Chapter 7 A&P Review Questions

What are the two largest tarsal bones in each foot, and which one forms the heel of the foot?

The two largest tarsals are the talus and the calcaneus, which forms the heel.

The pectoral girdle does NOT quite satisfy the features of a true girdle because __________.

posteriorly, the medial ends of the scapulae do not join each other

Question 20:Which of the following does NOT correlate with the skull growth spurt that is seen between the ages of 6 and 13?

replacement of the fontanelles with bone

When standing normally, most of your weight is transmitted to the ground by the __________.

talus and calcaneus

A joint between skull bones is called a __________.

suture

At its distal end, the femur articulates with the __________.

tibia

The olecranon process is found on the __________.

ulna

Which of the following bones does NOT form a part of the orbits of the eyes?

vomer

Besides supporting our weight, what is a major function of the arches of the foot?

Because of their springiness, the foot arches save energy during locomotion.

You have learned about two different processes of bone formation in the embryo (see Chapter 6). Name the process that leads to formation of most of the skull bones. Name the embryonic connective tissue that is converted to bone during this process.

Most of the skull bones are formed by intramembranous ossification in which bone is formed from embryonic tissue called mesenchyme, which contains mesenchymal cells (see also Chapter 4, p. 129).

The vertebrae that have enhanced weight-bearing capability are the __________.

lumbar vertebrae

Sinuses are found in all of the following bones EXCEPT the __________.

mandible

What is the major shortcoming of the flexibility allowed by the shoulder joint?

A consequence of its flexibility is that it is easily dislocated.

How can you distinguish a lumbar vertebra from a thoracic vertebra?

A lumbar vertebra is heavier and its massive body is kidney shaped. Its spinous processes are short and project directly back. A thoracic vertebral body is generally heart shaped, its spinous process is long, sharp, and points downward, and its transverse processes have facets for articulating with the ribs.

Briefly describe the anatomical characteristics and impairment of function seen in cleft palate and hip dysplasia.

Both cleft palate and hip dysplasia are congenital abnormalities affecting skeletal formation. A cleft palate occurs if the fusion of the midline of the maxilla fails to occur. Problems may range from simple cosmetic abnormality to a complete lack of separation of the nasal and oral cavities. In such a case, the infant will have difficulty taking in food, and may even aspirate it, due to a lack of a palate to regulate breathing and swallowing. Hip dysplasia occurs if the acetabulum fails to form a complete socket around the head of the femur correctly, or if the ligaments securing the femur at the hip are too loose. The femur may easily slip out of its socket, creating difficulty walking. (p. 243)

Where are carpals found and how would you classify them based on their shape? (Hint: See Chapter 6.)

Carpals are found in the proximal region of the palm. They are classified as short bones.

Besides the spinal curvatures, which skeletal elements help to make the vertebral column flexible?

The fibrocartilage discs contribute to the flexibility of the vertebral column.

The heel bone is called the __________.

calcaneus

Which of the following is the heel bone?

calcaneus

The inferior end of the vertebral column is composed of the __________.

coccyx

The calvaria of the skull is another name for the __________.

cranial vault

Which of the following is a congenital abnormality of the appendicular skeleton?

dysplasia of the hip

The role of the cranium is to __________.

enclose and protect the brain

The crista galli is a projection from which bone?

ethmoid

Which of the following is the most deeply situated bone in the skull?

ethmoid bone

What is the deepest bone in the skull?

ethmoid.The ethmoid bone is the most deeply situated bone of the skull and it forms most of the bony area between the nasal cavity and the orbits.

In a(n) __________, the vertebral column is formed from 33 separate bones.

fetus

Which of the following is characterized by a ruptured anulus fibrosis?

herniated disc

The jugular notch on the sternum is __________.

in line with the second and third thoracic vertebra, where the left common carotid artery is issued from the aorta

The female pelvis __________.

is tilted anteriorly (forward) compared to a male pelvis

C7 is referred to as the vertebra prominens because __________.

its spinous process is larger than those of the other cervical vertebrae

The frontal sinuses are located __________.

lateral to the glabella

Sutures connect all the bones of the skull EXCEPT the __________.

mandible

The only bone of the facial skeleton that does NOT articulate with the maxillae is the __________.

mandible

A common injury in the winter is a fall in which someone hits the back of his or her head on the ice. What bone is most likely to be involved in this type of fall?

occipital

The foramen magnum would be found in the __________ bone.

occipital

Which of the following is/are NOT part of the axial skeletal?

pectoral girdle

Which of the following spinal deformities is quite common during late childhood in females?

scoliosis

Choose the INCORRECT pairing.

styloid process; humerus

Which of the following sinuses are at high risk of infection spreading from the middle ear?

the mastoid sinuses

Which of the following bones would most likely be involved in surgery to remove a tumor on the pituitary gland?

the sella turcica

Mary fractured her pisiform bone in a fall. What part of her body was injured?

wrist

How many regions of the vertebral column are there?

5. The cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccygeal sections make up the vertebral column.

Question 9:How many cervical vertebrae are there in a normal adult?

7

Match the bones in column B with their description in column A. (Note that some descriptions require more than a single choice.) Column A (1) connected by the coronal suture (2) keystone bone of cranium (3) keystone bone of the face (4) form the hard palate (5) allows the spinal cord to pass (6) forms the chin (7) contain paranasal sinuses (8) contains mastoid sinuses Column B ethmoid frontal mandible maxillary occipital palatine parietal sphenoid temporal

(1) b frontal and g parietal (2) h sphenoid (3) d maxillary (4) d maxillary and f palatine (5) e occipital (6) c mandible (7) a ethmoid, b frontal, d maxillary, h sphenoid (8) i temporal

List three important differences between the male and female pelves.

1) The female pelvis inlet and outlet are wider; 2) the females pelvis is shallower, lighter, and rounder than that of the male; 3) and the female ischial tuberosities are farther apart.

What if your pregnant patient had a pelvis that was shaped like a male's? Which features of this pelvis would cause difficulty during childbirth?

A pelvis shaped like a male's would cause problems during childbirth because of its narrower overall shape. A smaller pelvic inlet would impede the infant's entry into the true pelvis at the beginning of labor. The smaller pelvic outlet would impede passage of the baby at birth. In particular, ischial spines that are closer together and point more medially and a coccyx that projects anteriorly and is less movable could cause a problem during the delivery.

How does a true rib differ from a false rib?

A true rib connects to the sternum by its own costal cartilage. A false rib connects to the sternum via costal cartilages of other ribs or not at all.

How do the relative proportions of the cranium and face of a fetus compare with those of an adult skull?

At birth, the skull is huge relative to the facial skeleton. During childhood and adolescence, the face grows out from the skull. By adulthood, the cranial and facial skeletons are the appropriate proportional size.

Name the cranial and facial bones and compare and contrast the functions of the cranial and facial skeletons.

Cranial bones: parietal, temporal, frontal, occipital, sphenoid, and ethmoid. Facial bones: mandible, vomer, maxillae, zygomatics, nasals, lacrimals, palatines, and inferior conchae.Cranial bones provide sites for attachment and enclose and protect the brain. The facial bones form the framework of the face, hold eyes in position, provide cavities for organs of taste and smell, secure the teeth, and anchor facial muscles.

A human normally has ten pairs of ribs.

False

Justiniano worked in a poultry-packing plant where his job was cutting open chickens and stripping out their visceral organs. After work, he typed for long hours on his computer keyboard, writing a book about his work in the plant. Soon, his wrist and hand began to hurt whenever he flexed it, and he began to awaken at night with pain and tingling on the thumb half of his hand. What condition did he probably have?

Justiniano is probably suffering from carpel tunnel syndrome, which is a repetitive stress injury that occurs from overuse. In carpel tunnel syndrome, the median nerve is compressed. Impairment of the median nerve causes the skin of the lateral part of the hand to tingle/ become numb and thumb movements to weaken.

What is the function of the intervertebral discs?

The intervertebral discs act as shock absorbers and provide flexibility to the spine, allowing it to flex and extend.

Which of the following sites is not a site of muscle attachment? Greater trochanter, lesser trochanter, gluteal tuberosity, lateral condyle.

The lateral condyles are not sites of muscle attachment; they are articular surfaces.

What bones are the keystone bones of the facial skeleton?

The maxillae are the keystone bones of the facial skeleton.

What bone forms the bulk of the orbit floor, and what sense organ is found in the orbit of a living person?

The maxillae form the bulk of the orbit floor. The eye is housed in the orbit.

Where is the single point of attachment of the pectoral girdle to the axial skeleton?

The pectoral girdle attaches to the sternal manubrium of the axial skeleton via the medial end of its clavicle.

The major function of the shoulder girdle is flexibility. What is the major function of the pelvic girdle? Relate these functional differences to anatomical differences seen in these girdles.

The pelvic girdle functions to attach and transfer the weight of the body to the lower limbs. The bones are large, strong, and securely attach the bones of the thigh to the axial skeleton. The pectoral girdle bones are light and quite mobile to provide flexibility at the expense of strength and stability.

In the hip bone below, name the three regions labeled a, b, and c. Name the opening indicated by d and the socket at e. What bone articulates with this socket?

The regions of the hip bone are (a) ilium, (b) ischium, and (c) pubis. The opening at (d) is the obturator foramen and the socket at (e) is the acetabulum. The head of the femur (thigh bone) articulates with the acetabulum.

The ilium and pubis help to form the hip bone. What other bone is involved in forming the hip bone?

The third bone that forms the hip bone is the ischium.

Which vertebral curvatures are primary and which are secondary curvatures? Why are they called primary and secondary?

The thoracic and sacral curvatures are called primary curvatures because they are present at birth. The cervical and lumbar curvatures are called secondary because they develop after birth when the baby learns to lift its head (cervical curvature) and learns to walk (lumbar curvature).

Besides the ribs and sternum, there is a third group of bones making up the thoracic cage. What is it?

The thoracic vertebrae also contribute to the thoracic cage.

What lower limb bone is the second largest bone in the body?

The tibia is the second largest bone in the body.

Which bones of the upper limb have a styloid process?

The ulna and the radius each have a styloid process distally.

Mary's grandmother slipped on a scatter rug and fell heavily to the floor. Her left lower limb was laterally rotated and noticeably shorter than the right, and when she attempted to get up, she winced with pain. Mary surmised that her grandmother might have "fractured her hip," which later proved to be true. What bone was probably fractured and at what site? Why is a "fractured hip" a common type of fracture in the elderly?

These fractures are common in elderly people due to osteoporosis, which weakens the vertebrae and neck of the femur. Osteoporosis is any condition in which bone breakdown outpaces bone formation, causing bones to become weak and porous.

After falling while snowboarding, Jennifer complained of pain on the right side of her chest that intensified when she took a deep breath or coughed. The emergecy medical technician suspected a broken rib. Describe the process the EMT used to determine (by palpation) the number of the rib that was injured.

To determine the number of the rib that was broken, the EMT would first find the sternal angle on the front of the sternum (where the manubrium joins the sternal body). Because it is aligned with the second rib, the sternal angle would help the EMT locate the second rib. From there, she can count ribs to determine which rib is painful when palpated.

Which bones play the major role in forming the elbow joint?

Together the ulna and humerus form the elbow joint.

Question 21:Which of the following sutures is most likely to contain sutural bones?

the lambdoid suture

Where would a dentist inject lidocaine to prevent pain in the lower teeth?

the mandibular foramen

Match the key terms with the bone descriptions that follow. Key: clavicle ilium ischium pubis sacrum scapula sternum (1) bone of the axial skeleton to which the pectoral girdle attaches (2) markings include glenoid cavity and acromion (3) features include the ala, crest, and greater sciatic notch (4) doubly curved; acts as a shoulder strut (5) hip bone that articulates with the axial skeleton (6) the "sit-down" bone (7) anteriormost bone of the pelvic girdle (8) part of the vertebral column

(1) g sternum (2) f scapula (3) b ilium (4) a clavicle (5) b ilium (6) c ischium (7) d pubis (8) e sacrum

Suppose you work in the coroner's office. The skeleton of a potential murder victim has arrived. It has a fractured hyoid bone. What is the likely cause of death?

Because the hyoid bone is in the neck, a fractured hyoid bone suggests death by strangulation. Alternatively, a forceful blow to the anterior neck could cause a fracture and the person could choke to death.

List at least two specific anatomical characteristics each for typical cervical, thoracic, and lumbar vertebrae that would allow anyone to identify each type correctly.

Cervical vertebrae possess transverse foramina, have small bodies and bifurcate spinous processes;Thoracic vertebrae possess facets for the ribs and have circular vertebral foramina;Lumbar vertebrae have massive bodies and blunt spines.

What two bones construct each pectoral girdle?

Each pectoral girdle is formed by a scapula and a clavicle.

Nathan was vigorously exercising the only joints in the skull that are freely movable. What would you guess he was doing?

Eating or talking, because the only freely movable joints of the skull are the temporomandibular joints of the jaw.

Peter Howell, a teaching assistant in the anatomy class, picked up a hip bone and pretended it was an old-fashioned telephone. He held the big hole in this bone right up to his ear and said, "Press 5 to speak to the obturator? Hello, obturator, obturator (operator, operator)." Name the structure he was helping the students to learn.

Peter was having a little fun with the obturator foramen, the large opening in the hip bone through which pass some blood vessels and nerves.

Which ribs are floating ribs and why are they called that?

Rib pairs 11 & 12 are called floating ribs (or vertebral ribs) because they are not attached to the sternum anteriorly.

For the skull below, name sutures a and b, and bones c-f.

Sutures a and b are the coronal and squamous sutures, respectively. The bones are: (c) sphenoid bone, (d) parietal bone, (e) zygomatic bone, and (f) maxilla.

Distinguish between the anulus fibrosus and nucleus pulposus regions of a disc. Which provides durability and strength? Which provides resilience? Which part is involved in a "slipped" disc?

The annulus fibrosis, composed of fibrocartilage, is more external and contains the nucleus pulposus. The nucleus is the semifluid substance enclosed by the annulus. The annulus provides strength and durability. The nucleus provides resilience. Disc herniation involves protrusion of the nucleus pulposus through the annulus.

The pelvic girdle is a heavy, strong girdle. How does its structure reflect its function?

The pelvic girdle receives the weight of the upper body (trunk, head, and upper limbs) and transmits that weight to the lower limbs.

Name each of the structures a-e in the figure below. State the anatomical name for the type of rib indicated by e.

The structures are (a) acromioclavicular joint, (b) coracoid process, (c) manubrium of sternum, (d) body of sternum, and (e) costal cartilage. The rib indicated by (e) is a called a true rib or a vertebrosternal rib.

What does the tubercle of a rib articulate with?

The tubercle of a rib articulates with the costal facet of the transverse process of the thoracic vertebra that has the same number as the rib.

When a person attempts to break his or her fall with an outstretched hand, he or she often winds up with __________.

a Colles' fracture

The 11th and 12th ribs are called floating ribs because they lack __________.

an anterior attachment to the sternum

The vertebral disc is housed between the __________ of neighboring vertebrae.

bodies

Each of the following bones is part of the pelvic girdle EXCEPT the __________.

femur

The gluteal tuberosity is a bone marking found on the __________.

femur

The only bone of the body that does NOT articulate directly with any other bone is the __________.

hyoid bone

What would you find located in the lacrimal fossa?

the lacrimal sac

Which of the following cranial bones receives the condyle of the mandible?

the temporal bone

Which of the following is a facial bone?

vomer