Chapters 6-13 anatomy
When does the cervical curvature develop? A) before birth B) when the child raises its head C) when the child starts walking D) when old age causes the bones to thin and the muscles to weaken
B) when the child raises its head
This part of the sternum may be driven into vital areas such as the liver during cardiopulmonary resuscitation or an accident: A) spinous process B) xiphoid process C) manubrium D) coracoid process E) dens (or odontoid process)
B) xiphoid process
Most skeletal muscles act as third-class levers where the effort on the bone is exerted at the _____. A) end B) middle
B) middle
Most skeletal muscles act as third-class levers where the effort on the bone is exerted at the _____. These are levers of speed and range of motion. A) end B) middle (between the fulcrum and the resistance)
B) middle (between the fulcrum and the resistance)
The movement of the thumb across the palm to touch the tips of the fingers on the same hand. This movement gives humans and other primates the ability to grasp and manipulate objects very precisely. A) plantar flexion B) opposition C) eversion D) circumduction E) supination
B) opposition
Which of these bones does NOT articulate with the radius? A) humerus B) pisiform C) lunate D) scaphoid E) ulna
B) pisiform
The biceps brachii is the ______ for elbow FLEXION and the triceps brachii is the ____ for elbow FLEXION. A) anatgonist, prime mover B) prime mover, antagonist C) synergist, prime mover D) prime mover, synergist E) fixator, synergist
B) prime mover, antagonist
When the distal end of your radius is medial to your ulna, then your palm is ______. A) supinated B) pronated C) elevated D) retracted
B) pronated
Which muscle or muscle group is NOT properly matched with the injury named? A) pulled hamstring: posterior compartment muscles of the thigh B) shin splints: triceps surae C) pulled groin: adductor group D) torn rotator cuff: supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, subscapularis
B) shin splints: triceps surae
A congenital defect in which the laminae fail to fuse. It can be prevented with the folic acid during pregnancy. A) "slipped" disc B) spina bifida C) lordosis D) kyohosis E) Scoliosis
B) spina bifida
Which of the following statements about synovial joints is FALSE? A) The joint cavity is enclosed by an articular capsule. B) synovial joints contains serous fluid C) Synovial joints are the most common form of joint in the appendicular skeleton. D) Synovial joints are functionally classified as diarthrotic joints. E) Hyaline cartilage covers the joint surfaces of the bones
B) synovial joints contains serous fluid
Which is NOT true regarding the skeletal system? A) Continually rebuilds and remodels itself throughout our lifetime. B) The bones we see in lab have the same composition as those in our living bodies. C) bones, cartilages, ligaments, and joints are part of the skeletal system. D) Our skeletal system is adapted for walking on two feet. E) Tendons are not part of the skeletal system
B) the bones we see in lab have the same composition as those in our living bodies.
The growth in the length of a long bone occurs at ____ and the site for bone growth in diameter is ____. A) the epiphyseal plate, within (under) the endosteum B) the epiphyseal plate, within (under) the periosteum C) the epiphyseal line, within (under) the periosteum D) within (under) the periosteum, the epiphyseal plate E) within (under) the endosteum, the epiphyseal line
B) the epiphyseal plate, within (under) the periosteum
These vertebrae have hooked spinous processes that make them look like giraffes. A) Cervical B) thoracic C) lumbar D) sacrum E) coccyx
B) thoracic
The medial bone of the LEG? A) femur B) tibia C) fibula D) femur and tibia E) femur and fibula
B) tibia
When does bone remodeling NOT occur? A) in response to a fracture B) to maintain homeostasis of calcium levels in the bone C) as bones grow in length and width D) as bones are subjected to zero gravity in outer space E) in response to hormones such as growth hormone, sex hormones, calcitonin, and parathyroid hormone.
B) to maintain homeostasis of calcium levels in the bone
At the elbow, the ____ of the humerus articulates with the ulna. A) head B) trochlea C) capitulum D) medial epicondyle
B) trochlea
Calcium ions bind with ______ which results in the unblocking of the myosin binding sites. A) Actin B) troponin C) Tropomyosin D) ATPase
B) troponin
A herniation of the nucleus pulposus through the annulus fibrosus. It may compress the spinal cord or pinch a nerve. A) "slipped" disc B) spina bifida C) lordosis D) kyohosis E) Scoliosis
A) "slipped" disc
In the upper part of the body, most flexor muscles are located on the _____ aspect of the body; most extensors are located _____. A) Anterior, posteriorly B) Posterior, anteriorly C) proximal, distally D) superficial, deep E) medial, laterally
A) Anterior, posteriorly
A type of muscle contraction in which the tension produced in the muscle exceeds the resistance (load), and the muscle fibers shorten, resulting in movement. A) Isotonic B) Isometric C) Hypotonic D) Hypertonic
A) Isotonic
Muscles with a pennate arrangement of their fascicles have _____. A) a lot of power B) a wide range of motion C) both a lot of power and a wide range of motion
A) a lot of power
The neurotransmitter at the neuromuscular junction is ___. A) acetylcholine B) ATP C) Calcium ions D) Sodium ions E) acetylcholinesterase
A) acetylcholine
Which of the following does not increase the risk of developing osteoporosis? A) being overweight B) family history C) certain drugs: alcohol, some diuretics, cortisone, and tetracycline D) early menopause E) smoking or excessive alcohol consumption
A) being overweight
Growth in the length of a long bone occurs at the ____ whereas the site for bone growth in diameter is the _____. A) epiphyseal plate, within the periosteum B) Epiphyseal plate, within the endosteum C) epiphyseal line, within the periosterum D) within the periosteum, epiphyseal plate E) within the endosteum, epiphyseal line
A) epiphyseal plate, within the periosteum
Which type of joint is a syndesmosis? A) fibrous B) cartilaginous C) synovial
A) fibrous
Generally, to toll up into a ball (fetal position) requires ____. A) flexion B) extebsion C) hyperextension D) circumduction E) rotation
A) flexion
When you put your hands on your hips, you are putting your hands on your _____. A) iliac crest B) ischial tuberosities C) ischial spines D) pubic symphysis E) greater trochanters
A) iliac crest
The pelvis girdle includes the ____. A) ilium, ischium, and pubis B) the ossa coxae, sacrum, and coccyx
A) ilium, ischium, and pubis
The latissimus dorsi and pectoralis major insert on the _____. A) intertubercular groove B) deltoid tuberosity C) acromion process D) Coracoid process E) Head of the humerus
A) intertubercular groove
Condyles, facets, heads, and trochlea are : A) processes that help to form a joint B) sites allowing the passage or nerves of blood vessels C) Processes that are sites of muscle and ligaments attachment D) Depressions
A) processes that help to form a joint
Which of these muscles originates on the pelvis and, therefore, has action at the thigh as well as at the knee? A) rectus femoris B) vastus medialis C) vastus inermedius D) vastus lateralis E) iliopsoas
A) rectus femoris
The "keystone" of the cranium is the _____ and the "keystone" of the facial bones is the ______. A) sphenoid, maxilla B) maxilla, sphenoid C) ethmoid, maxilla D) maxilla, ethmoid E) temporal, zygomatic
A) sphenoid, maxilla
Most of the joints in the skull are ____. A) synarthrotic and fibrous B) amphiarthrotic and synovial C) diarthrotic and synovial D) amphiarthrotic and synchondroses E) diarthrotic and synchondroses
A) synarthrotic and fibrous
Has a petrous (rocky) portion on the floor of the cranial cavity that can damage the brain if it slides across it during a sudden stop A) temporal B) ethmoid C) sphenoid D) zygomatic E) maxillae
A) temporal
Has a petrous (rocky) portion on the floor of the cranial cavity that can damage the brain if it slides across it during a sudden stop. A)Temporal B) Ethmoid C) zygomatic D) sphenoid E) Maxillae
A) temporal
Has a styloid process A) Temporal B) Ethmoid C) zygomatic D) sphenoid E) Maxillae
A) temporal
Most of the bones in the appendicular part of the skeleton are this type of bone. A) short B) long C) flat D) irregular
B) long
Your knuckles are the heads of your _____. A) carpal bones B) metacarpals C) phalanges
B) metacarpals
Which of these statements is FALSE? A) There are seven cervical vertebrae, twelve thoracic vertebrae, and five lumbar vertebrae. B) All the ribs articulate with the sternum C) The lumbar vertebrae have large bodies to support much of the body weight. D) The sacrum forms a joint with the ilium E) The coccygeal vertebrae are fused in an adult and are the most inferior of the vertebrae
B) All the ribs articulate with the sternum
Which fracture is NOT matched correctly? A) Pott: fracture at the distal end of the tibia, fibula, or both B) Colles: a fracture of the distal end of the ulna C) Stress: thin fractures due to repeated, stressful impact such as running D) Compound: the brown end(s) of the bone protrude through the skin E) Comminuted: the bone has splintered at the site of impact, and smaller fragments of bone lie between the two main fragments.
B) Colles: a fracture of the distal end of the ulna
Which of the following statements about skeletal muscle is FALSE? A) It requires innervation B) It is branching C) It has a relatively short refractory period that allows a sustained contraction, tetanus D) It is formed by the fusion of many embryonic myoblasts and, therefore, has many nuclei and is long.
B) It is branching
Which of the following statements about cardiac muscle is FALSE? A) It has actin myosin myofilaments that are arranged in an orderly arrangement and, therefore, it has striations. B) It requires neural innervation to contract C) It has intercalated discs with gap junctions, desmosomes, and tight junctions. D) It has a very long refractory period that does NOT allow sustained contractions, tetanus. E) It can beat faster or slower under the influence of hormones and neurotransmitters.
B) It requires neural innervation to contract
Trace the route taken by nutrients through a bone, starting with the periosteum and ending with and osteocyte in a lacuna. A) Central canal > canaliculus > perforating canal B) Perforating canal > central canal > canaliculus C) canaliculus > central canal > perforating canal D) perforating canal > canaliculus > central canal E) canaliculus > perforating canal > central canal
B) Perforating canal > central canal > canaliculus
Which is NOT true regarding the skeletal system? A) the skeleton continually rebuilds and remodels itself even into old age. B) The bones we see in our bone boxes have the same composition as those in our living bodies C) Tendons are not part of the skeletal system. D) Bones, cartilages, ligaments, and joints are part of the skeletal system. E) Our skeletal system is adapted for walking on two feet.
B) The bones we see in our bone boxes have the same composition as those in our living bodies
Which of the following is NOT a general rule of skeletal muscle activity? A) Almost all muscles cross at least one joint B) Typically, the bulk of the muscle lies distal to the joint crossed. C) All muscles have at least two attachments: the origin and the insertion. D) Muscles can only pull; they never push E) During contraction, the muscles insertion moves toward the origin.
B) Typically, the bulk of the muscle lies distal to the joint crossed.
Muscles with parallel arrangement of their fascicles have: A) a lot of power B) a wide range of motion C) both a lot of power and a wide range of motion
B) a wide range of motion
The movement of a limb toward the midline is called ______. A) inversion B) adduction C) abduction D) circumduction E) rotation
B) adduction
A broad, flat type of tendon such as that found between the frontalis and occipitalis muscles. A) tendon sheath B) aponeurosis C) endomysium D) perimysium E) epimysium
B) aponeurosis
Which of the following is FALSELY matched or are they all correct? A) Biceps brachii: supinator and elbow flexor B) brachialis: pronator and strongest elbow flexor C) brachioradialis: elbow flexor found primarily in the forearm D) Triceps brachii: elbow extensor E) all are correct
B) brachialis: pronator and strongest elbow flexor
The largest ankle bone: A) talus B) calcaneus C) cuboid D) navicular E) first cuneiform
B) calcaneus
The buccinator, temporalis, masseter, and medial and lateral pterygoids belong to this group A) facial expression muscles B) chewing muscles C) anterior neck and throat muscles D) thorax muscles E) abdominal muscles
B) chewing muscles
Type of bone that consists of osteons cemented together to form a dense and homogeneous looking bone. A) Spongy bone B) compact bone C) both spongy bone and compact bone D) Hyaline cartilage E) Fibrocartilage
B) compact bone
The suture between the frontal and parietal bones is called the ___ suture. A) Lateral B) Coronal C) Sagittal D) squamous (or squamosal) E) lambdoid (or lambdoidal)
B) coronal
George was bending over to pick up a heavy box when he was suddenly startled by a mouse. He experienced severe pain in his back with muscle spasms and was unable to straighten up. What muscles were most likely affected? A) iliopsoas B) erector spinae C) latissimus dorsi D) deltoid E) gluteus maximus
B) erector spinae
Has a superior and middle nasal conchae. A)Temporal B) Ethmoid C) zygomatic D) sphenoid E) Maxillae
B) ethmoid
Has a superior and middle nasal conchae. A) temporal B) ethmoid C) sphenoid D) zygomatic E) maxillae
B) ethmoid
which is the likely name of the muscle that can be described as follows: originates on the medial epicondyle, acts on the wrist, and abducts the wrist? A) flexor digitormum superficials B) flexor carpi radialis C) flexor carpi ulnaris D) extensor carpi radialis longus E) extensor carpi ulnaris
B) flexor carpi radialis
This type of joint is found between the humerus and ulna. A) plane (gliding) B) hinge C) saddle D) ball and socket E) pivot
B) hinge
The increase in size of a body builders muscles occurs through ____. A) hyperplasia B) hypertrophy C) hyperplasia and hypertrophy D) muscle cells splitting
B) hypertrophy
Which of these is NOT matched correctly? A) medullary cavity: adipose storage B) yellow bone marrow: blood cell formation C) hyaline cartilage: epiphyseal plate D) minerals (such as trialcium phosphate): strength E) organic materials (such as collagen) : flexibility
B) yellow bone marrow: blood cell formation
Which of the following in NOT found in the THIN filament? A) actin B) Troponin C) ATPase D) Tropomyosin
C) ATPase
A genetic disease in which the long bones of the limbs stop growing during childhood due to the failure of the second and third zones of the epiphyseal plate to multiply and enlarge. This leads to inadequate ossification. A) Osteoporosis B) Osteogenesis imperfecta C) Achondroplastic dwarfism D) rickets E) Pagets disease
C) Achondroplastic dwarfism
Which of the following statements is FALSE? A) Cartilage grows by appositional growth using condroblasts in the perichondrium B) cartilage grows by interstitial growth using chondrocytes within the cartilage that divide and secrete new matrix. C) Cartilage heals well because it is a type of connective tissue D) Articular cartilages are remnants (left-overs) From endochondral ossification E)To nourish your cartilage, you need to use your joints. This is called weeping lubrication.
C) Cartilage heals well because it is a type of connective tissue
Which of these is NOT matched correctly? A) Epiphysis: site of spongy bone in the adult B) Diaphysis: site of compact bone in the adult C) Red marrow: site of fat storage in the adult D) Epiphysis: site of hematopoiesis in the adult E) Epiphyseal plate: site of the longitudinal growth in a child.
C) Red marrow: site of fat storage in the adult.
The striations of a skeletal muscle are produced primarily by: A) The t-tubules B) intercalated discs C) The arrangement of the thick and thin myofilaments D) differences in the thickness of the sarcolemma E) the triads
C) The arrangement of the thick and thin myofilaments
A genetic disease in which the long bones of the limbs stop growing during childhood due to failure of the second and third zones of the epiphyseal plate to multiply and enlarge. This leads to inadequate ossification. A) osteoporosis B) osteogenesis imperfecta C) achondroplastic dwarfism D) rickets E) pagets disease
C) achondroplastic dwarfism
The sartorius originates on the _____ and inserts on the _____. A) anterior superior iliac spine/ tibial tuberosity B) anterior inferior iliac spine/ tibial tuberosity C) anterior superior iliac spine/ pes anserinus D) anterior inferior iliac spine/ per anserinus
C) anterior superior iliac spine/ pes anserinus
Most flexor muscles are located on the _____ aspect of the body; most extensors are located _____. An exception to this generalization is the extensor-flexor musculature of the knee. A) superficial, deep B) medial, laterally C) anterior, pesteriorly D) posterior, anteriorly E) proximal, distally
C) anterior, pesteriorly
The PELVIS is part of the ______. A) axial skeleton B) appendicular skeleton C) both the axial and appendicular skeleton
C) both the axial and appendicular skeleton
Which of the following is FALSELY matched? A) biceps brachii: supinator and elbow flexor B) brachialis: strongest elbow flexor C) brachioradialis: elbow extensor found primarily in the forearm D) triceps brachii: elbow extensor found in the arm
C) brachioradialis: elbow extensor found primarily in the forearm
These channels ____ allow the cytoplasmic extensions of the osteocytes to exchange substances with each other. A) perforating canals B) central canals C) canaliculi D) Lamellae E) Bursae
C) canaliculi
At the elbow, the ____ of the humerus articulates with the radius. A) head B) trochlea C) capitulum D) greater tubercle
C) capitulum
The movement of your limb in such a way as to make a cone shaped is called _____. A) rotation B) protraction C) circumduction D) pronation E) supination
C) circumduction
Which of these is NOT matched correctly? A) calcium salts: hardness and strength B) medullary cavity: adipose storage C) compact bone: blood cell formation D) organic materials (such as collagen): flexibility E) hyaline cartilage: articular cartilage
C) compact bone: blood cell formation
Which fracture is NOT matched correctly? A) pathologic: weakening of a bone caused by disease processes (e.g. cancer or osteoporosis) B) stress: thin fractures due to repeated stress to a bone such as running or marching C) compound: multiple breaks in a bone D) colles: a fracture of the distal end of the radius. It often results from falling on outstretched hands. E) Pott: fracture at the distal end of the fibula, tibia or both
C) compound: multiple breaks in a bone
This muscle draws the eyebrows medially and downward. Some people use botox to paralyze this muscle to lessen the vertical frown lines between the eyebrows due to this muscle. A) frontalis B) depressor anguli oris C) corrugator supercilii D) orbicularis oculi
C) corrugator supercilii
This muscle's primary action is to abduct the humerus. A) trapezius B) sternocleidomastoid C) deltoid D) latissimus dorsi E) pectoralis major
C) deltoid
This muscles primary action is to abduct the humerus. A) trapezius B) sternocleidomastoid C) deltoid D) latissimus dorsi E) pectoralis major
C) deltoid
Which of these muscles does NOT produce plantar flexion of the foot? A) soleus B) gastrosnemius C) extensor digitorum D) peroneus (fibularis) longus
C) extensor digitorum
The lateral bone of the LEG A) femur B) tibia C) Fibula D) talus E) calcaneous
C) fibula
Knee injuries in football are usually due to lateral blows to the knee. When this occurs, the knee is examined with the "three C's" or "unhappy triad" kept in mind. These include all of the following EXCEPT the _________. A) anterior cruciate ligament B) medial meniscus C) fibular (lateral) collateral ligament D) tibial (medial) collateral ligament
C) fibular (lateral) collateral ligament
How many phalanges do you have in your body? A) twenty B) twenty-eight C) fifty six D) sixty
C) fifty six
When a person with osteoporosis breaks a "hip," what is usually broken? A) iliac crest B) ischial spines C) acetabulum D) neck of femur E) head of femur
D) neck of femur
Which is the likely name of the muscle that can be described as follows: originates on the medial epicondyle, flexes the wrist, and adducts the wrist? A) flexor digitormum superficialis B) flexor carpi radialis C) flexor carpi ulnaris D) Extensor carpi radialis longus E) extensor carpi ulnaris
C) flexor carpi ulnaris
Which of these bones does NOT help form the middle of the cranial fossa? A) sphenoid B) temporal C) frontal D) parietal
C) frontal
The ____ of the scapula articulates with the head of the humerus. A) coronoid process B) coracoid process C) glenoid fossa D) acromion process E) acetabulum
C) glenoid fossa
These muscles of the thigh extend the hip and flex the knee. A) quadriceps femoris B) adductor muscles C) hamstrings
C) hamstrings
Which of the following does NOT help form a nasal septum? A) ethmoid B) vomer C) inferior nasal conchae D) hyaline cartilage
C) inferior nasal conchae
Which of the following does NOT help from the nasal septum? A) ethmoid B) vomer C) inferior nasal conchae D) hyaline cartilage
C) inferior nasal conchae
The flat bones of the skull, sternum, and ribs develop from ___ ossification, whereas, most bones of the body, including the long bones of the appendicular skeleton, develop from ____ ossification. A) appositional, interstitial B) interstitial, appositional C) intramembranous, endochondral D) endochondral, intramembranous
C) intramembranous, endochondral
Which part of your pelvis do you sit upon? A) iliac crest B) ischial spines C) ischial tuberosities D) pubic symphysis E) lesser trochanters
C) ischial tuberosities
Generally, the appendicular bones are ____ bones with the exception of the carpals and tarsals which are ___ bones. A) Flat/irregular B) short/long C) long/short D) irregular/short
C) long/short
These vertebrae have hatchet shaped spinous processes which make them look like mooses. A) cervical B) thoracic C) lumbar D) sacrum E) coccyx
C) lumbar
Which of the following in NOT found in thin filament? A) troponin B) actin C) myosin D) tropomyosin
C) myosin
A form of arthritis that is possible a result of normal aging and is known as "wear and tear arthritis" A) bursitis B) osteoporosis C) osteoarthritis D) rheumatoid arthritis E) gouty arthritis
C) osteroarthritis
The most superficial muscle of the anterior neck. It is used to show horror or fright and is tensed during shaving A) Trapezius B) sternocleidomastoid C) platysma D) erector spinae E) masseter
C) platysma
Tuberosities, epicondyles, trochanters, and tubercles are: A) processes that help to form joints B) sites allowing the passage of nerves or blood vessels C) processes that are sites of tendon and ligament attachment D) depressions
C) processes that are sites of tendon and ligament attachment
The muscles of the medial compartment of the thigh originate primarily on the ____ and insert primarily on the _____. A) ischial tuberosity/ iliotibial tract B) femur/ tibial tuberosity C) pubis/ linea aspera D) anterior superior iliac spine/ lesser trochanter E) femur/ pes anserinus
C) pubis/ linea aspera
The suture between the parietal and temporal bones is called the ____ suture. A) coronal B) sagittal C) squamous (or squamosal) D) lambdoid (or lambdoidal) E) occipital
C) squamous (or squamosal)
The gap between the motor neuron and the muscle cell A) t-tubules B) synaptic and bulbs C) synaptic cleft D) sarcolemma E) sarcoplasmic reticulum
C) synaptic cleft
Some joints are temporary joints that are later replaced by bone. Such a bony joint called a ______. A) symphysis B) syndesmosis C) synostosis D) synchondrosis
C) synostosis
Which of the following bones is NOT correctly matched with its bone marking? A) ethmoid bone: crista galli B) Sphenoid bone: sella turcica C) temporal bone: temporal process D) frontal bone: supraorbital notch or foramen E) occipital bone: external occipital protuberance
C) temporal bone: temporal process
This large, springlike molecule resists overstretching in the sarcomere. A) myosin B) tropomyosin C) titin D) Z disc E) M line protrection
C) titin
Which of the LATERAL abdominal wall muscles is deepest? A) external oblique B) internal oblique C) transversus abdominis D) rectus abdominis
C) transversus abdominis
Which of these muscles is NOT a prime mover of the arm A) deltoid B) pectoralis major C) trapezius D) latissimus dorsi
C) trapezius
Which of these bones does NOT help form the orbit of the eye? A) sphenoid B) ethmoid C) vomer D) palatine E) lacrimal
C) vomer
When does the lumbar curvature develop? A) before birth B) when the child raises its head C) when the child starts walking D) when old age causes the bones to thin and the muscles to weaken
C) when the child starts walking
The "smiling muscle" A) buccinator B) platysma C) zygomaticus major D) orbicularis oculi E) sternocleidomastoid
C) zygomaticus major
The "smiling muscle" is the ____ and the _____ is the frowning muscle. A) orbicularis oris/ depressor anguli oris B) zygomaticus minor/depressor anguli oris C) zygomaticus major/ depressor anguli oris D) zygomaticus major/ platysma E) Zygomaticus minor/ platysma
C) zygomaticus major/ depressor anguli oris
It closes the eyes and its use eventually leads to "crow's feet" A) buccinator B) platysma C) zygomaticus major D) orbicularis oculi E) sternocleidomastoid
D) orbicularis oculi
What do the flexor pollicis brevis, abductor pollicis brevis, adductor pollicis have in common? A) each acts synergistically to elevate the jaw. B) all act on the tongue C) all act on the great (big) toe. D) All act on the thumb.
D) All act on the thumb.
This vertebra has a process that may be driven into a vital area of the brain stem called the medulla oblongata during a whiplash accident. The vertebra is the ___ and the process is the ______. A) Atlas: spinous process B) atlas: transverse process C) axis: superior or articular process D) axis: dens (or odontoid process) E) vertebra prominens: nonbifid spinous process
D) Axis: dens (or odontoid process)
Which of the following statements about smooth muscle is FALSE? A) Single-unit smooth muscles are found in the walls of the small arteries and veins and the hollow viscera in the digestive, urinary, and reproductive systems. B) It has no T-tubules and a scanty sarcoplasmic reticulum C) It has a stress-relaxation response so that it contracts well even when stretched. D) It has no actin or myosin so it has no striations E) It has intermediate filaments attached to dense bodies and appears to contract in a corkscrew manner.
D) It has no actin or myosin so it has no striations
The ____ are cella that break down bone. A) Osteoprogenitor cells B) Osteocytes C) Osteoblasts D) Osteoclasts E) Chondroblasts
D) Osteoclasts
The mechanical force of contraction (shortening) is due to the: A) Z-discs sliding over the myofilaments B) shortening of the thick filaments so that the thin filaments slide past C) the thin and thick filaments shortening but not sliding past each other D) Sliding of the thin and thick filaments past each other but not shortening E) A-bands sliding past Z-discs
D) Sliding of the thin and thick filaments past each other but not shortening
Which of the following statements is FALSE? A) one neuron and all the skeletal muscle cells it stimulates are called motor unit. B) An average sized motor unit contains about 150 muscle fibers. C) the muscle fibers in a single motor unit contract in an all or none manner. D) The entire muscle contracts in an all or none manner E) Muscles that control large powerful movements have many muscle fibers per motor unit and muscles that control precise movements have few muscle fibers per motor unit.
D) The entire muscle contracts in an all or none manner
Which of these muscles do NOT insert on the proximal tibia at the pes anserinus? A) sartorius B) semitendinosus C) gracilis D) biceps femoris
D) biceps femoris
The "trumpeter's muscle" is used in flattening the cheek and holding food between the teeth during chewing A) masseter B) orbicularis oris C) medial and lateral pterygoids D) buccinator
D) buccinator
Which of the following does not increase the risk for developing osteoporosis? A) slight body build or underweight B) family history of osteoporosis C) Certain drugs: alcohol, some diuretics, cortisone, and tetracycline D) calcium supplements E) being a couch potato
D) calcium supplements
A bundle of 10 to 100 muscle fibers wrapped up together in a connective tissue wrapping is called a(n) _____ and connective tissue sheath doing the wrapping called a _____. A) muscle, aponeurosis B) muscle, epimysium C) myofiber, endomysium D) fascicle, perimysium E) fascicle, aponeurosis
D) fascicle, perimysium
How many phalanges do you have in one foot? A) none, phalanges are only in the hand B) five C) ten D) fourteen E) fifteen
D) fourteen
Which of the following is a "risky" injection site: A) deltoid B) vastus lateralis C) gluteus medius D) gluteus maximus
D) gluteus maximus
An exaggerated thoracic spinal curvature often seen in osteoporosis. A) "slipped" disc B) spina bifida C) lordosis D) kyphosis E) Scoliosis
D) kyphosis
The clavicle articulates with the ____ of the sternum and the ____ of the scapula. A) Xiphoid process, acromion B) manubrium, coracoid process C) body or gladiolus, spine D) manubrium, acromion E) acromion, manubrium
D) manubrium, acromion
The buccinators, masseters, temporalis, and pterygoids are all _____. A) Tongue muscles B) Facial expression muscles C) attached to the hyoid bone D) mastication muscles E) anterior neck and throat muscles
D) mastication muscles
Which one of these foramina ( or canals) is NOT correctly matched with its bone? A) optic foramen: sphenoid B) external auditory canal: temporal C) foramen ovale: sphenoid D) mental foramen: maxilla E) olfactory foramina: ethmoid
D) mental foramen: maxilla
Which of these bones does NOT help form the orbit of the eye? A) sphenoid B) ethmoid C) palatine D) nasal E) zygomatic
D) nasal
These are mature bone cells A) osteoprogenitor cells B) osteoclasts C) Osteoblasts D) osteocytes E) chondroblasts
D) osteocytes
The failure of one or both of these two bones to fuse along the midline may result in the condition known as a "cleft palate" A) nasal and vomer B) maxillae and mandible C) maxillae and zygomatic D) Palatine and maxillae E) palatine and vomer
D) palatine and maxillae
Which of the following bones is NOT correctly matched with its bone marking? A) ethmoid bone: crista galli B) sphenoid bone: sella turcica C) temporal bone: zygomatic process D) palatine bone: palatine process E) occipital bone: superior and inferior nuchal lines
D) palatine bone: palatine process
The movement of the mandible or shoulder girdle forward on a plane parallel to the ground is called: A) elevation B) depression C) retraction D) protraction E) opposition
D) protraction
The movement of the mandible of shoulder girdle backward on a plane parallel to the ground is called ____. A) elevation B) depression C) protraction D) retraction E) opposition
D) retraction
This type of joint is found between the first metacarpal and the trapezium. A) Plane (gliding) B) hinge C) condyloid D) saddle E) pivot
D) saddle
The neurotransmitter receptors at the motor endplate of the muscle are chemically gated channels in the membrane that open when the neurotransmitter binds to the receptors. When the neurotransmitter binds, what substance enters through these gated channels to trigger a muscle action potential? A) Acetylcholine B) ATP C) Calcium ions D) Sodium ions E) potassium ions
D) sodium ions
This butterfly-shaped bone is articulates with all the other cranial bones. It also unites the cranial and facial bones.A) A)Temporal B) Ethmoid C) zygomatic D) sphenoid E) Maxillae
D) sphenoid
Which is incorrectly matched: A) smallest muscle: stapedius B) widest muscle: latissiumus dorsi C) longest muscle: sartorius D) strongest muscle group: hamstrings E) largest muscle: gluteus maximus
D) strongest muscle group: hamstrings
Which of these muscles does NOT inserts on the greater tubercle of the humerus? A) teres minor B) supraspinatus C) infraspinatus D) subscapularis
D) subscapularis
The epiphyseal PLATE is an example functionally of a synarthrosis and anatomically an example of a(n)? A) suture B) gomphosis C) symphysis D) synchondrosis E) syndesmosis
D) synchondrosis
Has the mastoid process A) frontal B) parietal C) occipital D) temporal E) sphenoid
D) temporal
Which of these statements is FALSE? A) these are seven cervical vertebrae, twelve thoracic vertebrae, and five lumbar verterbrae. B) the thoracic vertebrae articulate with all the ribs. C) the lumbar vertebrae have large bodies to support much of the body weight. D) the sacrum forms a joint with the ischium E) The coccygeal vertebrae are fused in the adult and are the most inferior of the vertebrae.
D) the sacrum forms a joint with the ischium
When does bone remodeling NOT occur? A) during and following the healing of a fracture B) as bones grow in length and width C) as bones are subjected to mechanical stress D) to regulate calcium levels in the bone E) in response to hormones such as growth hormone, sex hormones, calcitonin, and parathyroid hormone
D) to regulate calcium levels in the bone
Which muscle or muscle group is NOT properly matched with the injury named? A) pulled hamstring: posterior compartment muscles of the thigh B) shin splints: tibialis anterior C: pulled groin: adductor group D) torn rotator cuff: supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres major, subscapularis
D) torn rotator cuff: supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres major, subscapularis
Which of the following statements is FALSE? A) cartilage grows by appositional growth using chondroblasts in the perichondrium. B) cartilage grows by interstitial growth using chondrocytes within the cartilage that divide and secrete new matrix C) use of the joints actually helps nourish the articular cartilages. D) Cartilage stops growth in the late teens and chondrocytes do not divide again. E) Cartilage heals rapidly because of the good blood supply in the perichondrium.
E) Cartilage heals rapidly because of the good blood supply in the perichondrium.
Which of the following is NOT a general rule of skeletal muscle activity? A) Almost all muscles cross at least one joint B) Typically, the bulk of the muscle lies proximal to the joint crossed. C) All muscles have at least two attachments: the origin and the insertion. D) Muscles can only pull; they never push E) During contraction, the muscle's origin moves toward the insertion
E) During contraction, the muscle's origin moves toward the insertion
Which of the following statements is False? A) Cartilage grows by appositional growth using chondroblasts in the perichondrium. B) Cartilage grows by interstitial growth using chondrocyres within the cartilage that divide and secrete new matrix. C) Cartilage is mainly water and resilient. D) To nourish your cartilage, you need to use your joints. This is called weeping lubrication. E) Once cartilage is mature, new cartilage growth is slow but constant.
E) Once cartilage is mature, new cartilage growth is slow but constant.
Limb joints are typically: A) synarthrotic and fibrous B) amphiarthrotic and synovial C) diarthrotic and cartilaginous D) amphiarthrotic and cartilaginous E) diarthrotic and synovial
E) diarthrotic and synovial
which of the following is NOT a general rule of skeletal muscle activity? A) all muscles cross at least one joint B) typically, the bulk of the muscle lies proximal to the joint crosses C) all muscles have at least two attachments: the origin and the insertion. D) muscles can only pull; they never push E) during contraction, the muscle's origin moves toward the insertion
E) during contraction, the muscle's origin moves toward the insertion
These muscles are NOT important in walking, but they are important in jumping and climbing: A) quadriceps group B) hamstrings group C) adductor group D) gluteus medius E) gluteus maximus
E) gluteus maximus
An elaborate network of membranes in skeletal muscle cells that function in calcium storage: A) T-tubules B) synaptic knobs (end bulbs) C) synaptic cleft D) sarcolemma E) sarcoplasmic reticulum
E) sarcoplasmic reticulum
In muscle cells these store calcium ions in their terminal cristernae. A) t-tubules B) synaptic and bulbs C) synaptic cleft D) sarcolemma E) sarcoplasmic reticulum
E) sarcoplasmic reticulum
Has the pterygoid processes A) frontal B) parietal C) occipital D) temporal E) sphenoid
E) sphenoid
Which of these foramina (or canals) is NOT correctly matched with its bone? A) external auditory canal: temporal B) hypoglossal canal: occipital C) olfactory foramina: ethmoid D) foramen rotundum: sphenoid E) superior orbital fissure: frontal
E) superior oribital fissure: frontal
Most people have an extra three or four small bones that develop in the joints between certain cranial bones especially in the lambdoid suture. These are called ___ bones. A) short B) flat C) irregular D) sesamoid E) sutural or wormian
E) sutural or wormian
During muscle contraction, what does NOT shorten or disappear? A) the muscle cells B) the sarcomere C) the I band D) the H zone E) the A band
E) the A band
Which statement is FALSE? A) muscles are organs B) muscles function to move bones and substances and skeletal muscles stabilize body positions C) muscle tissue has the following four characteristics: contractility, extensibility, elasticity, and excitability. D) skeletal muscles have a very good nerve and blood supply. E) the muscular system includes three types of muscle: skeletal, cardiac, and smooth
E) the muscular system includes three types of muscle: skeletal, cardiac, and smooth
This bone articulates with all the facial bones except one. A)Temporal B) Ethmoid C) zygomatic D) sphenoid E) Maxillae
E. Maxillae
During cardiopulmonary resuscitation or an accident, this part of the sternum may be driven into vital areas such as the liver. A) Spinous proccess B) styloid process C) coracoid process D) dens (or odontoid process) E) xiphoid process
Xiphoid process
During muscle contraction, what does NOT shorten or disappear? A) the sarcomere B) the thick and thin filaments C) the Hzone D) the I band E) the muscle
the thick and thin filaments
