Chapter One Quiz, bio final exam (unite1-5)

C

The alleles of a gene are found at ________ chromosomes. A) different loci on homologous B) the same locus on nonhomologous C) the same locus on homologous D) different loci on nonhomologous

C

The chromosome theory of inheritance states that A) the behavior of chromosomes during mitosis accounts for inheritance patterns. B) chromosomes that exhibit mutations are the source of genetic variation. C) the behavior of chromosomes during meiosis and fertilization accounts for patterns of inheritance. D) humans have 46 chromosomes.

A

The creation of genetically identical offspring by a single parent, without the participation of sperm and egg, is called A) asexual reproduction. B) sexual reproduction. C) regeneration. D) spontaneous generation.

C

The expression of both alleles for a trait in a heterozygous individual illustrates A) pleiotropy. B) polygenic inheritance. C) codominance. D) incomplete dominance.

C

The genetic material is duplicated during A) the mitotic phase. B) G1. C) the S phase. D) G2.

C

The individual features of all organisms are the result of A) the environment. B) the environment and individual needs. C) genetics and the environment. D) genetics.

D

The mechanism that "breaks" the linkage between linked genes is A) pleiotropy. B) independent assortment. C) codominance. D) crossing over.

B

The phase of mitosis during which the mitotic spindle begins to form is A) interphase. B) prophase. C) metaphase. D) anaphase.

B

The process by which the cytoplasm of a eukaryotic cell divides to produce two cells is called A) mitosis. B) cytokinesis. C) binary fission. D) telophase.

C

The sex chromosome complement of a normal human female is A) YY. B) XY. C) XX. D) XO.

2) How do cells capture the energy released by cellular respiration? A) They produce ATP. B) They produce glucose. C) They store it in molecules of carbon dioxide. D) The energy is coupled to oxygen.

They produce ATP

A

Two chromosomes in a nucleus that carry genes controlling the same inherited characteristics are A) homologous chromosomes. B) heterologous chromosomes. C) complementary chromosomes. D) parallel chromosomes.

B

Varieties of plants in which self-fertilization produces offspring that are identical to the parents are referred to as A) the F2 generation. B) true-breeding. C) monohybrid crosses. D) hybrids.

which of the following is a coenzyme

Vitamin B6

A

What event will immediately follow the event shown in this image? A) The cell will divide into two plant cells. B) The cell will divide into four animal cells. C) The cell will divide into four plant cells. D) The cell will divide into two animal cells.

A

What is meant by the statement that "male bees are fatherless"? A) Male bees develop from unfertilized eggs. B) The queen bee's mate dies before the male eggs hatch. C) Male bees don't play a role in the rearing of bee young. D) Male bees are produced by budding.

C

What is the normal complement of sex chromosomes in a human male? A) two X chromosomes and one Y chromosome B) two Y chromosomes C) one X chromosome and one Y chromosome D) one Y chromosome

B

When animal cells are grown in a petri dish, they typically stop dividing once they have formed a single, unbroken layer on the bottom of the dish. This arrest of division is an example of A) cell constraint. B) density-dependent inhibition. C) cell division repression. D) growth factor desensitization.

B

When observing a chicken skin cell in G2 under a microscope, you count 156 total chromatids. How many chromosomes does a male chicken have in its sperm cells? A) 312 B) 156 C) 78 D) 39

C

Which of the following features likely accounts for the difference between plant and animal cell cytokinesis? A) Animal cells lack the microfilaments required for forming a cleavage furrow. B) Animal cells lack chloroplasts. C) Plant cells have cell walls. D) Plant cells have two sets of chromosomes; animal cells have one set of chromosomes.

B

Which of the following helps maintain the structure of chromosomes and control the activity of genes? A) the nuclear membrane B) proteins C) centromeres D) ribosomes

A

Which of the following is a feature of plant cell division that distinguishes it from animal cell division? A) formation of a cell plate B) formation of a cleavage furrow C) lack of cytokinesis D) production of four (rather than two) new cells per mitotic division

C

Which of the following is an example of incomplete dominance in humans? A) skin color B) ABO blood groups C) hypercholesterolemia D) albinism

C

Which of the following is essentially the opposite of pleiotropy? A) incomplete dominance B) codominance C) polygenic inheritance D) multiple alleles

D

Which of the following is probably the main factor responsible for the phenomenon of density-dependent inhibition? A) a local accumulation of growth-inhibiting factors B) cells' innate ability to "sense" when the organ of which they are a part has no need for additional cells C) a local deficiency of nutrients D) physical contact of cell-surface proteins between adjacent cells

B

Which of the following kinds of data could be used to map the relative position of three genes on a chromosome? A) the frequencies with which the genes are inherited from the mother and from the father B) the frequencies with which the corresponding traits occur together in offspring C) the frequencies with which the genes exhibit incomplete dominance over each other D) the frequencies of mutations in the genes

B

Which of the following must occur for a plant or animal to grow and develop normally? A) The organism must receive a supply of the appropriate hormones from its parents. B) The organism must be able to control the timing and rate of cell division in different parts of its body. C) Sufficient light must be available to stimulate cell division. D) Sufficient oxygen must be available to stimulate cell division.

C

Which of the following occurs during interphase? A) a reduction in the size of the nuclear membrane B) cytokinesis C) cell growth and duplication of the chromosomes D) separation of newly formed DNA to opposite ends of the cell

B

Which of the following shows the greatest promise as a cancer chemotherapy agent? A) a drug that interferes with cellular respiration B) a drug that prevents mitotic spindle from forming C) a drug that prevents crossing over D) a drug that prevents tetrad formation

B

Which of the following statements about nondisjunction is false? A) Nondisjunction in meiosis can affect autosomes and sex chromosomes. B) In mammals, extra copies of the Y chromosome are typically inactivated. C) In general, a single Y chromosome is enough to produce "maleness." D) Women with a single X chromosome have Turner syndrome and are sterile

B

Which of the following statements best explains why dominant alleles that cause lethal disorders are less common than recessive alleles that cause lethal disorders? A) Unlike lethal disorders caused by recessive alleles, lethal disorders caused by dominant alleles usually cause the death of the embryo. B) Most individuals carrying a lethal dominant allele have the disorder and die before they reproduce, whereas individuals carrying a lethal recessive allele are more likely to be healthy and reproduce. C) Lethal disorders caused by dominant alleles are usually more severe than lethal disorders caused by recessive alleles. D) The presence of a lethal dominant allele causes sterility.

D

Which of the following statements best represents the theory of pangenesis developed by Hippocrates? A) Heritable traits are influenced by the environment and the behaviors of the parents. B) Pregnancy is a spontaneous event, and the characteristics of the offspring are determined by the gods. C) Offspring inherit the traits of either the mother or the father, but not both. D) Particles called pangenes, which originate in each part of an organism's body, collect in the sperm or eggs and are passed on to the next generation.

B

Which of the following statements correctly describes the behavior of a tetrad during anaphase I of meiosis? A) It goes intact to one pole of the dividing cell. B) It splits into two pairs of sister chromatids, and one pair goes to each pole of the dividing cell. C) It splits into two pairs of homologous, nonsister chromatids, and one pair goes to each pole of the dividing cell. D) It splits into four chromosomes, which distribute in random pairs to the two poles of the dividing cell.

C

Which of the following statements is false? A) Gametes are haploid cells. B) Two haploid cells fuse during fertilization. C) An X chromosome is an autosome. D) A zygote is a fertilized egg.

C

Which of the following statements is false? A) The four blood types result from various combinations of the three different ABO alleles. B) ABO blood groups can provide evidence of paternity. C) Incomplete dominance supports the blending hypothesis. D) The impact of a single gene on more than one character is called pleiotropy.

D

Which of the following statements regarding Down syndrome is false? A) Trisomy 21 is the cause of Down syndrome. B) Down syndrome is the most common serious birth defect in the United States. C) People with Down syndrome usually have a shorter life span than normal. D) Down syndrome is least likely to be seen in the infants of mothers over 40.

D

Which of the following statements regarding cell division is false? A) Cell division can reproduce an entire organism. B) Cell division is necessary for development to occur. C) Cell division is the basis of both sexual and asexual reproduction. D) Cell division is common in eukaryotes but rare in prokaryotes

A

Which of the following statements regarding cross-breeding and hybridization is false? A) The hybrid offspring of a cross are the P1 generation. B) The offspring of two different varieties are called hybrids. C) The hybrid offspring of an F1 cross are the F2 generation. D) The parental plants of a cross are the P generation.

C

Which of the following statements regarding genetic diversity is false? A) Genetic diversity is enhanced by random fertilization. B) Genetic diversity is enhanced by independent orientation of chromosomes at metaphase I. C) Genetic diversity is enhanced by mitosis. D) Genetic diversity is enhanced by crossing over during meiosis.

D

Which of the following statements regarding genetic testing is false? A) Carrier testing helps determine whether a person carries a potentially harmful disorder. B) Genetic testing before birth requires the collection of fetal cells. C) The screening of newborns can catch inherited disorders right after birth. D) Most human genetic diseases are treatable if caught early.

C

Which of the following statements regarding genotypes and phenotypes is false? A) Alleles are alternate forms of a gene. B) The genetic makeup of an organism constitutes its genotype. C) An organism with two different alleles for a single trait is said to be homozygous for that trait. D) The expressed physical traits of an organism are called its phenotype

A

Which of the following statements regarding hypotheses about inheritance is false? A) The blending hypothesis suggests that all of the traits of the offspring come from either the mother or the father. B) Contrary to the theory of pangenesis, somatic cells do not influence eggs or sperm. C) The blending hypothesis does not explain how traits that disappear in one generation can reappear in later generations. D) The theory of pangenesis incorrectly suggests that reproductive cells receive particles from somatic cells.

C

Which of the following statements regarding mitosis and meiosis is false? A) Meiosis only occurs in the ovaries and testes. B) All sexual life cycles involve an alternation of diploid and haploid stages. C) Mitosis produces daughter cells with half the number of chromosomes as the parent cell. D) A normal human zygote has 46 chromosomes.

B

Which of the following statements regarding mitosis and meiosis is false? A) Mitosis provides for growth and tissue repair. B) Meiosis provides for asexual reproduction. C) In mitosis, the chromosomes replicate only once in the preceding interphase. D) All the events unique to meiosis occur during meiosis I.

A

Which of the following statements regarding mitosis and meiosis is true? A) Sister chromatids separate during anaphase of mitosis and anaphase II of meiosis. B) Mitosis takes place in your gametes, whereas meiosis takes place in your somatic cells. C) In metaphase of mitosis and metaphase I of meiosis, homologous chromosomes separate. D) Independent orientation occurs during metaphase of mitosis and metaphase II of meiosis.

A

Which of the following statements regarding prenatal testing is false? A) Chorionic villus sampling is typically performed later in the pregnancy than amniocentesis. B) Results from chorionic villus sampling come faster than those from amniocentesis. C) Ultrasound imaging has no known risk. D) Chorionic villus sampling and amniocentesis are usually reserved for pregnancies with higher than usual risks of complications.

A

Which of the following statements regarding prokaryotes is false? A) Prokaryotic chromosomes are more complex than those of eukaryotes. B) Most prokaryotes reproduce by binary fission. C) Prokaryotic cells are generally smaller and simpler than eukaryotic cells. D) In prokaryotes, daughter chromosomes are separated by an active movement away from each other and the growth of a new plasma membrane between them

D

Which of the following statements regarding sexual and asexual reproduction is true? A) Cell division only occurs after sexual reproduction. B) Only offspring from asexual reproduction inherit traits from two parents. C) Sexual reproduction typically includes the development of unfertilized eggs. D) Sexual reproduction is more likely to increase genetic variation than is asexual reproduction.

B

Which of the following statements regarding sickle-cell disease is false? A) About one in 10 African Americans is a carrier of sickle-cell disease. B) Sickle-cell disease causes white blood cells to be sickle-shaped. C) All of the symptoms of sickle-cell disease result from the actions of just one allele. D) Persons who are heterozygous for sickle-cell disease are also resistant to malaria.

D

Which of the following statements regarding the cell cycle control system is false? A) The cell cycle control system receives messages from outside the cell that influence cell division. B) The cell cycle control system triggers and controls major events in the cell cycle. C) The cell cycle control system includes three key checkpoints to complete a cell cycle. D) The cell cycle control system operates independently of the growth factors.

D

Which of the following statements regarding the differences between mitosis and meiosis is false? A) In meiosis four daughter cells are produced, whereas in mitosis two daughter cells are produced. B) Cells produced by mitosis are diploid, whereas cells produced by meiosis are haploid. C) In mitosis cytokinesis occurs once, whereas in meiosis cytokinesis occurs twice. D) Crossing over is a phenomenon that creates genetic diversity during mitosis.

B

Which of the following statements regarding the function of mitosis is false? A) Mitosis allows organisms to grow. B) Mitosis allows organisms to generate genetic diversity. C) Mitosis allows organisms to reproduce asexually. D) Mitosis allows organisms to repair tissues.

A

Which of the following terms refers to a situation where a single phenotypic character is determined by the additive effects of two or more genes? A) polygenic inheritance B) codominance C) Incomplete dominance D) pleiotropy

C

Which of the following types of organisms commonly demonstrates polyploidy? A) mammals B) reptiles C) flowering plants D) fish

A

Which of the following variations of the sentence "Where is the cat?" is most like a chromosomal deletion? A) Where is cat? B) Where is the the cat? C) Where the is cat? D) Where is cat the the cat?

B

Which plants in this figure must all be heterozygous? A) purple-flowered plants in the P generation B) purple-flowered plants in the F1 generation C) white-flowered plants in the P generation D) purple-flowered plants in the F2 generation

D

With the exception of identical twins, siblings who have the same two biological parents are likely to look similar, but not identical, to each other because they have A) identical chromosomes but different genes. B) identical genes but different chromosomes. C) the same combination of traits but different genes. D) a similar but not identical combination of genes.

D

Without crossing over, A) cells could not complete meiosis. B) meiosis could not produce haploid gametes. C) only a small number of unique gametes could be produced by a single individual. D) genetic recombination could not occur

B

You and your lab partner are observing a cell under a microscope, but you do not know whether it is a eukaryote or a prokaryote. Which of the following observations regarding the chromosomes would you use to immediately conclude that the cell is a eukaryote? A) The chromosomes are circular in structure. B) The chromosomes are housed in a membrane-enclosed nucleus. C) The chromosomes contain very few proteins. D) The chromosomes are very simple in structure.

A

You are a medical student and are reviewing a case study about a past patient. The patient was 4 feet 8 inches tall at age 38, was unable to have children, and had an above-average intelligence. The patient also had an irregular number of chromosomes. What diagnosis would you give the patient? A) Turner syndrome B) Down syndrome C) Klinefelter syndrome D) chronic myelogenous leukemia

A

You are asked to culture an unidentified sample of animal tissue. You notice that the cells seem to fail to exhibit density-dependent inhibition. The source of this tissue sample is most likely A) a cancerous tumor. B) skin from a human. C) a liver from a cow. D) the sperm-producing tissue of the testis.

C

You are observing a single cell under a microscope. You go home for the night, and the next day you see four cells. The four cells look similar, and when you stain them with a dye that binds to DNA they all appear to contain the same amount of DNA. What likely happened overnight? A) The single cell divided once to form four new cells via asexual reproduction. B) The single cell divided once to form four new cells via sexual reproduction. C) The single cell divided to form two new cells, and the two new cells each divided to form four total cells, all by asexual reproduction. D) The single cell divided to form two new cells, and the two new cells each divided to form four total cells, all by sexual reproduction.

A

You prepare a karyotype from a cell from an unknown organism. Upon analysis, you find 22 pairs of chromosomes that are each of equal length, and also a single pair that has one chromosome longer than the other. What can you conclude from this information? A) The organism that this cell came from is likely a male. B) The organism that this cell came from has a genetic disease. C) This cell is likely haploid. D) The organism that this cell came from is likely a female.

3) If you focus on the data from the mid-1900s (indicated by the arrow) through today, the graph shows that

a

A child dies following a series of chronic bacterial infections. At the autopsy, the physicians are startled to see that the child's white blood cells are loaded with vacuoles containing intact bacteria. Which of the following explanations could account for this finding?

a defect in the lysosomes of the white blood cells prevented the cells from destroying engulfed bacteria

If you were working for a pharmaceutical company as part of a drug discovery team, which of these enzyme inhibitors would you suggest as a productive avenue for drug development?

a drug to treat high blood pressure that reversibly inhibits an enzyme catalyzing production of a chemical that causes blood vessels to contract

a scientist wants to examine living cells lining the respiratory tract to determine how the cells use tiny hairs to move dirt and mucus away from the lungs. which of the following instruments would be best, and why?

a light microscope, because it allows observations of whole, living cells

which of the following statements about plant cell walls is false

a plant cell walls protect plants cells by forming an impermeable layer around the cell

a scientist wants to magnify a pollen grain 8,000 times and examine the ridges and pores on its surface. which of the following instruments would be best?

a scanning electron microscope

relying a message from a membrane receptor to a molecule that performs a specific function within a cell occurs when

a signaling molecule binds to a protein that extends to the outside of the cell

the endosymbiosis hypothesis proposes that

a small cell lived inside a larger cell to the benefit of both cells

A man with a dirty cut on his hand appears at the emergency department for treatment. In order to clean the wound, the health-care provider should use

a weak (low concentration) solution of salt water

which of the following substances could be cofactor

a zinc atom

resolution is the

ability of an optical instrument to magnify an image

the energy required to initiate an exergonic reaction is called

activation energy

substrates bind to an enzyme's _ site

active

which of the following processes can move a solute against its concentration gradient

active transport

which of the following statements regarding active transport is false

active transport is driven by the concentration gradient

which of the following statements regarding cells is false

all cells have a cell wall

which of the following statements about cells is true?

all cells have internal structures that move

aquaporins

allow water to cross the plasma membrane via facilitated diffusion

the membranous compartmentalization of a cell

allows different chemical conditions to be maintained in different parts of the cell

which of the following statements regarding thermodynamics is false

an automobile engine is closed system because it does not exchange energy and matter with its surroundings

skin cells fasten into strong sheets by

anchoring junctions

membrane phospholipids

are able to drift about in the plasma membrane

dynein feet

are found on microtubules in cilia and flagella and cause movement by grabbing and pulling at adjacent microtubule doublets

in the plasma membrane, the phospholipid heads

are hydrophobic and face outward toward the aqueous solution on both sides of the membrane

microfilaments differ from microtubules in that microfilaments

are mainly composed of actin whereas microtubules are composed of tubular

you are told that the cells on a microscope slide are plant, animal, or material. you look at them through a microscope and see cell walls and membrane-bound organelles. you conclude correctly that the cells

are plant cells

Cyanide inhibits mitochondrial function; as a result, the rate of

atp synthesis decreases

2) According to this figure, how do hydrogen ions make their way from the stroma to the thylakoid interior?

b

5) What is the likely origin of chloroplasts? A) mitochondria that had a mutation for photosynthesis B) photosynthetic prokaryotes that lived inside eukaryotic cells C) prokaryotes with photosynthetic mitochondria D) eukaryotes that engulfed photosynthetic fungi

b

which of the following cells has the greater surface-to-surface volume ration?

bacterium

After the reverse osmosis system has been operating for 30 minutes, the solution in Tank A would

be hypertonic to tank B

a plant cell in a hypotonic solution

becomes turgid because of an inflow of water

1) In this drawing of a chloroplast, which structure represents the thylakoid membrane?

c

which of the following structures is/are used by prokaryotes for attaching to surface

capsule

Tay-Sachs disease

causes an accumulation of lipids in brain cells.

which figure depicts an animal cell placed in a solution hypotonic to the cell

cell A

a scanning electron microscope is used to study _, whereas a transmission electron microscope is used to study _.

cell surfaces; internal cell structures

the idea that all living things are composed of cells and that all cells come from other cells defines

cell theory

which of the following statements about cellular metabolism is false

cellular metabolism occurs in animal but not plant cells

the function of mitochondria is

cellular respiration

heating inactive enzymes by

changing the enzymes three-dimensional shape

glucose molecules provide energy to power the swimming motion of sperm. int his example the sperm are changing

chemical energy into kinetic energy

unlike animal cells, plant cells have _ and _ unlike plant cells, animal cells have _

chloroplasts; cell walls; centrioles

the complex of proteins and dna and non dividing cell is called

chromatin

during cell reproduction, chromatin fibers coil up into structures called

chromosomes

cilia differ from flagella in that

cilia are typically more numerous and shorter than flagella

How does inhibition of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction by a competitive inhibitor differ from inhibition by a noncompetitive inhibitor?

competitive inhibitors bind to the active site of the enzyme; noncompetitive inhibitors bind to a different site

mitochondria differ from chloroplasts in that mitochondria

contain membrane folds called cristae, whereas chloroplasts contain disk-like vesicles in stacks called grana

the nucleus of a cell

contains dna

the nucleoid region of a prokaryotic cell

contains the cells DNA

inhibition of an enzyme is irreversible when

covalent bonds form between inhibitor and enzyme.

the _ of a mitochondria is/are an adaptation that increases the surface area and enhances a mitochondrion's ability to produce atp

cristae

living systems

decreases their entropy while increasing the entropy of the universe

which of the following statements regarding diffusion is false

diffusion occurs when particles spread from areas where they are less concentrated to areas where they are more concentrated

the fluid mosaic model describes the plasma membrane as consisting of

diverse proteins embedded in a phospholipid bilayer

phagocytosis is to eating as pinocytosis is to

drinking

small, non polar, hydrophobic molecules such as fatty acids

easily pass through a membrane's lipid bilayer

which of the following statements about electron microscopes is true?

electron microscopes focus electron beams to create a magnified image of an object

A child is brought to the hospital with a fever of 107°F. Doctors immediately order an ice bath to lower the child's temperature. Which of the following statements offers the most logical explanation for this action?

elevated body temperature may denature enzymes. this would interfere with the cell's abilities to catalyze various reactions

most animal cells are

embedded in an extracellular matrix

ATP can be used as the cell's energy exchange mechanism because

endergonic reactions can be fueled by coupling them with the hydrolysis of high-energy phosphate bonds in atp

an immune system cell called the plasma cell produces thousands of antibodies per second for release into the body. what type of intracellular structure would you expect to be very prominent within the cell

endoplasmic reticulum

which of the following statements regarding enzyme function is false

enzymes are used up when they catalyze a chemical reaction so must be synthesized for each new chemical reaction

which of the following statements regarding enzymes is true

enzymes catalyze specific reaction

what is the basic difference between exergonic and endergonic reactions

exergonic reactions release energy; endergonic reactions absorb it

when a cell uses chemical energy to perform, it uses the energy released from a/an _ reaction to drive a/an _ reaction

exergonic; endergonic

When two aqueous solutions that differ in solute concentration are placed on either side of a semipermeable membrane and osmosis is allowed to take place, the water will

exhibit a net movement to the side with lower free water concentration

certain cells that line the stomach synthesize a digestive enzyme and secrete it into the stomach. this enzyme is a protein. which of the following processes could be responsible for its secretion

exocytosis

bacterial production of the enzymes needed for the synthesis of the amino acid tryptophan declines with increasing level of tryptophan and increases a tryptophan level decline. this is an example of

feedback inhibition

it is essential for heart muscles to beat in coordination fashion. the cell junctions that would best facilitate this are

gap junctions

most of the functions of a cell membrane, including transport and enzymatic functions, are performed by

glycolipids

a manufacturing company dumps its wastes into a nearby pond. one of the wastes found to paralyze contractile vacuoles of certain protists. a biologist looking at individual samples of these organisms taken from the pond would find that they

have gained water and burst

which of the following direct energy transfers is impossible in living systems?

heat to light energy

the cholesterol associated with animal cell membranes

helps to keep phospholipids from being too close to one another

in the lab, you use a special balloon that is permeable to water but not sucrose to make an "artificial cell." The balloon is filled with a solution of 20% sucrose and 80% water and is immersed in a beaker containing a solution of 40% sucrose and 60% water. The solution in the balloon is _ relative to the solution in the beaker.

hypotonic

which of the following statements about internal membranes in eukaryotic cells is false?

in eukaryotic cells, internal membranes standardize the internal environment of all cellular organelles

the extracellular matrix attached to cells via glycoproteins may then bind to plasma membrane

integrins

which of the following would be most affected by mutation that prevented cells from forming tight junctions?

integrity of the inner lining of the digestive tract

4) Respiration ________, and cellular respiration ________. A) produces ATP; is gas exchange B) is gas exchange; produces ATP C) produces glucose; produces oxygen D) uses glucose; produces glucose

is gas exchange; produces ATP

Some protozoans have special organelles called contractile vacuoles that continually eliminate excess water from the cell. The presence of these organelles tells you that the environment

is hypotonic to the protozoan

protein synthesis required the use of mrna which

is translated by ribosomes into the amino acid sequences of proteins

A cell that has neither a net gain of water nor net loss of water when it is immersed in a solution must be

isotonic to its environment

when an enzyme catalyzes a reaction

it lowers the activation energy of the reaction

which of the following statements about the atp molecule is true?

it releases energy when one phosphate group leaves atp

your throat is dry and you want the last sought drop to last a long time in your mouth. what should you do?

keep the cough drop whole. this maintains the largest surface-to-volume ration and shows the dissolution of the cough drop

kinetic energy differs from chemical energy in that

kinetic energy is the energy of a moving object, whereas chemical energy is the potential energy of molecules

3) The processes of photosynthesis and cellular respiration are complementary. During these energy conversions, some energy is A) lost in the form of heat. B) used to create light. C) destroyed when the chemical bonds of glucose are made. D) saved in the chemical bonds of water, CO2 and O2.

lost in the form of heat.

in hypotonic solution an animal cell will

lyse

tay-sachs disease results from the malfunction of

lysosomes

which of the following statements about lysosomes is false

lysosomes synthesize proteins from the recycles amino acids

the main function of the rough endoplasmic reticulum is the production of

membrane and proteins secreted by the cell

which of the following statements regarding membrane protein function false?

membrane proteins transfer genetic information to the cytoplasm

according to this figure, which of the following are large enough to see in the light microscope

mitochondria

the endosymbiosis hypothesis is supported by all of the following pixies of evidence except the fact that

mitochondria have circular dna like prokaryotes

white blood cells (wbc) are more resistant to lysis than red blood cells (rbc). when looking at a sample of blood for wbcs what could you do to reduce interference from rbcs

mix the blood in a hypotonic solution which will cause the rbcs to lyse

Many physiological conditions are related to particular proteins in cell membranes. The number of insulin receptors in membranes is related to the amount of insulin present around those cells. If the presence of increased insulin results in a decrease in receptors and a decrease in insulin results in an increase in insulin receptors, this would be an example of

negative or regulatory feedback

which of the following structures is exclusively associated with prokaryotic cells

nucleoid

a bacterial cells dna is found in its

nucleoid region

which of the following statements about the cytoskeleton is false

once laid down, the elements of the cytoskeleton are fixed and remain permanently in place

Which part of the ATP molecule breaks free of the rest when an ATP molecule is used for energy?

part D

diffusion does not require the cell to extend atp. therefore diffusion is considered a type of

passive transport

oxygen crosses a plasma membrane by

passive transport

the endomembrane system includes all of the following organelles except the

peroxisome

which of the following cell structures are associated with the breakdown of harmful substances

peroxisomes

which organelle is involved in catabolism of fatty acids and the detoxification of alcohol

peroxisomes

The process of a white blood cell engulfing a bacterium is

phagocytosis

transfer of a phosphate group to a molecule or compounds is called

phosphorylation

the functions of chloroplasts is

photosynthesis

which location in the cell is unlikely to contain ribosomes or ribosomal subunits

plasma membrane

which of the following statements regarding plasmodesmata is false

plasmodesmata are found in plants as well as some single-celled organisms

contractile vacuoles

prevent cells from bursting as a result of the influx of excess water

A woman is having trouble becoming pregnant. Examination of her partner's sperm indicates that dynein feet are missing from the flagella in his sperm cells. A physician explains that this could interfere with fertility by

preventing the sperm from swimming to the egg cell

an energy barrier

prevents the spontaneous breakdown of molecules in the cell

_ cells lack a membrane-enclosed nucleus

prokaryotic

archaea are composed of _ cells

prokaryotic

which of the following processes is classified as a metabolic pathway

protein synthesis

most of a cell's enzymes are

proteins

the molecules responsible for membrane transport

proteins

Cells acquire low-density lipoproteins (LDLs) by

receptor-mediated endocytosis

secretory proteins are

released from the cell through the plasma membrane

Anything that prevents ATP formation will most likely

result in cell death

based on their function, you would expect melanocytes in the skin to have a higher than usual number of

ribosomes

the cells that produce hair made of protein contain a lot of _, while the cells that produce the oils that coat the hair contain a lot of _.

rough endoplasmic reticulum; smooth endoplasmic reticulum

insulins is a protein that is produced by pancreatic cells and secreted into bloodstream. which of the following options correctly lists the order of the structures through which insulin passes from its production to its exit from the cell

rough er, transport vesicles, Golgi apparatus, transport vesicles, cell membrane

a pathologist who wants to examine a patient's liver cells to determine if the mitochondria have an internal structural defect will likely use a

scanning electron microscope

which characteristic promoted the utilization of lipids as the first cell membrane

self-assembly into a simple membrane

A group of single-cell organisms collected from the ocean was brought into the lab for examination. The lab assistant was concerned that the water had become full of toxic waste products and so added clean water to the culture. All of the organisms died, and when she looked at them under the microscope, all she could see were bits and pieces of them scattered throughout the water. What likely happened?

she added water that was hypotonic to the culture of organisms, and they ruptured

a basal body is

similar in structure to centrioles.

the oil from sebaceous glands is produced by which of the following cell organelles

smooth endoplasmic reticulum

smooth endoplasmic reticulum

stored calcium ions in the muscle cells

the Golgi apparatus

stores, modifies, and packages proteins

which part of the mitochondrion enhances its ability to produce atp by increasing the surface of a mitochondrial membrane

structure D

all cells are enclosed by a plasma membrane that is similar in _ and _.

structure; function

intermediate filaments

surround the nucleus

which of the following statements regarding the Golgi apparatus is false

the Golgi apparatus decreases in size when a cell increases its protein production

which of the following statements about the functions of a plant cell central vacuole is false

the central vacuole of a plant cell may digest chemicals for recycling

which of the following statements is true for all types of passive transport

the concentration gradient is the driving force

osmosis can be defined as

the diffusion of water

which of the following statements regarding the endomembrane system is false

the endomembrane system is a system of interrelated membranes that are all physically connected

Aspirin and other nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAID) inhibit inflammation by inhibiting an enzyme in the prostaglandin pathway. However, inhibiting this enzyme also inhibits other pathways that protect the stomach from damage by stomach acid and that form blood clots. What can you conclude from this?

the enzyme is found in many different types of cells

according to _ energy cannot be created or destroyed

the first law of thermodynamics

a drug that interfered with microtubule formation is likely to completely disrupt

the moment of sperm cells

plasma membranes are selectively permeable. this means that

the plasma membrane allow some substances to enter or leave a cell more easily than others

which of the following statements regarding membrane function is false

the plasma membrane is the control center of the cell

InthereactionA→B+C+heat,

the potential energy of the products is less than that of the reactant

the active site of an enzyme is

the region of an enzyme that attaches to a substrate

If placed in tap water, an animal cell will undergo lysis, whereas a plant cell will not. What accounts for this difference?

the relative inelastic and strength of the plant cell wall

a steer must eat at least 100 pounds of grains to gain less than 10 pounds of muscle tissue. this illustrated

the second law of thermodynamics

which of the following is a typical feature of an atp driven active transport mechanism

the solute moves against the concentration gradient

which of the following processes is endergonic

the synthesis of glucose from carbon dioxide and water

If you shut off the system and pressure was no longer applied to tank A, you would expect

the water to reverse flow from tank B to tank A

the stroma is the

thick fluid enclosed by the inner chloroplast membrane

the function of the nucleolus is

to manufacture ribosomes rna

facilitated diffusion across a biological membrane requires _ and moves a substance _ its concentration gradient

transport proteins; down

when a cell is deprived of oxygen, its lysosomes tend to burst and release their contents into the cell. as a results if this, that cell will

undergo self-digestion and die

light microscopes

use light and glass lenses to magnify an image

as cell size increases, the

volume increases proportionally more than the surface area.

In the lab, you use a special balloon that is permeable to water but not sucrose to make an "artificial cell." The balloon is filled with a solution of 20% sucrose and 80% water and is immersed in a beaker containing a solution of 40% sucrose and 60% water. Which of the following will occur?

water will leave the balloon

a cell is exposed to a substance that prevents it from dividing. the cell becomes larger and larger. this situation

will eventually be problematic, since the cells ability to absorb nutrients through its outer membrane will not keep increasing as quickly as its cytoplasmic needs

you are adrift in the Atlantic Ocean and being thirsty. drink the surrounding seawater. as a result

you dehydrate yourself

one centimeter = ________ millimeters.

10

the diameter of most animal and plant cells ranges from

10 to 100 micrometers

C

A benign tumor differs from a malignant tumor in that a benign tumor A) is cancerous. B) spreads from the original site. C) does not metastasize. D) never causes health problems

D

A carrier of a genetic disorder who does not show symptoms is most likely to be ________ to transmit it to offspring. A) homozygous for the trait and able B) homozygous for the trait and unable C) heterozygous for the trait and unable D) heterozygous for the trait and able

D

A cell is initially diploid, but it has a unique cell cycle in that this cell goes through two S phases instead of one. What would the remainder of its cell cycle consist of if this cell is to produce four identical diploid daughter cells at the end of its cell cycle? A) two rounds of mitosis and one round of cytokinesis B) one round of mitosis and one round of cytokinesis C) one round of mitosis and two rounds of cytokinesis D) two rounds of mitosis and two rounds of cytokinesis

C

A cell that has a cell wall is undergoing cell division, and the following events are observed: the formation of a cell plate and the division of the cell into two daughter cells. What type of cell is being observed and what process(es) is it going through? A) prokaryote; telophase of mitosis B) animal cell; telophase and cytokinesis of mitosis C) plant cell; telophase and cytokinesis of mitosis D) plant cell; telophase II of meiosis

A

A colorblind woman marries a man who is not colorblind. All of their sons, but none of their daughters, are colorblind. Which of the following statements correctly explains these results0 A) The gene for color vision is found on the X chromosome. B) The gene for color vision is codominant with the gene for sex determination. C) The gene for color vision is incompletely dominant to the gene for sex determination. D) The gene for color vision is found on the Y chromosome.

C

A karyotype is most like A) a map showing the hidden location of buried treasure. B) a movie showing the stages of the reproductive cycle of a beetle. C) photographs of every couple at a high school prom. D) the answer key to a multiple-choice exam.

D

A monohybrid cross iS A) the second generation of a self-fertilized plant. B) a breeding experiment in which the parental varieties have only one trait in common. C) a breeding experiment in which the parental varieties have only one prominent trait. D) a breeding experiment in which the parental varieties differ in only one character.

B

A pair of sex chromosomes found in a human male is most like A) a pair of blue jeans. B) a bride and groom. C) a knife, fork, and spoon. D) identical twins

C

A person with AB blood illustrates the principle of A) incomplete dominance. B) pleiotropy. C) codominance. D) polygenic inheritance.

C

A testcross is A) a mating between two individuals heterozygous for the trait of interest. B) a mating between two individuals of unknown genotype. C) a mating between an individual of unknown genotype and an individual heterozygous for the trait of interest. D) a mating between an individual of unknown genotype and an individual homozygous recessive for the trait of interest.

25) How many molecules of NADH are produced during glycolysis? A) 2 B) 4 C) 6 D) 8

A) 2

18) Which of the following statements comparing photosynthesis and cellular respiration is false? A) ATP is not produced during photosynthesis; it is produced only during cellular respiration. B) Photosynthesis is ultimately powered by light energy and respiration by the chemical energy of fuel molecules. C) Photosynthesis consumes CO2; respiration consumes O2. D) Photosynthesis produces O2; respiration produces CO2.

A) ATP is not produced during photosynthesis; it is produced only during cellular respiration.

74) It has been suggested that global warming could be halted by fertilizing the oceans to increase the growth of algae. How might this affect the greenhouse effect? A) Algal photosynthesis would use up more CO2, which traps heat. B) Algal photosynthesis would produce more O2, which blocks light. C) Algal photosynthesis would be inhibited by the addition of fertilizer. D) Algae photosynthesis would use heat in place of photons.

A) Algal photosynthesis would use up more CO2, which traps heat.

6) Organisms that are prokaryotes are in the domains A) Bacteria and Archaea. B) Plantae and Animalia. C) Eukarya and Archaea. D) Fungi and Bacteria.

A) Bacteria and Archaea.

13) Which of the following molecules is a reactant of photosynthesis? A) CO2 B) glucose C) O2 D) chlorophyll

A) CO2

2) Carbon dioxide absorption is an appropriate indicator of photosynthesis because A) CO2 is needed to produce sugars in the Calvin cycle. B) CO2 is needed to complete the light reactions. C) plants produce oxygen gas by splitting CO2. D) the energy in CO2 is used to produce ATP and NADPH.

A) CO2 is needed to produce sugars in the Calvin cycle.

6) Which of the following statements regarding cellular respiration is false? A) Cellular respiration is a single chemical reaction with just one step. B) Cellular respiration produces water. C) Cellular respiration produces carbon dioxide. D) Cellular respiration releases heat.

A) Cellular respiration is a single chemical reaction with just one step.

8) Which of the following statements about the energy yields from cellular respiration is true? A) Cellular respiration is more efficient at harnessing energy from glucose than car engines are at harnessing energy from gasoline. B) Cellular respiration converts all of the energy in glucose into high-energy ATP bonds. C) Cellular respiration converts the kinetic energy of glucose into chemical energy. D) The heat produced during cellular respiration is only a tiny fraction of the chemical energy available in a glucose molecule.

A) Cellular respiration is more efficient at harnessing energy from glucose than car engines are at harnessing energy from gasoline.

26) Why are most plants green? A) Chlorophyll a reflects green light. B) Chlorophyll a absorbs green light. C) Chlorophyll b primarily uses green light as the source of energy for photosynthesis. D) Green helps plants blend into their environment as a sort of camouflage.

A) Chlorophyll a reflects green light.

52) The Calvin cycle constructs ________, an energy-rich molecule that a plant cell can then use to make glucose or other organic molecules. A) G3P B) ATP C) NADH D) carbon dioxide

A) G3P

28) The end products of glycolysis include A) NADH. B) acetyl CoA. C) citric acid. D) O2.

A) NADH.

69) Purple sulfur bacteria are organisms capable of photosynthesis. They get their name, in part, because they use H2S (hydrogen sulfide) instead of water during the light reactions. In what form would you expect to find sulfur (S) as a result of photosynthesis in these bacteria? A) S2 B) SO2 C) CS2 D) C6H12S6

A) S2

70) Marathon runners are long-distance runners (marathons are races that are 26.2 miles long). Studies have shown that the muscles of marathon runners contain an abundance of slow-twitch fibers. Which of the following statements about these fibers is true? A) Slow-twitch fibers have lots of mitochondria to make ATP aerobically. B) Slow-twitch fibers have lots of mitochondria to make ATP through fermentation. C) Slow-twitch fibers have few mitochondria and make ATP aerobically. D) Slow-twitch fibers have few mitochondria and make ATP through fermentation.

A) Slow-twitch fibers have lots of mitochondria to make ATP aerobically.

55) What is the main adaptive advantage of the C4 and CAM photosynthesis strategies over the C3 strategy? A) They help the plant synthesize glucose efficiently under dry conditions. B) They allow the plant to fix carbon under conditions of low CO2. C) They allow the plant to fix carbon in cool conditions. D) They make it possible for the plant to use the Calvin cycle at night.

A) They help the plant synthesize glucose efficiently under dry conditions.

3) Based on this graph, what is the relationship between metabolic rate and body temperature? A) When metabolic rate drops, so does body temperature. B) When metabolic rate drops, body temperature rises. C) When metabolic rate drops, body temperature remains constant. D) There is no relationship between metabolic rate and body temperature.

A) When metabolic rate drops, so does body temperature.

19) The functioning of an electron transport chain is analogous to A) a Slinky toy going down a flight of stairs. B) a canoe going over a waterfall. C) a person climbing a flight of stairs one step at a time. D) a person leaping from the top to the bottom of a flight of stairs in one jump.

A) a Slinky toy going down a flight of stairs.

34) The function of coenzyme A in the citric acid cycle is most like A) a limousine driver dropping off a couple at the school prom. B) a frog that turns into a prince. C) a kid jumping up and down on a trampoline. D) throwing a baited hook into a lake and catching a fish.

A) a limousine driver dropping off a couple at the school prom.

48) Which of the following processes produces the most ATP per molecule of glucose oxidized? A) aerobic respiration B) alcoholic fermentation C) lactic acid fermentation D) All produce approximately the same amount of ATP per molecule of glucose.

A) aerobic respiration

3) Which of the following is an example of a photoautotroph? A) algae in freshwater and marine ecosystems B) grizzly bears in Alaska C) bacteria in our mouth D) mushrooms growing on the side of a dead tree

A) algae in freshwater and marine ecosystems

37) In a photosystem, clusters of chlorophyll a, chlorophyll b, and carotenoid pigments function most like A) an antenna. B) a propeller on a motorboat. C) a windmill. D) a spring.

A) an antenna.

43) In the electron transport chain, the final electron acceptor is A) an oxygen atom. B) a molecule of carbon dioxide. C) a molecule of water. D) ADP.

A) an oxygen atom.

48) Mitochondria transfer ________ energy from ________ to ATP; chloroplasts transform ________ energy into the chemical energy of ATP. A) chemical; food; light B) food; light; chemical C) light; food; kinetic D) food; light; nuclear

A) chemical; food; light

64) Which of the following has been a major source of ozone destruction over the past 50 years? A) chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) B) ethylene glycol (C2H6O2) C) carbon dioxide (CO2) D) methane (CH4)

A) chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)

6) In most green plants, chloroplasts are A) concentrated in a zone of leaf tissue called the mesophyll. B) concentrated in a portion of the leaf called the stroma. C) evenly distributed throughout the leaf tissue. D) evenly distributed throughout the entire plant.

A) concentrated in a zone of leaf tissue called the mesophyll.

1) Fat Away prevents ATP from being made by A) destroying the H+ gradient that allows ATP synthase to work. B) preventing glycolysis from occurring. C) preventing the conversion of NADH to NAD+. D) slowing down the citric acid cycle.

A) destroying the H+ gradient that allows ATP synthase to work.

34) Which of the following is a normal process of photosynthesis that could not occur if all reaction centers were inactivated by a toxin? A) donation of excited electrons by chlorophyll a to a primary electron acceptor B) donation of excited electrons by chlorophyll b to a primary electron acceptor C) absorption of photons by chlorophyll b D) absorption of photons by carotenoids

A) donation of excited electrons by chlorophyll a to a primary electron acceptor

24) Sunlight is a type of ________ energy. A) electromagnetic B) chemical C) mechanical D) sound

A) electromagnetic

61) If you consume 1 g of each of the following, which will yield the most ATP? A) fat B) glucose C) protein D) starch

A) fat

9) Humans use the calories they obtain from ________ as their source of energy. A) food B) water C) sunlight D) minerals

A) food

29) Pyruvate A) forms at the end of glycolysis. B) is the molecule that starts the citric acid cycle. C) is the end product of oxidative phosphorylation. D) is a six-carbon molecule.

A) forms at the end of glycolysis.

22) Which of the following are produced during the Calvin cycle? A) glucose, ADP, NADP+ B) glucose, ADP, NADP+, CO2 C) ATP, NADPH, O2 D) ATP, NADPH, CO2

A) glucose, ADP, NADP+

20) Which of the following options lists the stages in cellular respiration in the correct order? A) glycolysis, the citric acid cycle, and oxidative phosphorylation B) glycolysis, oxidative phosphorylation, and the citric acid cycle C) the citric acid cycle, oxidative phosphorylation, and glycolysis D) oxidative phosphorylation, glycolysis, and the citric acid cycle

A) glycolysis, the citric acid cycle, and oxidative phosphorylation

17) What is the source of energy that provides the boost for electrons during photosynthesis? A) light B) NADPH C) cellular respiration D) ATP

A) light

54) Photorespiration A) may be an evolutionary relic from when atmospheric O2 levels were low. B) is of benefit to the plant since it breaks down rubisco. C) is attributable to high CO2 levels. D) produces glucose.

A) may be an evolutionary relic from when atmospheric O2 levels were low.

59) Global warming due to the greenhouse effect may be A) moderated by photosynthesis, which removes carbon dioxide from the atmosphere. B) made worse by photosynthesis, which adds carbon dioxide to the atmosphere. C) reduced by the burning of fossil fuels, which removes oxygen from the atmosphere. D) of little concern, since it is part of the normal cycle for the planet.

A) moderated by photosynthesis, which removes carbon dioxide from the atmosphere.

54) Bacteria that are unable to survive in the presence of oxygen are called A) obligate anaerobes. B) obligate aerobes. C) facultative anaerobes. D) aerotolerant anaerobes.

A) obligate anaerobes.

23) Carbon fixation A) occurs when carbon atoms from CO2 are incorporated into an organic molecule. B) supplies the cell with ATP. C) occurs during the light reactions. D) provides the cell with a supply of NADPH molecules. Answer: A

A) occurs when carbon atoms from CO2 are incorporated into an organic molecule.

40) A mutant protist is found in which some mitochondria lack an inner mitochondrial membrane. Which of the following pathways would be completely disrupted in these mitochondria? A) oxidative phosphorylation B) alcoholic fermentation C) glycolysis D) biosynthesis

A) oxidative phosphorylation

36) Clusters of light-gathering pigments in a photosystem A) pass energy to the reaction center. B) are found in the roots of plants. C) absorb electrons. D) break down H2O.

A) pass energy to the reaction center.

50) ATP and NADPH A) power sugar synthesis during the Calvin cycle. B) are products of the Calvin cycle. C) provide energy to photosystem I and photosystem II. D) are used in the electron transport chain to pump H+ into the thylakoid space.

A) power sugar synthesis during the Calvin cycle.

30) After glycolysis but before the citric acid cycle, A) pyruvate is oxidized. B) a carbon atom is added to pyruvate to make a four-carbon compound. C) coenzyme A is cleaved off pyruvate. D) glucose is split, producing two molecules of pyruvate.

A) pyruvate is oxidized.

8) CO2 enters and O2 escapes from a leaf via A) stomata. B) thylakoids. C) grana. D) stroma.

A) stomata.

51) A child is born with a rare disease in which mitochondria are missing from skeletal muscle cells. However, the muscles still function. Physicians find that A) the muscles contain large amounts of lactate following even mild physical exercise. B) the muscles contain large amounts of carbon dioxide following even mild physical exercise. C) the muscles require extremely high levels of oxygen to function. D) the muscle cells cannot split glucose to pyruvate.

A) the muscles contain large amounts of lactate following even mild physical exercise.

65) Chlorophyll is located in ________, which are found in ________, which are concentrated in ________. A) thylakoids; chloroplasts; mesophyll B) chloroplasts; thylakoids; mesophyll C) mesophyll; chloroplasts; thylakoids D) mesophyll; thylakoids; chloroplasts

A) thylakoids; chloroplasts; mesophyll

12) The oxygen released into the air as a product of photosynthesis comes from A) water. B) glucose. C) carbon dioxide. D) chlorophyll.

A) water.

C

According to scientists, about what percentage of men currently living in Central Asia may be descended from the Mongolian ruler Genghis Khan? A) 25% B) 40% C) 8% D) 4%

D

According to the graph, at what maternal age is the incidence of Down syndrome equal to five times the incidence at age 40? A) about 29 or 30 B) about 35 or 36 C) about 44 or 45 D) about 46 or 47

D

All the offspring of a cross between a black-eyed Mendelian and an orange-eyed Mendelian have black eyes. What is the expected phenotypic ratio of a cross between two orange-eyed Mendelian? A) 1 black-eyed:3 orange-eyed B) 3 black-eyed:1 orange-eyed C) 1 black-eyed:0 orange-eyed D) 0 black-eyed:1 orange-eyed

B

All the offspring of a cross between a red-flowered plant and a white-flowered plant have pink flowers. This means that the allele for red flowers is ________ to the allele for white flowers. A) recessive B) incompletely dominant C) dominant D) codominant

B

Along with having a variable number of toes, some kittens from Jake and Lucy's litter had a white spot on their nose. In fact, out of the 16 kittens, all 10 males had the white spot, but none of the 6 females had the white spot. Jake has a white spot on his nose, but Lucy does not. What can you conclude from this information? A) The genes for the white spot and for polydactyly are linked. B) A sex-linked gene that controls the expression of the white spot is found on the X chromosome. C) A sex-linked gene that controls the expression of the white spot is found on the Y chromosome. D) The genes for the white spot and for polydactyly are not linked.

C

Amniocentesis and chorionic villus sampling allow for ________ and ________ of the fetus so that it can be tested for abnormalities. A) direct observation; biochemical testing B) sexing; imaging C) karyotyping; biochemical testing D) imaging; karyotyping

A

Any gene located on a sex chromosome A) is called a sex-linked gene. B) will exhibit pleiotropy. C) will exhibit codominance. D) is called a recessive gene.

C

As a genetic counselor, you would explain to the parents that A) the eggs must have been accidentally switched, since the baby's blood type has to match one of his parents. B) the eggs must have been accidentally switched, since a type A parent and a type B parent can have any type children except O. C) each parent could have contributed one recessive allele, resulting in type O blood. D) it is possible for the baby to have type O blood, since type O is inherited through a dominant allele.

B

As a patch of scraped skin heals, the cells fill in the injured area but do not grow beyond that. This is an example of A) density-independent inhibition. B) density-dependent inhibition. C) anchorage independence. D) growth factor inhibition.

B

Asexual reproduction requires ________ individual(s), whereas sexual reproduction requires _______ individual(s). A) 1; 1 B) 1; 2 C) 2; 1 D) 2; 2

A

At a chiasma, two ________ are attached to each other. A) homologous or nonsister chromatids B) homologous or sister chromatids C) nonhomologous chromosomes D) daughter cells

A

At the start of mitotic anaphase, A) the centromeres of each chromosome come apart. B) the chromatid DNA replicates. C) nuclear envelopes begin to form around the chromosomes. D) equivalent and complete collections of chromosomes have reached the two poles

4) Why does the relationship between metabolic rate and temperature exist? A) Cellular respiration requires organisms to take in heat energy. B) A by-product of cellular respiration is heat. C) Cellular respiration causes the body to cool because all the energy is used to make ATP. D) There is no relationship between metabolic rate and body temperature.

B) A by-product of cellular respiration is heat.

37) During chemiosmosis, A) energy is released as H+ ions move freely across mitochondrial membranes. B) ATP is synthesized when H+ ions move through a channel in ATP synthase. C) a concentration gradient is generated when large numbers of H+ ions are passively transported from the matrix of the mitochondrion to the mitochondrion's intermembrane space. D) H+ ions serve as the final electron acceptor.

B) ATP is synthesized when H+ ions move through a channel in ATP synthase.

66) You want to use radioactively labeled oxygen to trace carbon fixation in a plant. You should incorporate the radioactively labeled oxygen into A) O2. B) CO2. C) H2O. D) C6H12O6.

B) CO2.

8) Which of the following is a kingdom within the domain Eukarya? A) Viruses B) Fungi C) Archaea D) Bacteria

B) Fungi

66) The antibiotic oligomycin works by inhibiting ATP synthase. You would expect that A) there will be an increase in ATP production. B) H+ will accumulate in the intermembrane space. C) H+ will accumulate in the mitochondrial matrix. D) NAD+ and FAD will pick up the extra H+.

B) H+ will accumulate in the intermembrane space.

7) ________ cells in leaves are specialized for photosynthesis. A) Companion B) Mesophyll C) Sclerenchyma D) Tracheid

B) Mesophyll

5) If the trends shown in the graph continue, how might this affect photosynthesis? A) Photorespiration may increase, leading to an increase in photosynthetic production of sugar. B) Photorespiration may increase, leading to a decrease in photosynthetic production of sugar. C) C4 and CAM plants would be unable to photosynthesize. D) There would be no effect on photosynthesis, since CO2 and temperature are stable.

B) Photorespiration may increase, leading to a decrease in photosynthetic production of sugar.

60) Which of the following statements about the greenhouse effect is true? A) The greenhouse effect is reduced by deforestation. B) The greenhouse effect is exacerbated by the use of fossil fuels. C) The greenhouse effect will decrease the average temperature of the planet. D) The greenhouse effect has no direct relationship with the Industrial Revolution of the 1800s.

B) The greenhouse effect is exacerbated by the use of fossil fuels.

38) Which of the following statements about the inner mitochondrial membrane is false? A) ATP synthase is found in the inner mitochondrial membrane. B) The inner mitochondrial membrane plays a role in the production of pyruvate. C) Electron carriers are found in the inner mitochondrial membrane. D) A gradient of H+ exists across the inner mitochondrial membrane.

B) The inner mitochondrial membrane plays a role in the production of pyruvate.

10) A hypothesis is A) the same as a theory. B) a proposed explanation for a set of observations. C) an explanatory idea that is broad in scope and supported by a large body of evidence. D) a widely accepted idea about a phenomenon.

B) a proposed explanation for a set of observations.

59) When proteins are used as a source of energy for the body, the proteins A) are converted into glucose molecules, which are fed into glycolysis. B) are converted mainly into intermediates of glycolysis or the citric acid cycle. C) donate electrons directly to the electron transport chain. D) are hydrolyzed to glucose and converted to acetyl CoA, which enters the citric acid cycle.

B) are converted mainly into intermediates of glycolysis or the citric acid cycle.

42) By-products of cellular respiration include A) oxygen and heat. B) carbon dioxide and water. C) FADH2 and NADH. D) NADH and ATP.

B) carbon dioxide and water.

49) Photosynthetic organisms derive their carbon from A) carbon monoxide. B) carbon dioxide. C) hydrocarbons. D) methane.

B) carbon dioxide.

33) Which of the following photosynthetic pigments can be found at the photosystem reaction center? A) chlorophyll b B) chlorophyll a C) a carotenoid D) phycocyanin

B) chlorophyll a

35) A culture of bacteria is fed glucose containing radioactive carbon and is then examined. During the citric acid cycle, radioactive carbon would first appear in A) NADH. B) citrate. C) oxaloacetate. D) CO2.

B) citrate.

72) Arsenic is a poison that binds to a molecule needed to build acetyl CoA. Based on this information, which part of cellular respiration would be stopped if arsenic were ingested? A) glycolysis B) citric acid cycle C) electron transport chain D) ATP synthase

B) citric acid cycle

26) Which of the following is a result of glycolysis? A) production of CO2 B) conversion of glucose to two three-carbon compounds C) a net loss of two ATPs per glucose molecule D) conversion of NADH to NAD+

B) conversion of glucose to two three-carbon compounds

16) In biological systems, an important enzyme involved in the regulation of redox reactions is A) glucose. B) dehydrogenase. C) oxygen. D) ATP.

B) dehydrogenase.

25) The full range of electromagnetic energy is called the ________ spectrum. A) visible B) electromagnetic C) energy D) ultraviolet

B) electromagnetic

5) Which of the following are products of cellular respiration? A) oxygen and carbon dioxide B) energy to make ATP and carbon dioxide C) oxygen and glucose D) oxygen and energy to make ATP

B) energy to make ATP and carbon dioxide

71) Wood frogs freeze solid during the winter and then thaw in the spring. As the freezing progresses, blood circulation stops. How would you expect cells not being served by the circulatory system to produce ATP during this time, and what by-product would you expect to build up in the cells? A) aerobic respiration and CO2 B) fermentation and lactate C) fermentation and alcohol D) photosynthesis and O2

B) fermentation and lactate

35) Which of the following molecules is a product of photosynthesis? A) CO2 and chlorophyll B) glucose and O2 C) O2 and CO2 D) glucose and CO2

B) glucose and O2

27) A culture of bacteria is fed glucose containing radioactive carbon and is then examined. As the bacteria metabolize the glucose, the radioactive carbon will appear first in A) carbon dioxide. B) glucose-6-phosphate. C) pyruvate. D) ATP.

B) glucose-6-phosphate.

60) When a cell uses fatty acids for aerobic respiration, it first hydrolyzes fats to A) glycerol and amino acids. B) glycerol and fatty acids. C) fatty acids and sugars. D) sugars and glycerol.

B) glycerol and fatty acids.

28) Which of the following wavelengths of light would you expect to be reflected or transmitted by chlorophyll a? A) blue B) green C) yellow D) red

B) green

4) Your instructor asks you to look into your microscope to see a prokaryotic cell. You will be looking for a cell that A) has a nucleus. B) has a membrane. C) makes up most of the tissues of your body. D) is much larger than most cells in your body.

B) has a membrane.

58) To obtain energy from starch and glycogen, the body must begin by A) hydrolyzing the starch to glucose and the glycogen to amino acids. B) hydrolyzing both starch and glycogen to glucose. C) converting both starch and glycogen to fatty acids. D) removing one glucose at a time with a condensation reaction.

B) hydrolyzing both starch and glycogen to glucose.

47) In photosynthesis, the chemiosmotic production of ATP A) requires oxygen. B) is similar to the production of ATP in mitochondria. C) is done by the Calvin cycle. D) is a result of the oxidation of glucose.

B) is similar to the production of ATP in mitochondria.

15) Oxidation is the ________, and reduction is the ________. A) gain of electrons; loss of electrons B) loss of electrons; gain of electrons C) gain of oxygen; loss of oxygen D) gain of protons; loss of protons Answer: B

B) loss of electrons; gain of electrons

73) Which of the following is not an expected outcome of global climate change? A) extreme weather patterns B) lower sea levels C) spread of tropical diseases D) increased extinction rates

B) lower sea levels

43) Photosystem II A) receives electrons from photosystem I. B) passes electrons to photosystem I. C) does not have a reaction center. D) releases CO2 as a by-product.

B) passes electrons to photosystem I.

46) In chloroplasts, ATP synthase A) catalyzes the Calvin cycle. B) phosphorylates ADP to ATP. C) is found in the stroma. D) helps produce the concentration gradient of H+.

B) phosphorylates ADP to ATP.

4) Autotrophs that utilize light as their energy source are A) chemosynthetic autotrophs. B) photoautotrophs. C) fungi. D) heterotrophs.

B) photoautotrophs.

53) The addition of oxygen instead of carbon dioxide to RuBP results in A) cellular respiration. B) photorespiration. C) photophosphorylation. D) aerobic respiration.

B) photorespiration.

56) The ultimate source of all the food we eat and the oxygen we breathe is A) cellular respiration. B) photosynthesis. C) glycolysis. D) anaerobic metabolism.

B) photosynthesis.

64) The conversion of CO2 and H2O into organic compounds using energy from light is called A) glycolysis. B) photosynthesis. C) fermentation. D) cellular respiration.

B) photosynthesis.

2) Photoautotrophs A) make sugar by using organic raw materials. B) produce organic molecules from inorganic molecules. C) eat other organisms that use light energy to make food molecules. D) include only the green plants.

B) produce organic molecules from inorganic molecules.

33) The end products of the citric acid cycle include all of the following except A) CO2. B) pyruvate. C) ATP. D) FADH2.

B) pyruvate.

74) NADH is also used by cells when making certain molecules. Based on your knowledge of NADH's role in cellular respiration, what do you think NADH's role is in biosynthesis of molecules? A) oxidizing molecules B) reducing molecules C) phosphorylating molecules D) dehydrating molecules

B) reducing molecules

39) The electron transport chains of the light reactions A) are located in the stroma. B) shuttle electrons from photosystem II to photosystem I. C) provide energy for the citric acid cycle. D) are found on the plasma membrane of mesophyll cells.

B) shuttle electrons from photosystem II to photosystem I.

52) Some friends are trying to make wine in their basement. They've added yeast to a sweet grape juice mixture and have allowed the yeast to grow. After several days they find that sugar levels in the grape juice have dropped, but there's no alcohol in the mixture. The most likely explanation is that A) the mixture needs more sugar because yeast need a lot of energy before they can begin to produce alcohol. B) the mixture needs less oxygen because yeast only produce alcohol in the absence of oxygen. C) the mixture needs more oxygen because yeast need oxygen to break down sugar and get enough energy to produce alcohol. D) the yeast used the alcohol as a carbon source.

B) the mixture needs less oxygen because yeast only produce alcohol in the absence of oxygen.

11) A kilocalorie is defined as A) the quantity of glucose needed to increase the body temperature by 1°C. B) the quantity of heat needed to raise the temperature of 1 kg of water by 1°C. C) the quantity of food used to maintain normal bodily functions. D) the quantity of food consumed during a given type of exercise.

B) the quantity of heat needed to raise the temperature of 1 kg of water by 1°C.

11) Where is chlorophyll found in a plant cell? A) stroma B) thylakoid membranes C) cytoplasm D) cristae

B) thylakoid membranes

9) An antibiotic kills 99.9% of a bacterial population. You would expect the next generation of bacteria A) to be just as susceptible to that antibiotic as was the previous generation. B) to be more resistant to that antibiotic. C) to die out due to the drastic decrease in population size. D) to be more contagious than the prior generation.

B) to be more resistant to that antibiotic.

C

Below are three statements. Classify them as examples of independent orientation, crossing over, or random fertilization. I: The formation of a zygote from an egg and a sperm is an unpredictable event.II: Random combinations of paternal and maternal chromosomes end up in gametes. III: An allele on the paternal chromosome 18 ends up on the maternal chromosome 18. A) I: random fertilization; II: random fertilization; III: independent orientation B) I: random fertilization; II: crossing over; III: independent orientation C) I: independent orientation; II: random fertilization; III: crossing over D) I: random fertilization; II: independent orientation; III: crossing over

D

Blood samples are taken from the heel of newborn babies to test for a mutation in the PKU gene, which, if left untreated and in severe cases, can lead to mental retardation, reduced skin pigmentation, and seizures. Which concept is being illustrated by this example? A) polygenic inheritance B) codominance C) incomplete dominance D) pleiotropy

B

Both mitosis and meiosis are preceded by A) prometaphase. B) interphase. C) prophase. D) telophase.

68) Put the following steps of the Calvin cycle in the correct order: 1. Carbon fixation 2. Regeneration of RuBP 3. Release of G3P 4. Reduction A) 1, 2, 3, 4 B) 1, 3, 4, 2 C) 1, 4, 3, 2 D) 4, 1, 2, 3

C) 1, 4, 3, 2

24) As a result of glycolysis, there is a net gain of ________ ATP(s). A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 36

C) 2

67) Put the following steps of the light reactions in the correct order: 1. Light excites an electron from photosystem I. 2. Light excites an electron from photosystem II. 3. Electrons reduce NADP+ to NADPH. 4. Electrons pass through an electron transport chain, which generates a H+ gradient used to make ATP. A) 1, 2, 3, 4 B) 1, 4, 2, 3 C) 2, 4, 1, 3 D) 2, 3, 1, 4

C) 2, 4, 1, 3

56) When did the level of oxygen in Earth's atmosphere become high enough to sustain aerobic respiration? A) 1.0 billion years ago B) 1.5 billion years ago C) 2.7 billion years ago D) 3.5 billion years ago

C) 2.7 billion years ago

12) The label on the box of breakfast cereal lists one serving as containing "200 Calories" per serving. How many calories are actually in one serving? A) 20 B) 2,000 C) 200,000 D) 2,000,000

C) 200,000

4) Currently, atmospheric CO2 levels are approximately 400 ppm. The annual mean growth rate in CO2 is about 2 ppm/year. Assuming this trend continues, what would you predict the CO2 level to be in 100 years? A) 100 ppm B) 200 ppm C) 600 ppm D) 1,000 ppm

C) 600 ppm

10) Humans use about ________ of their daily calories to maintain brain cells and power other life-sustaining activities. A) 25% B) 50% C) 75% D) 90%

C) 75%

71) Atrazine is a widely used herbicide that binds to a protein in photosystem II, ultimately causing a breakdown in electron transport. Atrazine would first inhibit the production of A) NADPH. B) G3P. C) ATP. D) O2.

C) ATP.

7) The overall equation for the cellular respiration of glucose is A) C5H12O6 + 6 O2 → 5 CO2 + 6 H2O + energy. B) 5 CO2 + 6 H2O → C5H12O6 + 6 O2 + energy. C) C6H12O6 + 6 O2 → 6 CO2 + 6 H2O + energy. D) C6H12O6 + energy → 6 CO2+ 6 H2O + 6 O2.

C) C6H12O6 + 6 O2 → 6 CO2 + 6 H2O + energy.

5) Which of the following statements about genetics is true? A) Genes are proteins that produce DNA. B) DNA is made up of six different kinds of nucleotides. C) Differences among organisms reflect different nucleotide sequences in their DNA. D) Each DNA molecule is a single strand of nucleotides.

C) Differences among organisms reflect different nucleotide sequences in their DNA.

62) Which of the following statements regarding food is false? A) Food provides the raw materials for biosynthetic pathways that make molecules for cellular repair and growth. B) Food provides the raw materials for biosynthetic pathways that can produce molecules that are not actually present in the original food. C) Food provides the raw materials for biosynthetic pathways that can produce sugar by a process that is the exact opposite of glycolysis. D) Food provides the raw materials for biosynthetic pathways that consume ATP.

C) Food provides the raw materials for biosynthetic pathways that can produce sugar by a process that is the exact opposite of glycolysis.

45) In photophosphorylation, energy from electron flow is used to transport ________ from the ________ to the thylakoid compartment, generating a concentration gradient of ________. A) electrons; grana; H+ B) H+; grana; electrons C) H+; stroma; H+ D) H+; stroma; ATP

C) H+; stroma; H+

42) The electrons lost from the reaction center of photosystem II are replaced by electrons from A) CO2. B) ATP. C) H2O. D) photosystem I.

C) H2O.

67) The Pasteur effect shows that yeast consume glucose at a higher rate under anaerobic conditions than under aerobic conditions. Which of the following statements correctly explains this observation? A) Yeast are obligate anaerobes, so aerobic conditions will kill yeasts. B) Yeast are photosynthetic, so they are able to produce their own oxygen. C) Less ATP is made under anaerobic conditions, so more glucose must be consumed to produce an equivalent amount of ATP. D) This observation is incorrect. Aerobic conditions mean that cells make more ATP and use more glucose.

C) Less ATP is made under anaerobic conditions, so more glucose must be consumed to produce an equivalent amount of ATP.

61) It has been argued that cutting old-growth forests and replacing them with plantations of young trees would help to alleviate the threat of global greenhouse warming. What important fact does this argument ignore? A) Forests play too minor a role in global CO2 dynamics, which are affected far more by marine algae. B) Young trees fix carbon at a lower rate per unit mass than old trees. C) Most of the biomass of the cut trees would be added to the atmosphere as CO2 within a few years. D) Most of the young trees would die within a few years.

C) Most of the biomass of the cut trees would be added to the atmosphere as CO2 within a few years.

49) In fermentation, ________ is ________. A) NADH; reduced B) NAD+; oxidized C) NADH; oxidized D) ethanol; oxidized

C) NADH; oxidized

40) As a result of the cascade of electrons down the electron transport chains of the light reactions, A) NADPH is reduced to NADP+. B) NADPH is oxidized to NADP+. C) NADP+ is reduced to NADPH. D) NADP+ is oxidized to NADPH.

C) NADP+ is reduced to NADPH.

75) Which of the following statements about the energy yield of aerobic respiration is false? A) Glycolysis resulting from 1 glucose molecule yields 2 ATP molecules. B) The oxidation of pyruvate results in the production of 0 ATP molecules C) Oxidative phosphorylation resulting from 1 glucose molecule yields 12 ATP molecules. D) The citric acid cycle resulting from 1 glucose molecules yields 2 ATP molecules.

C) Oxidative phosphorylation resulting from 1 glucose molecule yields 12 ATP molecules.

46) Which of the following statements about the energy yield of aerobic respiration is false? A) Less than 50% of the chemical energy available in glucose is converted to ATP energy. B) Most of the ATP derived during aerobic respiration results from oxidative phosphorylation. C) Oxidative phosphorylation resulting from 1 glucose molecule yields about 12 ATP molecules. D) The total yield of ATP molecules per glucose molecule is about 32.

C) Oxidative phosphorylation resulting from 1 glucose molecule yields about 12 ATP molecules.

50) When an organism such as a yeast lives by fermentation, it converts the pyruvate from glycolysis into a different compound, such as alcohol. Why doesn't it secrete the pyruvate directly? A) The conversion yields 32 ATP per pyruvate molecule. B) The conversion yields one NADH per pyruvate molecule. C) The conversion is needed to regenerate the molecules needed for glycolysis. D) A buildup of pyruvate in the surrounding environment would be too toxic.

C) The conversion is needed to regenerate the molecules needed for glycolysis.

5) Bats contain brown fat between their shoulder blades. How could this brown fat be an adaptation to torpor? A) Brown fat has many mitochondria, so it can produce more ATP. B) Brown fat can produce heat and ATP through fermentation. C) The mitochondria in brown fat can produce heat without making ATP. D) It is not an adaptation; white fat is what they need to produce heat.

C) The mitochondria in brown fat can produce heat without making ATP.

73) NADH pills can be purchased over the counter and are often taken by sufferers of chronic fatigue syndrome (CFS). How might these pills benefit a CFS patient? A) They would increase energy by creating more FADH2. B) They would decrease the rate of glycolysis. C) They would increase the number of electrons provided to the electron transport chain. D) They would decrease the rate of alcoholic fermentation.

C) They would increase the number of electrons provided to the electron transport chain.

69) A friend tells you that he is going on a low-carb diet to lose weight because he thinks that carbs contain more energy than fats or protein. What would you tell your friend about his plan? A) This is a good idea because sugars enter the fuel breakdown pathway earlier than other food molecules. B) This is a good idea because sugars have more electrons than fats and protein. C) This is an incorrect idea because fats contain more hydrogen atoms than carbohydrates and protein. D) This is an incorrect idea because all food molecules store the same amount of energy.

C) This is an incorrect idea because fats contain more hydrogen atoms than carbohydrates and protein.

15) A redox reaction involves the transfer of A) oxygen. B) water. C) an electron. D) carbon dioxide.

C) an electron.

30) Plant cells are protected from the harmful effects of excessive light energy and reactive oxidative molecules by A) mitochondria. B) chlorophyll. C) carotenoids. D) ATP.

C) carotenoids.

17) During cellular respiration, NADH A) is chemically converted into ATP. B) is reduced to form NAD+. C) delivers its electron load to the first electron carrier molecule. D) is the final electron acceptor.

C) delivers its electron load to the first electron carrier molecule.

14) During redox reactions, A) the loss of electrons from one substance is called reduction. B) a substance that gains electrons is said to be oxidized. C) electrons are lost from one substance and added to another substance. D) protons from one molecule replace the electrons lost from another molecule.

C) electrons are lost from one substance and added to another substance.

55) Yeasts can produce ATP by either fermentation or oxidative phosphorylation; thus, they are A) strict anaerobes. B) strict aerobes. C) facultative anaerobes. D) facultative aerobes.

C) facultative anaerobes.

65) If ATP accumulates in a cell, A) the cell receives a signal that there is a need for more energy. B) feedback inhibition speeds up cellular respiration. C) feedback inhibition slows down cellular respiration. D) the rate of cellular respiration does not change.

C) feedback inhibition slows down cellular respiration.

23) Which of the following metabolic pathways is common in aerobic and anaerobic metabolism? A) the citric acid cycle B) oxidative phosphorylation C) glycolysis D) electron transport chain

C) glycolysis

10) Thylakoids are arranged in stacks called A) cristae. B) stomata. C) grana. D) vacuoles.

C) grana.

39) The mitochondrial cristae are an adaptation that A) permits the expansion of mitochondria as oxygen accumulates in the mitochondrial matrix. B) helps mitochondria divide during times of greatest cellular respiration. C) increases the space for more copies of the electron transport chain and ATP synthase complexes. D) carefully encloses the DNA housed within the mitochondrial matrix.

C) increases the space for more copies of the electron transport chain and ATP synthase complexes.

3) If you eat a hamburger, you are mainly eating ground-up beef muscle. What levels of organization are represented in this ground-up muscle? A) organism, population, and community B) organ, organ system, and organism C) organelle, cell, and tissue D) tissue, organ, and organ system

C) organelle, cell, and tissue

29) Chlorophyll b A) is best at absorbing the energy of green light. B) is best at absorbing the energy of blue-violet and red light, just like chlorophyll a. C) passes absorbed energy to chlorophyll a. D) catalyzes the incorporation of carbon atoms into RuBP.

C) passes absorbed energy to chlorophyll a.

31) A packet of light energy is called a A) quantum. B) pigment. C) photon. D) phaser.

C) photon.

38) The energy that excites the photosystems is supplied by A) electrons passing down the electron transport chain. B) ATP. C) photons. D) NADPH.

C) photons.

51) To produce one glucose, the Calvin cycle needs to be run ________ times. A) two B) four C) six D) eight

C) six

1) Which step of the citric acid cycle requires both NAD+ and ADP as reactants? A) step 1 B) step 2 C) step 3 D) step 4

C) step 3

47) The energy yield from the breakdown of a single molecule of glucose does not depend upon A) whether the NADH produced in glycolysis passes its electrons across the mitochondrial membrane to NAD+ or FAD. B) the supply of oxygen. C) the supply of carbon dioxide. D) whether some of the energy of the H+ gradient is used for work other than ATP production.

C) the supply of carbon dioxide.

44) Rotenone is a poison commonly added to insecticides. Rotenone binds tightly with one of the electron carrier molecules in the electron transport chain, preventing electrons from passing to the next carrier molecule. Insects exposed to rotenone will die because A) they will no longer be able to perform anaerobic respiration. B) high levels of fermentation products will build up in their bodies. C) they will no longer be able to produce adequate amounts of ATP. D) they will no longer be able to absorb water and will become dehydrated.

C) they will no longer be able to produce adequate amounts of ATP.

63) Ozone consists of ________ oxygen atom(s). A) one B) two C) three D) four

C) three

63) Which of the following organisms can make organic molecules from water and carbon dioxide? A) bear B) mushroom C) wheat D) crayfish

C) wheat

A

Cancer is not usually inherited because A) the chromosomal changes in cancer are usually confined to somatic cells. B) people with cancer usually die before reproducing. C) the causes of cancer are not usually genetic. D) the cancerous cells usually interfere with the ability to produce gametes

A

Crossing over ________ genes into assortments of ________ not found in the parents. A) recombines linked; alleles B) recombines unlinked; genes C) combines unlinked; alleles D) combines linked; genes

20) Which of the following are produced during the light reactions of photosynthesis? A) glucose, ADP, NADP+ B) glucose, ADP, NADP+, CO2 C) ADP, NADP+, O2 D) ATP, NADPH, O2

D) ATP, NADPH, O2

2) What is the difference between a tissue and an organ system? A) The tissue level of organization is more inclusive than the organ system level. B) Tissues are not composed of cells; organ systems are composed of cells. C) A tissue cannot exist unless it is a component of an organ system, whereas an organ system can exist independently of tissues. D) An organ system includes tissues.

D) An organ system includes tissues.

70) Many of the regions of the world where hunger is prevalent are also regions with hot and dry climates. What types of agricultural crops would you suggest that these regions attempt to grow? A) C3 plants, such as wheat and rice B) C3 plants and C4 plants, such as corn and sugarcane C) C3 plants and CAM plants, such as prickly pear and pineapple D) C4 plants and CAM plants

D) C4 plants and CAM plants

68) DNP is a chemical that has been used by people to lose weight. However, it is a dangerous option and has caused several people to die. DNP works in a fashion similar to that of brown fat. Based on this information, how would DNP cause weight loss and death? A) DNP must prevent food from being consumed aerobically, so cells instead perform fermentation, and lactate buildup is deadly. B) DNP must increase the rate of substrate-level phosphorylation, causing NADH to be produced more quickly than it can be used by the electron transport chain. C) DNP must block cells from using fats and proteins to make ATP. D) DNP must increase metabolism of food by producing heat instead of ATP.

D) DNP must increase metabolism of food by producing heat instead of ATP.

31) Which of the following statements regarding the chemical grooming of pyruvate is false? A) Two molecules of pyruvate are each converted into two-carbon molecules joined to a coenzyme A molecule. B) Each pyruvate loses a carbon atom, which is released as CO2. C) Two pyruvate molecules together contain less chemical energy than was found in the original glucose molecule. D) Each pyruvate molecule has a CO2 added and then joins with an NADH.

D) Each pyruvate molecule has a CO2 added and then joins with an NADH.

32) Which of the following statements about the absorption of photons by pigment molecules is true? A) It takes several minutes for the pigment electrons to become excited. B) Photons raise electrons in pigments to the ground state. C) Excitation of the electrons is a very stable state. D) Energy can be released by the excited electron as heat, light, or fluorescence.

D) Energy can be released by the excited electron as heat, light, or fluorescence.

57) Which of the following statements regarding glycolysis is false? A) Glycolysis is considered to be an ancient metabolic process because it does not require oxygen. B) Glycolysis is considered to be an ancient metabolic process because it is not located in a membrane-bound organelle. C) Glycolysis is considered to be an ancient metabolic system because it occurs universally. D) Glycolysis is considered to be an ancient metabolic system because it is the most efficient metabolic pathway for ATP synthesis.

D) Glycolysis is considered to be an ancient metabolic system because it is the most efficient metabolic pathway for ATP synthesis.

14) If you expose a photosynthesizing plant to water that contains both radioactive H and radioactive O, in which of the products of photosynthesis will the radioactive H and O show up? A) H and O both in glucose B) H in glucose; O in water C) H in water; O in glucose D) H in glucose and water; O in O2

D) H in glucose and water; O in O2

16) Which of the following statements concerning the role of redox reactions in photosynthesis and cellular respiration is true? A) Photosynthesis involves only reductions, whereas respiration involves only oxidations. B) Photosynthesis involves only oxidations, whereas respiration involves only reductions. C) In photosynthesis, carbon dioxide is oxidized to form sugar, whereas in respiration, sugar is reduced to form carbon dioxide. D) In photosynthesis, carbon dioxide is reduced to form sugar, whereas in respiration, sugar is oxidized to form carbon dioxide.

D) In photosynthesis, carbon dioxide is reduced to form sugar, whereas in respiration, sugar is oxidized to form carbon dioxide.

32) The enzymes of the citric acid cycle are located in the

D) Mitochondria

36) At the end of the citric acid cycle, most of the energy remaining from the original glucose is stored in A) CO2. B) pyruvate. C) ATP. D) NADH.

D) NADH.

18) Which of the following statements regarding the movement of electrons during cellular respiration is true? A) Electrons tend to move away from O2. B) O2 is eventually oxidized by the electrons to form water. C) The electrons release large amounts of energy each time they are transferred from one molecule to another. D) O2 is reduced when it accepts electrons and forms water.

D) O2 is reduced when it accepts electrons and forms water.

1) Which of the following statements about the properties of life is false? A) Organisms have the ability to take in energy and use it. B) Organisms have the ability to respond to stimuli from the environment. C) Organisms have the ability to reproduce. D) Organisms have an unchanging, constant internal environment

D) Organisms have an unchanging, constant internal environment

57) Plants use sugars as A) a fuel for photosynthesis. B) a starting material for the Calvin cycle. C) a source of electrons for chemiosmosis. D) a fuel for cellular respiration and a starting material for making other organic molecules.

D) a fuel for cellular respiration and a starting material for making other organic molecules.

1) Based on your knowledge of the process of photosynthesis, the plant in the container placed under red light would probably A) absorb no CO2. B) absorb the same amount of CO2 as the plants under the green light. C) absorb less CO2 than the plants under the green light. D) absorb more CO2 than the plants under the green light.

D) absorb more CO2 than the plants under the green light

53) In yeast cells, A) lactic acid is produced during anaerobic respiration. B) lactic acid is produced during glycolysis. C) alcohol is produced during the citric acid cycle. D) alcohol is produced after glycolysis.

D) alcohol is produced after glycolysis.

1) What is the name given to organisms that can make their own food and thus sustain themselves without consuming organic molecules derived from other organisms? A) chemotrophs B) heterotrophs C) synthesizers D) autotrophs

D) autotrophs

72) Red algae are found in relatively deep water. In order for light to penetrate to these depths, it must be high in energy. Which wavelengths of light would you expect red algae to use? A) red B) yellow C) green D) blue

D) blue

21) Which of the following is part of the light reaction? A) carbon fixation B) reduction of carbon C) regeneration of NADP+ D) formation of waste products in the form of O2

D) formation of waste products in the form of O2

22) During which of the following phases of cellular respiration does substrate-level phosphorylation take place? A) glycolysis B) the citric acid cycle C) oxidative phosphorylation D) glycolysis and the citric acid cycle

D) glycolysis and the citric acid cycle

27) Which of the following colors contributes the least energy to photosynthesis? A) blue B) red C) orange D) green

D) green

58) Plant cells A) lack mitochondria and chloroplasts. B) lack mitochondria but have chloroplasts. C) have mitochondria but do not have chloroplasts. D) have mitochondria and chloroplasts.

D) have mitochondria and chloroplasts.

2) Which H+ has just passed through the inner mitochondrial membrane by diffusion? A) hydrogen ion A B) hydrogen ion B C) hydrogen ion C D) hydrogen ion D

D) hydrogen ion D

41) If you were able to stop the process of cellular respiration after completing electron transport but prior to chemiosmosis, you would find the pH of a mitochondrion to be at its lowest A) on the outer membrane. B) on the inner membrane. C) in the mitochondrial matrix. D) in the intermembrane space.

D) in the intermembrane space.

2) You predict that a side effect of Fat Away will be A) increased production of NADH. B) increased production of pyruvate. C) increased production of lactate. D) increased body temperature.

D) increased body temperature.

13) During cellular respiration, the energy in glucose A) becomes stored in molecules of ammonia. B) is used to manufacture glucose. C) is released all at once. D) is carried by electrons.

D) is carried by electrons.

41) The electrons lost from the reaction center of photosystem I are replaced by electrons from A) CO2. B) H2O. C) ATP. D) photosystem II.

D) photosystem II.

62) Ozone A) formation is promoted by CFCs. B) is broken down by carbon dioxide. C) is a source of oxygen for cellular respiration. D) protects Earth from ultraviolet radiation.

D) protects Earth from ultraviolet radiation.

9) In the chloroplast, sugars are made in a compartment that is filled with a thick fluid called the A) stomata. B) thylakoid. C) matrix. D) stroma.

D) stroma.

7) Kingdom Fungi includes species A) such as mushrooms and plants. B) that obtain food by ingestion. C) that use photosynthesis to obtain food. D) that obtain food by decomposing dead organisms and absorbing the nutrients.

D) that obtain food by decomposing dead organisms and absorbing the nutrients.

21) A drug is tested in the laboratory and is found to create holes in both mitochondrial membranes. Scientists suspect that the drug will be harmful to human cells because it will inhibit A) the citric acid cycle. B) oxidative phosphorylation. C) glycolysis. D) the citric acid cycle and oxidative phosphorylation.

D) the citric acid cycle and oxidative phosphorylation.

44) Photophosphorylation during photosynthesis differs from oxidative phosphorylation during cellular respiration in that A) it involves an electron transport chain. B) energy is stored in the form of a proton (H+) concentration difference. C) generation of ATP is driven by a flow of protons (H+) through ATP synthase. D) the final electron acceptor is NADP+ and not oxygen.

D) the final electron acceptor is NADP+ and not oxygen.

45) As electrons move through the mitochondrial space, A) NADH is reduced. B) water is oxidized. C) ATP synthase works by active transport. D) the pH of the intermembrane space decreases.

D) the pH of the intermembrane space decreases.

19) The light reactions occur in the ________, while the Calvin cycle occurs in the ________. A) stroma; thylakoid membranes B) stroma; nucleus C) cytoplasm; thylakoid membrane D) thylakoid membranes; stroma

D) thylakoid membranes; stroma

B

Dr. Smith's parents have normal hearing. However, Dr. Smith has an inherited form of deafness. Deafness is a recessive trait that is associated with the abnormal allele d. The normal allele at this locus, associated with normal hearing, is D. Dr. Smith's parents could have which of the following genotypes? A) Dd and DD B) Dd and Dd C) dd and dd D) DD and dd

B

During which phase of mitosis do the chromosomes line up on a plane equidistant from the two spindle poles? A) prophase B) metaphase C) anaphase D) telophase

D

During which phase of mitosis does the nuclear envelope re-form? A) anaphase B) metaphase C) prophase D) telophase

D

During which stage of meiosis could this nondisjunction have occurred? A) prophase I B) telophase II C) telophase I D) anaphase II

B

During which stage of meiosis do synapsis and crossing over occur? A) interphase I B) prophase I C) prophase II D) metaphase I

A

Eukaryotic cells spend most of their cell cycle in which phase? A) interphase B) prophase C) metaphase D) telophase

D

Eukaryotic chromosomes differ from prokaryotic chromosomes in that they A) are simpler. B) are circular in structure. C) include fewer proteins. D) are housed in a membrane-enclosed nucleus.

A

Female inheritance patterns cannot be analyzed by simply studying the X chromosome because A) the X chromosome is obtained from both father and mother. B) the X chromosome is too large to analyze effectively. C) the X chromosome sometimes exchanges genetic information with the Y chromosome. D) one X chromosome is deactivated in females.

C

For most sexually reproducing organisms, Mendel's laws A) explain the biological mechanisms behind why certain genes are dominant or recessive. B) can predict whether offspring will be male or female with 100% accuracy. C) cannot strictly account for the patterns of inheritance of many traits. D) help us understand the global geographic patterns of genetic disease.

D

Genes located close together on the same chromosomes are referred to as ________ genes and generally ________. A) linked; do not sort independently during meiosis B) homologous; are inherited together C) codependent; do not sort independently during meiosis D) linked; sort independently during meiosis

C

Given the sex determination system in bees, we can expect that A) female bees will produce eggs by mitosis, whereas male bees will produce sperm by meiosis. B) male and female bees will produce sperm and eggs by mitosis. C) female bees will produce eggs by meiosis, whereas male bees will produce sperm by mitosis. D) male and female bees will produce sperm and eggs by meiosis.

A

How is sex determined in most ants and bees? A) by the number of chromosomes B) by the size of the sex chromosome C) by the X-Y system D) by the Z-W system

A

How many generations does it take to develop a new plant species by polyploidy? A) 1 B) 2 C) 10 D) about 20

C

How many sex chromosomes are in a human gamete? A) three B) four C) one D) two

B

If a chromosome fragment breaks off and then reattaches to the original chromosome but in the reverse direction, the resulting chromosomal abnormality is called a(n) A) deletion. B) inversion. C) translocation. D) reciprocal translocation

C

If these four cells resulted from cell division of a single cell with diploid chromosome number 2n = 4, what best describes what just occurred? A) translocation B) inversion C) nondisjunction D) normal meiosis

B

If we use the letter P to represent the polydactyly gene, what is Jake's genotype? A) Pp B) pp C) PP D) You cannot determine Jake's genotype from this information.

C

Imagine that beak color in a finch species is controlled by a single gene. You mate a finch homozygous for orange (pigmented) beak with a finch homozygous for ivory (unpigmented) beak and get numerous offspring, all of which have a pale, ivory-orange beak. This pattern of color expression is most likely to be an example of A) polygenic inheritance. B) codominance. C) incomplete dominance. D) pleiotropy.

B

In giraffes, long necks (N), long legs (L), dark spots (D), and the ability to digest meat (M) are all dominant traits. What possible genotype could a long-necked, short-legged, light-spotted, meat-digesting giraffe have? A) nnLLddMM B) NnllddMM C) NNLLDdMm D) NNllddmm

B

In regard to the baby's colorblindness, a sex-linked recessive trait, you explain that A) the eggs must have been accidentally switched, since males inherit sex-linked traits only from their fathers. B) since colorblindness is sex-linked, a son can inherit colorblindness if his mother has the recessive colorblindness allele. C) the baby's father must have a recessive allele for colorblindness. D) colorblindness often appears randomly, even if neither parent is colorblind.

A

Independent orientation of chromosomes at metaphase I and random fertilization are most like A) shuffling cards and dealing out hands of poker. B) cutting up a pie into eight even-sized slices. C) alphabetizing files in a filing cabinet. D) pairing up similar socks after washing your clothes.

C

Independent orientation of chromosomes at metaphase I results in an increase in the number of A) gametes. B) homologous chromosomes. C) possible combinations of characteristics. D) sex chromosomes.

B

Jacobsen syndrome, which can cause heart defects, intellectual deficiencies, and bleeding disorders, is caused by a deletion of the terminal end of chromosome 11. What method could you use to determine whether an individual has Jacobsen syndrome? A) Look at a person's skin cells in G1 under a light microscope. B) Perform a karyotype using a person's white blood cells. C) Place a person's red blood cells in culture to see if they grow. D) Count the number of chromosomes present.

A

Justin has type A blood and his wife Brittany has type B blood. Justin's parents both have type AB blood, and Brittany's parents also both have type AB blood. What are the chances that Justin and Brittany's son Theodore has type A blood? A) 0% B) 25% C) 100% D) 75%

B

Karyotyping A) shows chromosomes as they appear in metaphase of meiosis II. B) can reveal alterations in chromosome number. C) examines points of crossing over. D) reveals the presence of cancerous genes

B

Linked genes generally A) show pleiotropy. B) do not follow the laws of independent assortment. C) reflect a pattern of codominance. D) show incomplete dominance.

A

Looking into your microscope, you spot an unusual cell. Instead of the typical rounded cell shape, the cell has a very narrow middle separating two bulging ends. It sort of looks like the number 8! You realize that this cell is A) undergoing cytokinesis. B) in the S phase of interphase. C) in the G1 phase of interphase. D) about to undergo mitosis

C

Mature human nerve cells and muscle cells A) become cancerous more easily than other cell types. B) continue to divide throughout their lifetime. C) are permanently in a state of nondivision. D) cease dividing after a predetermined number of cell generations

C

Mendel conducted his most memorable experiments on A) fruit flies. B) guinea pigs. C) peas. D) roses.

B

Mendel's law of independent assortment states that A) chromosomes sort independently of each other during mitosis and meiosis. B) each pair of alleles segregates independently of the other pairs of alleles during gamete formation. C) independent sorting of genes produces polyploid plants under some circumstances. D) genes are sorted concurrently during gamete formation.

D

Most genetic disorders of humans are caused by A) dominant alleles. B) a mutation that occurs in the egg, sperm, or zygote. C) multiple alleles. D) recessive alleles.

D

Most people afflicted with recessive disorders are born to parents who were A) subjected to some environmental toxin that caused the disease in their children. B) both affected by the disease. C) slightly affected by the disease, showing some but not all of the symptoms. D) not affected at all by the disease.

which of the following substances would have the most trouble crossing a biological membrane by diffusing through the lipid bilayer

Na+

C

Nondisjunction occurs when A) a portion of a chromosome breaks off and is lost. B) two chromosomes fuse into one. C) members of a chromosome pair fail to separate. D) an entire pair of chromosomes is lost during meiosis I.

B

Oncologists (medical doctors who treat cancer patients) routinely take biopsies (samples) of tissue from patients to determine whether the tissue is cancerous or not. What would be the best experiment to do to determine whether cells from the tissue sample are cancerous? A) Count the number of chromosomes in the cells from the tissue sample and compare to the number of chromosomes in noncancerous cells from the patient. B) Add cells from the tissue sample to a cell culture dish and compare their growth against a sample of noncancerous cells from the patient. C) Measure the amount of DNA in G1 in the cells from the tissue sample and compare it to the amount of DNA in G2 in noncancerous cells from the patient. D) Add cells from the tissue sample to a rat to see whether the rat develops cancer or not.

A

One of Jake and Lucy's kittens mates with another cat that has 18 total toes. What is the probability that one of their offspring would have 18 total toes? A) 50% B) 75% C) 100% D) 0%

1) Which of the following statements regarding photosynthesis and cellular respiration is true? A) Photosynthesis occurs in chloroplasts, and cellular respiration occurs in mitochondria. B) Photosynthesis occurs in mitochondria, and cellular respiration occurs in chloroplasts. C) Photosynthesis occurs in mitochondria and in chloroplasts. D) Cellular respiration occurs in mitochondria and in chloroplasts.

Photosynthesis occurs in chloroplasts, and cellular respiration occurs in mitochondria.

D

Prior to mitosis, each chromosome of a eukaryotic cell consists of a pair of identical structures called A) chromatin. B) sister chromosomes. C) nucleoli. D) sister chromatids

C

Recessive X-linked traits are more likely to be expressed in a male fruit fly than a female fruit fly because A) males are haploid. B) the male chromosome is more susceptible to mutations. C) the male's phenotype results entirely from his single X-linked gene. D) the male chromosome is more fragile than the female chromosome.

B

Research since Mendel's time has established that the law of segregation of genes during gamete formation A) applies to all asexually reproducing organisms. B) applies to all sexually reproducing organisms. C) applies to all forms of life. D) is invalid.

C

Sex-linked conditions are more common in men than in women because A) men acquire two copies of the defective gene during fertilization. B) the genes associated with the sex-linked conditions are linked to the Y chromosome, which determines maleness. C) men need to inherit only one copy of the recessive allele for the condition to be fully expressed. D) the sex chromosomes are more active in men than in women.

A

Sickle-cell disease is an example of A) codominance and pleiotropy. B) codominance and multiple alleles. C) multiple alleles, pleiotropy, and blended inheritance. D) multiple alleles and pleiotropy.

B

Sister chromatids are A) found right after a cell divides. B) joined together at a centromere. C) made only of DNA. D) unique to prokaryotes.

C

Strictly speaking, the phrase "like begets like" refers to A) all forms of reproduction. B) sexual reproduction only. C) asexual reproduction only. D) production of gametes from a premeiotic cell.