Chapters 5-7
A backup communication system is especially critical when dealing with: A. mass-casualty incident. B. motor vehicle collisions C. simultaneous EMS calls D. any critically injured patient.
A
The FIRST principle of communicating by radio is: A. clarity. B. accuracy. C. calmness. D. thoroughness.
A
The patient care report: A. provides a continuum of patient care upon arrival at the hospital. B. is a legal document and should provide a brief description of the patient. C. should include the paramedic's subjective findings or personal thoughts. D. is only held for a period of 24 months, after which it legally can be destroyed.
A
The process of formulating the words or ideas to be sent and formatting the information for transmission is called: A. encoding B. decoding C. biotelemetry D. interoperability
A
Which of the following words would be the MOST difficult to hear over the radio? A. Yes B. Negative C. Affirmative D. Received
A
When communicating medical information via radio, you should be: A. simple, brief, and direct. B. comprehensive, but brief. C. as expeditious as possible. D. thorough yet rapid.
A p 144
When a caller requests EMS in an area that uses an enhanced 9-1-1 system: A. the caller's name and address are automatically displayed. B. known hazards at or near the scene will be displayed on the computer. C. the fastest route to the scene will be displayed on the computer. D. the caller's GPS coordinates will display on the computer.
A pg 137
If the EMD suspects that your patient has a life-threatening emergency, the EMD should make you aware of the situation and then: A. give prearrival instructions to the caller. B. dispatch law enforcement to the scene. C. obtain the caller's name and physical address. D. ask the caller to put the patient on the phone.
A pg 137-138
Compared to lower frequency bands, higher frequency bands: A. generally have less interference. B. are not effective for public safety use. C. are not regulated by the FCC. D. have a longer transmission range.
A pg 139
Automatic crash notification (ACN) systems can provide all of the following information about a car crash, EXCEPT: A. the speed of the other vehicle at the time of the crash. B. the geographic location of the crash. C. whether or not seatbelts were in use at the time of the crash. D. the principle direction of force at the impact point.
A pg 142
Cellular telephones are more advantageous than regular two-way radios because cellular telephones: A. incorporate GPS technology to help rescuers find the patient. B. enable laypeople to call 9-1-1 for a minimal service charge. C.do not utilize computer technology and are less likely to fail. D. can transmit long distances with the use of a mobile antenna.
A pg 142
Using the International Radiotelephony Phonetic Alphabet, how should you spell Dr. "Wilson"? A. WHISKEY-INDIA-LIMA-SIERRA-OSCAR-NOVEMBER B. WILLIAM-INDIA-LINCOLN-SIERRA-OCEAN-NOVEMBER C. WHISKEY-IDA-LIMA-SAM-OSCAR-NANCY D. WILLIAM-IDA-LINCOLN-SAM-OCEAN-NANCY
A pg 145
Which of the following is a drawback of using the ten-code system when communicating by radio? A. The codes' meanings vary by jurisdiction B. They are difficult to hear over the radio. C. They disclose too much information. D. They do not convey accurate information.
A pg 146
When relaying medical information to a physician in person, you should: A. include information that you did not provide during your radio report. B. ensure that another physician or a nurse is present to avoid confusion. C. provide a lengthy, detailed report that includes all patient information. D. routinely give your report at the patient's bedside so he or she can hear.
A pg 148-149
If a patient is unable to tell you who he or she is, where he or she is, and what part of the week it is: A. you should suspect decreased blood flow to the brain. B. you should ask him or her questions that require more thought. C. he or she likely has an intracerebral hemorrhage or lesion. D. he or she is most likely scared and unable to remember.
A pg 151
Paramedics respond to a dimly lit bar for a woman with chest pain. The jukebox is playing and several patrons are present. What should they do? A. Move the patient to the restroom and begin their assessment. B. Order the patrons to leave the scene and begin their assessment. C. Assess the patient only after moving her to the ambulance. D. Ask the bartender to turn on the lights and turn off the music.
A pg 151
Repeating the key parts of a patient's responses to your questions demonstrates: A. active listening. B. sympathy. C. an exchange of information. D. passive communication.
A pg 151
If the wife of a critically ill man asks you if her husband is going to die, the MOST appropriate response should be? A. "He is very sick, but we are doing everything we can to help him." B. "The situation appears grim, but you should not lose all hope." C. "It is possible, and you should prepare yourself for the worst." D. "That question is best answered by the physician at the hospital."
A pg 154
Stereotyping an elderly, very young, or hostile patient during your attempt to communicate with him or her: A. works against effective communication. B. yields relatively accurate information. C. is proper under certain circumstances. D. is an effective means of communicating.
A pg 154-155
During the course of your interview, your patient begins making sexual innuendos to you. You should: A. ensure that another paramedic or EMT is present at all times. B. defer further questioning and simply transport the patient. C. stop the interview until the patient's behavior is less aggressive. D. ask a paramedic of the opposite sex to interview the patient.
A pg 155
When communicating with older patients, it is MOST important to remember that: A. their illnesses may be more complex because they may have more than one disease process and may be taking several medications concurrently. B. the ability to hear and see is naturally impaired due to the process of aging, and the paramedic must accommodate these disabilities appropriately. C. many older people lose the ability to understand simple terminology, thus requiring the paramedic to gear his or her questions accordingly. D. older patients are generally poor historians regarding their medical history, and the paramedic should interview a family member or friend instead.
A pg 155
If a parent insists on monitoring your conversation with his or her adolescent son or daughter, you should? A. communicate the situation to the emergency department physician and document it accurately. B. explain to the adolescent that he or she is a minor and that you cannot converse without parental presence. C. refuse the parent's prerogative and move the patient to the ambulance to continue your conversation. D. suspect that the adolescent has been physically or emotionally abused and confront the parent.
A pg 156
When communicating with a patient whose cultural background differs from the paramedic's, the paramedic should: A. treat the patient with the utmost respect at all times. B. agree with the patient's cultural differences. C. use his or her own culture as the sole reference. D. know the specifics about the patient's culture.
A pg 157-158
All of the following are subjective findings, EXCEPT: A. visible blood in the ear canal. B. acute and severe nausea. C. a feeling of impending doom. D. a persistent dull headache.
A pg 170
The MOST significant problem associated with making up your own medical abbreviations and documenting them on the patient care report is: A. an error in patient care. B. confusion at the hospital. C. insurance denial. D. a potential lawsuit.
A pg 170-171
The National Emergency Medical Services Information System (NEMSIS): A. collects relevant data from each state and uses it for research. B. defines the scope of practice for all levels of EMS provider. C. defines the minimum data that must be collected on each call. D. is a nationwide billing system that any EMS provider can use.
A pg 172
In which of the following situations would the documentation on a patient care report MOST likely be limited? A. Mass-casualty incident B. Physical abuse C. Cardiac arrest D. Injury to a paramedic
A pg 175
Tetralogy of Fallot is a congenital anomaly involving ______________ anatomic abnormalities of the heart. A. four B. two C. five D. three
A pg 196
What color does the rood word poli/o describe? A. Gray B. Blue C. Yellow D. Green
A pg 197
A vertical plane that is parallel to the median plane and divides the body into unequal left and right parts is called the: A. midsagittal plane. B. median plane. C. transverse plane. D. caudal plane
A pg 199
Which of the following directional terms describes the front surface of the body? A. Ventral B. Superior C. Inferior D. Dorsal
A pg 203
Which of the following would be a proper way of documenting a drug dosage? A. 5 mg B. 0.10 mg C. 25.0 mg D. 2.0 mg
A pg 208
A patient with blepharospasm has spasm of the: A. eyelid. B. neck muscles. C. urinary bladder. D. gallbladder.
A pg 210
Cardiomegaly is a term used to describe: A. an enlarged heart. B. a weakened heart. C. surgical repair of the heart. D. malposition of the heart.
A pg 210, 213
An endogenous chemical is one that: A. occurs inside the body. B. occurs only in small amounts. C. occurs outside the body. D. is in one part of the body.
A pg 211
A patient with orchitis has inflammation of the: A. testicle. B. eyelid. C. intestine. D. bladder.
A pg 212
After asking a patient a question about how she is feeling today, you sense that she is having difficulty putting her feelings into words. You should: A. be patient and give the patient time to express her feelings. B. offer suggested responses to facilitate the patient's answer. C. ask another question and revisit the previous question later. D. repeat the question, but ask it differently the second time.
A. pg 153
Costohondritis is inflammation of the: A. cartilage part of the ribs. B. tendons of the quadriceps. C. sternocleidomastoid muscles. D. inner lining of the chest.
A. pg 210
During your assessment of a trauma patient, you note the presence of bilateral femur fractures. This means that: A. one femur is broken. B. both femurs are broken. C. one femur is broken in two places. D. the lateral aspect of one femur is broken.
B
HIPAA requres that: A. a patient's personal information must be shared with the patient's immediate family members. B. patient information shall not be shared with entities or persons not involved in the care of the patient. C. a penalty will be imposed for any release of any portion of a patient's personal information to any entity. D. patient information can only be shared with the receiving physician in the emergency department.
B
If a patient with decision-making capacity adamantly refuses treatment for an injury or condition that clearly requires immediate medical attention, the paramedic should: A. request law enforcement assistance at once. B. contact online medical control for guidance. C. make other arrangements for a patient transport. D. ask the patient to sign a refusal of treatment form.
B
If you receive another call before completing the patient care report accurately for the previous call: A.you should submit what you have completed to the receiving facility. B. pertinent details about the previous call may be omitted inadvertently. C. your patient are report must be completed within 36 hours after the call. D. you should ask the dispatcher to send another paramedic crew to the call.
B
In which of the following situations would a medical necessity for ambulance transport MOST likely be required? A. The patient was able to walk to the ambulance. B. The patient required a splint prior to moving. C. The patient does not require emergent transport. D. The patient has minor bleeding that is controlled.
B
The Greek prefix burs/o refers to the: A. face. B. back. C. kidney. D. tongue.
B
What should occur if a physician on scene performs an intervention that is outside of the paramedic's scope of practice? A. The paramedic is required to disallow the physician to perform the intervention. B. The physician is required to accompany the patient in the back of the ambulance. C. The medical director must authorize the physician to perform the intervention. D. The paramedic must allow the intervention and then transport the patient.
B
Which of the following laws or entities requires that a statement of medical necessity be clearly documented on a patient care report? A. HIPAA B. Medicare C. Medicaid D. State law
B
Which of the following statements regarding revisions or corrections to a patient care report is correct? A. The original patient care report should be destroyed if a revision is necessary. B. Only the person who wrote the original report can revise or correct it. C. A patient care report cannot be revised or corrected after submission. D. If a report needs revision, the revision must be made within 12 hours.
B
You have administered 1 mg of a drug to a patient. This is equivalent to: A. 0.001 mcg. B. 1,000 mcg. C. 10,000 mcg. D. 0.01 mcg.
B
Notification of EMS usually occurs when: A. a sick or injured patient presents to your EMS station. B. a bystander notifies the dispatcher via telephone. C. law enforcement requests assistance via two-way radio. D. EMTs contact an emergency medical dispatcher.
B pg 136
The term "frequency," as it applies to radio communications, is MOST accurately defined as: A. a predefined station designed for emergency use only. B. the number of oscillations per second of the carrier wave. C. a relatively long wavelength that produces audible sound. D. the number of megahertz per cycle that the radio transmits..
B pg 139
In order for the paramedic to talk and transmit an ECG simultaneously on one frequency, a ________________ system is required. A. low-band B. multiplex C. duplex D. simplex
B pg 140
Biotelemetry is MOST accurately defined as: A. a common radio frequency assigned to EMS by the Federal Communications Commission. B. the capability of measuring vital signs and ECG tracings and transmitting them to a distant terminal. C. linking two frequencies together so that the paramedic and physician can converse directly. D. the ability of more than one public safety agency to share the same radio frequency during a crisis.
B pg 143
If a patient provides an inappropriate response to a paramedic's question, it should be assumed that the patient: A. is not willing to cooperate. B. has impaired cerebral function. C. is frightened by the situation. D. does not wish to communicate.
B pg 151
It would be appropriate to ask a patient a closed-ended question when: A. you are attempting to establish the quality of a patient's pain. B. you are trying to obtain medical history information. C. you are using complex medical terminology. D. the question requires the patient to think.
B pg 152
Which of the following is MOST indicative of a patient who is about to attack you? A. Disorganized speech B. Clenched facial muscles C. Uncontrolled crying D. Large physical body size
B pg 155
Which of the following statements contains objective and subjective information? A. "The patient's behavior was consistent with alcohol intoxication." B. "The patient appeared confused and stated that he had a headache." C. "The patient's pulse was rapid and weak and he was diaphoretic." D. "The patient's wife stated that he began feeling ill a few hours ago."
B pg 170
Data collected from the state EMS office for the purpose of research would likely NOT include: A. the nature of all calls. B. average cost per call. C. call volume per month. D. patient outcomes.
B pg 171-172
Components of a thorough patient refusal document include: A. documentation of a complete assessment, even if the patient refused assessment. B. willingness of EMS to return to the scene if the patient changes his or her mind. C. notification of the patient's physician to apprise him or her of the situation. D. assurance by the paramedic that the patient's ability to pay is of no concern.
B pg 174-175
Most EMS agencies require a double signature system any time a: A. patient's condition warrants diversion to a closer hospital. B. controlled substance is checked, used, discarded, or replaced. C. medication that alters a patient's physiology is given. D. patient is given more than one dose of any medication.
B pg 179
Additions or notations added to a completed patient care report by someone other than the original author: A. are generally acceptable, provided the additions are made by a paramedic. B. may raise questions about the confidentiality practices of the EMS agency. C. are not legal and may result in criminal action against the original author. D. must be initialed by the author or the patient care report will be deemed null and void.
B pg 184
An accurate and legible patient care report: A. is a relatively reliable predictor of the quality of care that the paramedic provided to the patient during the call. B. should be complete to the point where anyone who reads it understands exactly what transpired on the call. C. provides immunity to the paramedic if the patient decides to pursue legal action against the paramedic. D. is not possible on every call, especially if there is more than one patient or the patient is critically ill or injured.
B pg 185
In order to ensure that all recorded times associated with an incident are accurate, the paramedic should: A. document the time that each event occurs. B. radio the dispatcher after an event occurs. C. get a copy of the dispatch log after the call. D. frequently glance at his or her watch.
B pg 185-186
A patient has a gunshot wound just below the right nipple. How should you describe the injury location? A. Posteromedial B. Anterolateral C. Inferolateral D. Inferomedial
B pg 201-203
Compared to the frontal region of the skull, the occiput is: A. exterior. B. posterior. C. inferior. D. anterior.
B pg 203
A patient experiencing a stroke involving the left cerebral hemisphere has a contralateral hemiplegia. This means that the patient: A. cannot move either upper extremity. B. cannot move his right side. C. cannot move his left side. D. cannot move any of his extremities.
B pg 204
Medical control requests you to administer 50 micrograms of a drug. You should recognize that this is equivalent to: A. 0.5 mg. B. 0.05 mg. C. 0.005 mg. D. 500 mg.
B pg 209
Something that is homogenous is: A. large. B. the same. C. small. D. different.
B pg 211
When attempting to interview a potentially violent patient, you should: A. avoid eye contact with the patient, as this may agitate him or her. B. ensure that you are positioned between the patient and the door. C. use closed-ended questions to obtain his or her medical history. D. set "ground rules" regarding what you expect from him or her.
B. pg 155
A patient with dysphasia has: A. difficulty swallowing. B. painful swallowing. C. difficulty speaking. D. an inability to speak.
C
Eupnea is a medical term that means: A. fast breathing. B. slow breathing. C. normal breathing. D. shallow breathing.
C
If a patient is reluctant to communicate because he or she feels threatened, the paramedic should: A. keep his or her hands to the side and move slowly. B. cross his or her arms and take five steps backward. C. cautiously approach the patient with palms facing out. D. maintain a closed posture as this will convey authority.
C
Movement of an extremity toward the midline of the body is called: A. supination. B. pronation. C. adduction. D. abduction.
C
The Greek prefix gloss/o refers to the: A. back. B. face. C. tongue. D. kidney.
C
The combination of two or more signals, which allows the paramedic to talk to and transmit an ECG simultaneously on one frequency, is called a: A. simplex system. B. trunking system C. multiplex system D. half-duplex system
C
The term supraventricular refers to: A. within the ventricles. B. below the ventricles. C. above the ventricles. D. outside of the ventricles.
C
Topographically, the term distal means: A. near the trunk. B. near a point of reference. C. farther from the trunk. D. toward the body's midline.
C
Which of the following actions demonstrates that the paramedic has his or her emotions under control? A. Taking notes while repeating some of the patient's statements back to him or her B. Obtaining the patient's medical history while administering emergency treatment C. speaking close to the patient's ear in a calm voice in an extremely noisy situation D. Frequently reassuring a seriously injured patient that everything will be okay
C
Which of the following documentation styles would likely be MOST difficult and time consuming to apply in EMS? A. SOAP method B. CHARTE method C. Body systems approach D. Chronological approach
C
Which of the following questions is the MOST effective when inquiring about a patient's chest pain? A. "Is the pain sharp or dull?" B. "Does the pain feel more like pressure?" C. "Can you describe the pain to me?" D. "Does the pain radiate to your arm?"
C
Which of the following terms BEST describes a clinical finding on the same side of the body as an injury? A. Bilateral B. Unilateral C. Ipsilateral D. Contralateral
C
A(n) _______________ receives a weak signal and retransmits it at a higher power on another frequency. A. simplex B. encoder C. repeater D. duplex
C pg 140-141
In urban settings, radio dead spots MOST often occur in areas with: A. high cell phone use. B. bodies of water. C. tall buildings. D. a lot of trees.
C pg 141
Before you begin to transmit over the radio, you should check the volume and then: A. key the microphone two or three times to reach the repeater. B. press the transmit key for 1 second before talking. C. listen to make sure that the channel is clear of traffic. D. turn the squelch setting to zero and ensure a good signal.
C pg 144-145
When transmitting information via radio, you should: A. keep your mouth 1 inch from the microphone. B. speak with your voice slightly elevated. C. use a normal conversational tone of voice. D. break long messages into 60-second segments.
C pg 145
If a patient is reluctant to share personal information with you, you should: A. advise the patient that treatment cannot begin without it. B. defer all questions and simply transport to the hospital. C. explain why you need his or her name and date of birth. D. ask a law enforcement officer to obtain the information.
C pg 151
Maintaining eye contact with a patient enables the paramedic to: A. rapidly gain any patient's trust. B. relay the seriousness of the situation. C. evaluate the patient's neurologic status. D. defuse a potentially violent situation.
C pg 151
Sitting a chair next to a patient when conducting your interview promotes: A. authority. B. empathy. C. trust. D. professionalism.
C pg 151
If a patient avoids answering a specific question, you should? A. avoid repeating the question as this may upset the patient. B. document that the patient did not answer the question. C. redirect him or her to the question to elicit a response. D. conclude that the patient is trying to hide something.
C pg 153
If a patient mentions something in passing or avoids answering a specific question, you should: A. defer the question and continue with your interview. B. assume that he or she is intentionally hiding something. C. politely redirect his or her attention to that question. D. ask the patient why he or she did not provide an answer.
C pg 153
Which of the following statements is an example of providing false reassurance? A. "I don't see any abnormalities on your ECG, but you should be evaluated by a physician." B. "Your condition does not appear to be life threatening at the present time, but that could change." C. "I'm sure that you will be fine, but let us take you to the hospital just to be on the safe side." D. "I can see that you are obviously upset, but I will provide the best care possible to you."
C pg 154
If the paramedic is unable to defuse a hostile patient's anger, the paramedic should: A. restrain the patient and transport at once. B. administer Valium or Haldol for sedation. C. request law enforcement personnel at the scene. D. obtain a signed refusal and depart the scene.
C pg 155
When the paramedic encounters a patient who has difficulty communicating, he or she should: A. suspect that the patient may have a psychiatric condition. B. try to use sign language when asking a specific question. C. enlist the help of a family member or primary caregiver. D. transport the patient and advise the hospital of the situation.
C pg 156
Many _______________ believe that touching the head may put their soul in jeopardy. A. Thais B. Muslims C. Asians D. Somalis
C pg 158
Which of the following is a subjective finding? A. Pale, cool, clammy skin B. Blood pressure of 110/60 mm Hg C. A complaint of chest pressure D. Obvious respiratory distress
C pg 170
For purposes of refusing medical care, a patient's mental status may be considered impaired if he or she: A. is notably frightened. B. makes a derogatory comment. C. makes nonsensical statements. D. is not sure of the exact time.
C pg 175
Which of the following statements is LEAST descriptive when documenting the events of a cardiac arrest call on your patient care report? A. "Gave 1 mg of epinephrine at 1002." B. "Intubated with a 7.5-mm ET tube." C. "Followed ACLS protocols." D. "Inserted 18-gauge IV in right forearm."
C pg 179
Which of the following statements includes a pertinent negative? A. "The rapid head-to-toe exam revealed abrasions to the chest." B. "The possible smell of ETOH was noted on the patient." C. "The patient complains of nausea but denies vomiting." D. "The patient rates his pain as an 8 on a scale of 0-10."
C pg 181
Prior to submitting a patient care report to the receiving hospital, it is MOST important for: A. your partner to review the report to ensure accuracy. B. the EMS medical director to review the report briefly. C. the paramedic who authored the report to review it carefully. D. the quality assurance team to review the report for accuracy.
C pg 182
A poorly written patient care report: A. generally results in a lawsuit, even if the patient outcome was favorable. B. often indicates that the paramedic was too busy providing patient care. C. may raise questions by others as to the paramedic's quality of patient care. D. is unavoidable during a mass-casualty incident and is generally acceptable.
C pg 183-184
If you make an error when completing a written patient care report, you should: A. circle the error, initial it, and write the correct information next to it. B. not alter the original patient care report and write the correct information on an addendum. C. use different colored ink when drawing a single line through the error. D. leave the error, but write the correct information in parentheses next to it.
C pg 184
Which of the following incident times is NOT commonly documented on the patient care report? A. Time of departure from the scene B. Time of medication administration C. Time of primary assessment D. Time of arrival at the hospital
C pg 185-186
If the body is sliced so the result is a top and bottom portion, this is referred to as the: A. cross section. B. body's midline. C. transverse plane. D. midsagittal plane.
C pg 199
The topographic term used to describe the location of the body parts that are closer to the midline is: A. midaxillary. B. midclavicular. C. medial. D. lateral.
C pg 201
Movement of the distal point of an extremity toward the trunk is called: A. supination. B. pronation. C. flexion. D. extension.
C pg 203
An unconscious, adequately breathing patient should be placed in the recovery position, which is: A. supine. B. prone. C. semi-sitting. D. laterally recumbent.
D
Ethnocentrism is defined as the: A. acknowledgement of one's cultural practices. B. study of different cultures and cultural practices. C. standards to which a particular culture is held. D. belief that one's own culture is superior to others.
D
When documenting a statement made by the patient or others at the scene, you should: A. document the exact time that the statement was made. B. include the statement in an addendum to run your report. C. translate the statement into appropriate medical terminology. D. place the exact statement in quotation marks in the narrative.
D
Which of the following details is of LEAST importance for the EMD to obtain from the caller? A. The exact location of the patient B. An estimate of the situation's severity C. The caller's telephone number D. The patient's last known oral intake
D
Which of the following is a significant benefit of electronic documentation? A. The use of drop-down boxes, which minimizes the possibility for errors B. The ease with which it can be applied during mass-casualty incidents C. The elimination of the need to complete a narrative section D. The ability of the data to be shared between health care facilities
D
When providing patient care, it is MOST important that you maintain effective communication with: A. medical control. B. the dispatcher C. bystanders. D. your partner.
D pg 134-135
Under the instructions of a good EMD, a layperson should be ale to: A. obtain a blood pressure. B. immobilize a person's spine. C. assess a patient's pupils. D. perform chest compressions.
D pg 138
A ___________________ receives a weak signal and retransmits it at a higher power on another frequency. A. duplex system B. multiplex system C. base station D. repeater
D pg 140-141
The ability of multiple agencies or systems to share the same radio frequency is called: A. telemetry B. patching C. a duplex D. trunking
D pg 141
Which of the following patient data is NOT typically communicated during your radio report to the hospital? A. Underlying medical conditions B. Brief, pertinent history C. ECG findings D. The patient's ethnicity
D pg 148
If you want reliable answers to personal questions, you should: A. tell the patient that his or her responses to your questions are confidential. B. request law enforcement presence when asking a personal question. C. tell the patient that personal questions are a routine part of your exam. D. manage the scene so you can ask such questions quietly and privately.
D pg 151
The purpose of a closed-ended question is to: A. enable the paramedic to gauge the patient's mentation. B. allow the patient to describe what he or she is feeling. C. obtain reliable information about a patient's complaint. D. elicit a specific response from the patient.
D pg 152
An elderly man states that he is sad and depressed because his wife recently died of cancer. Which of the following statements from the paramedic demonstrates empathy? A. "I understand why you are sad, and I am sad for you. Is there anything I can do to make you feel better?" B. "Your wife's death is very tragic, but perhaps going to the hospital will provide you with some relief." C. I'm sorry to hear about your wife, but you should take comfort in the fact that she is in a better place." D. "I'm sorry, sir. I don't know how I would feel in your situation, but I am sure it would be similar."
D pg 153
When touching a patient as a form of reassurance, the paramedic should: A. touch the patient in the center of the chest or on the thigh. B. remember that most patients take offense to being touched. C. not touch the patient if he or she leans toward the paramedic. D. touch the patient on a neutral part of his or her body.
D pg 154
Islamic and Hindu cultures avoid: A. sitting with their legs crossed. B. touching the head. C. clapping their hands together. D. touching with the left hand.
D pg 158
Which of the following data would a state EMS office be the LEAST likely to require an EMS agency to report? A. Call volume B. Patient outcome C. Types of calls D. Patient gender
D pg 171-172
Which of the following constitutes minimum data that must be included on every patient care report? A. Level of consciousness, field impression, vital signs, assessment, and patient's name and address B. Chief complaint, vital signs, assessment, tentative field diagnosis, and patient's ethnic background C. Scene size-up, detailed assessment, blood glucose reading, vital signs, and patient's age D. Chief complaint, level of consciousness, vital signs, assessment, and patient's age and gender
D pg 173
When a competent adult patient refuses medical care, it is MOST important for the paramedic to: A. perform a detailed physical exam before allowing the patient to refuse. B. obtain a signed refusal from the patient as well as a witness signature. C. contact medical control and request permission to obtain the refusal. D. ensure that the patient is well informed about the situation at hand.
D pg 174-175
The accuracy of your patient care report depends on all of the following factors, EXCEPT: A. documenting any extenuating circumstances. B. the thoroughness of the narrative section. C. including all pertinent event times. D. the severity of the patient's condition.
D pg 181-182
If the paramedic is unable to complete his or her patient care report before departing the emergency department, he or she should: A. leave, at a minimum, the patient's name and age, but recognize that the physician will perform his or her own exam. B. advise the receiving provider that he or she will return to the emergency department with the completed patient care report within 24 hours. C. obtain the emergency department fax number and transmit the completed patient care report withing 12 hours after delivering the patient. D. leave an abbreviated form with the pertinent data with the receiving provider and complete the patient care report as soon as possible.
D pg 182
Which of the following would be the MOST significant complication associated with incorrect use of medical terminology? A. The medical director could be sued. B. The paramedic could be held legally accountable. C. The patient could lose trust in the paramedic. D. Ineffective treatment could be rendered.
D pg 191
Ilium and ileum are examples of: A. antonyms. B. eponyms. C. synonyms. D. homonyms.
D pg 193
Which of the following prefixes are synonymous? A. Nephr/o; pneum/o B. Mamm/o; pulmon/o C. Angi/o; vas/o D. Coron/o; mast/o
D pg 194
The combining form of encephala/o refers to the: A. head B. tongue C. face D. brain
D pg 197
An imaginary plane passing horizontally through the body at the waist, creating top and bottom portions, is called the: A. coronal plane. B. sagittal plane. C. midsagittal plane. D. transverse plane.
D pg 199
An imaginary plane that divides the body into ventral and dorsal portions is called the: A. lateral plane. B. sagittal plane. C. axial plane. D. coronal plane.
D pg 199
In an anatomic position, all extremities are: A. adducted. B. abducted. C. flexed. D. extended.
D pg 203
When asking a patient to supinate his or her hand, you would expect him or her to: A. bend the hand at the wrist. B. place the hand palm down. C. turn the hand on its side. D. place the hand palm up.
D pg 204
A patient is placed in the Fowler position. In this position, the body is: A. on its side with the head lowered below 30 degrees. B. supine with the legs elevated between 6 and 12 inches. C. on its side with the head elevated at 15-20 degrees. D. sitting straight up with the knees bent or straight.
D pg 206
The diaphragm resides within the: A. superior thorax. B. retroperitoneal space. C. mediastinum D. infrathoracic region
D pg 206
The abbreviation "amp" refers to: A. bolus dose. B. infusion dose. C. single dose. D. ampule.
D pg 210
