straight and the knees bent." "Standing for long periods of time will help to prevent low back pain."
The nurse includes the following instructions into the low back pain client's teaching plan: don't wear high-heeled shoes, begin a regular exercise program, and keep the back straight and knees bent when lifting something. Wearing high-heeled shoes can increase back strain. Beginning a regular exercise program will help to promote back strengthening. Keeping the back straight while bending the knees is the proper way to lift objects and will help to prevent back injury.The client needs to avoid standing or sitting for long periods of time because this can cause further strain on the back. Weight needs to be kept within 10% of ideal body weight and not 50%.
A client on the neurosurgical floor who had a lumbar laminectomy is confused, agitated, and complaining of difficulty breathing. The client is normally alert and oriented. The nurse notices a pinpoint rash over the client's chest. What condition is the nurse concerned has occurred? Autonomic dysreflexia CSF leak Fat embolism syndrome Paralytic ileus
The nurse is concerned that fat embolism syndrome has occurred. Fat embolism syndrome (FES) is characterized by chest pain, dyspnea, anxiety, and mental status changes. Petechiae may develop around the neck, over the upper chest, buccal mucosa, and conjunctiva. This is an emergency. The nurse must notify the primary health care provider immediately.Autonomic dysreflexia is not associated with lumbar laminectomies. It is seen in spinal cord injuries. A cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak is a concern with laminectomy but would not present with these symptoms. Paralytic ileus may occur but is associated with abdominal pain and distention.
In assessing a client with back pain, the nurse uses a paper clip bilaterally on each limb. What is the nurse assessing? Gait Mobility Sensation Strength
The nurse uses a paper clip bilaterally on each limb of the client with back pain to assess sensation. Both extremities may be checked for sensation by using a paper clip and a cotton ball for comparison of light and deep touch. The client may feel sensation in both limbs but may experience a stronger sensation on the unaffected side.Gait is assessed by having the client walk. Mobility is assessed by determining the client's ability to move on his/her own, turn or perform ADLs. Strength is measured by having the client perform bilateral grips.
A client with a T6 spinal cord injury who is on the rehabilitation unit suddenly develops facial flushing and reports a severe headache. Blood pressure is elevated, and the heart rate is slow. Which action does the nurse take first? Check for fecal impaction. Help the client sit up. Insert a straight catheter. Loosen the client's clothing.
The nurse's first action for a T6 spinal cord injury client suddenly developing facial flushing and severe headache is to help the client sit up. The client is experiencing autonomic dysreflexia, which can produce severe and rapidly occurring hypertension. Getting the client to sit upright is the easiest and quickest action to take and has the most immediate chance of lowering blood pressure to the brain.Checking for fecal impaction, inserting a straight catheter, and loosening the clothing are important but will not immediately reduce blood pressure.
A client returns to the neurosurgical floor after undergoing an anterior cervical diskectomy and fusion (ACDF). What is the nurse's first action? Administer pain medication. Assess airway and breathing. Assist with ambulation. Check the client's ability to void.
The nurse's first action when a client returns to the neurosurgical floor after having an anterior cervical discectomy is to assess the airway and breathing. Assessment in the immediate postoperative period after an ACDF is maintaining an airway and ensuring that the client has no problem with breathing.Administration of pain medication, ambulation, and assessing the client's ability to void are important but are not the highest priority.
The nurse is caring for a client postoperatively after an anterior cervical diskectomy and fusion. Which assessment finding is of greatest concern to the nurse? Neck pain is at a level 7 on a 0-to-10 scale. Serosanguineous fluid oozes onto the neck dressing. The client is reporting difficulty swallowing secretions. The client has numbness and tingling bilaterally down the arms.
The nursing assessment finding that is the greatest concern for a postoperative anterior cervical diskectomy client is the client reporting difficulty swallowing secretions. This may indicate swelling in the neck and the potential for compromise of the client's airway.Experiencing neck pain and numbness and tingling bilaterally down the arms are expected findings after this surgery. Serosanguineous fluid oozing onto the neck dressing is also a normal finding after this surgery.
In the emergency department (ED), which is the nursing priority in assessing the client with a spinal cord injury? Indication of allergies Level of consciousness Loss of sensation Patent airway
The nursing priority when assessing a client with a spinal cord injury is a patent airway. Clients with injuries at or above T6 are at risk for respiratory complications. Assessing for a patent airway is essential.Asking the client about current medications and allergies is part of every trauma assessment. Assessing the level of consciousness utilizing the Glasgow Coma Score (GCS) is an important part of the trauma assessment. Determining the level of loss of sensation will be included in the neurological evaluation.
A client is admitted with a spinal cord injury at the seventh cervical vertebra secondary to a gunshot wound. Which nursing intervention is the priority for this client's care? Auscultating bowel sounds every 2 hours Beginning a bladder retraining program Monitoring nutritional status Positioning the client to maximize ventilation potential
The priority nursing intervention for a client with a spinal cord injury at the seventh cervical vertebra is to position the client to maximize ventilation potential. Airway management is the priority for the client with a spinal cord injury. The client with a cervical spinal cord injury is at high risk for respiratory compromise because the cervical spinal nerves (C3-C5) innervate the phrenic nerve, controlling the diaphragm.Auscultating bowel sounds is important since paralytic ileus can develop from a SCI; however this is not the priority intervention. Beginning bladder retraining and monitoring the nutritional status will be important for adequate healing and progress to rehabilitation. However, these interventions can be delayed until major life threats are addressed.
The nurse is teaching a client newly diagnosed with multiple sclerosis (MS). Which statement by the client indicates a correct understanding of the pathophysiology of the disease? "I will die early." "I will have gradual deterioration with no healthy times." "Parts of my nervous system have plaques." This was caused by my child getting too many x-rays
The statement that demonstrates that the newly diagnosed client with MS correctly understands the pathophysiology of the disease is "parts of my nervous system have plaques." MS is characterized by an inflammatory response that results in diffuse random or patchy areas of plaque in the white matter of the central nervous system.The client with MS has no decrease in life expectancy. Frequent times of remission are common in clients with MS. There is no known cause for MS.
A client has received preoperative teaching from the nurse for a microdiskectomy. Which statement by the client indicates a correct understanding of the nurse's instruction? "I can go home the day of the procedure." "I can go home 48 hours after the procedure." "I'll have a drain in place after the procedure." "I'll need to wear special stockings after the procedure."
The statement that indicates the client correctly understands preoperative teaching of a microdiskectomy is "I can go home the day of the procedure." A microdiskectomy is considered minimally invasive surgery (MIS) and does not typically require an inclient hospital stay.The client who undergoes a minimally invasive surgery does not have to wait 48 hours after the procedure to return home, will not have a drain in place after the procedure, and will not need to wear special stockings after the procedure. These steps are used in the case of traditional open laminectomy, not MIS.