Chapter 6 Example Questions

Match the anatomical term in the first column with its corresponding region in the second column. _____ 1. humerus A. antebrachium _____ 2. radius B. thigh _____ 3. tibia C. pelvis _____ 4. femur D. crurum (leg) _____ 5. ischium E. brachium

1-E, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B, 5-C

The ________ of the humerus establishes the lateral contour of the shoulder. A) deltoid tuberosity B) greater tubercle C) lateral epicondyle D) capitulum E) trochlea

B) greater tubercle

What is defined as a small packet of connective tissue containing synovial fluid, which reduces friction in a joint and acts as a shock absorber? A) meniscus B) fat pad C) articular cartilage D) articular capsule E) bursa

E) bursa

The process of depositing calcium salts into a tissue other than bone is called ________. A) ossification B) remodeling C) resorption D) osteolysis E) calcification

E) calcification

The bones of the wrist form the ________. A) tarsus B) brachium C) manus D) os coxae E) carpus

E) carpus

Which feature is the attachment point for the temporalis muscle, a powerful muscle that closes the jaw? A) condylar process B) mandibular ramus C) mastoid process D) pedicle E) coronoid process

E) coronoid process

The bony compartment that supports the brain is called the ________. A) septum B) fontanel C) lacrimae D) cribrum E) cranium

E) cranium

Typical movements at a hinge joint include A) extension and gliding. B) rotation and inversion. C) gliding and pronation. D) flexion and rotation. E) extension and flexion.

E) extension and flexion.

Which of the following is the most important normal hip movement, one that is primarily limited by the surrounding muscles? A) extension B) abduction C) adduction D) rotation E) flexion

E) flexion

Which structural feature of the scapula articulates with the humerus? A) supraspinous fossa B) subscapular fossa C) acromion D) coracoid process E) glenoid cavity

E) glenoid cavity

A twisting motion of the foot that turns the sole inward is termed A) eversion. B) protraction. C) dorsiflexion. D) plantar flexion. E) inversion.

E) inversion.

The paranasal sinuses function in A) contributing to the floor of the cranium. B) deflecting inhaled air toward the olfactory receptors located near the upper portions of the nasal cavity. C) supporting and stabilizing the position of the larynx. D) forming the floor and medial portion of the rim of the orbit. E) lightening the skull and providing an extensive area of mucous epithelium.

E) lightening the skull and providing an extensive area of mucous epithelium.

The smooth, rounded, or oval articular process of a bone is termed a A) crest. B) ridge. C) head. D) condyle. E) trochlea.

D) condyle.

Paranasal sinuses are located within which of the following bones? (1) frontal bone (2) sphenoid (3) ethmoid (4) maxilla (5) nasal bone A) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 B) 1, 2, 3, 4 C) 1, 3, 5 D) 1, 2, 3 E) 3, 4, 5

B) 1, 2, 3, 4

A movement toward the longitudinal axis of the body in the frontal plane is termed A) inversion. B) abduction. C) adduction. D) flexion. E) extension.

C) adduction.

The connective tissue covering the outer surface of a bone is (the) A) matrix. B) osteon. C) periosteum. D) endosteum. E) articular cartilage.

C) periosteum.

An abnormal lateral curvature of the spine is termed A) kyphosis. B) lordosis. C) scoliosis. D) gomphosis. E) cyanosis.

C) scoliosis.

Tarsal bones are classified as ________ bones. A) long B) flat C) short D) irregular E) sesamoid

C) short

The sole of the foot is supported by the A) metacarpal bones. B) metatarsal bones. C) carpal bones. D) tarsal bones. E) calcaneus and talus.

B) metatarsal bones.

The special movement of the thumb that allows it to grasp an object and hold onto it is called A) rotation. B) opposition. C) circumduction. D) eversion. E) retraction.

B) opposition.

Which structural feature of the humerus is a common fracture site? A) intertubercular groove B) lateral epicondyle C) anatomical neck D) lesser tubercle E) surgical neck

E) surgical neck

The patellar ligament connects the patella to the ________ just below the knee joint. A) head of fibula B) anterior margin C) linea aspera D) medial tibial condyle E) tibial tuberosity

E) tibial tuberosity

The bony portion of the nasal septum includes which of the following? A) vomer B) ethmoid and sphenoid C) nasal bones D) inferior nasal conchae E) vomer and ethmoid

E) vomer and ethmoid

Which facial bone articulates with the frontal bone and the maxilla to complete the lateral wall of the orbit? A) vomer bone B) nasal bone C) lacrimal bone D) inferior nasal concha E) zygomatic bone

E) zygomatic bone

Match the bone in the first column with its associated feature in the second column. _____ 1. femur A. linea aspera _____ 2. tibia B. lateral malleolus _____ 3. fibula C. medial malleolus

1-A, 2-C, 3-B

The hyoid bone A) serves as a base for muscles associated with the larynx, tongue, and pharynx. B) provides a site for the attachment of muscles that rotate or extend the head. C) marks the point of articulation with the lower jaw. D) contributes to the nasal septum. E) is the attachment point for the temporalis muscle.

A) serves as a base for muscles associated with the larynx, tongue, and pharynx.

The corners of the scapula include the A) superior angle, medial angle, and lateral angle. B) superior angle, inferior angle, and lateral angle. C) inferior border, lateral border, and axillary border. D) inferior angle, medial angle, and vertebral angle. E) superior border, medial border, and lateral border.

B) superior angle, inferior angle, and lateral angle.

Skull bones are joined by tight connections called A) symphyses. B) sutures. C) syndesmoses. D) gomphoses. E) synchondroses.

B) sutures.

Humans have ________ pairs of ribs. A) 2 B) 6 C) 10 D) 12 E) 24

D) 12

The suture that forms the articulation of the parietal bone with the temporal bone is the ________ suture. A) lambdoid B) rostral C) coronal D) squamous E) sagittal

D) squamous

Why might a person suffering from osteoporosis benefit from increased calcium ingestion?

In osteoporosis, a decrease in the calcium content of bones leads to bones that are weak and brittle. Increased calcium ingestion raises blood calcium levels and triggers osteoblasts to form new bone. This new formation of bone can help diminish the bone decrease due to overactive osteoclasts.

Mary has just finished pitching a fast-pitch softball game. What joint is most likely to be sore, and why?

Pitching a softball repeatedly requires the shoulder's ball-and-socket joint to sustain a great deal of circumductive forces. The shoulder is most likely to be sore as a result of these repeated forced circumductions and the friction and tension associated with them.

When playing a contact sport, which injury would one expect to occur more frequently: a dislocated shoulder or a dislocated hip? Why?

Shoulder dislocations would occur more frequently than hip dislocations because the shoulder is a more mobile joint. Because of its mobility, the shoulder joint is not bound tightly by ligaments or other structures and is, therefore, easier to dislocate when excessive forces are applied. The hip joint, although mobile, is stabilized by four heavy ligaments; bones fit together snugly in the joint. The synovial capsule of the hip joint is larger than the shoulder, and the range of motion is not as great. These factors contribute to the joint being more stable and less easily dislocated.

Jennifer undergoes a pelvic scan to determine if she sustained any fractures as a result of a car accident. To her surprise, the technician does not find any fractures. He does note, however, that Jennifer's acetabulae are markedly shallow bilaterally. What might the technician conclude about Jennifer's pelvic bone structure, as a result of this finding?

The technician should explain to Jennifer that she may have rather flexible hip joints. As the head of the femur fits into the acetabulum of the coxal bone, the ligament of the femoral head and the bones of the acetabulum limit the movements of the femur in such an articulation. Since Jennifer's acetabulae are shallow, this limiting factor would be reduced. Thus, the increased flexibility may have prevented any fractures during the accident.

The trochlea is a structural feature of which bone? A) scapula B) ulna C) humerus D) radius E) clavicle

C) humerus

The ankle consists of ________ tarsal bones. A) two B) five C) six D) seven E) eight

D) seven

Spongy bone is made up of a network of bony rods or plates called A) trabeculae. B) osteons. C) lamellae. D) canaliculi. E) perforating canals.

A) trabeculae.

The following are major steps in the process of endochondral ossification: 1. Bone forms at the diaphysis surface. 2. Secondary ossification centers form in the epiphyses. 3. Chondrocytes enlarge and calcify. 4. Osteoclasts create a marrow cavity. 5. Blood vessels invade the inner cartilage and new osteoblasts form spongy bone at a primary ossification center. The correct order for these events is A) 3, 1, 5, 4, 2. B) 1, 3, 5, 4, 2. C) 1, 5, 3, 4, 2. D) 2, 3, 1, 5, 4. E) 3, 1, 4, 5, 2.

A) 3, 1, 5, 4, 2.

A movement away from the longitudinal axis of the body in the frontal plane is A) abduction. B) flexion. C) extension. D) rotation. E) adduction.

A) abduction.

Functions of the curves of the vertebral column include which of the following? A) aligns the body's weight in line with the body axis B) aligns the weight of the trunk over the arms only C) shifts the weight of the trunk forward D) increases the ability to extend the limbs E) keeps the vertebral column straight and rigid

A) aligns the body's weight in line with the body axis

One role of the fontanels is to A) allow for the change in shape of the skull during childbirth. B) serve as ossification centers for the facial bones. C) serve as the final bony plates of the skull. D) lighten the weight of the skull bones. E) enclose the vertebral column.

A) allow for the change in shape of the skull during childbirth.

The presence of ________ strongly indicates that the long bone is still growing. A) an epiphyseal plate B) an articular cartilage C) an epiphyseal line D) an epiphysis E) trabeculae

A) an epiphyseal plate

Small channels, called ________, radiate through the matrix of bone. A) canaliculi B) lacunae C) lamellae D) perforating canals E) Haversian canals

A) canaliculi

Which structural feature(s) of the knee function(s) in limiting the anterior and posterior movement of the femur? A) cruciate ligaments B) menisci C) bursae D) patellar ligament E) collateral ligaments

A) cruciate ligaments

Which of the following is a function of synovial fluid? A) decrease friction within joint B) increase osmotic pressure within joint C) increase friction within joint D) remove waste products E) protect bone

A) decrease friction within joint

A joint that binds each tooth within a bony socket is called a A) suture. B) gomphosis. C) synchondrosis. D) synostosis. E) symphysis.

B) gomphosis.

The presence of an epiphyseal line indicates A) epiphyseal growth has ended. B) epiphyseal growth is just beginning. C) growth in bone diameter is just beginning. D) the bone is fractured at that location. E) The presence of an epiphyseal line does not indicate any particular event.

A) epiphyseal growth has ended.

Movement in the anterior-posterior plane that decreases the angle between articulating bones is which movement? A) flexion B) hyperextension C) elevation D) retraction E) protraction

A) flexion

Dorsiflexion involves ________ at the ankle joint and ________ of the foot. A) flexion; elevation of the sole B) extension; elevation of the heel C) flexion; elevation of the heel D) extension; flexion of the sole E) adduction; flexion of the heel

A) flexion; elevation of the sole

The coronal suture is the boundary between which bones? A) frontal and parietal B) frontal and nasal C) frontal and sphenoid D) parietal and temporal E) nasal and vomer

A) frontal and parietal

The patella A) glides over the smooth anterior surface, between the lateral and medial condyles. B) is normally on the lateral aspect of the knee joint. C) is made of cartilage in the tendon of the biceps femoris. D) forms part of a ball-and-socket joint. E) articulates with the tibia and fibula.

A) glides over the smooth anterior surface, between the lateral and medial condyles.

The paired ________ form(s) the lateral walls of the nasal cavity, and function(s) in slowing airflow and deflecting inhaled air toward the olfactory receptors. A) inferior nasal conchae B) middle nasal conchae C) superior nasal conchae D) vomer E) palatine bones

A) inferior nasal conchae

Which coxal bone feature supports the body's weight when one is sitting? A) ischial tuberosity B) iliac crest C) pubic symphysis D) obturator foramen E) pubic tubercle

A) ischial tuberosity

Which suture connects the occipital bone to the parietal bones? A) lambdoid B) squamous C) coronal D) sagittal E) occipitomastoid

A) lambdoid

On the posterior aspect of the femur, the ________ marks the attachment of powerful muscles that adduct the femur. A) linea aspera B) lateral condyle C) lesser trochanter D) tibial tuberosity E) lateral condyle

A) linea aspera

Which of the following curves develops as a child begins to stand and walk? A) lumbar B) thoracic C) sacral D) cervical E) cervical and sacral

A) lumbar

Regulatory functions of the skeletal system include A) maintaining the normal concentrations of calcium and phosphate ions in body fluids. B) absorbing the shock of unexpected rapid body movements. C) facilitating transmission of nerve impulses. D) cushioning abdominal organs such as the kidneys. E) contracting muscles.

A) maintaining the normal concentrations of calcium and phosphate ions in body fluids. B) absorbing the shock of

The bone that makes up the lower jaw is the A) mandible. B) maxillary. C) zygomatic. D) temporal. E) cribriform plate.

A) mandible.

The clavicle articulates with the A) manubrium. B) ribs. C) humerus. D) body of the sternum. E) cervical vertebrae.

A) manubrium.

Fibrous cartilage discs that act as shock absorbers in joints are called ________. A) menisci B) bursae C) tendons D) intervertebral discs E) synovial capsules

A) menisci

The occipital bone articulates with the first cervical vertebra at the ________. A) occipital condyles B) foramen magnum C) odontoid process D) superior articular process E) cervical body

A) occipital condyles

The posterior surface of the bony roof of the mouth is formed by the A) palatine bones. B) vomer. C) maxillae. D) sphenoid bone. E) zygomatic bones.

A) palatine bones.

Two hormones that work together to elevate calcium levels in the body are ________ and ________. A) parathyroid hormone; calcitriol B) vitamin A; vitamin C C) parathyroid hormone; calcitonin D) growth hormone; calcitonin E) vitamin D3; growth hormone

A) parathyroid hormone; calcitriol

Which feature of the ethmoid bone contributes to the nasal septum? A) perpendicular plate B) cribriform plate C) superior nasal conchae D) crista galli E) middle nasal conchae

A) perpendicular plate

When one crosses his/her arms, which movement is performed by the clavicles? A) protraction B) retraction C) depression D) abduction E) adduction

A) protraction

What is the function of the tibial and fibular collateral ligaments? A) stabilize the joint at full extension B) provide support to the front of the knee joint C) conform to the shape of the articulating surfaces D) reinforce the back of the knee joint E) reduce friction between the patella and other tissues

A) stabilize the joint at full extension

A fibrous joint in which the bones are held together by a ligamentous connection is a A) syndesmosis. B) suture. C) symphysis. D) diarthrosis. E) synarthrosis.

A) syndesmosis.

In the skeletal system, compact bone is usually located A) where stresses come from a limited range of directions. B) where stresses arrive from many directions. C) only in a narrow ring around the diaphysis of long bones. D) in direct contact with articular cartilages. E) where bones are not heavily stressed.

A) where stresses come from a limited range of directions.

Jason fractured his pisiform bone in an accident. What part of his body is injured? A) wrist B) ankle C) leg D) skull E) shoulder

A) wrist

The coccyx is typically composed of ________ fused vertebrae. A) 1-2 B) 3-5 C) 6-7 D) 7-8 E) 9-11

B) 3-5

The vertebral column contains ________ lumbar vertebrae. A) 4 B) 5 C) 7 D) 12 E) 31

B) 5

The anterior connection between the two pubic bones is A) diarthrotic. B) an example of a symphysis. C) a condylar joint. D) actually comprised of three separate joints. E) diarthrotic and an example of a symphysis.

B) an example of a symphysis.

Which joint type can perform rotation movements? A) hinge B) ball-and-socket C) saddle D) condyloid E) ellipsoidal

B) ball-and-socket

The only direct connection between the pectoral girdle and the axial skeleton is where the A) scapula articulates with the ribs. B) clavicle articulates with the manubrium. C) humerus articulates with the rib cage. D) scapula articulates with the clavicle. E) The appendicular skeleton and the axial skeleton have no direct connections.

B) clavicle articulates with the manubrium.

The organic component of the matrix, which makes up around one-third of the mass of bone, is dominated by A) calcium phosphate. B) collagen fibers. C) calcium carbonate. D) calcium carbonate and calcium phosphate. E) dendritic fibers.

B) collagen fibers.

Compared with the pectoral girdle, the pelvic girdle is A) not as firmly anchored to the axial skeleton. B) comprised of more massive bones, which are adapted for weight bearing. C) composed of more separate bones. D) more flexible and freely movable. E) structurally identical.

B) comprised of more massive bones, which are adapted for weight bearing.

The depression on the distal end of the anterior humerus is the A) olecranon fossa. B) coronoid fossa. C) intercondylar fossa. D) intertubercular groove. E) trochlear notch.

B) coronoid fossa.

True ribs are directly connected to the sternum by ________. A) articular cartilages B) costal cartilages C) costal facets D) sternal ligaments E) costal ligaments

B) costal cartilages

When one closes the mouth, the movement is called ________. A) depression B) elevation C) retraction D) protraction E) flexion

B) elevation

The medullary cavity of a long bone is lined with ________. A) periosteum B) endosteum C) lacunae D) lamellae E) osteon

B) endosteum

Ribs that have no connection to the sternum are called ________. A) false ribs B) floating ribs C) vertebrosternal ribs D) true ribs E) vertebrochondral ribs

B) floating ribs

The structure that surrounds a diarthrotic joint is called a(n) A) meniscus. B) joint capsule. C) synovial membrane. D) bursa. E) alveolus.

B) joint capsule.

The bones of the limbs are classified as A) short bones. B) long bones. C) flat bones. D) sesamoid bones. E) irregular bones.

B) long bones.

The point of attachment for muscles that extend and rotate the head is the A) styloid process. B) mastoid process. C) posterior clinoid process. D) articular tubercle. E) odontoid process.

B) mastoid process.

The ulnar structure involved in articulation at the proximal radio-ulnar joint includes the A) ulnar notch. B) radial notch. C) radial tuberosity. D) ulnar head. E) coronoid process.

B) radial notch.

A compound fracture A) is caused by an underlying pathology. B) results in bone projecting through the skin. C) is a type of incomplete fracture. D) is also known as a closed fracture. E) is completely internal.

B) results in bone projecting through the skin.

The movement of turning around the longitudinal axis of the body or a limb toward the ventral surface of the body is called medial ________. A) adduction B) rotation C) inversion D) supination E) circumduction

B) rotation

The pituitary gland is located in the A) cribriform plate. B) sella turcica. C) sphenoidal sinus. D) glenoid fossa. E) hypophysis.

B) sella turcica.

Which joint permits the greatest range of motion of any joint in the body? A) hip B) shoulder C) elbow D) knee E) ankle

B) shoulder

Near the external auditory meatus, the long, sharp process called the ________ process is an attachment site for ligaments that support the hyoid bone. A) mastoid B) styloid C) occipital D) condyloid E) temporal

B) styloid

Which of the following joints is located between the spinal vertebrae? A) pivot B) symphysis C) gomphosis D) hinge E) synchondrosis

B) symphysis

The coxal bone forms by the fusion of which components? A) the obturator, ilium, and acromion B) the ilium, ischium, and pubis C) the ala, ilium, and capitulum D) the acetabulum, femoral head, and pubis E) the sacrum, coccyx, and acetabulum

B) the ilium, ischium, and pubis

Costal facets are distinctive features of ________ vertebrae. A) cervical B) thoracic C) lumbar D) sacral E) coccygeal

B) thoracic

The typical vertebra's ________, projecting laterally or dorsolaterally from the pedicles, serves as a site for muscle attachment. A) spinous process B) transverse process C) odontoid process D) articular facet E) lamina

B) transverse process

The ribs articulate with the A) spinous processes of the vertebrae. B) transverse processes of the vertebrae. C) laminae of the vertebrae. D) pedicles of the vertebrae. E) vertebral bodies.

B) transverse processes of the vertebrae.

Ribs that are connected to the sternum by separate cartilaginous extensions are called ________ ribs. A) false B) true C) floating D) vertebrochondral E) sternal

B) true

Rickets is a condition marked by a softening and bending of bones that occurs in growing children, as a result of ________ deficiency. A) vitamin A B) vitamin D3 C) growth hormone D) vitamin C E) thyroid hormone

B) vitamin D3

Billy is injured during a high school football game. His chest is badly bruised, and he is experiencing difficulty breathing. What might be the problem?

Billy has probably broken one or more of his ribs. Movement of the ribs changes the size of the thoracic cavity, which is an important part of breathing. When the ribs are broken, breathing can become difficult (labored) because the ribs cannot function properly. It is also possible that the injury caused a rib to pierce one of the lungs, resulting in a condition known as a pneumothorax, or collapsed lung, due to air in the pleural cavity.

The appendicular skeleton contains ________ bones. A) 80 B) 206 C) 126 D) 64 E) 62

C) 126

The vertebral column contains ________ cervical vertebrae. A) 4 B) 5 C) 7 D) 12 E) 31

C) 7

Which of the following occurs in intramembranous ossification? A) Hyaline cartilage model forms. B) Periosteum forms a collar around the cartilage. C) Fibrous connective tissue is converted to bone tissue, which first resembles spongy bone. D) As the bone enlarges, osteoclasts break down some of the spongy bone and create a marrow cavity. E) Ossification centers are formed as blood vessels and osteoblasts enter the centers of the epiphyses.

C) Fibrous connective tissue is converted to bone tissue, which first resembles spongy bone.

Red bone marrow functions in the formation of A) adipose tissue. B) new bone. C) blood cells. D) osteoblasts. E) osteocytes.

C) blood cells.

Which of the following accounts for almost two-thirds of the mass of bone tissue? A) cells B) protein fibers C) calcium phosphate D) osteons E) polysaccharides

C) calcium phosphate

The pectoral girdle consists of the A) clavicle and humerus. B) clavicle, scapula, and humerus. C) clavicle and scapula. D) clavicle, scapula, and sternum. E) scapula and humerus.

C) clavicle and scapula.

Which type of synovial joint is described as an oval articular face nestling within a depression on the opposing surface? A) saddle B) pivot C) condylar D) ball-and-socket E) gliding

C) condylar

Osseous tissue is classified as which of the following? A) neural tissue B) nonstriated muscle tissue C) connective tissue D) epithelial tissue E) striated muscle tissue

C) connective tissue

The C1 vertebra forms a pivot joint with the C2 vertebra through a projection called the ________. A) transverse process B) pedicle C) dens D) spinous process E) superior articular process

C) dens

The hormone calcitonin functions to A) stimulate osteoclast activity. B) stimulate the absorption of calcium and phosphate ions in the digestive tract. C) depress calcium levels in body fluids. D) depress osteoblast activity. E) elevate calcium levels in body fluids.

C) depress calcium levels in body fluids.

The areas of fibrous connective tissue that exist between cranial bones at birth are called ________. A) condyles B) fissures C) fontanels D) facets E) sulci

C) fontanels

A joint with flattened or slightly curved articulating surfaces is called a ________ joint. A) hinge B) saddle C) gliding D) pivot E) condylar

C) gliding

The joints between the phalanges are classified as A) sutures. B) condyloid. C) hinges. D) gomphosis. E) saddle.

C) hinges.

The bones of the pelvis A) are bones of the axial skeleton only. B) are bones of the appendicular skeleton only. C) include portions of both axial and appendicular elements. D) include two prominent sesamoid bones. E) are connected anteriorly at the pubic symphysis and posteriorly by an interosseous membrane.

C) include portions of both axial and appendicular elements.

Narrow sheets of calcified matrix are referred to as A) osteons. B) canaliculi. C) lamellae. D) osteoclasts. E) central canals.

C) lamellae.

The bones that form the palms of the hands are the A) carpals. B) tarsals. C) metacarpals. D) metatarsals. E) phalanges.

C) metacarpals.

The primary function of ________ is exemplified when bones function as levers. A) support B) protection C) movement D) storage E) blood cell production

C) movement

Immature, active bone cells that produce new bone matrix are termed A) osteocytes. B) stem cells. C) osteoblasts. D) osteoclasts. E) chondrocytes.

C) osteoblasts.

Bone cells capable of dissolving the bony matrix are termed A) chondrocytes. B) osteons. C) osteoclasts. D) osteocytes. E) osteoblasts.

C) osteoclasts.

The ________ ligament of the knee continues its attachment on the anterior surface of the tibia and provides support to the front of the knee. A) popliteal B) collateral C) patellar D) cruciate E) tibial

C) patellar

Perforating canals A) are arranged parallel to the long axis of the central canal. B) are always associated with osteons in cancellous bone. C) provide passageways for linking the blood vessels of the central canals with those of the periosteum and the marrow cavity. D) occur in growing juvenile bone, but are obliterated in adult bone. E) are arranged in concentric layers around a central canal.

C) provide passageways for linking the blood vessels of the central canals with those of the periosteum and the marrow cavity.

The jugular notch is a structural feature of the ________. A) clavicle B) rib C) sternum D) cervical vertebra E) thoracic vertebra

C) sternum

The ________ of the radius assists in the stabilization of the wrist joint by preventing lateral movement of the bones of the wrist. A) olecranon process B) coronoid process C) styloid process D) radial tuberosity E) capitulum

C) styloid process

Most of the anterior surface of the scapula is formed by the A) infraspinous fossa. B) glenoid cavity. C) subscapular fossa. D) supraspinous fossa. E) coracoid process.

C) subscapular fossa.

Which of the following joints permits slight movement? A) gomphosis B) suture C) syndesmosis D) synchondrosis E) synovial

C) syndesmosis

Which two features make up the hinge joint at the elbow? A) trochlea of humerus and head of the radius B) head of radius and ulnar notch C) trochlea of humerus and trochlear notch of ulna D) coronoid fossa and trochlea of humerus E) medial condyle and medial epicondyle

C) trochlea of humerus and trochlear notch of ulna

Which of the following is most likely to be damaged during CPR (cardiopulmonary resuscitation)? A) styloid process B) mastoid process C) xiphoid process D) odontoid process E) transverse process

C) xiphoid process

The most inferior portion of the sternum is called the A) manubrium. B) body. C) xiphoid process. D) sternal angle. E) sternal groove.

C) xiphoid process.

Differentiate between compact bone and spongy bone.

Compact bone has osteons situated in closely packed areas and is found where stresses come from a limited range of direction. Spongy bone has large spaces between thin, bony plates and is found where stresses are few or come from many different directions. Compact bone provides strength, whereas spongy bone serves to reduce the weight of bones.

Posteriorly, the coxal bones articulate with the sacrum at the ________ joints. A) sacroischial B) symphyseal C) intervertebral D) sacroiliac E) sacrohiatal

D) sacroiliac

Why is the elbow joint considered to be extremely stable? A) Its relatively loose joint capsule permits an extensive range of motion. B) It has especially large and numerous bursae. C) Powerful muscles originating on the trunk, shoulder girdle, and humerus cover the joint capsule. D) The bony surfaces of the humerus and ulna interlock. E) A rotator cuff is associated with the joint.

D) The bony surfaces of the humerus and ulna interlock.

The depression that receives the head of the femur is the A) glenoid cavity. B) popliteal fossa. C) cubital fossa. D) acetabulum. E) sciatic notch.

D) acetabulum.

An increase in the diameter of growing bone is termed ________ growth. A) epiphyseal B) endochondral C) intramembranous D) appositional E) ossification

D) appositional

Which of the following is an example of a synchondrosis? A) distal articulation between the tibia and fibula B) articulation between bones of the skull C) shoulder joint D) articulation between the diaphysis and epiphysis in a growing long bone E) articulation between carpals

D) articulation between the diaphysis and epiphysis in a growing long bone

Bones encased within the temporal bone that are involved in sound detection are called A) optic bones. B) external acoustic meatus. C) internal acoustic meatus. D) auditory ossicles. E) crista galli.

D) auditory ossicles.

Which of the following primary functions of the skeletal system applies to the role of bone marrow? A) support B) storage C) protection D) blood cell production E) movement

D) blood cell production

The atlas is classified as a ________ vertebra. A) thoracic B) lumbar C) sacral D) cervical E) coccygeal

D) cervical

Moving the arm in a loop is an example of which angular movement? A) flexion B) adduction C) extension D) circumduction E) gliding

D) circumduction

The frontal and parietal bones articulate at the ________ suture. A) squamous B) lambdoid C) frontal D) coronal E) sagittal

D) coronal

The ________ ligaments of the knee cross each other as they attach the tibia to the femur. A) patellar B) collateral C) femoral D) cruciate E) posterior

D) cruciate

The shaft of a long bone is called the ________. A) epiphysis B) trabecula C) canaliculus D) diaphysis E) lamella

D) diaphysis

Which of the following associations is most accurate? A) synarthroses; slightly movable B) amphiarthroses; freely movable C) diarthroses; synchondroses D) diarthroses; synovial E) amphiarthroses; gomphoses

D) diarthroses; synovial

Which of the following bones contain the cribriform foramina? A) zygomatic B) maxilla C) frontal D) ethmoid E) sphenoid

D) ethmoid

The intervertebral articulations are classified as ________ joints. A) syndesmosis and pivot B) hinge C) synchondrosis D) gliding and symphysis E) synovial and syndesmosis

D) gliding and symphysis

Which maxillary region feature serves as an opening for a major sensory nerve from the face? A) optic canal B) transverse foramen C) supra-orbital foramen D) infra-orbital foramen E) mental foramen

D) infra-orbital foramen

The fibular collateral ligament is part of which joint? A) elbow B) hip C) shoulder D) knee E) ankle

D) knee

Found outside or inside a joint capsule, structures that join bone to bone are called ________. A) tendons B) bursae C) menisci D) ligaments E) alveoli

D) ligaments

Compared with the male pelvis, the female pelvis has a A) larger pelvic outlet. B) relatively broad, high pelvis. C) relatively narrow, high pelvis. D) narrower pubic angle. E) smaller pelvic outlet

D) narrower pubic angle.

During the process of ________, an existing tissue is replaced with bone. A) blood cell production B) calcification C) resorption D) ossification E) osteolysis

D) ossification

Which of the following is found only in compact bone? A) trabeculae B) canaliculi C) osteoblasts D) osteons E) marrow

D) osteons

In anatomical position, when the palm is moved to face posteriorly, the movement of the wrist and hand is called ________. A) extension B) protraction C) reposition D) pronation E) supination

D) pronation

The fibula A) forms an important part of the knee joint. B) articulates with the femur. C) helps to bear the weight of the body. D) provides lateral stability to the ankle. E) is the medial bone of the leg.

D) provides lateral stability to the ankle.

Which structural feature of the upper limb marks the attachment site of the biceps brachii muscle, a flexor of the forearm? A) trochlear notch B) deltoid tuberosity C) styloid process D) radial tuberosity E) coronoid process

D) radial tuberosity

Choose the distinctive feature of lumbar vertebrae. A) large, slender spinous process that projects inferiorly B) relatively large vertebral foramen C) massive, heart-shaped body D) relatively massive, stumpy spinous process that projects posteriorly E) round transverse foramina within the transverse processes

D) relatively massive, stumpy spinous process that projects posteriorly

Which of the following is part of the axial skeleton? A) clavicle B) patella C) carpal bones D) ribs E) coxal bones

D) ribs

The ________ joint is the most frequently dislocated joint of the body as it provides an excellent demonstration of the principle that stability must be sacrificed to obtain mobility. A) knee B) hip C) elbow D) shoulder E) intervertebral

D) shoulder

The vertebral arches contribute structurally to surround and protect the A) spinal nerves. B) cranial nerves. C) vertebrae. D) spinal cord. E) ribs.

D) spinal cord.

Which of the following is part of the appendicular skeleton? A) the skull B) the manubrium C) the sternum D) the scapula E) the vertebrae

D) the scapula

The primary curves of the vertebral column are the A) cervical and lumbar. B) cervical and thoracic. C) cervical and sacral. D) thoracic and sacral. E) thoracic and lumbar.

D) thoracic and sacral.

________ is a movement that occurs in the anterior-posterior plane and increases the angle between the articulating bones. A) Eversion B) Flexion C) Elevation D) Reposition E) Extension

E) Extension

Which of the following is an example of the skeletal system's primary function of providing structural support? A) Calcium salts are found in bone. B) Bones change the magnitude and direction of the forces generated by skeletal muscles. C) Red marrow fills the internal cavities of many bones. D) The skull encloses the brain. E) Individual bones provide a framework for the attachment of soft tissues and organs.

E) Individual bones provide a framework for the attachment of soft tissues and organs.

What is the function of the sphenoid bone? A) It forms the anterior roof of the mouth or bony palate. B) It forms the roof of the orbits. C) It supports a prominent partition that forms part of the nasal septum. D) It helps slow airflow in the nasal cavity. E) It acts like a bridge uniting the cranial and facial bones.

E) It acts like a bridge uniting the cranial and facial bones.

________ are giant bone cells with 50 or more nuclei. A) Osteocytes B) Osteons C) Osteoblasts D) Canaliculi E) Osteoclasts

E) Osteoclasts

Pads of ________ are often found around the edges of diarthrotic joints to provide protection for the articular cartilages. A) connective tissue B) hyaline cartilage C) synovial fluid D) fibrocartilage E) adipose tissue

E) adipose tissue

Osteocytes A) are giant cells with 50 or more nuclei. B) are immature bone cells. C) are the cells responsible for the production of new bone. D) secrete acids and enzymes. E) maintain normal bone structure by recycling the calcium salts in the bony matrix around themselves.

E) maintain normal bone structure by recycling the calcium salts in the bony matrix around themselves.

The maxillary bones articulate with all other facial bones except the ________. A) zygomatic bones B) palatine bones C) vomer D) ethmoid bone E) mandible

E) mandible

Which of the following is formed via intramembranous ossification? A) tibia B) humerus C) carpal bones D) femur E) mandible

E) mandible

Considering the bony structure of the palate, a cleft palate is a malformation of which bone? A) vomer B) ethmoid C) sphenoid D) mandible E) maxillary

E) maxillary

Bones of the skull that articulate with the nasal bones include (the) A) temporal bone. B) ethmoid bone. C) zygomatic bone. D) sphenoid. E) maxillary bone.

E) maxillary bone.

Which is the anatomical term for a passageway through a bone? A) sulcus B) sinus C) fossa D) trochlea E) meatus

E) meatus

Which cell populations are particularly sensitive to changes in calcium ion concentration? A) neurons and connective tissue fibroblasts B) elastin and collagen fibers C) collagen and reticular fibers D) cartilage cells E) neurons and muscle cells

E) neurons and muscle cells

Bone-forming cells are called ________. A) osteoclasts B) osteocytes C) osteons D) ossification centers E) osteoblasts

E) osteoblasts

The inferior margin of the vomer articulates with which bone(s)? A) maxillae B) zygomatic bones C) hyoid bone D) inferior nasal conchae E) palatine bones

E) palatine bones

A crest on a bone is defined as a(n) A) low ridge. B) small, rounded projection. C) narrow groove. D) elongated cleft. E) prominent ridge.

E) prominent ridge.

Moving a part of the body anteriorly in the horizontal plane is called ________. A) retraction B) elevation C) flexion D) dorsiflexion E) protraction

E) protraction

Which feature is an important landmark in females during pelvic examinations, and during labor and delivery? A) sacral canal B) sacral hiatus C) sacral foramina D) median sacral crest E) sacral promontory

E) sacral promontory

Which of the following is a carpal bone? A) navicular B) cuneiform C) calcaneus D) talus E) scaphoid

E) scaphoid

A joint that permits no movement and is described as an interposition of cartilage plates is called a A) symphysis. B) synovial joint. C) suture. D) meniscus. E) synchondrosis.

E) synchondrosis.

Which tarsal bone articulates with the tibia and fibula, transmitting the body's weight from the tibia toward the toes? A) calcaneus B) cuboid C) navicular D) medial cuneiform E) talus

E) talus