Chapter Quizzes (found at the end of chapter 11 & 12)
B
If a candidate is not strong in answering candid questions from reporters, he or she might decide to __________. A) be interviewed for a local evening news program B) appear on a talk show C) arrange for an appearance on a Sunday morning news program D) hold a press conference
D
In __________ election, an incumbent is removed from office. A) an impeachment B) an initiative C) a referendum D) a recall
B
In what ways does an open primary differ from a closed primary? A) Any American citizen can vote in an open primary; only registered voters can vote in a closed primary. B) Any registered voter can vote in an open primary; only a voter registered with a party can vote for that party's candidates in a closed primary. C) An open primary occurs over multiple days, allowing more discussion and debate; a closed primary occurs over a single day. D) Any candidate can run in an open primary; candidates must be chosen by their party to run in a closed primary.
A
Interest groups whose primary purpose is something other than electoral politics are called __________. A) 501(c) groups B) Super PACs C) PACs D) 527 committees
D
Members of which of the following groups are most likely to identify with the Democratic Party? A) Cubans B) Protestant evangelicals C) business executives D) African Americans
A
Robo-calls are remarkably efficient because they can__________. A) reach up to 2,500 telephones per minute at only pennies per call B) eliminate any door-to-door vote canvassing C) raise unlimited funds from political action committees D) be used to spread positive information about the opponent via positive ads
A
Since the Supreme Court's Citizens United decision, __________ have not played as central of a role in funding congressional campaigns as have Super PACs. A) political action committees B) public funds C) foreign citizens D) corporations
B
Someone who favors government intervention to regulate sexual and social behavior, restrict abortion, and ban same-sex marriage is best described as a __________. A) conservative B) social conservative C) libertarian D) liberal
C
The Twenty-Sixth Amendment to the Constitution __________. A) gave women the right to vote B) outlawed poll taxes C) lowered the voting age to 18 D) allowed residents of Washington, D.C., to vote in presidential elections
A
The rise of candidate-centered politics resulted from __________. A) the weakening of the party system B) the persistence of political machines C) more energetic party organizations D) suburban to urban population shifts
D
What is the gender gap? A) the fact that women are more likely to support female candidates and men are more likely to support male candidates B) the fact that women are more likely than men to vote C) the fact that female candidates need to raise more money to be competitive than do men D) the fact that women are more likely to support Democratic candidates and men are more likely to support Republican candidates
B
What is the most powerful predictor of voting in Congress today? A) seniority B) partisanship C) geography D) interest group support
D
What is the strongest influence on young citizens' party identification? A) the area where they grew up B) the partisanship of their friends, peers, and schoolmates C) the nature of the times D) the partisanship of their parents
B
What is the weakest component of the party system, as indicated by the percentage of Americans who adopt a party label? A) the presidential party B) the party in the electorate C) the party in Congress D) the state party
D
When are members of Congress from the president's party especially vulnerable to electoral defeat? A) primary elections B) recall elections C) presidential election years D) midterm elections
C
Which of the following best explains why minorities tend to have lower voter turnout rates than do white voters? A) Whites are more invested in public policy issues than are minorities. B) Whites tend to intimidate minorities into not voting. C) Minorities have greater barriers to voting because they tend to have lower incomes and less formal education. D) Minorities do not affiliate with traditional parties.
A
Which of the following circumstances should be considered one of the greatest minor-party successes? A) when the major parties adopt some of the issues raised by the minor party B) when the minor party adopts one of the ideas of the major parties C) when the minor party promotes legislation that alienates certain social groups D) when the public registers increased political trust in the two major parties
C
Which of the following contributes to low voter turnout in the United States? A) the generally low levels of education B) laws that enfranchise convicted felons C) the existence of voter registration laws D) the reluctance to believe in democratic principles
A
Which of the following dramatically increased voter turnout among African Americans? A) the Voting Rights Act B) the Federal Elections Campaign Act (FECA) C) the election of George W. Bush D) the increased use of literacy tests
B
Which of the following is a central component of the Golden Age of political parties? A) the rise of interest groups and lobbyists B) political machines C) iron triangles D) candidate-centered politics
B
Which of the following is a reason given by some scholars for why voters with more education are more likely to turn out? A) Voters with less education have easier access to ways to register to vote. B) People with more education tend to learn more about politics and have a greater sense of political efficacy. C) Candidates target their campaign messages to more-educated voters. D) The rise of partisan politics has made education a greater predictor of vote choice.
A
Which of the following is a third party built around an ideology? A) the Socialist Party B) the NAACP C) the Bull Moose Party D) the Green Party
C
Which of the following is an effect of increased partisan polarization in American politics? A) higher rates of congressional productivity B) increased political trust C) fewer incentives for members of Congress to compromise D) an increase in the number of moderate members of Congress
A
Which of the following is the party governing body that supervises local party organizations? A) the state central committee or the state executive committee B) the congressional caucus or the congressional working group C) the platform committee D) national party convention
C
Which of the following is true about the national party conventions? A) Conventions determine the influence of leaders within the party. B) Conventions determine the committee assignments for the next Congress. C) Conventions attempt to mobilize loyal supporters and engage more casual observers. D) Conventions historically allow for open debate about the qualifications of the presidential nominees.
C
Which of the following may be a cause of partisan polarization? A) an increased sense of civic responsibility in the electorate B) the growth of more heterogeneous urban cities C) the rise of partisan media and media coverage of partisan differences in the United States D) a decline in the number of party activists
B
Which of the following policy positions will most Democratic candidates need to adopt to be successful? A) support for so-called right-to-work laws B) support for a woman's right to choose whether to have an abortion C) support for privatization of Medicare D) support for a single-payer health care system
B
Which of the following would be most likely to increase voter turnout in the United States? A) stricter voter identification requirements B) absentee voting rules C) a larger number of independents D) more elections
D
Which reforms may increase voter turnout? A) requiring all states to use paper ballots B) requiring photo identification to vote C) requesting absentee ballots in person D) strengthened partisanship
A
Why do many governors hold greater influence over their parties' organizations than do presidents or legislators? A) Governors often have more patronage positions at their disposal. B) Governors have more money at their disposal. C) Governors are less likely to be distracted by efforts to shape public policy. D) Governors have greater power to introduce legislation.