CIS 288 Final

What is an open standard commonly used in VPNs that actually employs a suite of protocols for encrypting and authenticating IP communications?

-IPsec Internet Protocol Security (IPsec) is an open standard commonly used in Virtual Private Networks (VPNs) that actually employs a suite of protocols for encrypting and authenticating IP communications.

Which of the following are the examples of generic top-level domains (gTLDs)? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.

- .edu - .com Answer B and C are correct. Generic top-level domains (gTLDs) are one of the categories of top-level domains (TLDs) maintained by the Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA) for use in the Domain Name System of the Internet. Examples of gTLDs include .com, .net, .edu, and .gov. Answers D and A are incorrect. A country code top-level domain (ccTLD) is an Internet top-level domain generally used or reserved for a country, sovereign state, or dependent territory identified with a country code. Examples of ccTLDs include .us and .uk.

Which of the following lux ratings of a camera will differentiate objects most accurately at lower light levels?

- 0.5 lux Camera ratings range between 0.5 and 1.0 lux. The lower the stated lux rating of the camera, the better the camera is able to differentiate objects at lower light levels.

What is the range for a valid Class A IP address?

- 001.x.x.x-126.x.x.x Valid Class A addresses range between 001.x.x.x and 126.x.x.x. This allows a Class A network to support 126 different networks with nearly 17 million hosts (nodes) per network.

Henry has installed a home automation system using Zigbee technology. What is the maximum range for his home appliances to establish successful communication?

- 10-meters Answer C is correct. Henry should place his home appliances at a maximum range of 10 meters so that they can communicate successfully. The ZigBee (IEEE 802.15.4) standard is a wireless, mesh-networked PAN protocol that provides for a 10-meter communication range with data transfer rates at 250 Kbps. The ZigBee standard has been embraced by the smart home automation and industrial controls communities, as well as several areas of the smart grid consortium. Zigbee devices are used in Smart Homes, enabling the user to remotely control equipment and temperature, monitor energy consumption, and control home security

What is the range of port numbers for registered ports?

- 1024-49151 Port numbers for registered ports range from 1024 to 49151.

Which of the following port numbers does Microsoft SQL Server use?

- 1433 or 1434 Answer B is correct. Microsoft SQL Server uses port 1433 or 1434.

Which of the following are considered as registered ports? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.

- 1512 - 1433 Answers A and D are correct. Port numbers from 1024 to 49151 are registered ports assigned by the Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA). For example, Microsoft SQL Server uses ports 1433 and 1434. Microsoft Windows Internet Name Service (WINS) uses port 1512. Answers C and B are incorrect. Ports in the range 49152 to 65535 are not assigned, controlled, or registered. They are used for temporary or private ports. They are also known as private or non-reserved ports.

Which of the following port numbers does Microsoft Windows Internet Name Service use?

- 1512 Answer C is correct. Microsoft Windows Internet Name Service (WINS) uses port 1512.

Which of the following IP addresses can be used with the subnet mask of 255.255.0.0?

- 169.254.0.0 An IP address of 169.254.0.0 is used with the subnet mask of 255.255.0.0.

Which of the following IP addresses can be used with the subnet mask of 255.255.255.0?

- 192.168.0.0 Answer C is correct. An IP address of 192.168.0.0 is used with the subnet mask of 255.255.255.0.

What is the port number for Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS)?

- 443 Answer A is correct. Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS) is an extension of the Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP). It is used for secure communication over a computer network and is widely used on the Internet. It uses port number 443. Answer B is incorrect. File Transfer Protocol (FTP) uses port numbers 20 and 21. Answer C is incorrect. HyperText Transfer Protocol (HTTP) uses port number 80. Answer D is incorrect. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) uses port number 25

What is the data transfer rate for Bluetooth version 1.1 and 1.2 devices?

- 723.1 Kbps Answer A is correct. The data transfer rate for Bluetooth version 1.1 and 1.2 devices is 723.1 Kbps

What is a firmware?

- A software product enclosed in a hardware device A firmware by definition is a software product enclosed in a hardware device. It comes preinstalled in the system or on one of its devices.

Ria, a network administrator, has provided the write permission for a shared folder to an employee in her organization. Which of the following operations can be performed using this permission? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply

- Add data to an existing file. - Add new files or subfolders. -Change file and folder attributes. Answers A, B, and D are correct. Using the write permission, the employee can perform the following operations on the shared folder: Add new files or subfolders. Change file and folder attributes. Add data to an existing file. Answer C is incorrect. The modify permission enables users to delete the folder.

Which of the following user accounts has full access to the system and all its management tools?

- Administrator Administrator account is the main user account that has full access to the system and all its management tools.

Which of the statements are true about color and black-and-white closed-circuit television (CCTV) cameras? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

- Color cameras can offer a full and accurate clothing and vehicle description. - Both black-and-white and color cameras are fully capable of providing quality pictures The following statements are true about color and black-and-white closed-circuit television (CCTV) cameras: Both black-and-white and color cameras are fully capable of providing quality pictures. Color cameras can offer a full and accurate clothing and vehicle description.

Stala is working as a security specialist in an organization. She wants to install an efficient intrusion detection and reporting system in her organization. She needs a device that can accept alarms from various devices and use those alarms to trigger actions. Which of the following devices will Stala use?

- Control panel Stala will use the control panel. Control panels can accept alarms or events from various devices, such as motion detectors, surveillance cameras, access readers and use those alarms to trigger actions that focus the attention of security personnel or the central monitoring station operator. Answers A and B are incorrect. Seismic detectors and motion detectors are the types of wireless sensors. Answer C is incorrect. Siren is an output device which gets activated by the controller when an alarm condition exists.

Which of the following techniques does an attacker use to redirect the returning cookie to a third-party server?

- Cross-site scripting An attacker uses cross-site scripting technique to redirect the returning cookie to a third-party server.

Which of the following connectors is used for serial connections, allowing for the asynchronous transmission of data as provided by standard RS-232?

- DB-25 DB-25 connector is used for serial connections, allowing for the asynchronous transmission of data as provided by standard RS-232. Answer B is incorrect. The DB-9 connector was used for the first serial port on earlier PCs (COM1) as well as other communications devices. Answers C and A are incorrect. DA-15 and DE-15 connectors are the two frequently used DB-15 connectors. DA-15 is the larger female two-row connector, which is the PC game port and DE-15 is the smaller female three-row connector, which is the high-density video graphics array port.

Which practice do spammers adapt to guess email addresses at a domain and then connect to the email server of that domain?

- DHA Spammers perform directory harvest attacks (DHAs), where they simply guess email addresses at a domain and then connect to the email server of that domain

Which of the following servers is used to temporarily assign dynamic IP addresses to both network workstations and Internet clients

- DHCP DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) servers are used to temporarily assign dynamic IP addresses to both network workstations and Internet clients

Olivia is working as a telecommunication engineer in a company. She needs to replace the copper cable her company is using in the transmission network as it causes high attenuation. Which type of cable will Olivia find suitable to replace the copper cable?

- Fiber-optic Answer C is correct. Olivia should replace the copper cable with the fiber-optic cable. Light moving through a fiber-optic cable does not attenuate (lose energy) as quickly as electrical signals moving along a copper conductor. Answers B, D, and A are incorrect. Shielded twisted pair, unshielded twisted pair, and coaxial cable are the categories of copper cable. The attenuation in copper conductors is directly proportional to the frequency of the signal it carries.

Liza is working as a security specialist in an organization. One of her organization's project is involving members of an external agency. Which of the following rights must they possess to enter her organization?

- Ingress Answer C is correct. Members of the external agency must possess the right of ingress to enter the organization. Ingress is defined as the right of an individual to enter a property. Answer B is incorrect. Regress is the term used to describe the legal right to re-enter a property. Answers A and D are incorrect. Egress is the legal right to leave a property. Egress is also referred as outgress.

Which configuration options does a managed switch offer that are designed to prevent MITM attacks? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.

- Dynamic ARP Inspection -DHCP snooping Answers A and C are correct. Managed switches offer DHCP snooping and Dynamic ARP Inspection (DAI) configuration options that are designed to prevent man-in-the-middle (MITM) attacks. DHCP snooping is used to filter and block ingress (incoming) DHCP server messages and build an IP-to-MAC address database. DAI uses the DHCP snooping database to check and validate ARP requests to prevent ARP spoofing attacks. Answer B is incorrect. IP Source Guard provides source IP address filtering on a Layer 2 port to prevent a malicious host from impersonating a legitimate host by assuming the legitimate host's IP address. Answer D is incorrect. IP spoofing is a technique used to gain unauthorized access to machines, whereby an attacker illicitly impersonates another machine by manipulating IP packets.

Which cable is designed to carry digital data in the form of light pulses?

- Fiber-optic Answer C is correct. Fiber-optic cable is a plastic or glass cable designed to carry digital data in the form of light pulses.

What risks are involved with the usage of removable computer media? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two

- Introduction of destructive malware into the host system - Potential loss of data through theft Answers A and C are correct. Removable computer media is a form of computer storage that is designed to be inserted and removed from a system. Removable computer media presents multiple security risks. These risks include the potential loss of data through theft due to the portable nature of the media, as well as the potential to introduce destructive malware into the host system. Answer D is incorrect. Removable computer media derives power from the host computer, which never causes any risks. Answer B is incorrect. Users don't need to download additional software to transfer files in and out of removable computer media.

What risks are involved with the usage of removable computer media? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.

- Introduction of destructive malware into the host system - Potential loss of data through theft Removable computer media is a form of computer storage that is designed to be inserted and removed from a system. Removable computer media presents multiple security risks. These risks include the potential loss of data through theft due to the portable nature of the media, as well as the potential to introduce destructive malware into the host system. Answer C is incorrect. Removable computer media derives power from the host computer, which never causes any risks. Answer A is incorrect. Users don't need to download additional software to transfer files in and out of removable computer media

Which of the following statements is true about packet filtering?

- It is the process of passing or blocking network packets based on their source and destination addresses, logical ports, or protocols. Answer D is correct. Packet filtering is the process of passing or blocking network packets based on their source and destination addresses, logical ports, or protocols. Answer C is incorrect. A web application firewall filters, monitors, and blocks HTTP traffic to and from a web application. Answer B is incorrect. Stateful inspection monitors the state of active connections and uses this information to determine which network packets to allow through the firewall. Answer A is incorrect. A proxy server provides network address translation, which makes the individual users and computers on the network anonymous when they are using the Internet.

John is a government security agent and his work is to protect the asset from the intruders. This can be accomplished by prohibiting the access of unauthorized personnel to assets. Which of the following he must limit to accomplish this purpose?

- Rights Answer D is correct. John must limit the rights to protect the asset from the intruders. A right is a legal privilege or permission granted to someone, or some group, by some recognized source of authority. Answer B is incorrect. Badges are used to control access. Answer C is incorrect. Barriers are part of the building's external structure that encloses the entire interior environment. Answer A is incorrect. Security policies define who is authorized to access different assets.

Which device is used in the network layer of the OSI model?

- Route Routers are used in the network layer of the OSI model.

Which server manages various transmission speeds and different protocols used within a network?

- Router Answer A is correct. Router servers manage the shared resources of all other routers in the network, as well as the various transmission speeds and different protocols being used within an organization's network. Answer B is incorrect. Proxy servers act as intermediaries between network computers and the Internet. Answer C is incorrect. Application servers run programs accessed by multiple users, and they often interact with informational databases. Answer D is incorrect. Print servers help to decrease the administrative and management workload by streamlining both local and remote printer control

Which of the following statements are true about the operating system? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.

-It works as the interface between the user and the hardware. -It is a program designed to control and coordinate the operation of the computer system Answers B and C are correct. The following statements are true about the operating system: It is a program designed to control and coordinate the operation of the computer system. It works as the interface between the user and the hardware. Answers D and A are incorrect. The application software is a software designed to perform a group of coordinated functions, tasks, or activities. It is capable of dealing with user inputs and helps the user to complete the task.

Rhea's organization wants to establish a secure connection with a trusted supplier. She has decided to establish a Virtual Private Network (V between the two company networks. Which of the following protocols are combined to accomplish this goal? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose two.

-L2TP -IPSec Answers A and B are correct. Virtual Private Networks (VPNs) can be established by using IPsec with Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP). L2TP does not provide confidentiality or strong authentication by itself. IPsec is often used to secure L2TP packets by providing confidentiality, authentication, and integrity. The combination of these two protocols is generally known as L2TP/IPsec. Answer D is incorrect. The Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) is an application-layer protocol used to manage and monitor network devices and their functions. It is considered as insecure because SNMP messages are not encrypted. Answer C is incorrect. The Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP) is an Internet standard protocol used by email clients to retrieve email messages from a mail server over a TCP/IP connection. Despite built-in security features, IMAP is extremely vulnerable to malicious attacks.

What is the maximum power for Bluetooth class 1 devices?

- 100 mW Answer C is correct. Bluetooth class 1 devices operate at maximum power of 100 mW (20 dBm).

Which protocol is used to send an email?

- SMTP Answer B is correct. Email is communicated using the Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP).

Which method creates a connection between a remote host and a local device through which services can be relayed?

- SSH tunneling Answer B is correct. SSH tunneling creates a connection between a remote host and a local device or computer through which services can be relayed

Which user authentication protocol WPA uses to provide increased security?

- TKIP Answer B is correct. WPA uses the Temporary Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP) and IEEE 802.1X Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP) user authentication protocol to provide increased security

What is a broadband wireless access standard designed to provide Internet access across large geographic areas?

- WiMAX Answer A is correct. WiMAX is a broadband wireless access standard designed to provide Internet access across large geographic areas such as cities, counties, and in some cases countries.

Which protocol offers a single login system that can lead to access to many services?

-LDAP The Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) offers a single login system that can lead to access to many services

Which attack exploits the prime number sieve used in the key-generation process?

-Logjam The logjam attack exploits the prime number sieve used in the key-generation process, forcing it to use a 512-bit prime.

What is another name for tarpitting?

-Sticky honeypot Tarpitting is sometimes known as a sticky honeypot.

Which layer of the OSI model does a DDoS attack target?

-Transport A distributed DoS (DDoS) attack targets transport and network layers.

What is a mature, open-source, and cross-platform network protocol analyzer?

-Wireshark Wireshark is a mature, open-source, and cross-platform network protocol analyzer.

Which protocol segments a network to minimize the risks of a broadcast storm?

Spanning-tree protocol (STP) segments a network to minimize the risks of a broadcast storm.

Which attack involves intercepting and modifying communication between users?

The man-in-the-middle attack involves intercepting and modifying communication between users

What is a packet analyzer that helps the user to view traffic flows and troubleshoot network problems?

- Microsoft Network Monitor Microsoft Network Monitor is a packet analyzer that helps the user to view traffic flows and troubleshoot network problems

William is a network administrator in an organization. To efficiently manage his organization's network, he has used an application that exam traffic and generates a customized report. Which of the following computer application has he used?

- Packet analyzer Answer D is correct. William has used packet analyzer, which is an application that examines network traffic and generates a customized report. A packet analyzer is a computer application used to track, intercept, and log the network traffic that passes over a digital network. Answer B is incorrect. A proxy server is a barrier that prevents outsiders from entering a local area network and prevents insiders from directly connecting to outside resources. Answer A is incorrect. A honeypot is a decoy server, network device, or network segment designed to attract attackers away from the real network. Answer C is incorrect. The demilitarized zone (DMZ) is a separate perimeter network that isolates the secure intranet from the outside world, yet enables public access to outward-facing dedicated resources.

What is a barrier that prevents outsiders from entering a local area network and prevents insiders from directly connecting to outside resources?

- Proxy server A proxy server is a barrier that prevents outsiders from entering a local area network and prevents insiders from directly connecting to outside resources.

Which of the following functionalities can be a way to allocate bandwidth effectively on a busy network?

- QoS Quality of Service (QoS) can be a way to share or allocate bandwidth effectively on a busy network.

Which of the following processes selects the best pathway for transmitting data over a network?

- Routing Answer C is correct. Routing is the process of selecting the best pathway for transmitting data over a network or between networks.

Which of the following wireless standards is also known as Wireless Fidelity?

- IEEE 802.11x Answer C is correct. The IEEE 802.11x wireless standard is also known as Wireless Fidelity or Wi-Fi.

Which type of locks can be used with swinging, sliding, power-operated, and vertical-lift doors, as well as on fence gates?

- Electronic deadbolts Electronic deadbolts can be used with swinging, sliding, power-operated, and vertical-lift doors, as well as on fence gates.

Which process refers to the conversion of electronic data into a form called ciphertext?

- Encryption Encryption is the conversion of electronic data into a form called ciphertext.

Which term involves applying physical security initiatives to provide security for the basic physical and organizational architectures needed for the operation of an enterprise, an organization, or a society?

- Infrastructure security The term infrastructure security involves applying physical security initiatives to provide security for the basic physical and organizational structures needed for the operation of an enterprise, an organization, or a society.

In a security controller connection, which device should be placed within the loop to regulate the current flow to the correct level for the controller being used?

- Resistor In a security controller connection, a resistor should be placed within the loop to regulate the current flow to the correct level for the controller being used (different controller models typically require different resistance levels)

Which term denotes the media's capacity to carry data?

- Bandwidth Answer A is correct. Bandwidth is the media's capacity to carry data.

Bella is working as a security manager in XYZ Inc. She has advised the employees of her organization to use password encryption practices to enhance the level of security in their systems. What practices must they follow for this purpose? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply

- Always supply a password to an account and change it upon first login -Do not use default passwords. -Enforce password policies at all levels of an organization. Answers A, C, and D are correct. Password encryption is the process of taking a standard password and applying an algorithm to it in such a way as to make it meaningless to sniffers, crackers, or other eavesdroppers. Here are the best password encryption practices: Do not use default passwords. Enforce password policies at all levels of an organization. Always supply a password to an account and change it upon first login. Answer B is incorrect. We should not use restricted data for initial or "first-time" passwords. Restricted data includes, but is not limited to, social security number, name, date of birth, and so on. This type of data should not be used completely or in part to formulate an initial password.

Which of the following products used to protect personal computers checks disks and files before using them in the computer?

- Antivirus program An antivirus (virus-scanning) program checks disks and files before using them in the computer.

What is the act of adding a set of characters to the end of another set of characters?

- Appending Appending is the act of adding a set of characters to the end of another set of characters.

Which server runs programs accessed by multiple users and interacts with informational databases?

- Application Application servers run programs accessed by multiple users and interact with informational databases

Which layer of the TCP/IP determines how data is received and processed?

- Application Answer A is correct. The application layer of the TCP/IP determines how data is received and processed.

Which of the following are the components of the inner perimeter of ICS devices? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.

- Application program - Operating system The inner perimeter of an Internet connection sharing (ICS) device is comprised up of operating system and application programs. Answer C is incorrect. Data files and folders are included in the interior of the device. Answer A is incorrect. The outer perimeter of an ICS device includes hard drives.

Which firewall is configured to view entire packets for consistency and appropriate ports?

- Application-level Proxy-filtering firewalls or application-level firewalls are configured to view entire packets for consistency, type of application, and appropriate ports.

Ryan is working as a network security manager in XYZ Inc. He is well aware of the fact that many harmful malware attacks take advantage of software vulnerabilities in common applications, like operating systems and browsers. Which of the following is a solution to avoid such attacks?

- Applying security patches Answer D is correct. Ryan should apply security patches to common applications, like operating systems and browsers. Security patches are updates issued for the specific purpose of correcting an observed weakness to prevent exploitation of the vulnerability. Answer C is incorrect. Scripts encountered on websites should be controlled because they are one of the main sources of virus infections. Attackers reconfigure scripts to contain viruses that clients may download unwittingly. Answer B is incorrect. If a website uses cookies for authentication, then an attacker may be able to acquire unauthorized access to that site by obtaining the cookie. This is referred to as cookie theft. Answer A is incorrect. When the ActiveX-enabled browser encounters a web page calling for an ActiveX control function, it automatically downloads without involving the user. This creates a potential security vulnerability that can be used by crackers to embed malicious code in hacked websites.

What is a measure of how much signal loss occurs as the information moves across the medium?

- Attenuation Answer A is correct. Attenuation is a measure of how much signal loss occurs as the information moves across the medium.

Which component of auditing systems defines the types of events that will be monitored and added to the system's security logs?

- Audit policy Audit policy (or audit rules) defines the types of events that will be monitored and added to the system's security logs.

What is a security function of the operating system that enables the user and operating system activities performed on a computer to be monitored and tracked?

- Auditing Auditing is a security function of the operating system that enables the user and operating system activities performed on a computer to be monitored and tracked.

Which term denotes applying approval of access to information, after an individual authenticates?

- Authorization Authorization is applying approval of access to information, after an individual authenticates

Ryan noticed that while powering on his computer, some special programs load the computer's operating system. Which of the following is responsible for this?

- BIOS BIOS stands for Basic Input/Output System. It is primarily responsible for containing a special program that loads the computer's operating system and helps the computer processor to detect and control the hardware components such as disk drives, video cards, sound cards, network cards, disk drives, ports, USB, hard drives, and so on. Answer A is incorrect. CMOS stands for Complementary Metal Oxide Semiconductor, and it houses the setting configurations. It is powered by the onboard battery. If the battery runs out of power, the CMOS with revert to factory mode. Answer D is incorrect. The operating system resides in the hard drive and provides the user interface that can be seen on the screen after start up. Answer C is incorrect. The bootloader is a piece of code that runs before any operating system is running.

Which group account allows its members to restore all files on the computer?

- Backup operators Answer A is correct. Members of the backup operators group can back up and restore all files on the computer. Through the backup utility, members of this group have access to the system's entire file system. Answer B is incorrect. Power users is a special group that has permissions to perform many management tasks on the system but does not have the full administrative privileges of the administrator account. Answer C is incorrect. Members of the administrators group have full access to the computer and its tools and can perform all management functions. Answer D is incorrect. Remote desktop users have rights to log on to the system remotely to perform remote desktop activities.

Richard, a network specialist, has decided to implement network segmentation in his organization's communication network. Which of the following advantages of network segmentation can be the reason behind this decision? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

- Better Access Control - - Improved Performance - Improved Monitoring Answers A, B, and C are correct. Network segmentation is essentially the separation of the network into subnetworks, each of which becomes a segment. The following advantages of network segmentation is the reason behind Richard's decision: Improved Monitoring: With fewer hosts per subnet, local traffic is minimized. Broadcast traffic can be isolated to the local subnet. Improved Performance: Provides an opportunity to log events, monitor allowed and denied internal connections, and detect suspicious behavior. Better Access Control: Allow users to only access specific network resources. Answer D is incorrect. Network segmentation requires expensive memory management algorithms, which is a drawback of its implementation. So, it cannot be considered as the reason behind Richard's decision of implementing network segmentation in his organization.

Which of the following devices converts the physiological quantity into a digital representation?

- Biometric scanner A biometric scanner converts the physiological quantity into a digital representation. Biometric authentication involves using uniquely personal physiological characteristics to verify people are who they say they are.

Full disk-level encryption is provided on some high-end Windows OS versions through a native utility called:

- BitLocker. Full disk-level encryption is provided on some high-end Windows OS versions through a native utility called Bitlocker

Ryan is a network administrator in XYZ Inc. His organization recently faced an attack where spammers have send out millions of junk email messages from the infected PCs. Which malware threat is used to carry out such an attack?

- Botnet Answer C is correct. Ryan's organization has faced an attack in which spammers have employed botnets to send out millions of junk email messages from the infected PCs. Botnets can be used to perform distributed denial-ofservice attack (DDoS attack), steal data, send spam, and allows the attacker to access the device and its connection. These are a large collection of zombies, or bots, controlled by a bot herder. This type of network can consist of literally millions of unsuspecting computers. Answer A is incorrect. Logic bombs are a type of malware typically used to delete data. A logic bomb is computer code that, much like other malware, is attached to a legitimate program. Answer B is incorrect. Ransomware is a software designed to keep the user from their data and hold it hostage for payment. Answer D is incorrect. Rootkits are a type of software designed to gain administrative control of a computer system while remaining undetected.

Mia has recently been experiencing an excess of traffic flow over her LAN network. Michael, her friend, suggested her to use a device that reduces the traffic flow with the help of a MAC address table. Which device was suggested to her?

- Bridge Answer D is correct. Mia was suggested to use a bridge in her LAN network. Bridges use the MAC addresses to build a bridging table of MAC addresses and port locations for hosts connected to the bridge ports. The bridge monitors the data on its ports to check for an association between the destination MAC address of the Ethernet frames to any of the hosts connected to its ports. An association indicates that the destination MAC address for a host is connected to one of the ports on the bridge. If an association is found, the data is forwarded to that port. Answer A is incorrect. A repeater is an electronic device that receives a signal and retransmits it. It extends the range of a network while a bridge ties two networks together. Answer B is incorrect. A hub is an elementary networking device, as it provides very simple functionality of establishing a connection between the several devices. It doesn't reduce the traffic flow over a LAN network. Answer C is incorrect. A gateway allows two different network using different protocols to communicate with each other, whereas a bridge checks the destination address on the received frame and forwards the frame to the address it belongs.

Which term refers to sending messages to all possible destinations?

- Broadcast messaging Answer B is correct. Broadcast messaging refers to sending messages to all possible destinations

In which topology do the nodes of the network connect to a central communication link?

- Bus In the bus topology, the nodes or stations of the network connect to a central communication link

Ted is working in an organization. He is trying to access an application using port 80 but he's unable to establish the connection. How will Ted get access to the application?

- By supplying the port number in his connection URL Answer C is correct. Ted will supply the port number, which his organization is using in his connection URL to get access to the application. He can supply that port number using the following steps: Determine the port the server uses for connections. Get the correct domain needed for establishing a connection. Connect to the server using the correct port.

Which type of network is a combination of interconnected local area networks inside a limited geographical area?

- CAN Campus area networks or corporate area networks (CANs) are combinations of interconnected local area networks inside a limited geographical area.

Which term is used to describe the legal right to leave a property?

- Egress Egress is defined as the legal right to leave a property

What is the maximum number of devices that can be grouped together under the Bluetooth specification to form a piconet?

- Eight Answer D is correct. Under the Bluetooth specification, up to eight devices can be grouped together to form a piconet.

Stella has used Ethernet to connect computers in her local area network so that the data can be sent anytime in the communication network. Which of the following protocols has made this type of communication successful?

- CSMA/CD Answer D is correct. CSMA/CD (Carrier Sense Multiple Access/ Collision Detection) is a media-access control method widely used in Ethernet technology/LANs. It stops computers from sending information on the same ethernet wire at the same time. With this rule, a computer will check that the wire is not being used before it sends information. This ability to check is called "carrier sense." This rule is used when many computers can use the same connection. This is called "multiple access." If computers do send information at the same time, computers can tell a mistake has been made and stop sending. This is called "collision detection." When this collision occurs, the computers stop sending information, wait for a random amount of time, and then check before resending the information. Answer C is incorrect. TCP/IP is a family of protocols based on IP, located at least two layers above the physical layer. Their purposes include routing packetized network traffic over vast networks, disassembling and reassembling data streams, and providing comfortable socket services for applications. Answer A is incorrect. Aloha refers to a simple communications scheme in which each source (transmitter) in a network sends data whenever there is a frame to send. If the frame successfully reaches the destination (receiver), the next frame is sent. Answer B is incorrect. CSMA/CA operates by sensing the state of the medium to prevent or recover from a collision. A collision happens when two transmitters transmit at the same time. The data gets scrambled, and the receivers would not be able to discern one from the other thereby causing the information to get lost.

Stella is working as a cybersecurity specialist in an organization. Her organization is facing a security threat and she needs to get information about this threat and the best way to prevent it. Which of the following can help her to choose the most appropriate solutions for her need?

- CVE Answer B is correct. Stella should refer to the Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures (CVEs) to find out the most appropriate solution for the security threat and its prevention. CVEs consist of CVE Identifiers, which are unique, common identifiers for publicly known information security vulnerabilities. By using the CVE Identifier (CVE ID) for a particular vulnerability or exposure, organizations can quickly and accurately obtain information from a variety of CVE-Compatible information sources. By facilitating better comparisons between different security tools and services, CVE can help an organization choose the most appropriate solution for its needs. Answer C is incorrect. Security Content Automation Protocol (SCAP) is a method of using various open standards for evaluating vulnerabilities and measuring the potential impact of these vulnerabilities. Answer D is incorrect. Open Vulnerability and Assessment Language (OVAL) is a security community standard for communicating security information such as configuration, vulnerabilities, patch levels, and so on. Answer A is incorrect. Common Platform Enumeration (CPE) is a standardized method of describing and identifying the operating system, hardware devices, and application classes on the network

Which type of locks are used in access-control and management systems?

- Cipher Locks Cipher locks requiring personal access codes known by the user are often used in access-control and management systems. These locks operate by unlocking magnetic door locks when the correct programmed code is entered by the user on the cipher-lock keypad.

Andrew is a security administrator in an organization. All the departments in his organization have lockable doors that have manually operated door locks. He decided to replace these manually operated door locks with door locks that require access codes known by the members of the departments. Which type of lock will Andrew choose to accomplish this task?

- Cipher locks Answer A is correct. Andrew will choose cipher locks. These locks are magnetic door locks, which gets unlocked when the correct programmed code is entered by the user on the cipher-lock keypad. They provide an added level of security for perimeter entry areas. Answer B is incorrect. Key-locking deadbolts have a locking mechanism similar to that of the electronic solenoid-operated deadbolt but are engaged or withdrawn with a key. Answer C is incorrect. The solenoid-operated deadbolt lock is characterized by the use of a solenoid, which is typically controlled by a remotely located switch or through an electronic access-control system. Answer D is incorrect. A cam lock is a type of lock that uses the actuator as the bolt mechanism.

Which class of IP address is used with smaller LANs?

- Class C Class C addresses are normally used with smaller LANs

Ryan needs a cable to connect DVD players, speakers, digital cable set-top boxes. Which cable is suitable for this purpose?

- Co-axial Answer A is correct. Ryan must use coaxial cable to connect DVD players, speakers, digital cable set-top boxes. It is constructed with an insulated solid or stranded wire core surrounded by a dielectric insulating layer and a solid or braided metallic shield. The specialty of the coaxial cable is that it can ward off external interferences and transmit a strong signal without loss of quality. Answer D is incorrect. Twisted pair cables are used in telephone networks, data networks, and cable shielding. Answer B is incorrect. Fiber optic cables are widely used in data centers where a large volume of data needs to be transmitted. Answer C is incorrect. Ethernet cables are used on wired networks to connect devices like PCs, routers, and switches to LANs

Stella is working as a cybersecurity specialist in XYZ Inc. She realizes that her organization is facing security risks as all the employees and visitors are allowed to have free access to all the departments inside the organization. Which of the following should Stella develop to reduce the risk?

- Cohesive access-control policy Answer D is correct. Stella should develop a cohesive access-control policy at each level within the organization. The cohesive access-control policy provides authorized people with appropriate levels of access to selected assets while inhibiting access to assets by people who are not authorized. Answer C is incorrect. Access-control measure controls the physical access by using methods such as placing locks on doors that access offices and separating departments with similar physical barriers, whereas cohesive access-control policies controls the virtual access. Answer B is incorrect. Authentication methods are used to grant the authorization to the employees and visitors in an organization, whereas cohesive access-control policy limits employee's access to selected assets. Answer A is incorrect. Perimeter control determines who can walk or drive across the perimeter, whereas cohesive access-control policy provides authorized people with appropriate levels of access

Which cookie enables the user to identify and track his movements within the website?

- Session A session cookie enables the user to identify and track his movements within the website.

Stark is the manager of the application team in an organization. One of his team members often makes some coding mistakes that do not work well with other elements in the program. Which attack can an attacker introduce using such a situation?

- DOS Answer A is correct. An attacker can introduce Denial of Service (DOS) attack in the software using such a situation. When programmers initially develop a product, they may make coding mistakes or create portions of a product that do not work well with elements created by other programmers in the development team. This creates vulnerabilities in the final product which attackers use to insert and hide malicious code that can be used to disrupt services or operations. Due to this, the system becomes effectively disabled to the point where the user cannot use it. This is a type of Denial of Service (DOS) attack. Answer B is incorrect. Brute force attacks use a technique of attempting to try every combination of passwords/keys to gain access to a particular system. Answer D is incorrect. A buffer overflow, or buffer overrun, is a common software coding mistake that an attacker could exploit to gain access to your system. Answer C is incorrect. A dictionary attack is a method of breaking into a password-protected computer or server by systematically entering every word in a dictionary as a password

What is an example of optical storage media?

- DVD drive Optical storage media includes CD and DVD drives and discs.

Which layer of the OSI model controls how the data is packaged and moved between communication points?

- Data link The data link layer controls how the data is packaged and moved between communication points. At this layer, the data is formatted into frames suited for transmission.

What is a separate perimeter network that isolates the secure intranet from the outside world, yet enables public access to outward-facing dedicated resources?

- Demilitarized zone Answer B is correct. The Demilitarized zone (DMZ) is a separate perimeter network that isolates the secure intranet from the outside world, yet enables public access to outward-facing dedicated resources.

Which attack is designed to overuse a host, server, or network resource to the point where it functionally ceases to provide its services?

- Denial of service Answer A is correct. Denial of service (DoS) attacks are designed to overuse a host, server, or network resource to the point where it functionally ceases to provide its services.

Stephen, the CEO of an organization, has decided to implement an Extranet in his organization. What benefits does his organization get by implementing such a network? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

- Develop and use training progra - Share product catalogs exclusiv - Exchange large volumes of data Answers A, B, and C are correct. Stephen's organization will get the following benefits by implementing extranet: Share product catalogs exclusively with trade partners. Develop and use training programs with other organizations. Exchange large volumes of data using Electronic Data Interchange (EDI). Answer D is incorrect. Extranets can be expensive to implement and maintain within an organization.

Which of the following elements does territorial reinforcement employ to prevent unauthorized entry? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

- Devices - Systems - Structures Answers A, B, and C are correct. Territorial reinforcement employs structures, systems, and devices to prevent unauthorized entry. Territorial reinforcement produces an environment that clearly defines private space, creating a sense of ownership. Answer D is incorrect. Security policies state how security is implemented at each level within an infrastructure

Which attack can be eliminated by limiting the number of login attempts that can be performed in a given period of time?

- Dictionary A dictionary attack is a systematic, brute-force attack using every word in a dictionary as a password. This type of attack can be eliminated by limiting the number of login attempts that can be performed in a given period of time.

Henry needs to connect his laptop to multiple peripheral devices simultaneously. Which accessory will Henry use to accomplish this task?

- Docking station Henry will use a docking station. The docking station is a piece of hardware that contains the ports that will be needed by the machine to perform certain tasks such as printers, plotters, monitors, and many other computer controlled devices. Docking stations enable users with a laptop computer to convert it into a desktop computer. Answer B is incorrect. A port replicator is a device that plugs into a single port, such as USB. But gives you access to common ports like serial, USB, and parallel. Answer D is incorrect. An eSATA is a physical interface that links the eSATA-compatible device with the system's internal SATA bus. Answer A is incorrect. The Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) offers basic hardware security options that can be set through its BIOS Setup utility

Which of the following is a unique realm assigned by a registrar?

- Domain Answer D is correct. Domains are unique realms assigned by an agent, known as a registrar, which has been authorized by the Internet Corporation for Assigned Names and Numbers (ICANN)

Microwave beam devices are based on which phenomenon?

- Doppler effect Microwave beam devices are based on the Doppler effect phenomenon, which observes frequency changes in energy waves in motion relative to a listener or receiver

Ria has installed Autorun in her computer due to which malware programs located on the media are running automatically and infecting the computer. Which of the following actions will Ria perform to remove this threat? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.

- Download an app to turn off Autorun. - Modify the Windows registry to turn off Autorun. Answers C and D are correct. The Autorun feature of Microsoft's operating systems poses a very serious security threat as malware programs located on the media will run automatically and infect the host device. Ria should perform the following actions to remove the security threat: Modify the Windows registry to turn off Autorun. Download an app to turn off Autorun. Answer A is incorrect. Auto Insert Notification (AIN) should be disabled to prevent a program from automatically running. Answer B is incorrect. Changing the Autorun value to 1 (not 0) using Registry Editor disables the Autorun feature

Henry is working as a cybersecurity manager in an organization. To protect the organization's computers from outside attacks, he wants to use a system that will only pass data to and from designated IP addresses and TCP/UDP ports. Which of the following systems will help Henry in this scenario?

- Firewall Answer D is correct. Henry will use a firewall to protect the computers from outside attacks. A firewall is designed to filter out the IP packets that are coming from the network to the computer. It is placed between a local device and an outside network such as the Internet. It will only pass data to and from designated IP addresses and TCP/UDP ports. Answer A is incorrect. An Intrusion Detection System (IDS) is a software or hardware device installed on the network (NIDS) or host (HIDS) to detect and report intrusion attempts to the network. Answer C is incorrect. An intrusion prevention system (IPS) is a system that monitors a network for malicious activities such as security threats or policy violations. Answer B is incorrect. An antivirus is an application software which provides security against the malicious programs coming from the internet.

Which lens allows a user to see an entire room, but with some distortion in the image?

- Fish eye A Fish eye lens allows a user to see an entire room, but with some distortion in the image

Jack, a network specialist, needs a device, which allows Windows NT network to communicate with a NetWare network. Which device will Jack use to accomplish the task?

- Gateway Answer B is correct. Jack will use a gateway to join, which allows a Windows NT network to communicate with a NetWare network. Although a gateway can be used to reduce network traffic, it's more often used to make communication possible in dissimilar environments. Answer A is incorrect. A bridge is a network device that provides interconnection with other bridge networks that use the same protocol. Answer C is incorrect. A modem allows a device to communicate with another remote device by converting digital data into analog data and transmitting it over an analog telephone line. Answer D is incorrect. A router regulates traffic between similar networks, whereas gateway regulates traffic between two dissimilar networks.

Which server provides interfacing between different types of networks, protocols, or mechanisms to provide access to another system?

- Gateway Gateway servers provide interfacing between different types of networks, protocols, or mechanisms to provide access to another system

Which of the following file systems is developed as the primary file system for Mac line of computers?

- HFS The Hierarchical File Systems (HFS) are proprietary Apple file systems developed as the primary file system for their Mac line of computers using macOS. It is also used in Apple's line of iPod music devices.

Olvin wants to minimize his computer OS's exposure to threats. Which process will help him accomplish this task?

- Hardening Answer C is correct. Hardening will help Olvin to minimize his computer OS's exposure to threats. Hardening refers to the process of making a system more secure. Computer hardening efforts begin with hardware, but also extend to the local host's operating system, its file system, and its applications. Answer B is incorrect. Multitasking is a method to allow multiple processes to share processors (CPUs) and other system resources. Each CPU executes a single task at a time. Answer D is incorrect. Packet filtering controls access to a network by analyzing the incoming and outgoing packets and letting them pass or halting them based on the IP addresses of the source and destination. Answer A is incorrect. Backtracking is an attack that exploits poorly secured software applications to access files that should not be accessible.

Which term refers to the process of making a system more secure?

- Hardening The term hardening is used to refer to the process of making a system more secure. Computer hardening efforts begin with hardware, but also extend to the local host's operating system, its file system, and its applications.

What is the process of taking steps to close as many known vulnerabilities as possible while still offering an acceptable usability level to the network's users?

- Hardening Hardening is the process of taking steps to close as many known vulnerabilities as possible while still offering an acceptable usability level to the network's users

Stephen is working as a network designer in an organization. He has observed that an error has occurred multiple times in his organization's communication network, which he reported to the Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF). How will the IETF handle such an issue?

- Implement an RFC, mentioning the error Answer A is correct. The Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF) will implement Request for Comments (RFCs) mentioning the use of the standard protocol for removing the error. The mission of the IETF is to make the Internet work better by producing high quality, relevant technical documents that influence the way people design, use, and manage the Internet. RFCs cover many aspects of computer networking, including protocols, procedures, programs, and concepts, as well as meeting notes, opinions, and sometimes humor.

Which of the following are advantages of using NAT? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

- Increases flexibility when connecting to the internet - Reduces address overlap occurrence - Conserves legally registered address Answers A, B, and D are correct. Network Address Translation (NAT) is the process where a network device, usually a firewall, assigns a public address to a computer (or group of computers) inside a private network. It conserves global addresses, which allow users to add millions of hosts to the Internet. This provides flexibility in our corporate networks. NAT also allows users to use the same subnet more than once in the same network without overlapping networks. Answer C is incorrect. Some TCP/IP applications like peer to peer application, end to end IPSec, multicast routing protocol do not work well with NAT.

What are the advantages of shielded twisted pair cable? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

- It can be easily terminated with modular connector. - It reduces chances of crosstalk and provides protection from interference - It offers better electrical characteristics than unshielded cables. Answers A, B, and C are correct. Shielded twisted pair (STP) cables have a conducting shield made of metallic foil encasing the twisted wire pairs, which blocks out electromagnetic interference, allowing it to carry data at a faster rate of speed. Following are the advantages of shielded twisted pair (STP): It reduces chances of crosstalk and provides protection from interference. It offers better electrical characteristics than unshielded cables. It can be easily terminated with modular connector. Answer D is incorrect. Shielding increases the overall diameter and weight of the shielded twisted pair (STP) cable. Hence it is more difficult to install them

Which of the following statements are true about antivirus programs? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.

- It checks disks and files before using them in the computer - It includes utilities to check emails and files downloaded to the computer through Internet connections Answers B and D are correct. Antivirus software, sometimes known as anti-malware software, is designed to detect, prevent, and take action to remove malicious software from user's computer such as viruses, worms, and Trojan horses. The following statements are true about antivirus programs: It checks disks and files before using them in the computer. It includes utilities to check emails and files downloaded to the computer through Internet connections. Answers C and A are incorrect. Antispyware programs are designed to detect and remove unwanted spyware programs. It works proactively to block ransomware before it has a chance to encrypt user's data

Which of the following statements are true about zoning? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

- It enables the system to instantly sound an alarm for intrusion detection in a specific area. -It enables security personnel to arm only portions of the system, such as the perimeter doors and windows The following are correct statements about zoning: It enables the system to instantly sound an alarm for intrusion detection in a specific area. It enables security personnel to arm only portions of the system, such as the perimeter doors and windows. Answer A is incorrect. Key fobs enable security personnel to arm and disarm a security system with a push of a button. Answer C is incorrect. Panic buttons allow immediate triggering of an alarm system when facing an emergency situation.

Which of the following statements are true about the Password Authentication Protocol (PAP)? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.

- It is a password-based authentication protocol used by Point to Point Protocol (PPP) to validate users. - It is a form of authentication, in which a user's name and password are transmitted over a network and compared to a table of name-pa pairs. Answers A and C are correct. The following are the correct statements about the Password Authentication Protocol (PAP): It is a password-based authentication protocol used by Point to Point Protocol (PPP) to validate users. It is a form of authentication, in which a user's name and password are transmitted over a network and compared to a table of namepassword pairs. Answer B is incorrect. All network operating system remote servers support PAP. Answer D is incorrect. PAP is not considered a strong authentication protocol as it doesn't support encryption

Which of the following statements are true about the operating system? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.

- It is a program designed to control and coordinate the operation of the computer system - It works as the interface between the user and the hardware. The following statements are true about the operating system: It is a program designed to control and coordinate the operation of the computer system. It works as the interface between the user and the hardware. Answers B and C are incorrect. The application software is a software designed to perform a group of coordinated functions, tasks, or activities. It is capable of dealing with user inputs and helps the user to complete the task

Which statement is true about the Denial of Service (DoS) attack?

- It is designed to overuse a host, server, or network resource to the point where it functionally ceases to provide its services. Answer A is correct. DoS attacks are designed to overuse a host, server, or network resource to the point where it functionally ceases to provide its services. Depending on the exact nature of the attack, the failure may be temporary or indefinite. Answer C is incorrect. Rerouting attacks are enabled by an attacker gaining access to the routing tables in a network router and reconfiguring it to redirect IP packets to alternative locations. Answer B is incorrect. Masquerade attacks involve an attacker manipulating IP packets to create a false IP address so they can gain access to the network or inject false data into it. Answer D is incorrect. Man-in-the-middle attacks involve an attacker secretly altering the communications between two parties who believe they are directly communicating with each other.

Which of the following statements is true about the external network in single-firewall Demilitarized Zones (DMZs)?

- It is formed from the ISP to the firewall in the first network interface. Answer A is correct. The external network is formed from the ISP to the firewall in the first network interface. Answer B is incorrect. The internal network is formed in the second network interface. Answer C is incorrect. The DMZ is formed in the third network interface. Answer D is incorrect. The fourth network interface doesn't exist in single-firewall Demilitarized Zones (DMZs)

Kate, a network security specialist, has implemented WPA-PSK authentication in her small office network. Why would she choose this security mechanism over the others?

- It is simple to implement. Answer D is correct. Kate should choose Wi-Fi Protected Access Pre-Shared Key (WPA-PSK) as it is simple to implement. It is used to authenticate and validate users on a wireless LAN (WLAN) or Wi-Fi connection. This type of authentication mechanism is most suitable for small networks as it does not require an authentication server and manual user configuration. Answers C, A, and B are incorrect. WPA2 Enterprise authentication supports Network Access Protection (NAP). It eliminates the security risks of shared passwords and also enables enhanced security methods

Which attack employs deceptive frame techniques to trick a user into clicking on their content rather than the intended content?

-Clickjacking A clickjacking attack employs deceptive frame techniques to trick a user into clicking on their content rather than the intended content.

Ronaldo, the CEO of an organization, conducts a meeting with the security specialists of his organization to gain more knowledge on the pre methods for social engineering attacks. Which of the following tips can they provide him that he can then impart to the employees of his orga after this meeting? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

- Keep their antivirus/antimalware software updated - Don't open emails and attachments from suspicious sources - - Use multifactor authentication Answers B, C, and D are correct. Social engineering is the technique practiced by an attacker that is used to exploit human behavior to make the network vulnerable to attacks. It is the psychological manipulation of people into performing actions or divulging confidential information. Ronaldo can provide the following tips to the employees to prevent social engineering attack: Don't open emails and attachments from suspicious sources Use multifactor authentication Keep their antivirus/antimalware software updated Answer A is incorrect. Social engineers can and will either request employee's help with information or offer to help them. If the employees did not request any assistance from the sender, they should consider any requests or offers as scams and reject them.

Which of the following files is responsible for interpreting commands obtained from software programs for the central processing unit?

- Kernel Kernel files are the fundamental logic files of the operating system responsible for interpreting commands obtained from software programs for the central processing unit

Which device is used for programming, controlling, and operating various access-control and management devices in most of the intrusion-detection and reporting systems?

- Keypad A keypad is used for programming, controlling, and operating various access-control and management devices in most of the intrusion-detection and reporting systems. They are input devices that are typically equipped with a set of numerical pushbuttons that are similar to a telephone touchtone keypad

At which layer of the OSI model does the IP portion of TCP/IP operate?

- Layer 3 Answer B is correct. The IP portion of TCP/IP protocol operates at Layer 3 of the OSI model. Answer D is incorrect. The TCP portion of the TCP/IP protocol standard operates at Layer 4. Answers A and C are incorrect. Standard TCP/IP services such as File Transfer Protocol (FTP) and Telnet operates at Layer 7 of the OSI model. Layer 6 of the OSI model includes protocols, such as Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) and Transport Layer Security (TLS)

At which layer of the OSI model does the port-blocking mechanism associated with firewall work?

- Layer 4 The port-blocking mechanisms associated with firewalls work at Layer 4 (Transport Layer).

Ryan is a network administrator. He has set up access levels in his organization based on an idea, which allows the user, program, or process to have only the minimum access necessary to perform its function. On which of the following principles has Ryan set up the access levels?

- Least privilege Answer D is correct. The principle of least privilege is based on the idea, which describes that any user, program, or process should have only the bare minimum privileges necessary to perform its function. In an IT environment, adhering to the principle of least privilege reduces the risk of attackers gaining access to critical systems or sensitive data by compromising a low-level user account, device, or application. Answer B is incorrect. SSH tunneling is a method of transporting arbitrary networking data over an encrypted SSH connection. It can be used to add encryption to legacy applications. Answer C is incorrect. Network segmentation is essentially the separation of the network into subnetworks, each of which becomes a segment. Answer A is incorrect. Network virtualization is a way to segment the user's network by creating overlay networks.

Jerry, a network specialist, has decided to install a computer network using fiber optic cable. Which of the following advantages can be the reason behind Jerry's decision? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

- Less attenuation - High bandwidth and speed - High data carrying capacity Answers A, B, and C are correct. The following advantages are the reason behind Jerry's decision of using fiber optic cable in his computer network: Less attenuation: Light moving through a fiber-optic cable does not attenuate (lose energy) as quickly as electrical signals moving along a copper conductor. High bandwidth and speed: Fiber optic cables provide more bandwidth for carrying more data than copper cables of the same diameter. Fiber optic cables have a core that carries light to transmit data. This allows fiber optic cables to carry signals at high speeds. High data carrying capacity: Fiber optic cables have high bandwidth which provides it a high data carrying capacity. Answer D is incorrect. Fiber optic cable is highly susceptible to cut or damage during installation or construction activities. All these make it difficult to install.

In the ____ strategy, the system establishes which users or groups can access files, folders, and other resources.

- MAC In the Mandatory Access Control (MAC) strategy, the system establishes which users or groups may access files, folders, and other resources

Which of the following storage media includes external hard drives and backup tapes?

- Magnetic Magnetic storage media includes external hard drives and backup tapes.

Which device translates the magnetically encoded information in a magnetic stripe card and translates it into digital data that it passes to a host system?

- Magnetic card reader A magnetic card reader translates the magnetically encoded information in a magnetic stripe card and translates it into digital data that it passes to a host system

Daniel, a security manager, wants to install a system in his organization that can alert him when someone attempts to gain entry through doors and windows through unauthorized means. Which sensor will Daniel use for this purpose?

- Magnetic-switch Answer C is correct. Daniel will use a magnetic-switch sensor. The magnetic-switch sensor can be used to protect doors and windows or any other moving barrier. It alerts security managers when someone attempts to gain entry through a passageway through illegal or unauthorized means. Answer B is incorrect. Motion detectors should be installed in open areas that cannot be protected by window or door sensors. Answer D is incorrect. Vibration detectors are glass-breakage sensors that are mounted on the glass. Answer A is incorrect. A pressure sensor converts the physical parameter of pressure into a standard signal. Pressure sensors can be employed to detect a vehicle on a driveway or garage area.

What is the purpose of the No-eXecute (NX bit) technology used in CPUs?

- Malware protection Answer A is correct. No-eXecute (NX bit) is a feature built into microprocessing hardware to protect certain areas of memory that contain specific blocks of instruction code. Any section of memory marked with the NX attribute means it's only for storing data. Therefore, processor instructions cannot be stored there. This is a popular technique for preventing malicious software from taking over computers by inserting their code into another program's data storage area and then running that code from within this section, as they would with a buffer overflow attack. Answer B is incorrect. Biometric authentication is a security process that relies on the unique biological characteristics of an individual to verify that he is who is says he is. Answer D is incorrect. A parity check is a process that ensures accurate data transmission between nodes during communication. A parity bit is appended to the original data bits to create an even or odd bit number. It is used for error detection. Answer C is incorrect. Data encryption is a security method where information is encoded and can only be accessed or decrypted by a user with the correct encryption key.

What is the purpose of the No-eXecute (NX bit) technology used in CPUs?

- Malware protection Answer D is correct. No-eXecute (NX bit) is a feature built into microprocessing hardware to protect certain areas of memory that contain specific blocks of instruction code. Any section of memory marked with the NX attribute means it's only for storing data. Therefore, processor instructions cannot be stored there. This is a popular technique for preventing malicious software from taking over computers by inserting their code into another program's data storage area and then running that code from within this section, as they would with a buffer overflow attack. Answer C is incorrect. Biometric authentication is a security process that relies on the unique biological characteristics of an individual to verify that he is who is says he is. Answer A is incorrect. A parity check is a process that ensures accurate data transmission between nodes during communication. A parity bit is appended to the original data bits to create an even or odd bit number. It is used for error detection. Answer B is incorrect. Data encryption is a security method where information is encoded and can only be accessed or decrypted by a user with the correct encryption key.

Which attack involves an attacker manipulating IP packets to create a false IP address so they can gain access to the network?

- Masquerade Masquerade attacks involve an attacker manipulating IP packets to create a false IP address so they can gain access to the network or inject false data into it.

Which NTFS folder permission enables users to delete the folder?

- Modify Answer A is correct. The Modify permission enables users to delete the folder and makes it possible for users to perform all the activities associated with the Write and Read & Execute permissions.

Henry is given the responsibility to install a smart indoor lighting system in his organization, which powers the lights according to the duration of a timer. Which of the following sensors will Henry use to accomplish the task?

- Motion detector Answer C is correct. Henry will use the motion detector. Motion detectors are widely used in activating street lights or indoor lights in walkways, such as lobbies and staircases. In such smart lighting systems, energy is conserved by only powering the lights for the duration of a timer which starts counting when any motion is detected by the motion detectors. Answers B, A, and D are incorrect. A glass-break detector is a sensor used in electronic burglar alarms that detects if a pane of glass is shattered or broken. Vibration detectors and acoustic detectors are types of glass break detectors.

Which of the following detectors is also called a passive infrared detector?

- Motion detector Motion detectors work by detecting the changes in the infrared energy in an area. Because these devices do not emit any energy, they are called passive infrared (PIR) detectors

What is another name for zoning?

- Network segmentation Network segmentation is also known as zoning

Which of the following is a version of an Apple server?

- OS X Server Examples of Apple server versions include macOS Server, Mac OS X Server, and OS X Server.

Which of the following is a group of XML schemas that describe a language to provide the details needed to assess a network resource for security vulnerabilities?

- OVAL Answer B is correct. Open Vulnerability and Assessment Language (OVAL) is a security community standard for communicating security information such as configuration, vulnerabilities, patch levels, etc. OVAL is essentially a group of XML schemas that describe a language to provide the details needed to assess a network resource for security vulnerabilities. Answer C is incorrect. Common Platform Enumeration (CPE) is a standardized method of describing and identifying the operating system, hardware devices, and application classes on the network. Answer D is incorrect. Security Content Automation Protocol (SCAP) is a method of using various open standards for evaluating vulnerabilities and measuring the potential impact of these vulnerabilities. Answer A is incorrect. Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) is a system for scoring vulnerabilities from CVE, making it easier to understand security risks

Which configuration supports the concept of mapping multiple private IPs to a single public IP address?

- PAT Port Address Translation (PAT) supports the concept of mapping multiple private IPs to a single public IP address.

What is the best way to minimize the impact of exploits like CryptoLocker?

-Incremental Backups Frequent and incremental backups are the best way to minimize the impact of exploits like CryptoLocker.

Stella is working in a company that accepts credit or debit card payments on its website. Which of the following standards must her company adhere to for reducing the risk of debit and credit card data loss?

- PCI-DSS Answer D is correct. Stella's company must adhere to the Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard (PCI-DSS). The main purpose of the PCI DSS is to reduce the risk of debit and credit card data loss. This standard suggests how the data loss could be prevented and detected. It protects both merchants and cardholders. Answer B is incorrect. The Cloud Security Alliance's Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) is a set of controls designed to maximize the security of information for organizations that take advantage of cloud technologies. Answer C is incorrect. The ISO 27001 is an information risk management standard designed to provide guidance in the selection of adequate and proportionate controls to protect information. Answer A is incorrect. The NIST Cybersecurity Framework (NIST CSF) consists of standards, guidelines, and best practices to manage cybersecurity-related risk.

Which of the following cameras permits users to view live full-motion video from anywhere?

- Pan-Tilt-Zoom camera A pan-tilt-zoom camera permits users to view live full-motion video from anywhere. This type of camera is designed for use either on a proprietary computer network or over the Internet using only a standard web browser as its display unit.

Which device allows immediate triggering of an alarm system when facing an emergency situation such as the discovery of an intruder?

- Panic button Panic buttons are devices that allow immediate triggering of an alarm system when facing an emergency situation such as the discovery of an intruder

What is the most common and economical type of motion detector?

- Passive infrared detector Passive infrared (PIR) detectors are the most common and economical type of motion detectors. They use a lens mechanism in the sensor housing to detect any change in infrared energy across the horizontal sectors covered by the sensor.

What are the benefits of the Pan-Tilt-Zoom (PTZ) camera? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

- Permits users to view live full-motion video from anywhere - Allows a user to monitor larger areas that would require multiple fixed cameras Answers A and C are correct. The Pan-Tilt-Zoom (PTZ) camera allows a user to monitor larger areas that would require multiple fixed cameras and view live full-motion video from anywhere. Answers B and D are incorrect. Digital Video Recorder (DVR) provides remote access to either live images and permits the storage of images to disk

Which type of cookie will remain on the computer until the specified expiration date is reached?

- Persistent Persistent cookies will remain on the computer until the specified expiration date is reached.

The outer perimeter corresponds to the components of which layer of the OSI model?

- Physical The outer perimeter corresponds to the physical layer (Layer 1) components of the OSI model. Securing the physical layer in a network involves securing the physical media, as well as the networking and communication equipment.

Which layer of the OSI model is concerned with the transmission media used to move data?

- Physical The physical layer is concerned with the transmission media used to move data.

Which of the following terms denotes a short-range network of devices grouped together to communicate on the same channel?

- Piconet Piconets are short-range networks of devices grouped together to communicate on the same channel.

Which type of lens is used for applications where the lens should be hidden?

- Pinhole The pinhole lens is used for applications where the camera/lens should be hidden. The front of the lens has a small opening to allow the lens to view an entire room through a small hole in a wall.

Stella has set up a home network. Everyone in her house wants to connect to the Internet using her network. Therefore, she needs to connect multiple devices to the Internet. To accomplish this, she has a setup where the system's router is assigned a discrete IP address allowing multiple users to access the Internet over the router. Which of the following has she used?

- Port Address Translation Answer C is correct. Stella has used Port Address Translation (PAT), which supports the concept of mapping multiple or private IPs to a single or public IP address. PAT is used for setting up a home network that is connected to the Internet. Within this setup, the system's router is assigned a discrete IP address. Multiple users can access the Internet over the router and are each assigned a unique port number. Answer B is incorrect because port forwarding is the process of intercepting traffic bound for a certain port combination and redirecting to a different port. Answer D is incorrect because SSH tunneling is used to implement VPNs (Virtual Private Networks) and access intranet services across firewalls. Answer A is incorrect because port scanning refers to the surveillance of computer ports, most often by hackers for malicious purposes

Which of the following factors are involved in authentication? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

- Possession - Inheritance - Knowledge Answers B, C, and D are correct. Authentication is the process of determining that someone is who they say they are. Multiple factors are involved in authentication: Knowledge: Something you know or something that only the designated person should know Possession: Something you have or something that only the designated person should have Inheritance: Something you are or something that only the designated person is Location: Somewhere you are or somewhere that only the designated person is Answer A is incorrect. A right is a legal privilege or permission granted to someone, or some group, by some recognized source of authority

What is the maximum number of peripheral devices that can be connected to a Universal Serial Bus (USB) port?

127 Universal Serial Bus (USB) port connects a maximum number of 127 peripheral devices to the computer.

Swifty is a security specialist in an organization. She discovered that a website subverts the security model of web browsers in her organization and then performs malicious actions on client computers. This is an example of which attack?

- Privilege escalation Answer A is correct. Swifty has discovered a privilege escalation attack in which a website subverts the security model of web browsers, thus allowing it to run malicious code on client computers. Privilege escalation is the act of exploiting a bug, design flaw or configuration oversight in an operating system to gain elevated access to resources that are normally protected. Answer D is incorrect. The denial-of-service (DoS) attack is launched from a large number of other host machines that are infected by malicious software controlled by the attacker. Answer C is incorrect. The man-in-the-middle attack occurs when a hacker inserts itself between the communications of a client and a server. Answer B is incorrect. The phishing attack is the practice of sending emails that appear to be from trusted sources with the goal of gaining personal information.

Which of the following terms refers to users who are able to execute a program with embedded code that gives them administrative privileges after logging onto the server?

- Privilege escalation Privilege escalation refers to users who are able to execute a program with embedded code that gives them administrative privileges after logging onto the server

Stella has implemented a resource access control method that allows the system to restrict or permit access to objects based on the user's role within the organization. Which of the following access control methods is referred to in this scenario?

- RBAC Answer D is correct. Stella has implemented the Role-Based Access Control (RBAC) structure in her organization. RBAC is a resource access control method that allows the system to restrict or permit access to objects based on the user's role within the organization. Answer B is incorrect. Discretionary Access Control (DAC) is a type of access control system that holds the business owner responsible for deciding which people are allowed in a specific location, physically or digitally. Answer A is incorrect. Mandatory Access Control (MAC) is more commonly utilized in organizations that require an elevated emphasis on the confidentiality and classification of data (ie. military institutions). Answer C is incorrect. Attribute-based access control (ABAC) manages access rights by evaluating a set of rules, policies, and relationships using the attributes of users, systems, and environmental conditions.

Vestin is a cybersecurity specialist in an organization. He has been given the responsibility to check for a security threat, which is carried out using a malicious code that is disguised as a legitimate file. Which type of malware threat will Vestin check for?

- Ransomware Answer D is correct. Vestin will check for ransomware. Ransomware attacks are typically carried out using a Trojan, a malicious code that is disguised as a legitimate file that the user is tricked into downloading or opening when it arrives as an email attachment. Answer A is incorrect. Adware programs introduce unwanted, unsolicited advertising displays to web browsers. Answer C is incorrect. Rootkits are a type of software designed to gain administrative control of a computer system while remaining undetected. Answer B is incorrect. Botnets are a large collection of zombies, or bots, controlled by a bot herder

Which malware threat is designed to keep the user from their data and hold it hostage for payment?

- Ransomware Ransomware is software designed to keep the user from their data and hold it hostage for payment

What is defined as the right of an individual to re-enter a property?

- Regress Regress is the term used to describe the legal right to re-enter a property.

Which of the following file systems does the Linux kernel support?

- Reiser The Linux kernel provides support for the Reiser file system which is the default system on some Linux distributions. It is a journaling file system.

Which electromechanical device employs safer, low-voltage control signals to be used to control higher-voltage devices?

- Relay Answer C is correct. Relays are electromechanical devices that employ safer, low-voltage/low-current control signals to be used to control higher-voltage/higher-current devices. In access-control settings, relays are commonly used to control the operation of electric gates and door locks, garage door openers, and other remote devices.

Ria is working as a cybersecurity analyst in XYZ Inc. Her primary job is to manage entry to some protected areas of her organization. To achieve this, she has employed a system that authenticates the identity of a person entering the area by using a system located in a different location than the access point. Which design feature has Ria implemented?

- Remote-access control Answer C is correct. Ria has implemented remote-access control. This design feature manages entry to protected areas by authenticating the identity of people entering a secured area (security zone or computer system) using an authentication system located in a different location than the access point. Answer B is incorrect. Remote-control access doesn't perform any form of authentication. It is a design feature that works with remote monitoring systems to monitor, control, and supervise doors, gates, and conveyances from a distance. Answers A and D are incorrect. Unlocked-condition monitoring and locked monitoring system are two types of condition monitoring systems. Unlocked-condition monitoring can record and signal each time a specific gate or door is unlocked (granting access) and what type of access was granted. Locked monitoring is a feature that allows the security supervisor to confirm that a door is locked.

Jerry, a network administrator, has used a device in his organization's network, which can forward network information across different network segments. Which device is referred to in this scenario?

- Router Answer C is correct. Jerry has used a router, which is a network connectivity device that forwards network information across different network segments. A router is designed to receive, analyze, and move incoming packets to another network. Answer D is incorrect. A repeater is a device used to regenerate the signal over the network before it becomes too weak or corrupted. Answer A is incorrect. A modem is a hardware device that converts data into a format suitable for a transmission medium so that it can be transmitted from computer to computer. Answer B is incorrect. A switch is a computer networking device that is used to connect many devices on a computer network.

Which device is a microprocessor-based intelligent device that controls the flow of data between networks?

- Router Answer C is correct. Routers are microprocessor-based intelligent devices that control the flow of data between networks. The microprocessor is a specialized device optimized to operate as a route processor.

What is the process of translating an IP address used in one network to an IP address in another network?

- Routing Routing is the translation of an IP address used in one network to an IP address in another network.

Mary is a security specialist in an organization. She needs to implement some specific standards to enable automated vulnerability management in her organization. Which of the following methods should Mary implement?

- SCAP Answer B is correct. Mary should implement Security Content Automation Protocol (SCAP), which is a method for using specific standards to enable automated vulnerability management, measurement, and policy compliance evaluation of systems deployed in an organization, for example, FISMA compliance. The National Vulnerability Database (NVD) is the U.S. government content repository for SCAP. An example of an implementation of SCAP is OpenSCAP. Answer C is incorrect. Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures (CVE) is a system for referencing publicly known vulnerabilities. Answer D is incorrect. Open Vulnerability and Assessment Language (OVAL) is a security community standard for communicating security information such as configuration, vulnerabilities, patch levels, and so on. Answer A is incorrect. Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) is a system for scoring vulnerabilities from CVE, making it easier to understand security risks

Which tool permits the system administrator to access the switch's parameters through a remote client using its web browser?

- SNMP Answer B is correct. A Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) tool is used to permit the administrator to access the switch's parameters through a remote client using its web browser. Answer A is incorrect. A File Transfer Protocol (FTP) tool is used to exchange files between computer accounts, transfer files between an account and a desktop computer, or access online software archives. Answer D is incorrect. Remote Server Administration Tools (RSAT) allows administrators to run snap-ins and tools on a remote computer to manage features, roles, and role services. Answer C is incorrect. Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) tools are used by network devices to send error messages and operational information indicating that a requested service is not available or that a host or router could not be reached.

Which protocol permits the administrator to access the switch's parameters through a remote client using its web browser?

- SNMP Answer C is correct. A Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) permits the administrator to access the switch's parameters through a remote client using its web browser.

Which protocol can be used to secure the configuration data as it moves from the administrator's device to the switch?

- SSH Answer A is correct. An encrypting transmission protocol such as Secure Shell (SSH) could be used to secure the configuration data as it moves from the administrator's device to the switch

Which protocol manages authentication and communication between clients and servers using both public key and private key?

- SSL Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) manages authentication and communication between clients and servers using both public key and private key.

What is an executable application that provides interactive content on websites?

- Script Scripts are executable applications that provide interactive content on websites. They are also capable of retrieving information in response to user selections.

What is developed specifically for the purpose of correcting an observed vulnerability in software to prevent exploitation?

- Security patch Security patches are developed specifically for the purpose of correcting an observed vulnerability in software to prevent exploitation

Alicia, a cybersecurity specialist, wants to track the physical activities in her organization. For this purpose, she has used a device, which converts physical activities into signals that are presented to the security controller. Which device did Alicia use?

- Sensor Answer A is correct. Alicia has used sensors. Sensors are a class of input devices that convert physical activity into a signal that can be presented to the security controller. They are available in a variety of configurations including magnetic switches for doors and windows, acoustic detectors, vibration detectors, motion detectors, and glass-break detectors. Answer C is incorrect. Panic buttons are devices that allow immediate triggering of an alarm system when facing an emergency situation such as the discovery of an intruder. Answer B is incorrect. A keypad device is used for programming, controlling, and operating various access-control and management devices. Answer D is incorrect. A key fob is a small, programmable hardware device that provides access to a physical object.

Which device converts physical activity into a signal that can be presented to the security controller?

- Sensor Sensors convert physical activity into a signal that can be presented to the security controller. They are available in a variety of configurations including magnetic switches for doors and windows, acoustic detectors, vibration detectors, motion detectors, and glass-break detectors

Which of the following connectors is used for devices where the USB cable connection is permanently attached to devices at one end?

- Series-A Series-A connectors are used for devices where the USB cable connection is oftentimes permanently attached to devices at one end. Examples of these devices are keyboards, mice, and hubs

Which connector is designed for devices that require detachable cabling?

- Series-B Series-B connectors are designed for devices that require detachable cabling.

Alicia has used Bluetooth to establish communication between her computer and other wireless devices. What is the maximum number of devices can she pair with her computer using this technology?

- Seven Answer B is correct. Alicia can pair upto seven devices with her computer using Bluetooth, which is a wireless technology standard for exchanging data between fixed and mobile devices over short distances using short-wavelength UHF radio waves in the industrial, scientific and medical radio bands, and building personal area networks (PANs). In the computer networking environment, the Bluetooth specification enables several Bluetooth peripheral devices to simultaneously communicate with a host device. Bluetooth is used with local host computers communicating with wireless input and output devices such as mice, keyboards, and printers. Up to eight devices can communicate simultaneously using Bluetooth.

Mary has installed a highly efficient security system in her organization. In that system, she has used a device that produces a sufficiently high level of sound when an alarm condition is activated. Which device is being described in this scenario?

- Siren Answer B is correct. Mary has used Siren. Sirens allow security systems to send the alert by producing a sufficiently high level of sound when an alarm condition is activated. The security controller activates siren when an alarm condition exists. Answer A is incorrect. A keypad is used for programming, controlling, and operating various access-control and management devices. Answer C is incorrect. A strobe light is a device used to produce regular flashes of light. Answer D is incorrect. Sensors are input devices that convert physical activity into a signal that can be presented to the security controller.

How many pairs of hexadecimal digits does the standard 48-bit format for generating a MAC address specify?

- Six The standard 48-bit format for generating a MAC address specifies six pairs of hexadecimal digits

Which of the following access-control gates are used where high levels of operational safety and security are needed?

- Sliding gates Sliding gates are used where high levels of operational safety and security are needed.

Which of the following devices offers improved data security due to the presence of intelligent circuitry that can be used to hide the user's data until an authentication process has been performed?

- Smart card A smart card offers improved data security due to the presence of intelligent circuitry that can be used to hide the user's data until an authentication process has been performed. It contains information about its owner, such as passwords, personal identification numbers (PINs), network keys, digital certificates, and other Personally Identifiable Information (PII) that can be used in the authentication process.

Alicia was studying about the authentication devices used in access-control systems. While preparing the topic, she learned about a device that contains information about its owners, such as their password and other Personally Identifiable Information (PII) that can be used in the authentication process. Which device has been referred to in the given scenario?

- Smart card Answer A is correct. Smart cards are credit-card-like devices that often resemble magnetic stripe cards. They contain information about their owners, such as their passwords, personal identification numbers (PINs), network keys, digital certificates, and other Personally Identifiable Information (PII) that can be used in the authentication process. Answer D is incorrect. A biometric scanner converts the physiological quantity into a digital representation. Answer C is incorrect. A magnetic stripe card is a physical credit-card-like device that contains authentication information in the form of magnetically coded spots on a magnetic stripe. Answer B is incorrect. Radio Frequency Identification (RFID) badges provide hands-free access-control tools that improve on the bar code, magnetic stripe, and proximity reader technologies.

Which term is used to describe cyber attacks designed to take advantage of vulnerabilities or weaknesses in software products?

- Software exploitation The term software exploitation is used to describe cyber attacks designed to take advantage of vulnerabilities or weaknesses in software products

Which program is introduced to the system through Internet downloads that appear to be useful programs?

- Spyware Spyware programs are generally introduced to the system through Internet downloads that appear to be useful programs.

Which practice is used to prevent a common hacking technique known as port scanning?

- Stateful packet inspection Answer D is correct. Stateful packet inspection is used to prevent a common hacking technique known as port scanning.

Which of the following elements does territorial reinforcement employ to prevent unauthorized entry? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

- Structures - Systems - Devices Answers B, C, and D are correct. Territorial reinforcement employs structures, systems, and devices to prevent unauthorized entry. Territorial reinforcement produces an environment that clearly defines private space, creating a sense of ownership. Answer A is incorrect. Security policies state how security is implemented at each level within an infrastructure

What is a group of network sections that share a range of IP addresses?

- Subnet Answer C is correct. Subnets are a group of network sections that share a range of IP addresses.

Which password option must be used to establish a password that can be employed to access the CMOS Setup utility?

- Supervisor password A supervisory password option must be used to establish a password that can be employed to access the CMOS Setup utility. No one can change the configuration of the computer without the supervisor password. Answer D is incorrect. An administrator (admin) password is the password to any Windows account that has administrator level access. Answer C is incorrect. Set user password option enables administrators to establish passwords that users must enter during the startup process to complete the boot process and gain access to the operating system. However, this password does not provide access to the CMOS Setup utility. Answer B is incorrect. User password restricts who can continue the bootup process after the BIOS has loaded its bootstrap loader (and before any operating system gets loaded)

Which device functions at Layer 2 of the OSI model?

- Switch Switches are connectivity devices that function at Layer 2 of the OSI model.

What are the differences between Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) and User Datagram Protocol (UDP)? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply

- TCP is a connection-oriented pro protocol, whereas UDP is a connection-less protocol. -TCP allows data sequencing, whereas there is no sequencing of data in UDP. -TCP provides extensive error checking mechanisms, whereas UDP has only the basic error checking mechanism using checksums. Answers A, C, and D are correct. The following are the differences between Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) and User Datagram Protocol (UDP): TCP provides extensive error checking mechanisms, whereas UDP has only the basic error checking mechanism using checksums. TCP is a connection-oriented protocol, whereas UDP is a connection-less protocol. TCP allows data sequencing, whereas there is no sequencing of data in UDP. Answer B is incorrect. TCP is highly reliable, whereas UDP is not reliable.

Which of the following protocols is a hacker-resistant, secure protocol for transmitting data across a network?

- TCP/IP The TCP/IP protocol is a hacker-resistant, secure protocol for transmitting data across a network.

Which of the following protocols does Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA) use for authentication? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.

- TKIP - EAP Answers A and C are correct. Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA) is a security standard for users of computing devices equipped with wireless internet connections. It uses the Temporary Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP) and IEEE 802.1X Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP) user authentication protocol to provide increased security. Answer B is incorrect. WPA2 uses the Counter Mode Cipher Block Chaining Message Authentication Code Protocol (CCMP). Answer D is incorrect. Challenge-Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP) is an authentication scheme used by Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) servers to validate the identity of remote clients

Which of the following modules stores cryptographic information, such as encryption keys?

- TPM Trusted Platform Module (TPM) is used to store cryptographic information, such as encryption keys. Information stored on the TPM is more secure from external software attacks and physical theft.

Which of the following terms describes a packet that contains VLAN information?

- Tagged Answer C is correct. A tagged packet contains VLAN information

Edward is working as a network administrator in an organization. To prevent his organization's network from the dictionary attack, he has use security process in his organization's network server through which he can slow down the propagation of mass emails. Which security proce Edward used?

- Tarpitting Answer D is correct. To prevent his organization's server from the dictionary attack, Edward has used tarpitting in his organization's network server, which is a network security and optimization process through which he can slow down the propagation of mass emails by restricting spammers from sending bulk messages. Answer C is incorrect because clickjacking is a type of attack that tricks a user into clicking a webpage element which is invisible or disguised as another element. Answer A is incorrect because Cross-Site Scripting (XSS) attacks are a type of injection, in which malicious scripts are injected into otherwise benign and trusted websites. Answer B is incorrect because clickstream tracking involves tracking a user's activity on the Internet, including every Web site and every page of every Web site that the user visits

What is a lux rating?

- The amount of light required to obtain a reasonable video camera image. Answer C is correct. The amount of light required to obtain a reasonable video camera image is called the lux rating. Answer D is incorrect. Luminous intensity is a measure of the radiant power emitted by an object in a given direction. Answer B is incorrect. Illuminance is a measure of how much the incident light illuminates the surface. Answer A is incorrect. Luminous flux is the amount of energy per unit time that is radiated from a source over visible wavelengths

John is trying to log on to a coffee shop's Wi-Fi, he will first be redirected to a sign-in page. He will only be connected to the Internet after he agrees to their terms and conditions. Which of the following proxies authenticates users in this way?

- Transparent A transparent proxy is a server that sits between user's computer and the Internet and redirects his requests and responses without modifying them. In the given scenario, the coffee shop is using a public WiFi that uses a transparent proxy to authenticate users. When John is trying to log on to the coffee shop's WiFi, he will first be redirected to a sign-in page. He will only be connected to the Internet after he agrees to their terms and conditions. This way, the coffee shop can verify John as a user and track the websites he visits while on their network. Answers B and D are incorrect. Both these proxies don't authenticate users. A distorting proxy includes incorrect IP information in the HTTP headers. A reverse proxy is used to provide an SSL connection to allow the web server cluster to share a single secure certificate. Answer C is incorrect. A non-transparent proxy server first modifies and then redirects user's requests and responses.

Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for providing an orderly end-to-end flow of data that includes sequencing of data packets?

- Transport The transport layer is responsible for providing an orderly end-to-end flow of data that includes sequencing of data packets and providing basic error-recovery functions and flow control

Which protocol is a connectionless protocol that sents multiple messages as packets in data chunks, without waiting to verify they're received?

- UDP Answer B is correct. User Datagram Protocol (UDP) is a much simpler, connectionless protocol that sents multiple messages as packets in data chunks, without waiting to verify they're received.

Which of the following interfaces are hot-swappable? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

- USB - FireWire - eSATA Hot swapping describes inserting or removing components without interruption to the system. Examples of hot-swappable interfaces include eSATA, FireWire, and USB. Answer A is incorrect. A hard drive is an example of a cold-swappable device

Stella has set up a computer network in which one device will send the message to exactly one device at the destination. Which type of communication is needed for such implementation?

- Unicast Answer D is correct. A unicast communication is a one-to-one communication that passes from a single source to a single receiver or destination. It is the most common method of information transfer which takes place on networks. Traffic in the form of streams of data packets typically moves from a single host (such as a web server) to a single endpoint (such as a client app, computer, or browser)

Which of the following are the ways to prevent packet sniffing attacks? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

- Use of secure protocols - Use of encryption software before transmitting data - Use of remote computing technology Answers A, B, and C are correct. The following ways can be used to prevent packet sniffing attacks: Use of secure protocols: Secure protocols should be used whenever possible to ensure that data is encrypted before being transmitted across a network. Examples of secure protocols include HTTPS, SFTP (Secure File Transfer Protocol), and SSH (Secure Shell). Use of encryption software before transmitting data: If an insecure protocol must be used, the organization can still protect its network from packet sniffer attacks by using encryption software before transmitting data. Use of remote computing technology: Remote computing technology should be used to ensure that all data is encrypted before being transmitted across a network. This method is especially effective in preventing wireless sniffers. Virtual Private Network (VPN), Virtual Network Computing (VNC) Protocol, and Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) are common examples of programs that provide encrypted remote computing. Answer D is incorrect. Networks must be built with switch technology (rather than hub technology). After receiving a message, a switch will transmit that message only to its intended recipient, whereas a hub transmits the messages it receives across the entire network. This feature makes switches inherently more secure than hubs, particularly for preventing packet analyzer attacks.

Which security topology restricts the visibility of network traffic by limiting the movement of network packets so that they only pass between designated ports?

- VLAN A virtual LAN (VLAN) is a security topology that restricts the visibility of network traffic by limiting the movement of network packets so that they only pass between designated ports.

Which type of lens contains several movable elements that permit the effective focal length (EFL) to be changed?

- Varifocal Varifocal Lens contains several movable elements that permit the effective focal length (EFL) to be changed. Unlike a zoom lens, a varifocal lens needs to be refocused with each change.

Which security feature provides a 128-bit mathematical key encryption scheme for encrypting data transmissions and authenticating each computer on the network?

- WEP Answer D is correct. Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) provides a 128-bit mathematical key encryption scheme for encrypting data transmissions and authenticating each computer on the network.

Which wireless security feature offers the best defense for wireless networking?

- WPA Answer A is correct. Wi-Fi Protected Access WPA adds improved data encryption, using the Temporary Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP) and IEEE 802.1X Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP) user authentication protocol to provide increased security. Answer D is incorrect. Although WEP is a strong encryption method, serious attackers can crack it. This has led the wireless industry to create a stronger Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA) standard. Answer C is incorrect. Bluetooth (IEEE 802.15.1) is a wireless networking specification for personal area networks (PANs). Answer B is incorrect. WiMAX is a broadband wireless access standard designed to provide Internet access across large geographic areas.

Which of the following terms refers to the applications associated with well-known ports?

- Well-known services Answer A is correct. The applications associated with well-known ports are referred as well-known services.

Which group is an administrative group that typically provides access to user creation and configuration utilities?

- Wheel Wheel is an administrative group that typically provides access to user creation and configuration utilities.

What is the practice of explicitly allowing some specified users access to a network segment?

- Whitelisting Whitelisting is the practice of explicitly allowing some specified users access to a network segment.

Jack is a wireless network specialist. As part of his current project, he needs to provide wireless broadband access to areas of his city that are difficult for wired infrastructure to reach. Which wireless technology will help Jack accomplish this purpose?

- WiMAX Answer A is correct. Jack will use WiMAX to provide wireless broadband access to areas of his city that are difficult for wired infrastructure to reach. The WiMAX specification was established to provide guidelines for wider area wireless networking capabilities. WiMAX is a broadband wireless access standard designed to provide Internet access across large geographic areas. Answer B is incorrect. Wi-Fi is used for providing connectivity to shorter ranges like within an office or home. Answer C is incorrect. Bluetooth is a widely used wireless personal area network (WPAN) technology. It is designed for short-range communications with a range of about 10 m. Answer D is incorrect. The ZigBee (IEEE 802.15.4) standard is a wireless, mesh-networked PAN protocol that provides a 10-meter communication range with a data transfer rate of 250 Kbps.

Richeal wants to set up a network connection using a device which will allow the wireless network devices to connect to a wired network. Which device will Richael use?

- Wireless access point Answer C is correct. Richael will use a wireless access point, which allows the wireless network devices to connect to a wired network. Wireless access points commonly used in LANs employ antennas and a radio receiver/transmitter to communicate with other network devices using radio frequency signals in the unlicensed 2.4 GHz or 5 GHz radio bands. Answer B is incorrect. A wireless repeater is a wireless network device that repeats wireless signals to extend range without being connected with a cable to router or modem. Answer A is incorrect. The wireless extender has the same functionality as a repeater. Extenders are devices that only do repeating, and can't be set in any other mode. Answer D is incorrect. Wireless adapters are electronic devices that allow computers to connect to the Internet and other computers without using wires.

An individual who possesses extensive programming skills and uses them to breach or bypass network security structures for malicious or criminal purposes is called as a:

- black hat hacker An individual who possesses extensive programming skills and uses them to breach or bypass network security structures for malicious or criminal purposes is called as a black hat hacker.

Which of the following interfaces are hot-swappable? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

- eSATA -FireWire -USB Answers B, C, and D are correct. Hot swapping describes inserting or removing components without interruption to the system. Examples of hot-swappable interfaces include eSATA, FireWire, and USB. Answer A is incorrect. A hard drive is an example of a cold-swappable device.

USB devices can be added to or removed from the system when it is powered up and fully operational, which is referred to as

- hot-swapping. USB devices can be added to or removed from the system while it is powered up and fully operational, which is referred to as hot-swapping or hot-plugging the device

Stella wants to know the gateway IP address of her Windows system. Which of the following tools will Stella use?

- ipconfig Answer B is correct. Stella will use ipconfig to know the gateway's IP address, where the system sends DNS queries, whether the system was served its IP address by DHCP or it was assigned statically, and other useful information. ipconfig is a command line tool used to control the network connections on Windows NT/2000/XP machines. Answer C is incorrect. PING is a software utility used to evaluate the ability to reach any other IP host. Answer D is incorrect. ifconfig is a system administration utility in Unix-like operating systems for network interface configuration. Answer A is incorrect. nslookup is a command-line tool available in many computer operating systems for querying the Domain Name System (DNS) to obtain domain name or IP address mapping.

Which type of cookie uses local browser HTML5 database storage?

- super Super cookies use local browser HTML5 database storage or Adobe Flash data storage

Which protocol provides data integrity and origin authentication to protect against replay attacks?

-AH Authentication Header (AH) provides data integrity and origin authentication to protect against replay attacks.

Stephen, a network specialist, recently became aware of the man-in-the middle attack, which allows an attacker to intrude into the communic between two communication networks and inject false information. Which of the following techniques does an attacker use for this purpose?

-ARP spoofing Answer D is correct. An attacker uses ARP spoofing, which is a technique in which an attacker sends falsified ARP (Address Resolution Protocol) messages over a local area network. This results in the linking of an attacker's MAC address with the IP address of a legitimate computer or server on the network. By using this technique, the man-in-the-middle attack allows the attacker to intrude into the communication between two communication networks, inject false information, and intercept the data transferred between the communication networks. Answer B is incorrect. Port forwarding is the process of intercepting traffic bound for a certain port combination and redirecting to a different port. Answer A is incorrect. Port scanning refers to the surveillance of computer ports, most often by hackers for malicious purposes. Answer C is incorrect. Greylisting is a powerful anti-spam technology that is used to detect if the sending server of a message is RFC compliant.

Stella, a security architect, discovered a zero-day vulnerability in the software application that her company uses. This vulnerability needs to immediately to prevent damage to her organization's network. Which of the following cybersecurity tools must she own in such a situation? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

-Behavior monitoring -Intrusion Prevention Systems - Fast incident response A zero-day vulnerability is a software, hardware, or firmware flaw unknown to the manufacturer. When hackers leverage that flaw to conduct a cyberattack, it's called a zero-day exploit. Stella must own the following cybersecurity tools to fix this vulnerability immediately: Behavior monitoring: This detects suspicious patterns, like cyberattacks, in the network's traffic. Intrusion Prevention Systems: These are triggered after a behavior monitoring system notifies them. They attempt to stop any incoming threats from entering your network. Fast incident response: The earlier a team of trained professionals responds to a threat, the less damage it will cause. Answer B is incorrect. The zero-day vulnerability needs to be fixed immediately to prevent damage to Stella's organization's network and for this she can't rely on manufacturers to patch zero-day vulnerabilities immediately.

Jenifer works as a security administrator at Infosoft Inc. Her network is being flooded by ICMP packets. She observes that the packets came multiple different IP addresses. Which type of attack can be the result of such situation?

-DDoS Answer C is correct. A distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attack on a network or web-based system is designed to bring down the network or prevent access to a particular device by flooding it with useless traffic. A DDoS or distributed denial-of-service attack involves multiple different machines initiating a simultaneous denial-of-service attack on the target. Answer D is incorrect. A clickjacking attack employs deceptive frame techniques to trick the user into clicking on their content rather than the intended content. Answer A is incorrect. Embezzlement is the risk of fraudulent appropriation of money or services from an organization. Various types of controls should be implemented to prevent this type of exposure. Answer B is incorrect. A syn flood attack involves half opened connections that are never completed.

Alicia is unable to access an SQL database online due to an SQL injection vulnerability. Which of the following security controls should she t prevent this type of breach in the future? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.

-Database activity monitoring -Input validation Answers B and C are correct. To prevent this type of breach in the future, Alicia should do proper input validation and database activity monitoring. If the database and the underlying OS do not have the proper security controls in place, the attacker can create queries against the database that disclose unauthorized information. Database activity monitor (DAM) systems have emerged because companies face many more threats such as SQL injection than in the past. Answers D and A are incorrect. Secure coding standards and browser security updates cannot prevent SQL injection.

Ryan is the security specialist in an organization. He wants to conduct a session to make his employees aware of some practical methods they should follow to protect his organization's local computing devices from Internet-based threats. Which of the following methods should Ryan cover in this session? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

-Disable unnecessary OS default features. -Install and use anti-malware on the local computer. -Apply operating system and application software updates and patches Answers A, C, and D are correct. Ryan must cover the following steps in the session to protect his organization's local computing device from Internet-based threats: Use a secure connection. Establish and configure a firewall to control the flow of information between the computing device and the Internet. Install and use anti-malware on the local computer. Remove unnecessary software from the computer. Disable any nonessential services running on the computer. Disable unnecessary OS default features. Secure the web browser. Apply operating system and application software updates and patches. Require strong passwords. Answer B is incorrect. When the ActiveX-enabled browser encounters a web page calling for an ActiveX control function, it automatically downloads without involving the user. Of course, this creates a potential security vulnerability that can be used by crackers to embed malicious code in hacked websites.

Stephen, a network specialist, is aware of the dictionary attack and fears that his organization's email accounts can be accessed by spamme the following preventive measures should he adopt? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.

-Enforce a strict password methodology - Limit the number of login attempts that can be performed in a given period of time Answers A and D are correct. A dictionary attack is simply a systematic, brute-force attack using every word in a dictionary as a password. This type of attack is commonly used by spammers who guess passwords of email accounts to gain access to an account and then use it for their spam distribution. Stephen should adopt the following preventive measures: Enforce a strict password methodology Limit the number of login attempts that can be performed in a given period of time Answer B is incorrect. A slightly delayed response from the server prevents a hacker or spammer from checking multiple passwords within a short period of time. Answer C is incorrect. Tarpitting is the practice of slowing the transmission of e-mail messages sent in bulk as a means of thwarting spammers. It is used to prevent the DoS attack. In email addresses, tarpitting is implemented for slowing down bulk email delivery to block spam.

Which file management system was developed to manage data storage on floppy disks?

-FAT16 FAT16 is a cluster-based version of an older file management system that was developed to manage data storage on floppy disk.

Which of the following is a denial-of-service (DoS) attack that involves sending a large amount of spoofed UDP traffic to a router's broadcast within a network?

-Fraggle Answer A is correct. Fraggle Attack is a denial-of-service (DoS) attack that involves sending a large amount of spoofed UDP traffic to a router's broadcast address within a network. Answers B, C, and D are incorrect. Man-in-the-middle (MitM), SQL injection, and cross-site scripting are not DoS attacks.

Andrew is working as a security specialist in an organization. He wants to install a system in his organization which helps network administrators in monitoring network traffic and triggering alerts when known threats are detected. Which of the following will help Andrew accomplish the task?

-IDS Answer B is correct. Andrew will install the Intrusion Detection System (IDS) in his organization. A network intrusion detection system (NIDS) monitors both inbound and outbound traffic on the network, as well as data traversing between systems within the network. The network IDS monitors network traffic and triggers alerts when suspicious activity or known threats are detected, so IT personnel can examine more closely and take the appropriate steps to block or stop an attack. Answer A is incorrect. A firewall is a hardware and/or software which functions in a networked environment to block unauthorized access while permitting authorized communications. Answer C is incorrect. Data Loss Prevention (DLP) is used to prevent data from reauthorized end-user. It helps network admin to control the end user data transfer and prevent from data loss. Answer D is incorrect. Network Behaviour Anomaly Detection (NBAD) is used to detect malware or attacks in real time. It tracks the network to detect the attacks and monitor individual networks.

Which of the following protocols is used to set up a security association in IPsec?

-IKE Internet Key Exchange (IKE) is the protocol used to set up a security association in IPsec.

Which tool is used at the command line and presents user with the basic network-configuration information?

-IPconfig IPconfig is used at the command line and presents user with the basic network-configuration information.

Alicia has installed an open-source monitoring system for her organization's computer systems that enable organizations to identify and resolve IT infrastructure problems before they affect critical business processes. Which of the following monitoring systems has she installed?

-Nagios Answer A is correct. Alicia has installed Nagios, which is an open-source monitoring system for her organization's computer systems that enable organizations to identify and resolve IT infrastructure problems before they affect critical business processes. It runs periodic checks on critical parameters of application, network, and server resources. Answer D is incorrect because a logjam is a type of attack. It targets Diffie-Hellman key exchange, convincing the connection to use DHE Export ciphers. Answer C is incorrect because Whois is a search tool. It is used to find information concerning ownership, administrative, and technical responsibility. Answer B is incorrect because Telnet is an application client-server protocol. It can use the Telnet client software to establish a connection between a computer and any remote Telnet server listening on the port 23.

Which tool is used to examine, profile, and assess systems in any network?

-Nmap Answer C is correct. Nmap is used to examine, profile, and assess systems in any network

Which tool uses SCAP and can perform several network vulnerability tests?

-OpenVAS OpenVAS uses Security Content Automation Protocol (SCAP) and can perform several network vulnerability tests (NVT).

What is inserted into the network so that network traffic flows through it allowing packets to be captured in real time?

-Packet analyzer A packet analyzer is inserted into the network so that network traffic flows through it allowing packets to be captured in real time.

An attacker, masquerading as a trusted entity, tricks a victim into opening an email. The user is then tricked into clicking a malicious link, whi to the installation of malware and revealing sensitive information. This is an example of which of the following attacks?

-Phishing Answer C is correct. Phishing is a criminally fraudulent process of attempting to acquire sensitive information such as usernames, passwords, and credit card details by masquerading as a trustworthy entity in an electronic communication. Answer B is incorrect. Spyware is a software application that covertly gathers information about a user's Internet usage and activity and then exploits this information by sending adware and pop-up ads similar in nature to the user's Internet usage history. Answer A is incorrect. Logic bomb is a dangerous attack that waits for a predetermined event or time to execute its payload. Situational awareness is the best defense against this attack. Answer D is incorrect. Denial of Service (DoS) occurs when an attacker consumes the resources on the computer, thus preventing the normal use of the network resources for legitimate purposes.

Which type of firewall disassembles each packet, evaluates it, and then reassembles it, making the network connection significantly slower than other firewall types?

-Proxy filtering firewall Answer B is correct. Proxy servers, or proxy filtering firewalls, are servers configured to filter out unwanted packets. Proxy filtering is a much more complex process than packet filtering. During the filtering process, each packet is disassembled, evaluated, and reassembled, making the network connection significantly slower than other firewall types. Answer D is incorrect. The stateful firewall keeps track of the state of connection flows for all the packets, in both directions - entering and exiting the firewall. Answer C is incorrect. Static packet filtering firewalls control access to a network by analyzing the incoming and outgoing packets and letting them pass or halting them based on the IP addresses of the source and destination. Answer A is incorrect. Stateful inspection firewalls monitor the state of active connections and use this information to determine which network packets to allow through the firewall.

What are the differences between public key cryptography and private key cryptography? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply

-Public key is used to encrypt the message, whereas private key is used to decrypt the message. -Pubic key is widely distributed, whereas private key is kept secret. -Public key converts the message to an unreadable form, whereas private key converts the received message back to the original message. Answers A, C, and D are correct. The following are the differences between public key cryptography and private key cryptography: Public key is used to encrypt the message, whereas private key is used to decrypt the message. Pubic key is widely distributed, whereas private key is kept secret. Public key converts the message to an unreadable form, whereas private key converts the received message back to the original message. Answer B is incorrect. Public key and private key are used in asymmetric encryption of cryptography

Which of the following is an electronic unsolicited message sent to a user's email address?

-Spam Answer B is correct. Spams are electronic unsolicited messages sent to a user's email address, which are commercial in nature and also carry malicious contents. Answer A is incorrect. A virus is a malicious piece of code that is designed to infiltrate a user's computer via an infected email attachment. Answer C is incorrect. Worms are malicious programs that make copies of themselves again and again on the local drive, network shares, and so on. Answer D is incorrect. Malware is designed to cause damage to a stand alone computer or a networked personal computer.

Henry, a cybersecurity specialist, has been assigned the task of installing surveillance cameras in his organization. These cameras should have longranged high-resolution lenses. Which type of lens should Henry use?

-Telephoto Answer B is correct. Henry should use a telephoto lens. A telephoto lens has long-ranged high-resolution lenses and allows users to view details at long ranges. Answer D is incorrect. A pinhole lens is used for applications where the camera must be hidden. Answer C is incorrect. A fish eye lens allows users to see an entire room, but with some distortion of the image. Answer A is incorrect. A wide-angle lens provides the ability to see a wider image in confined areas.

Mathew wants to troubleshoot DNS related network problems. Which command-line tool will he use?

-nslookup Answer A is correct. Mathew will use nslookup, which is a command-line tool available in many computer operating systems for querying the Domain Name System (DNS) to obtain domain name or IP address mapping. The main use of nslookup is for troubleshooting DNS related problems. Answer C is incorrect. PING is a software utility used to evaluate the ability to reach any other IP host. Answer D is incorrect. ifconfig is a system administration utility in Unix-like operating systems for network interface configuration. Answer B is incorrect. ipconfig is a command-line tool used to control the network connections on Windows NT/2000/XP machines.

Which type of network is a combination of interconnected local area networks inside a medium-sized geographical area?

MAN Metropolitan area network (MAN) is a combination of interconnected local area networks inside a medium-sized geographical area.

Ryan needs to attach a keyboard to his computer. Which type of connector will he use for this purpose?

Series-A Ryan will use a series-A connector. Series-A connectors are used for devices where the USB cable connection is oftentimes permanently attached to devices at one end. Examples of these devices are keyboards, mice, and hubs. Answer D is incorrect. Series-B connectors are designed for devices that require detachable cablings, such as printers, scanners, and modems. Answer C is incorrect. Series-C connectors include a reversible cable that promises higher transfer rates and more power. Answer A is incorrect. Series-D connectors do not exist.