chapters 5, 6, 7, & 10

Discuss the attributes a successful criminal profiler should have. Do mental health professionals make good profilers? Why or why not? Discuss the roles and influences of the Behavioral Science Unit (BSU) and the National Center for the Analysis of Violent Crime (NCAVC) of the FBI in criminal profiling. On what kinds of crimes and offenders has the work of the BSU focused? (Profiling of Criminal Suspects)

· A successful criminal profiler should possess several key attributes, including both an understanding of human psychology and investigative experience. Some have suggested that mental health professionals may not be fully qualified to engage in profiling. Others maintain that clinical (forensic) psychologists possess a level of expertise that contributes to the effectiveness of criminal profiling. One survey found that only 10% of the psychologists and psychiatrists surveyed reported any profiling experience, and 25% considered themselves knowledgeable about profiling. A major source of research and development on criminal profiling has been the FBI's Behavioral and Science Unit (BSU), which worked on criminal profiles between the 1970s and 2014. It provided trainings, conducted research, and offered consultation in the behavioral and social sciences. It also coordinated with other FBI units, such as the National Center for the Analysis of Violent Crime (NCAVC), which continues to provide operational assistance to FBI field offices and law enforcement agencies. The NCAVC now has separate units that focus on crimes against adults, crimes against children, apprehension of violent criminals, and counterterrorism and threat assessment. Its mission combines investigative and operational support, research, and training to federal, state, local, and foreign law enforcement agencies particularly in the context of investigation of unusual or repetitive violent crimes. It also provides support through expertise and consultation in nonviolent matters such as national security, corruption, and white-collar crime investigations. Historically, much of the BSU's focus was on violent offenders, especially those who committed bizarre or repeated crimes.

What instruction do researchers recommend for eyewitnesses who are viewing a lineup? Discuss the use of simultaneous versus sequential lineup presentation. Include the concepts of relative versus absolute judgment in your discussion. What does it mean to conduct a double-blind lineup? What are the potential consequences of not doing a lineup in this manner?

· An investigator should instruct the witness that the offender may or may not be present. Without this instruction, eyewitnesses may assume that their task is to pick someone, so they choose the person who looks most like the perpetrator. A simultaneous presentation or a traditional lineup, is when all lineup members are shown to the witness at once. Whereas the sequential presentation is when lineup members sequentially, one at a time. The witness makes a decision about each lineup member before seeing the next. In general, sequential lineups result in fewer identification attempts, so both mistaken and accurate identifications are reduced. · In a simultaneous lineup presentation, eyewitnesses tend to identify the person who looks most like the culprit relative to other members of the group, relative judgement. As long as the perpetrator is in the lineup, the relative-judgment process works well. · In a sequential lineup, the eyewitness compares each member in turn to his or her memory of the perpetrator and, on that basis, decides whether any person in the lineup is the individual who committed the crime, absolute judgement. · Double-blind testing procedure is an experimental procedure in which both the participant and experimenter are unaware of the particular conditions being tested. When lineups are conducted without using this measure, it can affect the eyewitness in various ways. It can increase the likelihood that an eyewitness will choose someone from the lineup and if the eyewitness has frequent contact with the administrator are likely to make decisions consistent with the administrator's expectations, which is most concerning because neither the eyewitness nor the administrator are aware of this influence.

Define repression and dissociation. If recovered memories are not true memories, then where could they come from? How have psychologists investigated whether false memories can be implanted? What is an "imagination inflation" effect and what could cause this effect to occur? (Repressed and Recovered Memories)

· Emotionally motivated forgetting is called repression; the forgotten events are thought to be so traumatizing that individuals bury them deeply in their unconscious. Whereas a related unconscious process is dissociation, in which victims of abuse or other trauma are thought to escape the full impact of an experience by psychologically detaching themselves from it. Sometimes, repressed memories are recovered only after a person participates in psychotherapy that applies techniques such as hypnosis, age regression, pressures to recall, and guided visualization, diary writing, or therapist instructions to help clients remember past abuse. Psychologists have been able to implant false memories by enlisting the help of family members who suggest to adult research participants that these relatives recall a fabricated event. By asking participants to imagine events that never occurred, or by doctoring family photographs. In studies using memory implantation or imagination inflation techniques, scientists have measured various aspects of autobiographical memories. These include the extent to which people say they "remember" the suggested experiences, agree that those experiences occurred, embellish them, and create a coherent story to explain them.

Psychologists divide memory into three processes: encoding, storage, and retrieval. Discuss factors during each of these processes that can affect the accuracy of a memory. Provide an example of the relevant research. (Basic Information Processing). Describe how the amount of stress (low versus high) in a witnessed event can affect memory for that event. Discuss the results of the Morgan et al. (2004) study, which examined the effects of stress on soldiers' ability to identify their interrogators. (Basic Information Processing). Discuss the relationship between memory recall and retention interval and the effects of longer retention intervals on the ability to recall observed events. (Basic Information Processing). Give an example of how post event information can affect memory. (Basic Information Processing).

· Encoding 1. Factors that can affect the accuracy of a memory: o Stimuli that are only briefly seen or heard cannot be encoded fully. The complexity of a stimulus also affects its encoding. o Extreme stress usually causes the person to encode information incompletely or inaccurately. o Witness characteristics can also affect encoding. § For example, the effects of stress are felt more acutely by those higher in anxiety and neuroticism. o We all differ in visual acuity and hearing ability. o Different expectancies about events can influence how they are encoded; we generally have a tendency to see what we expect to see. 2. Relevant research: o The Morgan et. al. (2004) study examined the effects of stress on soldier' ability to identify their interrogator. This study measured the accuracy of eyewitness memory in highly stressful military survival school interrogations and it provides good evidence of the effects of stress on memory. These interrogations were to test one's ability to withstand exploitation by the enemy, and to train people to hold up under the physical and mental stresses of capture. Overall, only 34% of the participants who experienced the high stress of a physically threatening situation were correct. · Storage 1. Factors that can affect the accuracy of a memory: o Memory fades as the retention interval increases. o Post-event information can alter memories of an event. (Time between police arriving) o Post-event information that conforms to one's beliefs is more likely to be integrated into memory. o Viewing photographs of suspects after witnessing a crime can impair an eyewitness's ability to recognize the perpetrator's face in a lineup. 2. Relevant research: o In psychologist Hermann Ebbinghaus' study he showed that memory loss is rapid. This is important for eyewitness accuracy because it is likely that some time will pass between the commission of a crime and police questioning of eye witnesses. o Professor Elizabeth Loftus showed how exposure to post-event information can affect memory. · Retrieval 1. Factors that can affect the accuracy of a memory: o The wording of questions can influence retrieval. § For example, asking "What was the man with the mustache doing with the young boy?" May influence memory of the man. o Unconscious transference: victims may pick from a lineup someone they have seen before but who is not the actual criminal. 2. Relevant research: o Prominent researcher Nancy Steblay: the ideal witness will not attend to and perceive all that transpires; encode this information completely, meaningfully, and accurately into memory; retain the information across time; and then retrieve and report it faithfully and fully when requested by investigators...alas, this ideal witness does not exist.

What is Fox and Levin's (1998) definition of "multiple homicide"? Discuss the difficulties surrounding the prediction of mass homicides and the risk of "false positives." Meloy et al. (2004) did a study in which he compared adult and adolescent mass murderers. What similarities and differences did Meloy et al. find?

· Fox and Levin (1998) defined "multiple homicide" as the slaying of four or more victims, simultaneously or sequentially, by one or a few individuals. Mass murders are also increasing in frequency, though they remain relatively rare, which makes it virtually impossible to formulate predictive statistical models that are accurate. The particular problem with trying to predict such rare events is the "false positive" error rate: even approaches that have a good overall accuracy rate will identify a relatively large number of false positives (those who are predicted to be violent, but actually are not). Two types of multiple homicides were identified: mass murders and serial murders. Mass murders remain relatively rare and include killings of four or more victims in one location during a few minutes to several hours. Whereas serial murders kill four of more victims, each on separate occasions. Unlike mass murders, serial killers usually select a certain type of victim who fulfills a role in the killer's fantasies. There are also cooling-off periods between serial murders, which are usually better planned than mass or spree killings. In addition, serial murderers are more difficult to apprehend.

Describe the type of defendant most likely to be judged incompetent to stand trial. How successful are attempts to restore competence? What happens when a defendant is found not competent to stand trial and treatment is not successful in restoring competence? Discuss the case of Jackson v. Indiana (1972) and its effects. (Competence)

· Nicholson and Kugler (1991) found the typical defendant to be found incompetent to have a history of psychosis for which previous treatment had been received, exhibit symptoms of current serious mental disorder, be single, unemployed, and poorly educated, and perform poorly on specific competence assessment instruments. Most defendants have their adjudicative competence restored, usually with about six months of treatment. The most important intervention for most defendants is the administration of appropriate psychotropic medication. Theoretically, the Jackson ruling bars the indefinite confinement of an individual adjudicated incompetent to stand trial. Many states permit the defendant to be hospitalized for a period up to a maximum sentence that he or she could have received if convicted of the charges. Jackson v. Indiana (1972), ruled that defendants incompetent to stand trial could not be held for "more than a reasonable period of time necessary to determine whether there is a substantial probability that they will attain that capacity in the foreseeable future.

Define posttraumatic stress disorder and list its symptoms. How common is posttraumatic stress disorder? Do veterans experience PTSD more than the general population? What percentage of women experience PTSD? What are some of the risk factors associated with the development of PTSD? What might help to prevent posttraumatic stress disorder? Describe the elements present in Edna Foa's four session PTSD prevention course. (Violence, Crime, and Posttraumatic Stress Disorder)

· Posttraumatic stress disorder is defined as when individuals who suffer a severe trauma and later experience intense, fear-related reactions when reminded of the trauma. This trauma must involve a threat of serious injury or death. · The symptoms of PTSD are categorized into four classes (symptoms must last longer than one month): o Intrusion symptoms: frequent re-experiencing of the event (flashbacks and repeated nightmares) o Avoidance: persistent avoidance of stimuli associated with the trauma and a general numbing or deadening of emotions o Negative alterations in cognitions and mood o Increased physiological arousal resulting in exaggerated startle responses or difficulty in sleeping · The lifetime prevalence of PTSD among adult Americans was estimated to be 6.8% with 3.6% prevalence for men and 9.7% for women. PTSD is more commonly experienced in military veterans than by those in the general population. · Some risk factors associated with the development of PTSD is being in the military, the extent of injury during trauma predicts whether PTSD symptoms will develop, women who were physically injured by a trauma are more likely to develop PTSD symptoms, and the belief that the victim's life is in danger and that he or she has no control over the trauma increases risk for PTSD. · Some ways to help prevent PTSD is providing immediate social support for trauma victims to prevent their experiences from progressing into PTSD. Another way is to change how individuals who develop PTSF perceive the world. These individuals perceive the world as a dangerous place from which they must retreat, and they come to view themselves as helpless to deal with stressors. If these two misconceptions could be eliminated, full-blown cases of PTSD might be prevented in many victims. · Edna Foa developed a course designed to attack these misconceptions in women who have been raped or assaulted. o Education about the common psychological reactions to assault in order to help victims realize that their responses are normal. o Training in skills such as relaxation. o Emotionally reliving the trauma to allow victims to defuse their fears of the trauma. o Cognitive restructuring to help women replace negative beliefs about their competence and adequacy.

What are some of the myths held regarding battered women? What are the main risk factors of battering? What are the three stages common to the batterer's cycle of violence? As many as 40% of all batterers have the features of borderline personality disorder. Describe this disorder and the hypothesized reason that this disorder is present in these batterers. What are the components of the battered woman syndrome? How have claims of battered woman syndrome fared in court? Discuss self-defense in the context of battered woman syndrome. (Violence, Crime, and Posttraumatic Stress Disorder)

· Some myths held regarding battered women are that those who are victimized are masochists, they provoke the assaults inflicted on them, they get the treatment they deserve, they are free to leave these violent relationships any time they want to, and violence among intimate partner is not common. · The main risk factors of battering are the characteristics of the battering victim, the nature of violent intimate relationships, and the psychological makeup of those who batter. Batters are more likely than nonbatterers to be unemployed, less well educated, be members of minority groups, be of lower socioeconomic status, and have suffered physical abuse as children or saw an abusive relationship between their parents. Adolescents who later became batterers experienced a higher rate of conduct problems and are more likely to have engaged in early substance abuse. They also had early experiences with coercive or aggressive behavior that may set the stage for similar strategies in adult relationships. Batters usually have poor self-concepts, not very good problem solvers, often have limited verbal skills, are prone to jealousy, thus they monitor their partners' activities closely and exert excessive control over their partners' whereabouts, and overreact to signs of rejection and alternate between rage and desperation. · The three stages common to the batterer's cycle of violence: tension-building phase, acute battering incident, and a contrite phase. The tension-building phase is characterized by increased criticism of the partner and perhaps even minor physical assaults. The acute battering incident is when the woman has become too dependent on the man to break off the relationship easily. The contrite phase is when the batterer apologizes for his attack, promises never to do it again, and persuades the woman that he is a changed man. · Borderline personality disorder is a severe disturbance that is characterized by unstable moods and behavior. Individuals with this disorder are drawn into intense relationships in which they are particularly unable to tolerate and modulate certain emotions. They are demandingly dependent, which causes them to feel easily slighted which then leads to jealousy, rage, aggressions, and subsequently, guilt. These emotional cycles repeat themselves, providing the underlying motivation for the cycle of violence. · Battered woman syndrome is defined as a collection of symptoms and reactions by a woman to a pattern of continued physical and psychological abuse inflicted on her by her mate. This syndrome has several elements: learned helplessness about escaping the violence, social isolation and economic dependence on the abuser, increasing fearfulness about sustaining serious harm or being killed in the future, diminished self-esteem, guilt, and shame, and hypervigilance about signs of imminent violence. · A battered woman's claim of self-defense often faces both legal hurdles and the skepticism of jurors. These obstacles might account for the fact that the majority of battered women charged with murdering their abusive partner are convicted. · The typical case in which a battered woman relies on a theory of self-defense to clear her of chargers of murdering her partner is much different. The woman's response may seem disproportionate to what a "reasonable" person believes was necessary; often she kills her abuser while he is unarmed or sleeping.

Kraemer, Lord, and Heilbrun (2004) compiled a list of characteristics from 157 serial offenders. Give a few examples of these characteristics. Provide Fox and Levin's examples of different motivations for serial and mass murder. Discuss the validity of criminal profiles. What are some reasons why criminal profiling should be approached with caution? Discuss the findings of the Pinizzotto and Finkel (1990) study and the limited data supporting the process of profiling. (Profiling of Criminal Suspects)

· Some of the characteristics of serial offenders: mostly white males in their early 30s, typically employed at the time of the offense, 1/3 were married, more than half of the murders were sexually motivated. Fox and Levin (2005) provided examples of different motivations for serial and mass murder: power, revenge, loyalty, profit, and terror. · Power o Serial murder would be inspired by sadistic fantasies, a man tortures and kills a series of strangers to satisfy his need for control and dominance. Whereas mass murder, a pseudo-commando, dressed in battle fatigues and armed with a semiautomatic weapon, turns a shopping mall into a "war zone." · Revenge o Serial murder would be grossly mistreated as a child, a man avenges his past by slaying women who remind him of his mother. Whereas mass murder, after being fired from his job, a gunman returns to the work site and opens fire on his former boss and coworker. · Loyalty o Serial murder would be a team of killers turns murder into a ritual for proving their dedication and commitment to one another. Whereas mass murder, a depressed husband kills his family and himself to spare them from a miserable existence and being them a better life in the hereafter. · Profit o Serial murder would be a woman who poisons to death a series of husbands to collect on their life insurance policies. Whereas mass murder, would be a band of armed robbers executes the employees of a store to eliminate all witnesses to their crime. · Terror o Serial murder would be a profoundly paranoid man commits a series of bombings to warn the world of impending doom. Whereas mass murder, would be a group of antigovernment extremists blows up a train to send a political message. · Homant and Kennedy (1998) concluded that different kinds of crime scenes can be classified with reasonable reliability and that differences in these crimes do correlate with certain offender characteristics, such as murderers' prior relationships and interactions with victims. A majority of the psychologists and psychiatrists responding to one survey did not view criminal profiling as scientifically reliable or valid (but nonetheless endorsed it as a potentially useful tool in criminal investigation). · Some reasons why criminal profiling should be approached with caution are for several reasons: inaccurate profiles are quite common, many of the studies that have been conducted in house by FBI profilers have often not been objectively and systematically defined. · The findings of the Pinizzotto and Finkel (1990) study indicated that, compared with the other three groups, the profiler group wrote longer profiles that contained more specific predictions about suspects, included more accurate predictions, and were rated as more helpful by other police detectives. Overall this study suggests that profilers can produce more useful and valid criminal profiles, even when compared to experienced crime investigators. This advantage may be limited, however, to certain kinds of cases or to the types of information made available to investigators.

Define the Brawner rule. How do the M'Naghten rule and the Brawner rule differ? (The Insanity Defense) What is the Insanity Defense Reform Act (IDRA) and how did it modify the existing insanity defense? (The Insanity Defense)

· The Brawner rule states that a defendant is not responsible for criminal conduct if he "at the time of such conduct as a result of mental disease or defect, lacks substantial capacity either to appreciate the criminality wrongfulness of his conduct or to conform his conduct to the requirements of the law." The M'Naghten rule "excuses" criminal conduct if the defendant, as a result of a disease of the mind did not know what he or she was doing or did not know what he or she was going was wrong. He believed he was shooting an animal or believed killing unarmed strangers was "right." The Brawner and M'Naghten differ in three ways: by using the term appreciate, it incorporates the emotional as well as the cognitive determinants of criminal actions, it does not require that offenders exhibit a total lack of appreciation for the nature of their conduct, but only a lack of "substantial capacity", and it includes both a cognitive element and a volitional element, making defendants' inability to control their actions a sufficient criterion by itself for insanity. The Insanity Defense Reform Act (IDRA) was enacted by congress in 1984. In addition to elimination the volitional prong, it also changed the insanity defense process: it prohibited experts from giving ultimate opinions about insanity and the burden is now on the defendant to prove insanity (previously the burden was on the prosecution to prove that the defendant was sane).

What is the Dusky standard? How have courts and mental health groups expanded on Dusky? What are some of the relevant psycholegal abilities that forensic evaluators or experts will consider when determining whether a defendant has a sufficient rational understanding, factual understanding, and/or ability to consult with his or her attorney? (Competence)

· The Dusky standard is the accepted national standard for competence to stand trial is a "sufficient present ability to consult with one's attorney with a reasonable degree of rational understanding, and .... A rational, as well as factual understanding of the proceedings against one. This standard does not specify how the evaluator assessing competence should judge the sufficiency of rational understanding, ability to consult, or factual understanding. That is the role of the judge. A number of courts and mental health groups have listed more specific criteria related to competence, to allow evaluators to provide courts with more detailed information in these areas. For example, evaluators may consider a number of relevant psycholegal abilities such as understanding, appreciating, reasoning, and assisting in one's defense.

In 1999, the U.S. Department of Justice recommended new procedures for collecting eyewitness evidence that were based on psychological research. Identify the new procedures that were recommended. Discuss the New Jersey Supreme Court's decision in State v. Henderson (2011) and the effects of this case on the evaluation of the reliability of eyewitness's identification. Discuss the effectiveness of cognitive interviews. Why are these kinds of interviews effective?

· The New Jersey Supreme Court in 2011 (State v. Henderson, 2011) issued a new set of rules for cases involving eyewitness identifications. The decision lists more than a dozen factors that judges should consider in evaluating the reliability of an eyewitness's identification (presence of a weapon). The ruling stated that when a defendant presents evidence that a witness's identification may be unreliable, the judge must hold a hearing to consider the issues and must give detailed instructions to the jury about the pitfalls of eyewitness evidence. One example of a reform was warning an eyewitness that the suspect may or may not be in the lineup. In a cognitive interview, the interviewer establishes rapport with the witness, then asks the witness to provide a narrative account of the event, and finally, probes for details with specific questions. The interviewer allows the witness to direct the subject matter and flow of the questioning, interrupts infrequently, and listens actively to the witness's responses. The cognitive interview has been shown to generate substantial increases in correct recall though it can also produce a small increase in incorrect details.

Why does the legal system require the defendant to be competent? What are the three areas or abilities in which a defendant may be deficient and which may undermine the individual's competence to stand trial? Discuss the term "adjudicative competence." Be sure to address the Godinez v. Moran (1993) decision. (Competence)

· The question of a defendant's competence is the clinical-legal issue most frequently assessed in the criminal justice system. The competence to stand trial refers to a defendant's capacity to function meaningfully and knowingly in a legal proceeding. Defendants may be determined by a judge to be incompetent if they are seriously deficient in one or more abilities: understanding the legal proceedings, communication with their attorneys, appreciating their role in the proceedings, and making legally relevant decisions. Criminal proceedings should not continue against someone who cannot understand their nature and purpose, or cannot assist in defending against prosecution on these charges. Defendants must be able to understand the charges against them so that they can participate in the criminal justice system in a meaningful way. Second, punishment of convicted defendants is morally acceptable only if they understand the reasons why they are being punished. Third, the perceived fairness and integrity of our adversary system of justice requires participation by defendants who have the capacity to defend themselves against the charges of the state. · The U.S. Supreme Court ruled that the standard for competence to stand trial will be used in federal courts for assessing other competence questions (Godinez v. Moran, 1993), thus rejecting the idea that competence to plead guilty involves a higher standard than competence to stand trial. As a result, the terms competence to plead guilty anf competence to stand trial have become confusing. Some have suggested that adjudicative competence is clearer, essentially combining both together.

Summarize Widom's research regarding abused and neglected children. (Adversity and Trauma in Childhood). Discuss the relationship between early traumatic events and antisocial behavior and criminal offending in youth. (Violence, Crime, and Posttraumatic Stress Disorder)

· The relationship between traumatic childhood experiences and physical and emotional health outcomes in adult life is at the core of the landmark Adverse Childhood Experiences (ACE) Study. The study involved people who experienced: recurrent physical and emotional abuse, contact sexual abuse, an alcohol and or drug abuser in the household, an incarcerated household member, etc. The two major findings from the ACE study showed that adverse childhood experiences are much more common than anticipated or recognized and that adverse childhood experiences have a strong relationship with health outcomes later in life. Widom found that abused or neglected children were significantly more likely than a comparison group to have been arrested for violent crimes as juveniles or as adults.

Scientists recognize that confessions may result in two possible erroneous outcomes: "false denials" and "false confessions." Discuss these phenomena and related research. Discuss the problem and approximated rates of false confessions. There are four ways that investigators can be certain that a disputed confession is false. What are these four ways? What are some reasons an individual may provide a false confession? Discuss the role of coercion. (Evaluating Confessions)

· Two kinds of erroneous outcomes are possible: false denials (when guilty suspects proclaim their innocence) and false confessions (when innocent suspects confess to alleged crimes). Although false denials occur more often than false confessions, the latter have captured the attention of psychological scientists, lawyers, judges, and the public. In 2016, the Innocence Project reported that approximately 29% of cases in which DNA evidence led to exonerations involved false confessions tend to occur in more serious cases. There are four reasons one can be certain that a disputed confession is false: a suspect could confess to a crime that never happened, it was physically impossible for the suspect to commit the crime, the actual perpetrator is identified and guilt is objectively established, and there is evidence that definitely establishes the defendant's innocence. Some reasons an individual may provide a false confession are to protect someone else or escape the pressures of a harsh interrogation. The role of coercion is yet another reason is that various tactics of psychological coercion induce suspects to confess, particularly when those suspects are young or have mental limitations.

How does U.S. federal law define harassment? What kinds of behaviors do people find to constitute sexual harassment? Differentiate between hostile sexism and benevolent sexism. What kinds of men are more likely to engage in sexual harassment behaviors? What types of harassment claims are more likely to be resolved in favor of the complainant? Define abuse excuse. (Sexual Harassment)

· U.S. federal law defines harassment as: unwelcome sexual advances, requests for sexual favors, and other verbal or physical conduct of a sexual nature constitute sexual harassment when (1) submission to such conduct is made either explicitly or implicitly a term or condition of an individual's employment, (2) submission to or rejection of such conduct by an individual is used as the basis for employment decisions affecting such individual, or (3) such conduct has the purpose or effect of unreasonably interfering with an individual's work performance or creating an intimidating, hostile, or offensive working environment. · The female-male behaviors that involve hostile work environment harassment include derogatory attitudes toward women, dating pressure, or physical sexual contact (areas in which there were gender differences about what constitutes harassment) than sexual propositions or sexual coercion (topics upon which both men and women seem to agree as they relate to sexual harassment) · Hostile sexism involves antipathy toward women, reflecting a belief that males are superior to women and should be dominant over them. Whereas benevolent sexism is an attitude of protection toward women; it reflects a belief that as the "weaker sex," women need to be shielded from the world's harshness. · Men who reported higher levels of authoritarian characteristics are more likely to engage in sexual harassment. In addition to more traditional beliefs about women's roles, more negative attitudes toward women, and less concern with social desirability. Men who are higher in hostility, particularly toward women, are more likely to engage in workplace sexual harassment under conditions of perceived unfairness on the job. · The types of harassment claims that are more likely to be resolved in favor of the complainant is when the harassing behaviors were serious, the complainant had witnesses to support the charges, and the complainant had given notice to management prior to filing formal charges. · Abuse excuse is the legal tactic by which criminal defendants claim a history of abuse as an excuse for violent retaliation