Chapter 64 54

The nurse is caring for a client with a hiatal hernia who had an open fundoplication yesterday. Which task does the nurse delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? A. Using a pillow to support the incision when the client coughs B. Adjusting the position of the nasogastric (NG) tube C. Assessing the level of postoperative pain using a 0-to-10 scale D. Giving the client sips of water once bowel sounds are heard

A. Assisting a client to cough is a task within the education and skill level of UAP. NG tube maintenance, pain assessment, and assessment of bowel sounds require more knowledge of the potential complications associated with this surgical procedure, and are actions best performed by licensed nursing staff.

The nurse is observing a co-worker who is caring for a client with a nasogastric tube following esophageal surgery. Which actions by the co-worker require the nurse to intervene? (Select all that apply.) A. Checking tube placement every 12 hours B. Keeping the bed flat C. Placing the client upright when taking sips of water D. Providing mouth care every 8 hours E. Securing the tube

A. B. D. The nasogastric tube should be checked every 4 to 8 hours. The head of the bed should be elevated at least 30 degrees. Oral hygiene should be provided every 2 to 4 hours. The client should be placed upright when taking sips or small amounts of water to prevent choking and to allow observation of the client for dysphagia. The tube should be secured to prevent dislodgment.

The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with esophageal cancer who is experiencing diarrhea after conventional esophageal surgery. The nurse anticipates that the health care provider will request which medication to manage diarrhea? A. Loperamide (Imodium) B. Mesalamine (Pentasa) C. Minocycline (Minocin) D. Pantoprazole (Protonix)

A. Diarrhea is thought to be the result of vagotomy syndrome, which develops as a result of interruption of vagal fibers to the abdominal viscera during surgery. It can occur 20 minutes to 2 hours after eating and can be symptomatically managed with loperamide. Mesalamine is used to treat clients with mild to moderate ulcerative colitis. Minocycline is an antibiotic used for treatment of infection. Pantoprazole is used to treat gastroesophageal reflux disease.

The nurse is reinforcing the instructions on swallowing provided by the speech-language pathologist to a client diagnosed with esophageal cancer. Which instruction to the client is the highest priority? A. Place food at the back of the mouth as you eat. B. Do not be overly concerned with tongue or lip movements. C. Before swallowing, tilt the head back to straighten the esophagus. D. Do not attempt to reach food particles that are on the lips or around the mouth.

A. Placing food at the back of the mouth when eating will help the client avoid aspirating. Both tongue movements and sealing of the lips should be monitored in this client. The client's head should be tilted forward in the chin-tuck position. The client should be able to reach food particles on her or his lips and around the mouth with the tongue.

A client has been diagnosed with mild gastroesophageal reflux disease and asks the nurse about nonpharmacologic treatments to prevent symptoms. What does the nurse tell this client? A. "Avoid caffeine-containing foods and beverages." B. "Eat three meals each day and avoid snacking between meals." C. "Peppermint lozenges help to reduce stomach upset." D. "Sleep on your left side with a pillow between your knees."

A. Teach the client to limit or eliminate foods that decrease lower esophageal sphincter (LES) pressure and that irritate inflamed tissue, causing heartburn, such as peppermint, chocolate, alcohol, fatty foods (especially fried), caffeine, and carbonated beverages. Large meals increase the volume of and pressure in the stomach and delay gastric emptying. Remind the client to eat four to six small meals each day rather than three large ones. Peppermint decreases LES pressure and increases the risk of symptoms. Clients should be taught to elevate the head by 6 to 12 inches for sleep to prevent nighttime reflux.

A nurse reviews laboratory results for a client with diabetes mellitus who presents with polyuria, lethargy, and a blood glucose of 560 mg/dL. Which laboratory result should the nurse correlate with the client's polyuria? a.Serum sodium: 163 mEq/L b.Serum creatinine: 1.6 mg/dL c.Presence of urine ketone bodies d.Serum osmolarity: 375 mOsm/kg

ANS: D Hyperglycemia causes hyperosmolarity of extracellular fluid. This leads to polyuria from an osmotic diuresis. The client's serum osmolarity is high. The client's sodium would be expected to be high owing to dehydration. Serum creatinine and urine ketone bodies are not related to the polyuria.

A preoperative nurse assesses a client who has type 1 diabetes mellitus prior to a surgical procedure. The client's blood glucose level is 160 mg/dL. Which action should the nurse take? a.Document the finding in the client's chart. b.Administer a bolus of regular insulin IV. c.Call the surgeon to cancel the procedure. d.Draw blood gases to assess the metabolic state.

ANS: A Clients who have type 1 diabetes and are having surgery have been found to have fewer complications, lower rates of infection, and better wound healing if blood glucose levels are maintained at between 140 and 180 mg/dL throughout the perioperative period. The nurse should document the finding and proceed with other operative care. The need for a bolus of insulin, canceling the procedure, or drawing arterial blood gases is not required.

A nurse teaches a client who is diagnosed with diabetes mellitus. Which statement should the nurse include in this client's plan of care to delay the onset of microvascular and macrovascular complications? a."Maintain tight glycemic control and prevent hyperglycemia." b."Restrict your fluid intake to no more than 2 liters a day." c."Prevent hypoglycemia by eating a bedtime snack." d."Limit your intake of protein to prevent ketoacidosis."

ANS: A Hyperglycemia is a critical factor in the pathogenesis of long-term diabetic complications. Maintaining tight glycemic control will help delay the onset of complications. Restricting fluid intake is not part of the treatment plan for clients with diabetes. Preventing hypoglycemia and ketosis, although important, are not as important as maintaining daily glycemic control.

After teaching a client who is recovering from pancreas transplantation, the nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a need for additional education? a."If I develop an infection, I should stop taking my corticosteroid." b."If I have pain over the transplant site, I will call the surgeon immediately." c."I should avoid people who are ill or who have an infection." d."I should take my cyclosporine exactly the way I was taught."

ANS: A Immunosuppressive agents should not be stopped without the consultation of the transplantation physician, even if an infection is present. Stopping immunosuppressive therapy endangers the transplanted organ. The other statements are correct. Pain over the graft site may indicate rejection. Anti-rejection drugs cause immunosuppression, and the client should avoid crowds and people who are ill. Changing the routine of anti-rejection medications may cause them to not work optimally.

A nurse prepares to administer insulin to a client at 1800. The client's medication administration record contains the following information: • Insulin glargine: 12 units daily at 1800 • Regular insulin: 6 units QID at 0600, 1200, 1800, 2400 Based on the client's medication administration record, which action should the nurse take? a.Draw up and inject the insulin glargine first, and then draw up and inject the regular insulin. b.Draw up and inject the insulin glargine first, wait 20 minutes, and then draw up and inject the regular insulin. c.First draw up the dose of regular insulin, then draw up the dose of insulin glargine in the same syringe, mix, and inject the two insulins together. d.First draw up the dose of insulin glargine, then draw up the dose of regular insulin in the same syringe, mix, and inject the two insulins together.

ANS: A Insulin glargine must not be diluted or mixed with any other insulin or solution. Mixing results in an unpredictable alteration in the onset of action and time to peak action. The correct instruction is to draw up and inject first the glargine and then the regular insulin right afterward.

A nurse cares for a client with diabetes mellitus who is visually impaired. The client asks, "Can I ask my niece to prefill my syringes and then store them for later use when I need them?" How should the nurse respond? a."Yes. Prefilled syringes can be stored for 3 weeks in the refrigerator in a vertical position with the needle pointing up." b."Yes. Syringes can be filled with insulin and stored for a month in a location that is protected from light." c."Insulin reacts with plastic, so prefilled syringes are okay, but you will need to use glass syringes." d."No. Insulin syringes cannot be prefilled and stored for any length of time outside of the container."

ANS: A Insulin is relatively stable when stored in a cool, dry place away from light. When refrigerated, prefilled plastic syringes are stable for up to 3 weeks. They should be stored in the refrigerator in the vertical position with the needle pointing up to prevent suspended insulin particles from clogging the needle.

An emergency department nurse assesses a client with ketoacidosis. Which clinical manifestation should the nurse correlate with this condition? a.Increased rate and depth of respiration b.Extremity tremors followed by seizure activity c.Oral temperature of 102° F (38.9° C) d.Severe orthostatic hypotension

ANS: A Ketoacidosis decreases the pH of the blood, stimulating the respiratory control areas of the brain to buffer the effects of increasing acidosis. The rate and depth of respiration are increased (Kussmaul respirations) in an attempt to excrete more acids by exhalation. Tremors, elevated temperature, and orthostatic hypotension are not associated with ketoacidosis.

A nurse cares for a client who has a family history of diabetes mellitus. The client states, "My father has type 1 diabetes mellitus. Will I develop this disease as well?" How should the nurse respond? a."Your risk of diabetes is higher than the general population, but it may not occur." b."No genetic risk is associated with the development of type 1 diabetes mellitus." c."The risk for becoming a diabetic is 50% because of how it is inherited." d."Female children do not inherit diabetes mellitus, but male children will."

ANS: A Risk for type 1 diabetes is determined by inheritance of genes coding for HLA-DR and HLA-DQ tissue types. Clients who have one parent with type 1 diabetes are at increased risk for its development. Diabetes (type 1) seems to require interaction between inherited risk and environmental factors, so not everyone with these genes develops diabetes. The other statements are not accurate.

After teaching a client with diabetes mellitus to inject insulin, the nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a need for additional teaching? a.The lower abdomen is the best location because it is closest to the pancreas." b.I can reach my thigh the best, so I will use the different areas of my thighs." c."By rotating the sites in one area, my chance of having a reaction is decreased." d."Changing injection sites from the thigh to the arm will change absorption rates."

ANS: A The abdominal site has the fastest rate of absorption because of blood vessels in the area, not because of its proximity to the pancreas. The other statements are accurate assessments of insulin administration.

A nurse assesses a client with diabetes mellitus and notes the client only responds to a sternal rub by moaning, has capillary blood glucose of 33 g/dL, and has an intravenous line that is infiltrated with 0.45% normal saline. Which action should the nurse take first? a.Administer 1 mg of intramuscular glucagon. b.Encourage the client to drink orange juice. c.Insert a new intravenous access line. d.Administer 25 mL dextrose 50% (D50) IV push.

ANS: A The client's blood glucose level is dangerously low. The nurse needs to administer glucagon IM immediately to increase the client's blood glucose level. The nurse should insert a new IV after administering the glucagon and can use the new IV site for future doses of D50 if the client's blood glucose level does not rise. Once the client is awake, orange juice may be administered orally along with a form of protein such as a peanut butter.

A nurse assesses a client who has diabetes mellitus and notes the client is awake and alert, but shaky, diaphoretic, and weak. Five minutes after administering a half-cup of orange juice, the client's clinical manifestations have not changed. Which action should the nurse take next? a.Administer another half-cup of orange juice. b.Administer a half-ampule of dextrose 50% intravenously. c.Administer 10 units of regular insulin subcutaneously. d.Administer 1 mg of glucagon intramuscularly.

ANS: A This client is experiencing mild hypoglycemia. For mild hypoglycemic manifestations, the nurse should administer oral glucose in the form of orange juice. If the symptoms do not resolve immediately, the treatment should be repeated. The client does not need intravenous dextrose, insulin, or glucagon.

A nurse provides diabetic education at a public health fair. Which disorders should the nurse include as complications of diabetes mellitus? (Select all that apply.) a.Stroke b.Kidney failure c.Blindness d.Respiratory failure e.Cirrhosis

ANS: A, B, C Complications of diabetes mellitus are caused by macrovascular and microvascular changes. Macrovascular complications include coronary artery disease, cerebrovascular disease, and peripheral vascular disease. Microvascular complications include nephropathy, retinopathy, and neuropathy. Respiratory failure and cirrhosis are not complications of diabetes mellitus.

A nurse teaches a client with diabetes mellitus about foot care. Which statements should the nurse include in this client's teaching? (Select all that apply.) a."Do not walk around barefoot." b."Soak your feet in a tub each evening." c.Trim toenails straight across with a nail clipper." d."Treat any blisters or sores with Epsom salts." e."Wash your feet every other day."

ANS: A, C Clients who have diabetes mellitus are at high risk for wounds on the feet secondary to peripheral neuropathy and poor arterial circulation. The client should be instructed to not walk around barefoot or wear sandals with open toes. These actions place the client at higher risk for skin breakdown of the feet. The client should be instructed to trim toenails straight across with a nail clipper. Feet should be washed daily with lukewarm water and soap, but feet should not be soaked in the tub. The client should contact the provider immediately if blisters or sores appear and should not use home remedies to treat these wounds.

A nurse assesses a client who is experiencing diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). For which manifestations should the nurse monitor the client? (Select all that apply.) a.Deep and fast respirations b.Decreased urine output c.Tachycardia d.Dependent pulmonary crackles e.Orthostatic hypotension

ANS: A, C, E DKA leads to dehydration, which is manifested by tachycardia and orthostatic hypotension. Usually clients have Kussmaul respirations, which are fast and deep. Increased urinary output (polyuria) is severe. Because of diuresis and dehydration, peripheral edema and crackles do not occur.

A nurse assesses clients at a health fair. Which clients should the nurse counsel to be tested for diabetes? (Select all that apply.) a.56-year-old African-American male b.Female with a 30-pound weight gain during pregnancy c.Male with a history of pancreatic trauma d.48-year-old woman with a sedentary lifestyle e.Male with a body mass index greater than 25 kg/m2 f.28-year-old female who gave birth to a baby weighing 9.2 pounds

ANS: A, D, E, F Risk factors for type 2 diabetes include certain ethnic/racial groups (African Americans, American Indians, Hispanics), obesity and physical inactivity, and giving birth to large babies. Pancreatic trauma and a 30-pound gestational weight gain are not risk factors.

A nurse prepares to administer prescribed regular and NPH insulin. Place the nurse's actions in the correct order to administer these medications. 1. Inspect bottles for expiration dates. 2. Gently roll the bottle of NPH between the hands. 3. Wash your hands. 4. Inject air into the regular insulin. 5. Withdraw the NPH insulin. 6. Withdraw the regular insulin. 7. Inject air into the NPH bottle. 8. Clean rubber stoppers with an alcohol swab. a.1, 3, 8, 2, 4, 6, 7, 5 b.3, 1, 2, 8, 7, 4, 6, 5 c.8, 1, 3, 2, 4, 6, 7, 5 d.2, 3, 1, 8, 7, 5, 4, 6

ANS: B After washing hands, it is important to inspect the bottles and then to roll the NPH to mix the insulin. Rubber stoppers should be cleaned with alcohol after rolling the NPH and before sticking a needle into either bottle. It is important to inject air into the NPH bottle before placing the needle in a regular insulin bottle to avoid mixing of regular and NPH insulin. The shorter-acting insulin is always drawn up first.

A nurse cares for a client who is diagnosed with acute rejection 2 months after receiving a simultaneous pancreas-kidney transplant. The client states, "I was doing so well with my new organs, and the thought of having to go back to living on hemodialysis and taking insulin is so depressing." How should the nurse respond? a."Following the drug regimen more closely would have prevented this." b."One acute rejection episode does not mean that you will lose the new organs." c."Dialysis is a viable treatment option for you and may save your life." d."Since you are on the national registry, you can receive a second transplantation."

ANS: B An episode of acute rejection does not automatically mean that the client will lose the transplant. Pharmacologic manipulation of host immune responses at this time can limit damage to the organ and allow the graft to be maintained. The other statements either belittle the client or downplay his or her concerns. The client may not be a candidate for additional organ transplantation.

A nurse reviews the laboratory results of a client who is receiving intravenous insulin. Which should alert the nurse to intervene immediately? a.Serum chloride level of 98 mmol/L b.Serum calcium level of 8.8 mg/dL c.Serum sodium level of 132 mmol/L d.Serum potassium level of 2.5 mmol/L

ANS: D Insulin activates the sodium-potassium ATPase pump, increasing the movement of potassium from the extracellular fluid into the intracellular fluid, resulting in hypokalemia. In hyperglycemia, hypokalemia can also result from excessive urine loss of potassium. The chloride level is normal. The calcium and sodium levels are slightly low, but this would not be related to hyperglycemia and insulin administration.

A nurse is teaching a client with diabetes mellitus who asks, "Why is it necessary to maintain my blood glucose levels no lower than about 60 mg/dL?" How should the nurse respond? a."Glucose is the only fuel used by the body to produce the energy that it needs." b."Your brain needs a constant supply of glucose because it cannot store it." c."Without a minimum level of glucose, your body does not make red blood cells." d."Glucose in the blood prevents the formation of lactic acid and prevents acidosis."

ANS: B Because the brain cannot synthesize or store significant amounts of glucose, a continuous supply from the body's circulation is needed to meet the fuel demands of the central nervous system. The nurse would want to educate the client to prevent hypoglycemia. The body can use other sources of fuel, including fat and protein, and glucose is not involved in the production of red blood cells. Glucose in the blood will encourage glucose metabolism but is not directly responsible for lactic acid formation.

After teaching a client with type 2 diabetes mellitus, the nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a need for additional teaching? a."I need to have an annual appointment even if my glucose levels are in good control." b."Since my diabetes is controlled with diet and exercise, I must be seen only if I am sick." c."I can still develop complications even though I do not have to take insulin at this time." d."If I have surgery or get very ill, I may have to receive insulin injections for a short time.

ANS: B Clients with diabetes need to be seen at least annually to monitor for long-term complications, including visual changes, microalbuminuria, and lipid analysis. The client may develop complications and may need insulin in the future.

A nurse reviews the medication list of a client with a 20-year history of diabetes mellitus. The client holds up the bottle of prescribed duloxetine (Cymbalta) and states, "My cousin has depression and is taking this drug. Do you think I'm depressed?" How should the nurse respond? a."Many people with long-term diabetes become depressed after a while." b."It's for peripheral neuropathy. Do you have burning pain in your feet or hands?" c."This antidepressant also has anti-inflammatory properties for diabetic pain." d."No. Many medications can be used for several different disorders."

ANS: B Damage along nerves causes peripheral neuropathy and leads to burning pain along the nerves. Many drugs, including duloxetine (Cymbalta), can be used to treat peripheral neuropathy. The nurse should assess the client for this condition and then should provide an explanation of why this drug is being used. This medication, although it is used for depression, is not being used for that reason in this case. Duloxetine does not have anti-inflammatory properties. Telling the client that many medications are used for different disorders does not provide the client with enough information to be useful.

A nurse cares for a client with diabetes mellitus who asks, "Why do I need to administer more than one injection of insulin each day?" How should the nurse respond? a."You need to start with multiple injections until you become more proficient at self-injection." b.A single dose of insulin each day would not match your blood insulin levels and your food intake patterns." c."A regimen of a single dose of insulin injected each day would require that you eat fewer carbohydrates." d."A single dose of insulin would be too large to be absorbed, predictably putting you at risk for insulin shock."

ANS: B Even when a single injection of insulin contains a combined dose of different-acting insulin types, the timing of the actions and the timing of food intake may not match well enough to prevent wide variations in blood glucose levels. One dose of insulin would not be appropriate even if the client decreased carbohydrate intake. Additional injections are not required to allow the client practice with injections, nor will one dose increase the client's risk of insulin shock

A nurse teaches a client with type 2 diabetes mellitus who is prescribed glipizide (Glucotrol). Which statement should the nurse include in this client's teaching? a."Change positions slowly when you get out of bed." b."Avoid taking nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)." c."If you miss a dose of this drug, you can double the next dose." d."Discontinue the medication if you develop a urinary infection."

ANS: B NSAIDs potentiate the hypoglycemic effects of sulfonylurea agents. Glipizide is a sulfonylurea. The other statements are not applicable to glipizide.

nurse cares for a client who has diabetes mellitus. The nurse administers 6 units of regular insulin and 10 units of NPH insulin at 0700. At which time should the nurse assess the client for potential problems related to the NPH insulin? a.0800 b.1600 c.2000 d.2300

ANS: B Neutral protamine Hagedorn (NPH) is an intermediate-acting insulin with an onset of 1.5 hours, peak of 4 to 12 hours, and duration of action of 22 hours. Checking the client at 0800 would be too soon. Checking the client at 2000 and 2300 would be too late. The nurse should check the client at 1600.

A nurse assesses a client with diabetes mellitus. Which clinical manifestation should alert the nurse to decreased kidney function in this client? a.Urine specific gravity of 1.033 b.Presence of protein in the urine c.Elevated capillary blood glucose level d.Presence of ketone bodies in the urine

ANS: B Renal dysfunction often occurs in the client with diabetes. Proteinuria is a result of renal dysfunction. Specific gravity is elevated with dehydration. Elevated capillary blood glucose levels and ketones in the urine are consistent with diabetes mellitus but are not specific to renal function.

A nurse develops a dietary plan for a client with diabetes mellitus and new-onset microalbuminuria. Which component of the client's diet should the nurse decrease? a.Carbohydrates b.Proteins c.Fats d.Total calories

ANS: B Restriction of dietary protein to 0.8 g/kg of body weight per day is recommended for clients with microalbuminuria to delay progression to renal failure. The client's diet does not need to be decreased in carbohydrates, fats, or total calories.

A nurse teaches a client about self-monitoring of blood glucose levels. Which statement should the nurse include in this client's teaching to prevent bloodborne infections? a."Wash your hands after completing each test." b."Do not share your monitoring equipment." c."Blot excess blood from the strip with a cotton ball." d."Use gloves when monitoring your blood glucose."

ANS: B Small particles of blood can adhere to the monitoring device, and infection can be transported from one user to another. Hepatitis B in particular can survive in a dried state for about a week. The client should be taught to avoid sharing any equipment, including the lancet holder. The client should be taught to wash his or her hands before testing. The client would not need to blot excess blood away from the strip or wear gloves.

A nurse reviews the chart and new prescriptions for a client with diabetic ketoacidosis: Vital Signs and Assessment Laboratory Results Medications Blood pressure: 90/62 mm Hg Pulse: 120 beats/min Respiratory rate: 28 breaths/min Urine output: 20 mL/hr via catheter Serum potassium: 2.6 mEq/L Potassium chloride 40 mEq IV bolus STAT Increase IV fluid to 100 mL/hr Which action should the nurse take? a.Administer the potassium and then consult with the provider about the fluid order. b.Increase the intravenous rate and then consult with the provider about the potassium prescription. c.Administer the potassium first before increasing the infusion flow rate. d.Increase the intravenous flow rate before administering the potassium.

ANS: B The client is acutely ill and is severely dehydrated and hypokalemic. The client requires more IV fluids and potassium. However, potassium should not be infused unless the urine output is at least 30 mL/hr. The nurse should first increase the IV rate and then consult with the provider about the potassium.

A nurse reviews laboratory results for a client with diabetes mellitus who is prescribed an intensified insulin regimen: • Fasting blood glucose: 75 mg/dL • Postprandial blood glucose: 200 mg/dL • Hemoglobin A1c level: 5.5% How should the nurse interpret these laboratory findings? a.Increased risk for developing ketoacidosis b.Good control of blood glucose c.Increased risk for developing hyperglycemia d.Signs of insulin resistance

ANS: B The client is maintaining blood glucose levels within the defined ranges for goals in an intensified regimen. Because the client's glycemic control is good, he or she is not at higher risk for ketoacidosis or hyperglycemia and is not showing signs of insulin resistance.

A nurse cares for a client who is prescribed pioglitazone (Actos). After 6 months of therapy, the client reports that his urine has become darker since starting the medication. Which action should the nurse take? a.Assess for pain or burning with urination. b.Review the client's liver function study results. c.Instruct the client to increase water intake. d.Test a sample of urine for occult blood.

ANS: B Thiazolidinediones (including pioglitazone) can affect liver function; liver function should be assessed at the start of therapy and at regular intervals while the client continues to take these drugs. Dark urine is one indicator of liver impairment because bilirubin is increased in the blood and is excreted in the urine. The nurse should check the client's most recent liver function studies. The nurse does not need to assess for pain or burning with urination and does not need to check the urine for occult blood. The client does not need to be told to increase water intake.

A nurse teaches a client with diabetes mellitus about sick day management. Which statement should the nurse include in this client's teaching? a."When ill, avoid eating or drinking to reduce vomiting and diarrhea." b."Monitor your blood glucose levels at least every 4 hours while sick." c."If vomiting, do not use insulin or take your oral antidiabetic agent." d."Try to continue your prescribed exercise regimen even if you are sick."

ANS: B When ill, the client should monitor his or her blood glucose at least every 4 hours. The client should continue taking the medication regimen while ill. The client should continue to eat and drink as tolerated but should not exercise while sick.

A nurse assesses a client who has diabetes mellitus. Which arterial blood gas values should the nurse identify as potential ketoacidosis in this client? a.pH 7.38, HCO3- 22 mEq/L, PCO2 38 mm Hg, PO2 98 mm Hg b.pH 7.28, HCO3- 18 mEq/L, PCO2 28 mm Hg, PO2 98 mm Hg c.pH 7.48, HCO3- 28 mEq/L, PCO2 38 mm Hg, PO2 98 mm Hg d.pH 7.32, HCO3- 22 mEq/L, PCO2 58 mm Hg, PO2 88 mm Hg

ANS: B When the lungs can no longer offset acidosis, the pH decreases to below normal. A client who has diabetic ketoacidosis would present with arterial blood gas values that show primary metabolic acidosis with decreased bicarbonate levels and a compensatory respiratory alkalosis with decreased carbon dioxide levels.

A nurse assesses a client who is being treated for hyperglycemic-hyperosmolar state (HHS). Which clinical manifestation indicates to the nurse that the therapy needs to be adjusted? a.Serum potassium level has increased. b.Blood osmolarity has decreased. c.Glasgow Coma Scale score is unchanged. d.Urine remains negative for ketone bodies.

ANS: C A slow but steady improvement in central nervous system functioning is the best indicator of therapy effectiveness for HHS. Lack of improvement in the level of consciousness may indicate inadequate rates of fluid replacement. The Glasgow Coma Scale assesses the client's state of consciousness against criteria of a scale including best eye, verbal, and motor responses. An increase in serum potassium, decreased blood osmolality, and urine negative for ketone bodies do not indicate adequacy of treatment.

A nurse assesses a client who has a 15-year history of diabetes and notes decreased tactile sensation in both feet. Which action should the nurse take first? a.Document the finding in the client's chart. b.Assess tactile sensation in the client's hands. c.Examine the client's feet for signs of injury. d.Notify the health care provider.

ANS: C Diabetic neuropathy is common when the disease is of long duration. The client is at great risk for injury in any area with decreased sensation because he or she is less able to feel injurious events. Feet are common locations for neuropathy and injury, so the nurse should inspect them for any signs of injury. After assessment, the nurse should document findings in the client's chart. Testing sensory perception in the hands may or may not be needed. The health care provider can be notified after assessment and documentation have been completed.

After teaching a client who is newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus, the nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a need for additional teaching? a."I should increase my intake of vegetables with higher amounts of dietary fiber." b."My intake of saturated fats should be no more than 10% of my total calorie intake." c."I should decrease my intake of protein and eliminate carbohydrates from my diet." d."My intake of water is not restricted by my treatment plan or medication regimen."

ANS: C The client should not completely eliminate carbohydrates from the diet, and should reduce protein if microalbuminuria is present. The client should increase dietary intake of complex carbohydrates, including vegetables, and decrease intake of fat. Water does not need to be restricted unless kidney failure is present.

At 4:45 p.m., a nurse assesses a client with diabetes mellitus who is recovering from an abdominal hysterectomy 2 days ago. The nurse notes that the client is confused and diaphoretic. The nurse reviews the assessment data provided in the chart below: Capillary Blood Glucose Testing (AC/HS) Dietary Intake At 0630: 95 At 1130: 70 At 1630: 47 Breakfast: 10% eaten - client states she is not hungry Lunch: 5% eaten - client is nauseous; vomits once After reviewing the client's assessment data, which action is appropriate at this time? a.Assess the client's oxygen saturation level and administer oxygen. b.Reorient the client and apply a cool washcloth to the client's forehead. c.Administer dextrose 50% intravenously and reassess the client. d.Provide a glass of orange juice and encourage the client to eat dinner.

ANS: C The client's symptoms are related to hypoglycemia. Since the client has not been tolerating food, the nurse should administer dextrose intravenously. The client's oxygen level could be checked, but based on the information provided, this is not the priority. The client will not be reoriented until the glucose level rises.

A nurse assesses a client with diabetes mellitus 3 hours after a surgical procedure and notes the client's breath has a "fruity" odor. Which action should the nurse take? a.Encourage the client to use an incentive spirometer. b.Increase the client's intravenous fluid flow rate. c.Consult the provider to test for ketoacidosis. d.Perform meticulous pulmonary hygiene care.

ANS: C The stress of surgery increases the action of counterregulatory hormones and suppresses the action of insulin, predisposing the client to ketoacidosis and metabolic acidosis. One manifestation of ketoacidosis is a "fruity" odor to the breath. Documentation should occur after all assessments have been completed. Using an incentive spirometer, increasing IV fluids, and performing pulmonary hygiene will not address this client's problem.

A nurse teaches a client with diabetes mellitus who is experiencing numbness and reduced sensation. Which statement should the nurse include in this client's teaching to prevent injury? a."Examine your feet using a mirror every day." b."Rotate your insulin injection sites every week." c."Check your blood glucose level before each meal." d."Use a bath thermometer to test the water temperature."

ANS: D Clients with diminished sensory perception can easily experience a burn injury when bathwater is too hot. Instead of checking the temperature of the water by feeling it, they should use a thermometer. Examining the feet daily does not prevent injury, although daily foot examinations are important to find problems so they can be addressed. Rotating insulin and checking blood glucose levels will not prevent injury.

When teaching a client recently diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus, the client states, "I will never be able to stick myself with a needle." How should the nurse respond? a."I can give your injections to you while you are here in the hospital." b."Everyone gets used to giving themselves injections. It really does not hurt." c."Your disease will not be managed properly if you refuse to administer the shots." d."Tell me what it is about the injections that are concerning you."

ANS: D Devote as much teaching time as possible to insulin injection and blood glucose monitoring. Clients with newly diagnosed diabetes are often fearful of giving themselves injections. If the client is worried about giving the injections, it is best to try to find out what specifically is causing the concern, so it can be addressed. Giving the injections for the client does not promote self-care ability. Telling the client that others give themselves injections may cause the client to feel bad. Stating that you don't know another way to manage the disease is dismissive of the client's concerns.

A nurse assesses clients who are at risk for diabetes mellitus. Which client is at greatest risk? a.A 29-year-old Caucasian b.A 32-year-old African-American c.A 44-year-old Asian d.A 48-year-old American Indian

ANS: D Diabetes is a particular problem among African Americans, Hispanics, and American Indians. The incidence of diabetes increases in all races and ethnic groups with age. Being both an American Indian and middle-aged places this client at highest risk.

After teaching a young adult client who is newly diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus, the nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a correct understanding of the need for eye examinations? a."At my age, I should continue seeing the ophthalmologist as I usually do." b."I will see the eye doctor when I have a vision problem and yearly after age 40." c."My vision will change quickly. I should see the ophthalmologist twice a year." d."Diabetes can cause blindness, so I should see the ophthalmologist yearly."

ANS: D Diabetic retinopathy is a leading cause of blindness in North America. All clients with diabetes, regardless of age, should be examined by an ophthalmologist (rather than an optometrist or optician) at diagnosis and at least yearly thereafter.

After teaching a client who has diabetes mellitus and proliferative retinopathy, nephropathy, and peripheral neuropathy, the nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a correct understanding of the teaching? a."I have so many complications; exercising is not recommended." b."I will exercise more frequently because I have so many complications." c."I used to run for exercise; I will start training for a marathon." d."I should look into swimming or water aerobics to get my exercise."

ANS: D Exercise is not contraindicated for this client, although modifications based on existing pathology are necessary to prevent further injury. Swimming or water aerobics will give the client exercise without the worry of having the correct shoes or developing a foot injury. The client should not exercise too vigorously.

A nurse reviews the medication list of a client recovering from a computed tomography (CT) scan with IV contrast to rule out small bowel obstruction. Which medication should alert the nurse to contact the provider and withhold the prescribed dose? a.Pioglitazone (Actos) b.Glimepiride (Amaryl) c.Glipizide (Glucotrol) d.Metformin (Glucophage)

ANS: D Glucophage should not be administered when the kidneys are attempting to excrete IV contrast from the body. This combination would place the client at high risk for kidney failure. The nurse should hold the metformin dose and contact the provider. The other medications are safe to administer after receiving IV contrast.

A nurse teaches a client who is prescribed an insulin pump. Which statement should the nurse include in this client's discharge education? a."Test your urine daily for ketones." b.Use only buffered insulin in your pump." c."Store the insulin in the freezer until you need it." d."Change the needle every 3 days."

ANS: D Having the same needle remain in place through the skin for longer than 3 days drastically increases the risk for infection in or through the delivery system. Having an insulin pump does not require the client to test for ketones in the urine. Insulin should not be frozen. Insulin is not buffered.

A nurse teaches a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which statement should the nurse include in this client's teaching to decrease the client's insulin needs? a."Limit your fluid intake to 2 liters a day." b."Animal organ meat is high in insulin." c."Limit your carbohydrate intake to 80 grams a day." d."Walk at a moderate pace for 1 mile daily."

ANS: D Moderate exercise such as walking helps regulate blood glucose levels on a daily basis and results in lowered insulin requirements for clients with type 1 diabetes mellitus. Restricting fluids and eating organ meats will not reduce insulin needs. People with diabetes need at least 130 grams of carbohydrates each day.

After teaching a client with type 2 diabetes mellitus who is prescribed nateglinide (Starlix), the nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a correct understanding of the prescribed therapy? a."I'll take this medicine during each of my meals." b."I must take this medicine in the morning when I wake." c."I will take this medicine before I go to bed." d."I will take this medicine immediately before I eat

ANS: D Nateglinide is an insulin secretagogue that is designed to increase meal-related insulin secretion. It should be taken immediately before each meal. The medication should not be taken without eating as it will decrease the client's blood glucose levels. The medication should be taken before meals instead of during meals.

A nurse assesses a client with diabetes mellitus who self-administers subcutaneous insulin. The nurse notes a spongy, swelling area at the site the client uses most frequently for insulin injection. Which action should the nurse take? a.Apply ice to the site to reduce inflammation. b.Consult the provider for a new administration route. c.Assess the client for other signs of cellulitis. d.Instruct the client to rotate sites for insulin injection.

ANS: D The client's tissue has been damaged from continuous use of the same site. The client should be educated to rotate sites. The damaged tissue is not caused by cellulitis or any type infection, and applying ice may cause more damage to the tissue. Insulin can only be administered subcutaneously and intravenously. It would not be appropriate or practical to change the administration route.

A nurse cares for a client experiencing diabetic ketoacidosis who presents with Kussmaul respirations. Which action should the nurse take? a.Administration of oxygen via face mask b.Intravenous administration of 10% glucose c.Implementation of seizure precautions d.Administration of intravenous insulin

ANS: D The rapid, deep respiratory efforts of Kussmaul respirations are the body's attempt to reduce the acids produced by using fat rather than glucose for fuel. Only the administration of insulin will reduce this type of respiration by assisting glucose to move into cells and to be used for fuel instead of fat. The client who is in ketoacidosis may not experience any respiratory impairment and therefore does not need additional oxygen. Giving the client glucose would be contraindicated. The client does not require seizure precautions.

A nurse cares for a client who has type 1 diabetes mellitus. The client asks, "Is it okay for me to have an occasional glass of wine?" How should the nurse respond? a."Drinking any wine or alcohol will increase your insulin requirements." b."Because of poor kidney function, people with diabetes should avoid alcohol." c."You should not drink alcohol because it will make you hungry and overeat." d."One glass of wine is okay with a meal and is counted as two fat exchanges."

ANS: D Under normal circumstances, blood glucose levels will not be affected by moderate use of alcohol when diabetes is well controlled. Because alcohol can induce hypoglycemia, it should be ingested with or shortly after a meal. One alcoholic beverage is substituted for two fat exchanges when caloric intake is calculated. Kidney function is not impacted by alcohol intake. Alcohol is not associated with increased hunger or overeating.

A client with gastroesophageal reflux disease has undergone a laparoscopic Nissen fundoplication (LNF). What will the nurse include in postoperative home care instructions? A. "Consume carbonated beverages if you experience stomach upset." B. "Remain on a soft diet for about a week and avoid raw fruits and vegetables." C. "You may resume running and weight lifting if you wish." D. "You may stop taking your anti-reflux medications after 1 week."

B. After LNF, clients should be taught to remain on a soft diet for 1 week. Carbonated beverages should be avoided. Clients may walk, but should avoid heavy lifting. Anti-reflux medications should be taken for 1 month after the procedure.

The nurse is caring for a client with esophageal cancer who has received photodynamic therapy using porfimer sodium (Photofrin). What instructions does the nurse include in teaching the client about porfimer sodium? (Select all that apply.) A. Avoid sunlight for 2 weeks. B. Cover all exposed body areas. C. Follow a clear liquid diet for 3 to 5 days after the procedure. D. Monitor for hypertension. E. Tissue particles may be found in the sputum.

B. C. E. Porfimer sodium causes photosensitivity, and sunglasses and protective clothing covering all exposed body areas are essential. A clear liquid diet should be followed for 3 to 5 days after the procedure and then should be advanced to full liquids as tolerated. The client should be warned that tissue particles may be released from the tumor site and may be present in the sputum. Sunlight should be avoided for 1 to 3 months. Side effects are rare and may include nausea, fever, and constipation. Hypertension is not a side effect of porfimer sodium.

The nurse is assessing a client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). Which findings does the nurse expect to observe? (Select all that apply.) A. Blood-tinged sputum B. Dyspepsia C. Excessive salivation D. Flatulence E. Regurgitation

B. D. EDyspepsia, also known as heartburn, is one of the main symptoms of GERD. Flatulence is common after eating, as well as regurgitation (backward flow into the throat) of food and fluids. Blood-tinged sputum and excessive salivation are not symptoms of GERD.

A client who has been diagnosed recently with esophageal cancer states, "I'm not comfortable going to my father's birthday lunch at our family-owned restaurant because I'm afraid I'll choke in public." What is the nurse's best response? A. "I understand your concerns, but you can't give up your normal activities. You should go anyway and try not to worry about it." B. "Could you perhaps invite everyone over to cook at your home? That will allow you to be together and be more relaxed." C. "Why not take one of your antianxiety pills before going? That will keep you from worrying about everything so much." D. "You need to talk to your doctor about your concerns. The doctor may recommend that you join a support group for cancer survivors." Incorrect

B. Suggesting that the client invite people over for a meal provides psychosocial support to the client and assists the client in finding a solution to the problem. Telling the client not to worry about it or to call the provider is evasive and unhelpful; it is used to placate the client and does not address the client's concerns. The client should use problem-solving and coping skills before resorting to the use of medication.

A client has been diagnosed with terminal esophageal cancer. The client is interested in obtaining support from hospice, but expresses concern that pain management will not be adequate. What is the nurse's best response? A. "Haven't you received adequate pain management in the hospital?" B. "Would you like me to get a nurse from hospice to come talk with you?" C. "Do you want me to call the hospital chaplain to explain hospice to you?" D. "Talk to your health care provider about hospice services."

B. The best way to alleviate the client's concerns would be to have a hospice nurse talk with the client and answer any questions. Suggesting that the client has had adequate pain management sounds defensive. Referring the client to the chaplain or the health care provider is evasive and attempts to shift responsibility away from the nurse.

A client in the outpatient clinic tells the nurse about experiencing heartburn and nighttime coughing episodes. Which action does the nurse take first? A. Teach the client about antacid effects and side effects. B. Ask the client about medications and dietary intake. C. Suggest that the client sleep with the head elevated 6 inches. D. Tell the client to avoid drinking alcohol late in the evening.

B. The nurse's initial action should be further assessment of the client's risk factors for gastroesophageal reflux disease. Before suggesting interventions or beginning client teaching, the nurse must elicit more information about the client's symptoms. The nurse needs additional data before telling the client to avoid drinking alcohol late in the evening.

Which of these assigned clients does the nurse assess first after receiving the change-of-shift report? A. Young adult admitted the previous day with abdominal pain who is scheduled for a computed tomography (CT) scan in 30 minutes B. Adult with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) who is describing epigastric pain at a level of 6 (0-to-10 pain scale) C. Middle-aged adult with an esophagogastrectomy done 2 days earlier who has bright-red drainage from the nasogastric (NG) tube D. Older adult admitted with an ileus who has absent bowel sounds and a prescription for metoclopramide (Reglan) on an as-needed (PRN) basis

C. The presence of blood in NG drainage is an unexpected finding 2 days after esophagogastrectomy and requires immediate investigation. The young adult scheduled for a CT scan, the adult with GERD, and the older adult with an ileus are all stable and do not require the nurse's immediate attention.

The nurse is reviewing the medication history for a client diagnosed with gastroesophageal reflux disease who has been prescribed esomeprazole (Nexium) once daily. The client reports that the drug doesn't completely control the symptoms. The nurse contacts the provider to discuss which intervention? A. Adding a second proton pump inhibitor medication B. Increasing the dose of esomeprazole C. nging to a twice-daily dosing regimen D. Switching to omeprazole (Prilosec)

C. The proton pump inhibitors are usually effective when given once daily, but can be given twice daily if symptoms are not well controlled. Adding a second medication, increasing the dose, or switching to another proton pump inhibitor is not recommended.

A client with an inoperable esophageal tumor is receiving swallowing therapy. Which task does the home health nurse delegate to an experienced home health aide? A. Teaching family members how to determine whether the client is obtaining adequate nutrition B. Assessing lung sounds for possible aspiration when the client is swallowing clear liquids C. Reminding the client to use the chin-tuck technique each time the client attempts to swallow D. Instructing family members about symptoms that may indicate a need to call the provider

C. The role of a home health aide when caring for a client with swallowing difficulty includes reinforcement of previously taught swallowing techniques. Client teaching and providing instructions to family members are not within the scope of practice of a home health aide and should be done by the nurse. Likewise, assessment is part of the nursing process and should be done by a nurse.

The nurse is working with the dietitian to plan a menu for a client who has persistent difficulty swallowing. What is a suitable breakfast selection for this client? A. Scrambled eggs and toast B. Oatmeal and orange juice C. Puréed fruit and English muffin D. Cream of wheat and applesauce

D. Both cream of wheat and applesauce are foods of semi-solid consistency and are appropriate for this client. The client who is having difficulty swallowing should be given semi-solid foods and thickened liquids. Toast would not be appropriate, and orange juice would have to be thickened before it is given to this client. An English muffin would be inappropriate for this client because it is not a semi-solid food.

The nurse is reviewing orders for a client with possible esophageal trauma after a car crash. Which request does the nurse implement first? A. Give total parenteral nutrition (TPN) through a central venous catheter. B. Administer cefazolin (Kefzol) 1 g intravenously. C. Obtain a computed tomography (CT) scan of the chest and abdomen. D. Keep the client nothing by mouth (NPO) for possible surgery.

D. Clients with possible esophageal tears should be NPO until diagnostic testing is completed, because leakage of anything taken orally into the sterile mediastinum could occur. In addition, esophageal rest is maintained for about 10 days after esophageal trauma to allow time for mucosal healing. TPN is prescribed to provide calories and protein for wound healing; although this is important, it is not a priority for the nurse to implement first. Antibiotics may be requested to prevent possible infection, but this is not the priority. A CT of the chest and abdomen will be needed, but is not the nurse's initial action.

A client has undergone conventional esophageal surgery. The client's diet has been advanced to semi-solid, and feedings are well tolerated. The client reports experiencing diarrhea about 1 hour after each meal. What is the priority nursing intervention to help prevent further diarrhea? A. Ensure that the client takes adequate amounts of fluids with meals. Incorrect B. Advance the diet to solid food and encourage eating as much as possible at meals. C. Give the client a dose of magnesium hydroxide (Milk of Magnesia) after each meal. D. Encourage the client to take fluids between meals rather than with meals.

D. Diarrhea is believed to be the result of vagotomy syndrome and can be managed by taking fluids between meals rather than with meals. For this client, fluids with meals can lead to the development of diarrhea immediately after eating. The client may not be physically ready to advance to a solid diet. The client should eat six to eight small meals daily. Magnesium hydroxide is a magnesium-based antacid that can cause diarrhea.

The nurse prepares a teaching session regarding lifestyle changes needed to decrease the discomfort associated with a client's hiatal hernia. Which change does the nurse recommend to this client? A. Eat only two or three meals daily. B. Sleep flat in a left side-lying position. C. Drink tea instead of coffee. D. Avoid working while bent over the computer.

D. The client should avoid working while bent over because this position presses on the diaphragm, causing discomfort. The client with a hiatal hernia should eat four to six meals a day. The head of the client's bed should be elevated approximately 6 inches. Both tea and coffee should be eliminated from this client's diet because of the caffeine content.

A client is being discharged after a minimally invasive esophagectomy. Which teaching point does the nurse consider to be of the highest priority during the predischarge teaching session? A. Instruct the client to eat three meals daily. B. Emphasize the importance of lying down after meals. C. Encourage the client to ask his or her health care provider for antidepressant medication. D. Report the presence of fever and a swollen, painful neck incision.

D. Wound management and prevention of infection are major concerns because the client who has had an esophagectomy typically has multiple drains and incisions. The client should eat six to eight small meals daily, and should sit up after meals to encourage satisfactory swallowing. The client's coping skills should be assessed, as well as his or her level of anxiety and/or depression, before antidepressant medication is prescribed.

A nurse collaborates with the interdisciplinary team to develop a plan of care for a client who is newly diagnosed with diabetes mellitus. Which team members should the nurse include in this interdisciplinary team meeting? (Select all that apply.) a.Registered dietitian b.Clinical pharmacist c.Occupational therapist d.Health care provider e.Speech-language pathologist

NS: A, B, D When planning care for a client newly diagnosed with diabetes mellitus, the nurse should collaborate with a registered dietitian, clinical pharmacist, and health care provider. The focus of treatment for a newly diagnosed client would be nutrition, medication therapy, and education. The nurse could also consult with a diabetic educator. There is no need for occupational therapy or speech therapy at this time.