Chapter 59: Assessment and Management of Patients With Male Reproductive Disorders

A client is having prostate-specific antigen (PSA) testing done. Which result would the nurse identify as abnormal?

4.6 nanograms/milliliter Normal prostate-specific antigen (PSA) levels are less than 4.0 nanograms/milliliter (ng/mL). A level of 4.6 ng/mL would be considered abnormal.

A client with Stage IV prostate cancer is to receive hormone therapy. The nurse would inform the client about possible adverse effects including which of the following?

Breast tenderness Feminizing side effects occur with hormone therapy. The client's voice may become higher, hair and fat distribution may change, and breasts may become tender and enlarged. Libido and potency also are diminished.

The nurse is demonstrating the technique for performing a testicular self examination (TSE) to a group of men for a company health fair. One of the men asks the nurse at what age a man should begin performing TSE. What is the best answer by the nurse?

"It should begin in adolescence." TSE should begin during adolescence.

The nurse is teaching a young adult male how to perform testicular self-examination (TSE). The nurse determines that the client has understood the instructions when he states which of the following?

"The best time to do it is once a month after I take my warm morning shower." TSE is to be performed monthly, usually after a warm bath or shower when the scrotum is more relaxed. Both hands are used to palpate the testis. The index and middle fingers are placed under the testis and the thumb is placed on top. The testis is rolled gently in a horizontal plane between the thumb and fingers. A cordlike structure on the top and back of the testicle is the epididymis. This is normal and does not need to be reported.

Which of the following should be included when teaching a client about the management of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)? Select all that apply.

- Do not delay the urge to void. - Schedule digital rectal exams. The client should be instructed to void promptly when the urge to empty the bladder is signaled by the stretch receptors in the bladder. Voiding promptly will decrease the risk for urinary retention. Digital rectal exams should be monitored to detect further enlargement of the gland and/or presence of prostatic nodules. Alcohol and antihistamines (e.g., Benadryl) should be avoided in the management of BPH. Exposure to heat and painless hematuria are not significant in the management of BPH. Alcohol and antihistamines interact with many BPH drugs.

The nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has been diagnosed with prostate cancer. The nurse notes that the Gleason score was used to grade the cancer. Which total score would the nurse interpret as indicating a highly aggressive cancer?

9 The Gleason score is the most commonly used tumor grading system which assigns two scores with a combined value ranging from 2 to 10. With each increase in Gleason score, there is an increase in tumor aggressiveness. High Gleason scores indicate more aggressive cancer. A total score of 8 to 10 indicate a high-grade cancer.

Which client would the nurse identify as being at highest risk for the development of testicular cancer?

A 25-year-old male with a history of cryptorchidism Testicular cancer is most common in between 15 and 34 years of age and is the leading cause of cancer deaths in men between 25 to 34 years of age. Its incidence is higher in Caucasians and men with a history of cryptorchidism. Other clients at risk are those with a family history of the disease, those who are HIV-positive or have developed AIDS, and those who already have had cancer in one testicle.

Which client is most likely to develop prostate cancer according to a nurse working at a health screening at the local mall?

A 56-year-old African American man Age over 40 and African American race are both risk factors for prostate cancer. Age younger than 40 and Asian heritage reduce the risk of prostate cancer.

A patient is being treated for prostatitis and the nurse is providing education about the treatment. What should the nurse include in the education of this patient?

Avoid foods and liquids with diuretic action or that increase prostatic secretions. The nurse educates the patient about the importance of completing the prescribed course of antibiotic therapy. If IV antibiotic agents are to be administered at home, the nurse educates the patient and family about correct and safe administration. Arrangements for a home care nurse to oversee administration may be needed. Warm sitz baths (10 to 20 minutes) may be taken several times daily. Fluids are encouraged to satisfy thirst but are not "forced," because an effective medication level must be maintained in the urine. Foods and liquids with diuretic action or that increase prostatic secretions, such as alcohol, coffee, tea, chocolate, cola, and spices, should be avoided.

Which treatment involves implantation of interstitial radioactive seeds under anesthesia to treat prostate cancer?

Brachytherapy Brachytherapy involves the implantation of interstitial radioactive seeds under anesthesia. Hormone therapy for advanced prostate cancer suppresses androgenic stimuli to the prostate by decreasing the level of circulating plasma testosterone or interrupting the conversion to or binding of DHT. Teletherapy involves 6 to 7 weeks of daily radiation treatments. High-dose ketoconazole (HDK) lowers testosterone through its abilities to decrease both testicular and endocrine production of androgen.

Which is inconsistent with a digital rectal examination (DRE)?

Can reveal a hydrocele DRE is recommended as part of the regular health checkup for every man older than 50 years of age. It is a screening for cancer of the prostate gland. It enables the examiner to assess the size, shape, and consistency of the prostate gland.

A patient experiences hypotension, lethargy, and muscle spasms while receiving bladder irrigations after a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). What is the first action the nurse should take?

Discontinue the irrigations. Transurethral resection syndrome is a rare but potentially serious complication of TURP. Symptoms include lethargy, hypotension, and muscle spasms. The first action the nurse should take is to discontinue irrigation. The other interventions listed are not appropriate.

Which term refers to the surgical removal of one or both testes?

Orchiectomy Orchiectomy is required when the testicle(s) has been damaged. Circumcision is excision of the foreskin, or prepuce, of the glans penis. Vasectomy is ligation and transection of part of the vas deferens to prevent the passage of sperm from the testes. Hydrocelectomy describes the surgical repair of a hydrocele, a collection of fluid in the tunica vaginalis.

Which of the following recommendations would a nurse advocate during infancy and childhood to help reduce potential adult complications such as orchitis?

Ensure immunizations against infectious diseases such as mumps. Nurses should advocate for infant and childhood immunizations against infectious diseases such as mumps to reduce potential adult complications such as orchitis. Minimizing activities involving heavy lifting or urging limited intake of caffeine have no effect on the potential for adult complications such as orchitis. The nurse should encourage foods that are low in fat and starch; however, this also would have no effect on the potential for orchitis.

After teaching a group of students about erectile dysfunction, the instructor determines that the teaching was successful when the students identify which of the following as true?

Erectile dysfunction may be due to testosterone insufficiency. Common causes of erectile dysfunction include neurologic disorder like spinal cord injury, perineal trauma, testosterone insufficiency, side effects of drug therapy such as antihypertensives or antidepressants, atherosclerosis, hypertension, and complications of diabetes mellitus. Erectile dysfunction may be related to anxiety or depression. It is not a normal aspect of aging.

The client with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is considering use of medication in the management of symptoms. Which of the following drugs reduces the size of the prostate without lowering circulating levels of testosterone?

Finasteride (Proscar) Finasteride (Proscar) inhibits the conversion of testosterone, depriving the gland of dihydrotestosterone (more potent type of testosterone), which stimulates prostatic growth. Tamsulosin (Flomax) and terazosin (Hytrin) work by reducing the tone of smooth muscle in the bladder neck and prostate gland but have little effect on reducing prostate size. Oxybutynin chloride (Ditropan) is an antimuscarinic, antispasmodic drug used for treatment of overactive bladder.

A client is receiving leuprolide as part of his treatment for prostate cancer. The nurse would be alert for which of the following as a possible adverse effect?

Gynecomastia Adverse effects associated with leuprolide, a luteinizing hormone-releasing hormone agonist, are related to hypogonadism and include vasomotor flushing, loss of libido, decreased bone density, anemia, fatigue, increased fat mass, decreased muscle mass, gynecomastia, and mastodynia (breast/nipple tenderness).

The diagnosis of prostate cancer is confirmed by which of the following?

Histologic exam of tissue The diagnosis of prostate cancer is confirmed by a histologic examination of tissue. Other tests that may be used to establish the extent of the disease include bone scans to detect metastases to the bones, and computed tomography scan to identify metastases in the pelvic lymph nodes.

Which of the following may result if prostate cancer invades the urethra or bladder?

Hematuria Hematuria may result if the cancer invades the urethra or bladder. Symptoms related to metastases include backache, hip pain, perineal and rectal discomfort, anemia, weight loss, weakness, nausea, and oliguria.

The nurse is preparing a presentation for a local community group about prostate cancer and possible dietary risk factors. Which of the following would the nurse most likely include?

High-fat diet Although the cause of prostatic cancer is unknown, there seems to be a relationship with increased testosterone levels and a diet high in fat. No other dietary links have been suggested.

Which of the following should nurses teach all men, especially those who have had cryptorchidism?

How to perform a testicular self-examination. The nurses should teach all men, especially those who have had cryptorchidism, to perform testicular self-examination to detect any abnormal mass in the scrotum. The nurse instructs the clients to examine the testicles monthly, preferably when warm, such as in the shower. Having regular PSA levels, lymph node biopsies, and blood tests for measuring serum acid phosphatase are for the clients who are treated for prostrate cancer.

When assessing a client with benign prostatic hyperplasia, which of the following would the nurse expect the client to report as the initial complaint?

Increased effort to void The symptoms of BPH appear gradually. At first, the client notices that it takes more effort to void. Eventually, the urinary stream narrows and has decreased force. The bladder empties incompletely. As residual urine accumulates, the client has an urge to void more often and nocturia occurs.

A patient informs the nurse that his father died of prostate cancer, so he wants to know ways in which to reduce his risk factors for developing it. What education can the nurse give to the patient to decrease modifiable risk factors?

Limit red meat and dairy products high in fat. The risk of prostate cancer is greater in men whose diet contains excessive amounts of red meat or dairy products that are high in fat.

The nurse is preparing a presentation for a men's community group about health promotion. Which of the following would the nurse include as a current recommendation for screening?

Monthly testicular self-examination (TSE) Screening typically includes monthly TSE starting in adolescence and annual DRE for men older than 50 years. PSA testing along with DRE are used to screen for prostate cancer in men with at least a 10-year life expectancy and for men at high risk, including those with a strong family history of prostate cancer and of African-American ethnicity. Transrectal ultrasound is performed in clients with abnormalities detected by DRE and in those with elevated PSA levels.

A nurse is teaching a client about a circumcision. Which external reproductive structure is removed by circumcision?

Prepuce In an uncircumcised male, the prepuce, sometimes referred to as the foreskin, that covers the glans is removed by circumcision. The glans is the rounded head of the penis. The corpora cavernosa is erectile tissue. The mons pubis is fatty tissue near the pubic bones.

During a physical examination, the nurse inspects the external genitalia of a male client. Which of the following would the nurse identify as an abnormality?

Skin lesions During a physical examination, the nurse inspects the external genitalia, looking for abnormalities such as skin lesions and urethral discharge. Prepuce covering the glans penis is a normal finding in an uncircumcised male. The scrotum is normally pendulous, and with increasing age, it becomes more pendulous.

Which should be included as part of the home care instructions for a client with epididymitis and orchitis?

Take prescribed antibiotics. Home care for a client with epididymitis and orchitis includes instructions to continue administering prescribed antibiotics, take Sitz baths, apply local heat after scrotal swelling subsides, avoid lifting, and refrain from sexual intercourse until symptoms are relieved.

When developing an educational program for a group of adolescents about sexually transmitted infections (STIs), what should the nurse inform the group about the single greatest risk factor for contracting an STI?

The number of sexual partners The single greatest risk factor for contracting an STI is the number of sexual partners. As the number of partners increases, so does the risk of exposure to a person infected with an STI.

Which is the most common type of prostate surgery?

Transurethral resection of the prostate Transurethral resection of the prostate, or TURP, is the most common procedure used and can be carried out through endoscopy. Suprapubic, perineal, and retropubic prostatectomies are surgical procedures for the prostate, but they are not the most common.

Which assessment finding would create the greatest risk to a client ordered a phosphodiesterase inhibitor such as sildenafil?

Use of nitrates PDE5 inhibitors facilitate penile erection by producing smooth muscle relaxation in the corpora cavernosa via vasodilation of the blood vessels. If a client is using nitrates (which also exhibit vasodilation) hypotension is likely to occur. History of hypertension and diabetes does not interfere with the administration of PDE5 inhibitors. Use of diuretics is not significant.

A client underwent a transurethral resection of the prostate gland 24 hours ago and is on continuous bladder irrigation. Which nursing intervention is appropriate?

Use sterile technique when irrigating the catheter. If the catheter is blocked by blood clots, it may be irrigated according to physician's orders or facility protocol. The nurse should use sterile technique to reduce the risk of infection. Urinating around the catheter can cause painful bladder spasms. The nurse should encourage the client to drink fluids to dilute the urine and maintain urine output. The catheter remains in place for 2 to 4 days after surgery and is removed only with a physician's order.

Which of the following would be most important to include in a teaching plan for a client who has had a vasectomy?

Using a reliable method of contraception for several weeks. It may take several weeks or more after surgery before the ejaculatory fluid is free of sperm, and the client is informed to use a reliable method of contraception until sperm no longer are present. The client should apply ice packs to the scrotum to reduce swelling and use a mild analgesic such as aspirin or acetaminophen for pain relief. The client typically can resume sexual activity when comfortable, usually in 1 week.

The obstructive and irritative symptom complex caused by benign prostatic hypertrophy is called

prostatism. Symptoms of prostatism include increased frequency of urination, nocturia, urgency, dribbling, and a sensation that the bladder has not completely emptied. Prostatitis is an inflammation of the prostate gland. Prostaglandins are physiologically active substances present in tissues with vasodilator properties. Prostatectomy refers to the surgical removal of the prostate gland.

A patient is suspected to have prostate cancer related to observed clinical symptoms. What definitive test can the nurse assist with to confirm a diagnosis of prostate cancer?

Prostate biopsy If prostate cancer is detected early, the likelihood of cure is high (Eggert, 2010). It can be diagnosed through an abnormal finding with the digital rectal examination (DRE), serum prostate-specific antigen (PSA), and ultrasound-guided transrectal ultrasound (TRUS) with biopsy. Detection is more likely with the use of combined diagnostic procedures. The diagnosis of prostate cancer is confirmed by a histologic examination of tissue removed surgically by transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP), open prostatectomy, or ultrasound-guided transrectal needle biopsy.

The nurse knows that a client being screened for prostate cancer needs further instruction when he makes which statement?

"I understand blood in the urine is the first symptom of prostate cancer." While blood in the urine can be a sign of prostate cancer, it does not occur frequently with this disease. More common symptoms include difficulty urinating, urinary retention, urinary dribbling, back pain, and urinary/bladder inflammation.

A client is ordered continuous bladder irrigation at a rate of 60 gtt/minute. The nurse hangs a 2 L bag of sterile solution with tubing on a three-legged IV pole. She then attaches the tubing to the client's three-way urinary catheter, adjusts the flow rate, and leaves the room. Which important procedural step did the nurse fail to follow?

Evaluating patency of the drainage lumen The nurse should evaluate patency of the drainage tubing before leaving the client's room. If the lumen is obstructed, the solution infuses into the bladder but isn't eliminated through the drainage tubing, a situation that may cause client injury. Balancing the pole is important; however, the nurse would have had to address this issue immediately after hanging the 2 L bag. Using an I.V. pump isn't necessary for continuous bladder irrigation. Unless specifically ordered, obtaining a urine specimen before beginning continuous bladder irrigation isn't necessary.

A nurse is teaching a male client to perform monthly testicular self-examinations. Which point is appropriate to make?

Testicular cancer is a highly curable type of cancer. Testicular cancer is highly curable, particularly when it's treated in its early stage. Self-examination allows early detection and facilitates the early initiation of treatment. The highest mortality rates from cancer among men are in men with lung cancer. Testicular cancer is found more commonly in younger, not older, men.

A client is scheduled for a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). Which statement demonstrates that the expected outcome of "client demonstrates understanding of the surgical procedure and aftercare" has been met?

"The surgeon is going to insert a scope through my urethra to remove a portion of the gland." TURP involves the surgical removal of the inner portion of the gland through an endoscope inserted through the urethra. There is no external skin incision. Typically, the procedure is performed in an outpatient setting but may require an overnight hospital stay.

Which statement is accurate regarding sildenafil?

Its side effects include headache, flushing, and dizziness. Side effects of sildenafil include headache, flushing, and dizziness. Is should be taken 30 minutes to 4 hours before intercourse. Taking this medication more than once a day will not have an increased effect. The client will have no erection if stimulation does not occur.

A client comes to the emergency department complaining of sudden, sharp testicular pain. Further examination reveals torsion of the spermatic cord. Which of the following would the nurse expect to do next?

Prepare the client for surgery For the client with torsion, immediate surgery is necessary to prevent atrophy of the spermatic cord and preserve fertility. Analgesics would be given preoperatively. Postoperatively, a scrotal support is applied and dressings are inspected for drainage. Circumcision is done to relieve phimosis or paraphimosis.

A client with benign prostatic hyperplasia doesn't respond to medical treatment and is admitted to the facility for prostate gland removal. Before providing preoperative and postoperative instructions to the client, the nurse asks the surgeon which prostatectomy procedure will be done. What is the most widely used procedure for prostate gland removal?

Transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) TURP is the most widely used procedure for prostate gland removal. Because it requires no incision, TURP is especially suitable for men with relatively minor prostatic enlargements and for those who are poor surgical risks. Suprapubic prostatectomy, retropubic prostatectomy, and transurethral laser incision of the prostate are less common procedures; each requires an incision.

A client is undergoing treatment for prostate cancer. He has chemotherapy sessions regularly. However, of late he is showing symptoms of food allergy and loss of appetite. He has lost considerable weight as a result. Which is an appropriate nursing task in this situation?

Ask the client to keep a diet diary. The appropriate nursing task in this situation is to assess the amount of food eaten. This assessment will help determine nutrient intake. The nurse should ensure adequate fluid hydration before, during, and after drug administration when the client has side effects of nausea and vomiting. Administration of fruits is not recommended when the client is at risk of infection, such as during chemotherapy. Serotonin blockers are administered to control nausea and vomiting.

After teaching a group of student about structural abnormalities of the male reproductive system, the instructor determines that the teaching was successful when the students identify which of the following as an example?

Cryptorchidism Structural abnormalities include cryptorchidism, torsion of the spermatic cord, phimosis, paraphimosis, hydrocele, spermatocele, and varicocele. Erectile dysfunction and priapism are erection disorders. Prostatitis is an infectious disorder.

The nurse is obtaining a health history from a 58-year-old client stating that he is having difficulty obtaining an erection during sexual activity. The client asks how an "erectile medication" works and if there are any side effects to the medication. The nurse explains the action of the medication and directions for use and warns of which side effect related to the client's history?

Hypotension with nitrate use Due to the action of the medication on the smooth muscles and blood vessels, clients are advised not to take medications to treat erectile dysfunction when also prescribed a nitrate drug for chest pain or heart problems. Combining medication could result in a serious drop in blood pressure. Although all disease processes and medication therapy should be screened for interactions, hypotension with nitrate use the most serious side effects.