Chapter 7 Skeletal System

61) Which of the following correctly lists the steps of fracture repair in sequence? A) A hematoma forms, granulation tissue and fibrocartilage develop, osteoclasts and phagocytes clear away debris, bony callus forms. B) A hematoma forms, osteoblasts arrive and produce new bone tissue, osteoclasts and phagocytes clear away debris, granulation tissue forms. C) Phagocytes clear away debris, osteoblasts remove damaged bone tissue, and a hematoma forms. D) A hematoma forms followed by formation of a bony callus that fibrocartilage replaces.

A hematoma forms, granulation tissue and fibrocartilage develop, osteoclasts and phagocytes clear away debris, bony callus forms.

54) Which of the following describes a female's pelvis compared to a male's pelvis? A) A cavity that is wider in all dimensions, with lighter bones. B) A cavity that is narrower in all dimensions, with lighter bones. C) A cavity that is wider in all dimensions, with heavier bones. D) A cavity that is narrower in all dimensions, with heavier bones.

A cavity that is wider in all dimensions, with lighter bones.

A landscaper accidentally had their leg crushed by a tree. Their femur was impacted with such force that a section of the bone completely shattered into fragments. What type of break is this? A) A comminuted fracture B) A fissured fracture C) An oblique fracture D) A greenstick fracture

A comminuted fracture

30) Which of the following is not a function of bones? A) Contraction B) Attachment for muscles C) Blood cell production D) Storage of inorganic salts

Contraction

100) As a person ages, osteoblasts outnumber osteoclasts.

FALSE

104) A laminectomy is a procedure used to treat osteoporosis that removes part of the posterior arch of a vertebra

FALSE

106) Lordosis is an excess curvature of the thoracic part of the vertebral column.

FALSE

108) A parathyroid gland that is overresponsive to blood calcium levels will produce abnormally high amounts of calcitonin and cause bones to rapidly gain calcium.

FALSE

68) If the sacrum were to develop without its primary curve, it would be concave.

FALSE

69) Bones in the human body are nonliving

FALSE

76) Bone remodeling occurs as osteoblasts resorb bone tissue and osteoclasts replace the bone

FALSE

77) Testosterone has a stronger effect on epiphyseal plates than estrogens.

FALSE

79) The thyroid gland secretes growth hormone

FALSE

83) The appendicular skeleton consists of the parts that support and protect the head, neck, and trunk.

FALSE

84) A patient has to have surgery as a result of a sports accident. Several of their carpal bones must be removed after being smashed. The surgery is occurring in the foot.

FALSE

88) The first cervical vertebra is the axis and the second is the atlas.

FALSE

90) The sternum develops in three parts: the lower manubrium, middle body, and upper xiphoid.

FALSE

91) A martial artist receives a punch that causes the xiphoid process to break. This suggests that the punch hit the pectoral girdle.

FALSE

97) The ischium is the anterior part of the hip bone.

FALSE

98) The femur extends from the knee to the foot.

FALSE

81) Blood cell formation is called osteogenesis.

False

87) Intervertebral discs are composed of skeletal muscle.

False

51) Which of the following are NOT components of the pelvic girdle? A) Hip bones B) Coxal bones C) Femur D) Sacrum

Femur

4) Which of the following bone shape is stated with an INCORRECT example? A) Long bone - forearm bones B) Short bone - wrist and ankle bones C) Flat bone - thigh bone D) Irregular bone - vertebrae

Flat bone - thigh bone

41) Which three bones fuse to form the hip bone? A) The ilium, the femur, and the pubis B) The ilium, the sacrum, and the pubis C) The ischium, the coccyx, and the pubis D) The ilium, the ischium, and the pubis

The ilium, the ischium, and the pubis

101) Men and women begin to lose bone at the same rate by about age 70.

TRUE

103) If the sinus cavities located within the skull were instead completely filled with bone, the skull would be much heavier.

TRUE

105) Kyphosis is an excess curvature in the thoracic part of the vertebral column.

TRUE

107) A parathyroid gland that is unresponsive to blood calcium levels and that produces abnormally high amounts of parathyroid hormone, would result in bones rapidly breaking down.

TRUE

110) A child is born with a mutation that causes dehydrocholesterol to be unreactive when exposed to sunlight. This will lead to the child developing rickets.

TRUE

70) Bones are classified as irregular, flat, short, or long

TRUE

71) A bone shaft is the diaphysis; the expanded parts at the ends are the epiphyses.

TRUE

72) In the humerus, the deltoid tuberosity is located on the diaphysis; the trochlea, capitulum, and the greater/lesser tubercles are parts of the epiphyses.

TRUE

73) Perforating canals form transverse channels in bone tissue

TRUE

74) If the supply of blood cells is deficient, yellow marrow may change into red marrow

TRUE

75) Anemia could prompt the conversion of yellow marrow into red marrow

TRUE

80) Osteoclasts are bone-resorbing cells, whereas osteoblasts are bone-forming cells.

TRUE

82) The number of bones in most people is 206.

TRUE

85) The parietal bones meet each other along the sagittal suture.

TRUE

86) Fontanels in the fetal skull permit some bone movement, enabling the fetus to pass more easily through the birth canal during childbirth.

TRUE

89) Most people have 24 ribs.

TRUE

92) The pectoral girdle consists of two scapulae and two clavicles.

TRUE

93) The deltoid tuberosity is part of the humerus.

TRUE

94) A styloid process is part of the ulna.

TRUE

95) The ilium is part of the pelvic girdle.

TRUE

96) An "open book" fracture occurs when blunt force trauma causes the two pubis bones of the pelvic girdle to separate, opening the entire girdle from the front like a book. The section of the pelvic girdle that would be broken in this injury is the pubic symphysis.

TRUE

99) A female develops an abnormally narrow pelvic brim. This will most likely be a problem during childbirth.

TRUE

A young woman is in a car accident. When she regains consciousness, she notices a sharp pain in her left arm. Looking down, she sees a bone sticking out. This is a compound fracture.

TRUE

Osteoporosis is more severe than osteopenia.

TRUE

78) The small intestine requires vitamin D to adequately absorb calcium

True

36) Which of the following bones is not part of the orbit of the skull? A) Ethmoid B) Sphenoid C) Vomer D) Frontal

Vomer

55) Which of the following describes the female pelvis compared to that of the male? A) The angle of the female pubic arch is smaller. B) The distance between the female ischial spines is greater. C) The obturator foramen is more oval in a female. D) The female iliac bones are less flared.

The distance between the female ischial spines is greater.

16) During endochondral bone formation, the secondary ossification center never begins to form. What will the developing bone look like? A) The bone will remain in its cartilaginous model form. B) The bone will remain cartilaginous in the middle (the diaphysis) until adulthood, when the cartilage will ossify. C) No epiphyseal plate will exist between the two formed ossification centers. D) The ends (epiphyses) of the bone will remain cartilaginous during development until adulthood, when the cartilage will ossify.

The ends (epiphyses) of the bone will remain cartilaginous during development until adulthood, when the cartilage will ossify

63) If a certain individual's phagocytes were non-functioning, what would occur during fracture repair? A) A hematoma would not be able to form inside the break. B) The hematoma clot and other damaged tissue would not be cleared from the area during healing. C) Fibrocartilage could not be produced within the gap between the sections of broken bone. D) Excess bone tissue would not be removed toward the end of the healing process.

The hematoma clot and other damaged tissue would not be cleared from the area during healing.

49) If the trochlea was removed, what joint would be affected? A) The humeroulnar joint B) The humeroradial joint C) The tibiofemoral joint D) The iliofemoral joint

The humeroulnar joint

If the acetabulum was malformed, which joint would be affected? A) The humeroulnar joint B) The tibiofemoral joint C) The iliofemoral joint D) The sternoclavicular joint

The iliofemoral joint

116) The two divisions of the skeleton are called axial and ________.

appendicular

31) Bones A) are not living tissue. B) are multifunctional. C) do not contribute to homeostasis. D) have a matrix composed mostly of organic salts.

are multifunctional.

10) A bone lengthens A) as a result of cell division in the medullary cavity. B) due to increased production of bone matrix by osteoclasts. C) as a result of increased activity within the epiphyseal plate. D) as compact bone is deposited beneath the periosteum of the diaphysis.

as a result of increased activity within the epiphyseal plate.

11) Osteoblasts are ________, whereas osteocytes are ________. A) bone-forming cells; bone-dissolving cells B) mature bone cells; bone-forming cells C) bone-forming cells; mature bone cells D) bone-dissolving cells; mature bone cells

bone-forming cells; mature bone cells

122) The bones of the wrist collectively are called the ________.

carals

12) Osteoclasts are A) cells that secrete bone matrix. B) mature bone cells that maintain the matrix. C) immature bone cells that give rise to osteocytes. D) cells that break down bone matrix.

cells that break down bone matrix.

40) The secondary curves of the vertebral column are the A) cervical and lumbar curvatures. B) cervical and thoracic curvatures. C) thoracic and sacral curvatures. D) lumbar and sacral curvatures.

cervical and lumbar curvatures

42) The atlas is one of the A) lumbar vertebrae. B) thoracic vertebrae. C) cervical vertebrae. D) sacral vertebrae

cervical vertebrae.

21) It is possible to determine if a child's long bone is growing by examining a radiograph of the bone and looking for a(n) A) diaphysis. B) medullary cavity. C) epiphyseal plate. D) articular cartilage.

epiphyseal plate.

59) A compound fracture A) incompletely breaks the bone in more than one place. B) is a longitudinal break in the bone, C) exposes the broken bone to the outside. D) completely breaks the bone in more than one place.

exposes the broken bone to the outside.

118) The intervertebral discs are composed of the tissue ________.

fibrocartilage

47) Phalanges are A) skull bones. B) forearm bones. C) finger and toe bones. D) wrist and ankle bones.

finger and toe bones.

117) The membranous soft spots of a newborn's skull are called ________.

fontanels

57) The talus, calcaneus, navicular, cuboid, and lateral, intermediate, and cuneiform bones are all part of the A) foot. B) hand. C) pelvis. D) skull.

foot

113) Secretion of excess ________ hormone causes acromegaly.

growth

14) Pituitary dwarfism results from a decreased secretion of ________ , which as a result decreases the rate of cell division of ________. A) thyroid hormones; osteocytes in the periosteum B) growth hormone; fat cells in the medullary cavity C) thyroid hormones; osteoclasts in the compact bone D) growth hormone; cartilage cells in the epiphyseal plate

growth hormone; cartilage cells in the epiphyseal plate

115) Blood cell formation is called ________.

hematopoiesis

7) Articular cartilage is A) fibrocartilage. B) found only in the knees and elbows. C) elastic cartilage. D) hyaline cartilage.

hyaline cartilage

66) Curvatures of the spine produce all of the following EXCEPT A) lordosis. B) scoliosis. C) increased height. D) kyphosis.

increased height.

1) The zygomatic bone is an example of a(n) A) long bone. B) flat bone. C) short bone. D) irregular bone

irregular bone

56) The femur A) is the longest bone in the body. B) is part of the pelvic girdle. C) directly articulates with the fibula. D) possesses a medial malleolus.

is the longest bone in the body.

119) A baseball player is hit in the face with a baseball. The impact breaks the two front teeth and fractures the bone immediately above them. The fractured bone is the ________.

maxilla

38) A cleft palate results from incomplete development of the A) ethmoid bone B) maxillae. C) mandible. D) vomer bone

maxillae.

34) The hard palate is composed of the A) sphenoid and ethmoid bones. B) nasal conchae and vomer bones. C) zygomatic and lacrimal bones. D) maxillary and palatine bones

maxillary and palatine bones.

37) Bacteria infecting the mucous membranes in the air cells of the mastoid process most likely spread from the A) middle ear. B) meninges. C) frontal sinus. D) maxillary sinus

middle ear.

23) If during the process of intramembranous ossification, the ossification center was removed, the result would be A) no bone grows. B) a hollow space develops in between the two layers of compact bone, as no spongy bone is produced. C) surrounding mesenchymal cells will not condense into periosteum because the ossification center is where these cells arise. D) blood vessels will be encouraged to invade the area.

no bone grows.

6) Articular cartilage of a long bone is found A) on the outer surface of the epiphyses. B) inside the medullary cavity. C) on the outer surface of the diaphysis. D) in the spaces of the spongy bone.

on the outer surface of the epiphyses.

5) Compact bone has ________, whereas spongy bone has ________. A) spaces that reduce the weight of bone; tightly packed matrix that is solid B) osteons; trabeculae C) trabeculae; osteons D) osteocytes; no osteocytes

osteons; trabeculae

65) Bisphosphonates are drugs that slow the progress of A) rickets. B) heart disease. C) osteoporosis. D) menopause.

osteoporosis

64) Eighty-year-old Evelyn takes a bisphosphonate drug once a month to keep her bones strong. She most likely has A) polydactyly. B) osteogenesis imperfecta. C) osteoporosis. D) a hematoma.

osteoporosis.

124) Peter receives a blow to the front of the knee on the soccer field and collapses. The bruised bone is the ________.

patella

121) The scapula is part of the ________ girdle.

pectoral

112) The tough, fibrous vascular tissue that encloses a long bone is the ________.

periosteum

50) Having extra digits is termed A) polydactyly. B) polyuria. C) polyploidy. D) polydipsia.

polydactyly

45) The clavicles A) provide attachments for muscles of the back, chest, and upper limbs. B) are the strongest bones in the body. C) provide attachments for muscles of the pelvic girdle and lower limbs. D) are part of the axial skeleton.

provide attachments for muscles of the back, chest, and upper limbs.

27) Red bone marrow functions in the formation of A) red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. B) red blood cells only. C) white blood cells only. D) red and white blood cells only.

red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets.

22) Endochondral ossification ________, whereas intramembranous ossification ________. A) replaces hyaline cartilage; replaces undifferentiated connective tissue B) forms bone in broad, flat areas of the skull; occurs in the limbs C) inhibits osteoblast activity; activates osteoclast activity D) activates osteoclasts; inhibits osteoblast activity

replaces hyaline cartilage; replaces undifferentiated connective tissue

13) In a child, a vitamin D deficiency results in ________, whereas a vitamin A deficiency results in ________. A) pituitary dwarfism; rickets B) rickets; retardation of bone development C) excess calcium absorption; osteomalacia D) soft bones; rickets

rickets; retardation of bone development

33) The pituitary gland is located in the A) sella turcica. B) cribriform plate. C) sphenoidal sinus. D) mandibular fossa.

sella turcica.

123) The two pubic bones are connected at a joint called the pubic ________.

symphysis

43) If the atlas and axis were replaced with typical cervical vertebrae, ________ would be affected. A) the ability to move the arms B) protection of the spinal cord C) the ability to pivot the head from side to side D) stability of the cervical intervertebral disks

the ability to pivot the head from side to side

18) The presence of an epiphyseal plate indicates that A) the bone is lengthening. B) the bone is no longer lengthening. C) the bone is increasing in diameter. D) the bone has completed ossification.

the bone is lengthening.

44) Ribs that join the sternum directly by costal cartilages are called A) true ribs. B) false ribs. C) floating ribs. D) vertebrochondral ribs.

true ribs.

19) At what age are nearly all bones completely ossified? A) Birth B) 5 years C) 15 years D) 25 years

25 years

58) Height begins to decrease on average after age A) 25. B) 30. C) 50. D) 65.

30

67) One of your friend's femurs is abnormally short and curved. When asked about it, they tell you that when they were very young, they fell from a tree and fractured the femur at the distal end. Their pediatrician urged the parents to allow your friend to receive surgery for the fracture, but they refused. What most likely happened to result in the abnormal femur? A) Lack of physical therapy caused the muscles of the leg to not heal correctly, inhibiting bone growth. B) Because the epiphyseal plate was not repaired, any subsequent growth in the bone was stunted and abnormal. C) The hematoma stage of the fracture never filled in with fibrocartilage, which caused the bone to never heal properly. D) Because he was young, the femur healed so rapidly that it grew incorrectly and no medical intervention prevented this from occurring.

Because the epiphyseal plate was not repaired, any subsequent growth in the bone was stunted and abnormal

17) Which of the following is(are) an example of an intramembranous bone? A) Broad, flat skull bones B) Phalanges of the fingers C) Humerus D) Femur

Broad, flat skull bones

15) Which of the following is NOT a step in endochondral bone formation? A) Hyaline cartilage develops into the shape of the future bone. B) Periosteum forms from connective tissue outside the developing bone. C) Hyaline cartilage changes to adipose tissue. D) Osteoblasts deposit osseous tissue in place of disintegrating cartilage.

Hyaline cartilage changes to adipose tissue.

29) Which of the following is the most abundant form in which calcium is found in the inorganic matrix of the bone? A) Calcium oxalate B) Hydroxyapatite C) Calcium pyrophosphate D) Calcium carbonate

Hydroxyapatite

28) Which of the following does not describe the function(s) of the skeletal system? A) It interacts with muscles, providing movement. B) It stores inorganic salts. C) It protects organs, especially in the head and thorax. D) It generates the movements of the limbs.

It generates the movements of the limbs.

20) Which one of the following is TRUE? A) Osteoblasts are large, multinucleated cells that break down calcified bone matrix. B) Osteoblasts deposit bone matrix around themselves and become osteocytes when they are isolated in lacunae. C) Osteoclasts secrete bone matrix and become osteoblasts. D) Osteoclasts deposit bone matrix around themselves and become osteocytes when they are isolated in lacunae

Osteoblasts deposit bone matrix around themselves and become osteocytes when they are isolated in lacunae.

8) A six-month-old baby is admitted to the hospital with a broken bone. This is the third fracture in the otherwise healthy child. The parents are arrested on charges of child abuse. The defense lawyer gets the charges dropped after the results of genetic tests indicate which of the following conditions? A) Polydactyly B) Osteoporosis C) Osteogenesis imperfecta D) Anemia

Osteogenesis imperfecta

3) Which of the following is not associated with spongy bone? A) Trabeculae B) Osteons C) Canaliculi D) Osteocytes

Osteons

25) Which is true of sex hormones? A) They inhibit osteoblast activity. B) They have no effect on bone. C) They stimulate ossification of the epiphyseal plates. D) Their action on bone growth is stronger in males than in females.

They stimulate ossification of the epiphyseal plates.

53) The acetabulum is A) a depression in the hip bone that receives the head of the femur. B) a protuberance in the hip bone that attaches to the head of the femur. C) the prominence of the hip. D) the anterior portion of the hip bone

a depression in the hip bone that receives the head of the femur.

9) A bone thickens A) as a result of cell division in the medullary cavity. B) due to increased production of bone matrix by osteoclasts. C) as a result of increased activity within the epiphyseal plate. D) as compact bone is deposited beneath the periosteum of the diaphysis.

as compact bone is deposited beneath the periosteum of the diaphysis.

48) The capitulum and trochlea are located A) at the proximal end of the humerus. B) at the distal end of the humerus. C) at the distal end of the ulna. D) in the hand.

at the distal end of the humerus.

The medullary cavity of a long bone is lined with a thin cellular layer called ________.

endosteum

114) Bone-forming cells are called ________.

osteoblasts

62) Cells that remove excess bone tissue after fracture repair are A) fibroblasts and osteoblasts. B) chondrocytes and osteocytes. C) osteoblasts and osteoclasts. D) osteoclasts and phagocytes

osteoclasts and phagocytes.

2) The calcaneus bone of the foot is an example of a(n) A) long bone. B) flat bone. C) short bone. D) irregular bone

short bone.

120) The xiphoid process is part of the ________.

sternum

24) The thyroid hormone thyroxine ________. A) increases cartilage production in the epiphyseal plate B) stimulates osteoclasts C) stimulates replacement of cartilage with bone in the epiphyseal plate D) removes calcium from bone

stimulates replacement of cartilage with bone in the epiphyseal plate

32) The axial skeleton includes A) the upper and lower limbs and pelvic and pectoral girdles. B) the skull, hyoid bone, thoracic cage, and vertebral column. C) the radius, ulna, carpals, and phalanges. D) the femur, tibia, and fibula.

the skull, hyoid bone, thoracic cage, and vertebral column

46) The three borders of the scapula are called A) the frontal, pivotal, and dorsal borders. B) the superior, lateral, and medial borders. C) the acromion process, coracoid process, and glenoid cavity. D) the supraspinous, infraspinous, and subscapular borders.

the superior, lateral, and medial borders.

35) The zygomatic arch is composed of processes of A) the zygomatic and temporal bones. B) the zygomatic and maxillary bones. C) the maxillary and temporal bones. D) the temporal and parietal bones.

the zygomatic and temporal bones.

26) Exercise ________ and ________ bones. A) thickens; elongates B) elongates; weakens C) thickens; strengthens D) thins; atrophies

thickens; strengthens

39) The primary curves of the vertebral column are the A) cervical and lumbar curvatures. B) cervical and thoracic curvatures. C) thoracic and sacral curvatures. D) lumbar and sacral curvatures.

thoracic and sacral curvatures