Chapters 1-4

Which of the following was one of the findings of "The White Paper" that was published in 1966? A) Ambulances and equipment were of poor quality or nonexistent. B) Hospitals had mainly full-time staff. C) Uniform laws and standards were adequate. D) High-quality communication occurred between EMS and hospitals.

A) Ambulances and equipment were of poor quality or nonexistent.

What type of research is based on a group of individuals at one point in time? A) Cross-sectional B) Descriptive C) Retrospective D) Prospective

A) Cross-sectional

What is the typical order of the stages of the grieving process? A) Denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance B) Depression, denial, anger, bargaining, acceptance C) Anger, denial, depression, bargaining, acceptance D) Denial, bargaining, anger, acceptance, depression

A) Denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance

What should you do when educating the public regarding your EMS system? A) Ensure that citizens know how to access EMS. B) Liken your job to EMS-related TV shows. C) Advocate the importance of using EMS for all medical situations. D) Assume the needs of your community.

A) Ensure that citizens know how to access EMS.

Which aspect of HIPAA is most pertinent to the paramedic? A) Ensuring that the patient's privacy is protected B) Disclosing patient information to the media C) Documenting a thorough patient assessment D) Recovering funds from insurance companies

A) Ensuring that the patient's privacy is protected

How can a paramedic improve his or her ability to effectively manage stress? A) Identify the stress triggers and take action to minimize their effects. B) Recognize what causes the stress and eliminate it from his or her life. C) Avoid caffeine and get a minimum of 12 hours of sleep every day. D) Seek psychiatric assistance and request a mild sedative drug.

A) Identify the stress triggers and take action to minimize their effects.

While caring for an elderly man with abdominal pain, you are very open with the patient and answer his questions honestly. What quality are you displaying to the patient? A) Integrity B) Competency C) Self-motivation D) Empathy

A) Integrity

Which of the following would be a violation of HIPAA? A) Leaving patient information in a public area B) Discussing patient information with your partner C) Using the patient's name when speaking to them D) Sharing a patient report with the receiving physician

A) Leaving patient information in a public area

Which of the following is a physiologic response of the fight-or-flight response? A) Mobilization of glucose and an increased heart rate B) Shunting of blood toward the gastrointestinal tract C) Decreased sympathetic tone and pupil constriction D) Decreased flow of blood to the skeletal muscles

A) Mobilization of glucose and an increased heart rate

How should a paramedic evaluate and interpret research? A) Read all parts of the study B) Focus on the limitations of the study C) Skim through the study and look at a couple of findings D) Focus on the findings that support what they already know

A) Read all parts of the study

What should the paramedic do when they are unsure about which skill to perform when caring for a patient? A) Talk with a partner or call the EMS supervisor. B) Use critical thinking skills to determine the best course of action. C) Memorize all aspects of the EMS agency protocols. D) Use the skill that they are most comfortable with.

A) Talk with a partner or call the EMS supervisor.

What should you do when exposed to a patient's blood or body fluids? A) Wash the affected area immediately with soap and water. B) Do not report the incident unless the patient has a disease. C) Get a medical evaluation within 1 month of exposure. D) Continue caring for the patient.

A) Wash the affected area immediately with soap and water.

Proximate cause is defined as: A) a link between the paramedic's improper action and the patient's injury. B) a direct relationship between the mechanism of injury and the patient's injury. C) an action on the part of the paramedic that improved the patient's condition. D) an act of ordinary or gross negligence that resulted in further harm to the patient.

A) a link between the paramedic's improper action and the patient's injury.

As an advocate for your patient, you must: A) act in the patient's best interest and remain respectful of his or her wishes and beliefs. B) treat all patients the same, regardless of differences in lifestyle, culture, and personal values. C) keep suspicions of abuse or neglect to yourself if the patient fears retribution from the abuser. D) allow your personal feelings to affect the quality of care that you provide to your patients.

A) act in the patient's best interest and remain respectful of his or her wishes and beliefs.

A 17-year-old woman presents with acute abdominal pain while at a party with her husband. You arrive at the scene, assess the patient, and advise her of the need for EMS treatment and transport. However, the patient, who is conscious and alert, refuses EMS treatment and transport and states that her husband will transport her in his car. You should: A) advise her of the potential risks of refusing EMS treatment and transport. B) begin treatment using implied consent, because she is under 18 years of age. C) accept her refusal because the fact that she is married makes her emancipated. D) ensure that she has decision-making capacity and then obtain a signed refusal.

A) advise her of the potential risks of refusing EMS treatment and transport.

A critical incident is defined as: A) an incident that overwhelms the ability of an EMS worker or system to cope with the experience, either at the scene or later. B) any incident that completely overwhelms a paramedic's ability to manage the short-term stress caused by the incident. C) a delayed stress reaction to an incident that is similar to what has been experienced in the past. D) a situation that completely incapacitates a person's ability to cope with the acute stress reaction at the scene.

A) an incident that overwhelms the ability of an EMS worker or system to cope with the experience, either at the scene or later.

Prolonged or excessive stress has been proven to be a strong contributor to: A) depression. B) schizophrenia. C) hypotension. D) bipolar disorder.

A) depression.

Before asking a patient to sign a refusal form, the paramedic must: A) ensure the patient is aware of the risks of his or her refusal. B) tell the patient that he or she will die without treatment. C) ask an impartial observer to sign the refusal form first. D) ask a police officer to determine if the patient is competent.

A) ensure the patient is aware of the risks of his or her refusal.

Transporting a competent adult patient without his or her consent would likely result in allegations of: A) false imprisonment. B) criminal trespassing. C) assault. D) battery.

A) false imprisonment.

In contrast to secondary prevention, primary prevention focuses on: A) keeping an injury from occurring in the first place. B) rehabilitating a person who has survived an injury. C) reducing the effects of an injury that has already occurred. D) rapid transport to an appropriate medical facility.

A) keeping an injury from occurring in the first place.

The purpose of continuing education is to: A) remain current with the latest treatment guidelines. B) recall information that was learned previously. C) facilitate networking of EMS personnel. D) allow EMS personnel to function at a higher level.

A) remain current with the latest treatment guidelines.

Ethics can be defined as: A) the philosophy of right and wrong, of moral duties, and of ideal professional behavior. B) the professional behavior that a person's peers as well as the general public expect. C) behavior that is consistent with the law and an attitude that society in general expects. D) a code of conduct that can be defined by society, religion, or a person, affecting character, conduct, and conscience.

A) the philosophy of right and wrong, of moral duties, and of ideal professional behavior.

If a patient has a potentially life-threatening illness or injury and there is any doubt as to his or her decision-making capacity, the paramedic should: A) treat and transport, even if it is against the patient's will. B) obtain a court order and then begin emergency treatment. C) obtain consent from a family member to treat the patient. D) have the patient arrested and placed in protective custody.

A) treat and transport, even if it is against the patient's will.

When functioning at a crime scene, it is important for the paramedic to: A) use caution and not disturb the scene unnecessarily. B) carefully question witnesses as to what they saw. C) avoid performing patient care until cleared by the police. D) collect and safeguard any and all evidence.

A) use caution and not disturb the scene unnecessarily.

When transporting a patient who has had a stroke, the patient's wife asks you to take the patient to a specific hospital because it has larger rooms. The hospital she requests is further away and you know that the patient needs care immediately. What should you do? A) Take the patient to the requested hospital and contact medical control after the call. B) Tell the patient's wife that you need to take the patient to a closer hospital to ensure the best outcome. C) Ask your partner to convince the patient's wife that the patient should go to the hospital that is closer. D) Tell the patient's wife that the patient will die if you take them to the requested hospital.

B) Tell the patient's wife that you need to take the patient to a closer hospital to ensure the best outcome.

Scope of practice is defined as: A) protocols agreed upon by a consensus of emergency physicians. B) care that a paramedic is permitted to perform under the certifying state. C) the level of care that an EMS employer allows the paramedic to provide. D) national patient care guidelines established by the federal government.

B) care that a paramedic is permitted to perform under the certifying state.

Burnout is a consequence of: A) many years in EMS. B) chronic, unrelieved stress. C) a high call volume. D) underlying depression.

B) chronic, unrelieved stress.

It is important for you to remember that an angry or resentful patient: A) usually thinks that you are incompetent and uncaring. B) could be acting in such a manner due to fear of the situation. C) can only be calmed by a family member or friend. D) is extremely difficult to effectively care for.

B) could be acting in such a manner due to fear of the situation.

Negative or injurious stress is also called: A) redirected stress. B) distress. C) projected stress. D) eustress.

B) distress.

When transporting a patient to a health care facility, you consider the patient's insurance coverage when choosing the facility. This is known as: A) due regard. B) economic triage. C) patient dumping. D) due process.

B) economic triage.

A paramedic who is licensed in a particular state: A) is authorized to function as medical control for EMTs and advanced EMTs. B) is required to function under the guidance of a licensed physician. C) must obtain more continuing education hours than a certified paramedic. D) has complete autonomy and can function as an independent provider.

B) is required to function under the guidance of a licensed physician.

Whole grains are healthier than processed grains because they have more: A) potassium. B) protein. C) calcium. D) vitamin A.

B) protein.

The benefit to online medical control is that it: A) outlines specific directions, permissions, and prohibitions regarding patient care. B) provides an immediate and specific patient care resource. C) allows for the development of protocols or guidelines. D) identifies any departmental or system-wide issues.

B) provides an immediate and specific patient care resource.

When wearing gloves while taking care of a patient, you should: A) routinely apply two pairs of gloves for added protection. B) take them off before you drive the ambulance to the hospital. C) ensure that the gloves are sterile before you touch the patient. D) avoid removing them until patient care has been completed.

B) take them off before you drive the ambulance to the hospital.

Which of the following patients is an emancipated minor? A) 17-year-old woman who goes to college and lives with her parents B) 16-year-old woman who lives with her boyfriend C) 17-year-old woman who has a child, lives on her own, and is financially independent D) 17-year-old man who works more than 20 hours a week

C) 17-year-old woman who has a child, lives on her own, and is financially independent

Which of the following statements regarding the harm element of a negligence lawsuit is correct? A) The burden of proof for establishing harm rests with the defendant. B) Serious injury must have occurred in order for harm to be established. C) A loss of earning capacity is a form of harm that the patient may claim. D) Loss of income is the most common form of harm proven in a lawsuit.

C) A loss of earning capacity is a form of harm that the patient may claim.

What is one of the most common heredity health risk factors? A) Chemical addiction B) Migraine C) Heart disease D) Mental illness

C) Heart disease

Which of the following statements regarding a psychiatric patient who is refusing transport is correct? A) Medical control has the authority to order paramedics to forcibly restrain and transport any psychiatric patient. B) It is generally agreed that any psychiatric patient should be transported against his or her will for evaluation by a psychiatrist. C) If the patient's life is not in danger, only a police officer can authorize paramedics to restrain and transport the patient. D) Family members can authorize involuntary commitment, including forcibly transporting the patient against his or her will.

C) If the patient's life is not in danger, only a police officer can authorize paramedics to restrain and transport the patient.

Patient care should focus on which of the following? A) Protocols that are easiest to apply in the field B) Class III recommendations C) Procedures that have been proven useful in improving patient outcomes D) Activities that lead to a higher professional image in the community

C) Procedures that have been proven useful in improving patient outcomes

According to the Haddon matrix, which of the following is an example of a pre-event strategy used to prevent injury of a child who is riding in a motor vehicle? A) A driver maintaining control of his or her vehicle B) Outfitting ambulances with pediatric-sized equipment C) Reducing driving during high-risk times D) Training bystanders in basic pediatric first aid

C) Reducing driving during high-risk times

Which of the following statements regarding stress is correct? A) Nearly everyone finds the same events or situations stressful to some degree. B) Most people see distress as noninjurious and are able to adapt to it easily. C) The specific event that triggers a stress reaction varies from person to person. D) Eustress is the type of stress that a person finds overwhelming and debilitating.

C) The specific event that triggers a stress reaction varies from person to person.

Being empathetic toward a patient means that you: A) know exactly how the patient feels. B) reassure the patient of your competence. C) acknowledge the patient's feelings. D) feel a sense of sorrow for the patient.

C) acknowledge the patient's feelings.

When organizing a community illness or injury program, you should first: A) choose a goal that is broad and in depth. B) build as broad a base of support as possible. C) identify a lead person to coordinate the effort. D) gather data regarding the most prevalent injuries.

C) identify a lead person to coordinate the effort.

You are moving from one state to another and plan to continue your career in EMS. The state to which you are moving will likely require that you: A) repeat an entire paramedic training program and take a state examination. B) complete additional EMT courses on topics specific to that state. C) obtain state certification and maintain adequate continuing education. D) show proof that you have worked as a paramedic for at least 10 years.

C) obtain state certification and maintain adequate continuing education.

The best teachable moments are those that convey: A) fear. B) compliance. C) positive reinforcement. D) legality.

C) positive reinforcement.

The best legal protection for the paramedic is to: A) always transport the patient to the hospital of the patient's choice, regardless of the patient's clinical condition. B) routinely obtain more than the minimum number of continuing education credits required by the state department of health. C) provide a detailed patient assessment and appropriate medical care, followed by complete and accurate documentation. D) treat all patients with respect and remain aware that patients' cultural beliefs may differ from those of the paramedic.

C) provide a detailed patient assessment and appropriate medical care, followed by complete and accurate documentation.

Records of education, state or local credentials, and recertification are held by a recognized agency through a process called: A) licensure. B) reciprocity. C) registration. D) certification.

C) registration.

While en route to the scene of a patient in cardiac arrest, the driver of the vehicle in front of you does not hear your siren or see your lights. You should: A) quickly merge to the right, pass the vehicle, and then obtain the vehicle's license plate number. B) get as close to the rear of the vehicle as possible, change the tone of your siren, and flash your headlights. C) remain at a safe distance behind the vehicle and then pass the vehicle on the left side when it is safe to do so. D) turn your siren off and ask the driver of the vehicle to pull over using the public address radio.

C) remain at a safe distance behind the vehicle and then pass the vehicle on the left side when it is safe to do so.

Peer review can be a good learning experience if: A) the person conducting the review has at least 10 years of EMS experience. B) the information gained from the review is shared with other personnel within the EMS system. C) the individuals performing the review have proper and consistent guidelines to follow. D) the EMS system's medical director and administrative staff take part in the process.

C) the individuals performing the review have proper and consistent guidelines to follow.

According to the qualified immunity doctrine, the paramedic can be held liable only if: A) the medical care that he or she provided was not consistent with what a physician would have provided. B) he or she was not employed by a governmental entity at the time an incident or violation occurred. C) the plaintiff proves that the paramedic violated a clearly established law about which he or she should have known. D) he or she volunteers as a paramedic and receives no remuneration for his or her medical services.

C) the plaintiff proves that the paramedic violated a clearly established law about which he or she should have known.

A paramedic's actions are considered to be grossly negligent if he or she: A) does not consult with online medical control first. B) only provides basic life support to a critical patient. C) willfully or wantonly deviates from the standard of care. D) makes a simple mistake that causes harm to the patient.

C) willfully or wantonly deviates from the standard of care.

A DNR order is defined as a(n): A) legal document signed by at least four physicians that prohibits resuscitative efforts in terminally ill patients. B) oral directive that is executed by the patient while he or she still has decision-making capacity. C) written order designed to tell health care providers when resuscitation is or is not appropriate. D) written or oral directive that stipulates the care that a patient should receive at the end of his or her life.

C) written order designed to tell health care providers when resuscitation is or is not appropriate.

Which of the following scenarios is considered by most states to be a medical examiner case? A) Death of a criminal who is on probation B) Any patient who dies outside the hospital C) Death of a person under 45 years of age D) Any violent or unexpected death

D) Any violent or unexpected death

What can the paramedic do to sustain energy throughout the day? A) Limit water intake to less than 16 ounces per day. B) Eat one large meal at the beginning of their shift. C) Drink more than four caffeinated beverages before work. D) Carry numerous small snacks that can be eaten slowly.

D) Carry numerous small snacks that can be eaten slowly.

Which of the following is a typical function of the EMS medical director? A) Responding to emergency calls B) Responding to an emergency scene with the paramedics C) Referring patients to new medical facilities D) Developing protocols in cooperation with other EMS experts

D) Developing protocols in cooperation with other EMS experts

Which of the following statements regarding the EMT is correct? A) There are far more certified paramedics in the United States than there are EMTs. B) EMTs are licensed and can provide basic life support without medical direction. C) Manual defibrillation is a skill that all EMTs are required to learn and perform. D) In some states, EMTs are trained in advanced airway management and IV therapy.

D) In some states, EMTs are trained in advanced airway management and IV therapy.

When providing a wellness check in the home of an older patient, you notice that their medications are in unmarked containers. What should you do? A) Don't say anything since you are there to perform a wellness check. B) Tell your partner to check into the situation within the next 2 weeks. C) Tell the patient that you won't leave until they properly store their medications. D) Inform the patient of the danger of putting their medications in unmarked containers.

D) Inform the patient of the danger of putting their medications in unmarked containers.

Which of the following is addressed in the EMTALA? A) Requiring EMS to transport all patients to the closest medical treatment facility B) Allowing a woman who is in active labor to be transported to a distant hospital C) Discouraging private individuals from suing if a hospital has violated the law D) Preventing medical facilities from denying medical screening and stabilization

D) Preventing medical facilities from denying medical screening and stabilization

Which of the following statements regarding protocols is correct? A) Most protocols reflect the personal opinion of the EMS medical director. B) Protocols are orders, and the responder cannot deviate from them under any circumstances. C) A well-written protocol should address every possible patient condition. D) Protocols are usually developed in conjunction with national standards.

D) Protocols are usually developed in conjunction with national standards.

Which of the following is an example of a passive injury prevention intervention? A) Providing public education on the use of AEDs B) Teaching children to wear a helmet when bicycling C) Helping a parent properly install a car seat D) The use of softer materials for playground surfaces

D) The use of softer materials for playground surfaces

The wrongful act that gives rise to a civil suit is called: A) liability. B) damage. C) negligence. D) a tort.

D) a tort.

A specific action intended to improve health and safety outcomes is called: A) a financial penalty. B) an engineering control. C) education. D) an intervention.

D) an intervention.

Although the technicalities of EMS DNR orders vary from state to state, they all: A) are completely irrevocable by the patient's immediate family members. B) must be renewed every 5 years or they will expire and become null and void. C) require the patient to wear a DNR insignia such as a bracelet or necklace. D) are designed to tell EMS providers when resuscitation is or is not appropriate.

D) are designed to tell EMS providers when resuscitation is or is not appropriate.

Interventions that have been proven by studies to be of no benefit to the patient in cardiac arrest: A) are commonly authorized by medical control. B) should be performed unless the family objects. C) are illegal for the paramedic to perform. D) are not medically or ethically indicated.

D) are not medically or ethically indicated.

The qualitative method of gathering data for a research project: A) uses variables such as mean, median, and mode for data gathering. B) assigns numerical values to the data and is a highly reliable method. C) is highly accurate in gathering reliable data for the research project. D) does not use numerical information and is the least accurate.

D) does not use numerical information and is the least accurate.

The leading cause of death in the United States is: A) cancer. B) stroke. C) unintentional injury. D) heart disease.

D) heart disease.

The surrogate decision maker: A) must recertify his or her decision-making status every 10 years. B) can make decisions for a patient who has decision-making capacity. C) must be an immediate family member of the patient. D) is legally obligated to make decisions as the patient would want.

D) is legally obligated to make decisions as the patient would want.

If you are approached by a coworker who has noticed a negative change in your behavior, you should: A) request to speak to a psychologist as soon as possible. B) ask your supervisor to be moved to a different station. C) thank your coworker, but let him or her know you are okay. D) keep an open mind regarding what the coworker has noticed.

D) keep an open mind regarding what the coworker has noticed.

In the United States, mobile intensive care units (MICUs) were staffed by: A) funeral home directors. B) physicians. C) registered nurses. D) nonphysician providers.

D) nonphysician providers.

The 2009 National EMS Education Standards: A) clearly state that all paramedic training programs must be at least 1,200 hours in length. B) require inclusion of a college-level pathophysiology course within the paramedic program. C) mandate that the paramedic designation must be achieved through an associate degree program. D) outline the minimum knowledge base that the paramedic must possess in order to function in the field.

D) outline the minimum knowledge base that the paramedic must possess in order to function in the field.

When faced with a situation that is not addressed in your EMS system's protocols, you should: A) let experience guide further care of the patient. B) contact the nurse at the receiving facility. C) proceed with basic life support and transport. D) radio your medical director to obtain orders.

D) radio your medical director to obtain orders.

A 40-year-old man presents with bizarre behavior. His speech is slurred and he is very belligerent. His blood glucose level is 35 mg/dL. The patient tells you to get out of his house. You should: A) utilize law enforcement to help restrain the patient so that you can start an IV line and give him dextrose. B) monitor the patient's condition for 15 minutes and then begin emergency treatment if he does not improve. C) administer oxygen only until you can obtain a court order to start an IV and administer dextrose. D) remain professional and advise the patient that he is not legally capable of refusing EMS treatment.

D) remain professional and advise the patient that he is not legally capable of refusing EMS treatment.

Performing the functions of a paramedic prior to licensure is: A) permissible. B) moral. C) ethical. D) unlawful.

D) unlawful.

The EMS network begins: A) when paramedics are notified. B) by educating dispatchers. C) when an injury has occurred. D) with citizen involvement.

D) with citizen involvement.

Implied consent is based on the premise that a patient: A) is of legal age and is able to make rational decisions regarding his or her care. B) would refuse any emergency medical care if he or she were unconscious. C) will die unless emergency medical treatment is provided immediately. D) would consent to care because of the seriousness of his or her injury.

D) would consent to care because of the seriousness of his or her injury.