Clinic Entrance study guide
12. Which situation most correctly describes the action of accommodation in the Toggle technique? a. obtaining equal angle at the elbow b. the plane across the shoulders is parallel to the floor c. the plane between the two elbow fossas is always parallel to the floor d. both b & c are correct
A
13. An ASIN ilium misalignment will: a. Raise the ipsilateral femur head on x-ray b. Lower the ipsilateral femur head on x-ray c. Have no visual effect as to raising or lowering the femur head on x-ray
A
13. When evaluating Posture using the Gravitational Line in the theoretical ideal posture, where does this line begin? a. at the glabella b. external auditory canal c. lateral head of the humerus d. at the greater trochanter
A
14. An ASLA atlas subluxation adjusted with the patient in a seated position, using Diversified technique, which of the following would be the correct segmental contact point? a. Tip of the left TP b. Posterior arch of atlas on the right c. Tip of the right TP d. Posterior arch of atlas on the left
A
14. Which of the following is NOT part of the correct procedure for performing a Deerfield Test? a. Ask the patient to remove their shoes b. Take out inversion c. evaluate leg length with the knees extended d. evaluate leg length with the knees flexed
A
14. Which of the following is TRUE regarding the lateral view of the elbow, with respect to the anterior and posterior fat pads? a. Posterior fat pad is not normally visible b. Anterior fat pad is not normally visible c. Both anterior and posterior fat pads are normally visible d. Both are only visible when there is soft tissue swelling
A
15. Which of the following is/are used to correct a Base Posterior listing using the Gonstead Technique? a. Pisiform push b. Knee chest c. Both A and B are correct moves
A
16. Displacement of the lateral masses off the condyles of C2 indicates which fracture? a. Jefferson b. Hangman's c. Clay shoveler's d. Chance
A
17. in adjusting a T4 PRS on the knee chest table, you should: a. Stand on the side of spinous laterality b. Use an inferior hand contact c. have the lower thoracic spine a little higher than the area to be adjusted d. have the chest piece as level as possible
A
19. The Horizontal line (HL) is a line parallel to the superior edge of the film and is: a. Scribed from the anterior tubercle of C1 toward the posterior arch b. Used to evaluate cervical weight bearing c. Scribed from the base of dens to the base of occiput d. Is used in evaluating axis listings e. B and C
A
19. Using the Gonstead technique to correcct a subluxation of L4 PRS using a Finger Push move, which of the following would be the correct patient position? a. Side posture with the patient's right side up b. Side posture with the patient's left side up c. Patient in a prone position d. Patient in a supine
A
2. When adjusting a listing of C4 BR in the supine position, using the Diversified Technique, which of the following would be the correct segmental contact point? a. Lamina of C4 on the right b. Lamina of C4 on the left c. C4 spinous process d. C4 transverse process on the right e. C4 transverse process on the left
A
2. Which of the following is a result of a PI ilium misalignment? a. Hyperlordotic curve b. Low femur head level on the contralateral side c. Decreased ipsilateral innominate measurement d. All of the above
A
20. ... with a positive Murphy's sign, which of the following would be the primary concern? (#59, page 12, 1st file) a. Acute cholecystitis b. Kidney infection c. Ruptured spleen d. Acute appendicitis
A
20. Using the Thompson technique, which of the following listings involving the Sacrum would involve a two-part adjustment procedure? a. AI sacrum b. PI Ilium c. 1st rib d. L5 spondy
A
21. An ASLA atlas subluxation adjusted with the patient in a supine position, using Diversified technique, which of the following would be the correct segmental contact point? a. Left TP b. Right TP c. Posterior arch of atlas on the right d. Posterior arch of atlas on the left
A
21. When examining the heart, the patient should be positioned in which of the following positions when auscultating for aortic regurgitation? a. Seated with forward flexion b. Standing c. Supine d. Left lateral decubitis
A
22. The most reliable measurement for platybasia on the lateral skull film is: a. Martin's basilar angle b. McGregor's line c. Chamberlain's line d. Ruth Jackson's line
A
22. Using the Gonstead Technique, which of the following would be the correct move for adjusting a Grade 2 spondy of L5 a. Pisi push b. Finger pull c. Prone on the pelvic bench d. Supine
A
22. When performing the Soto Hall's test, the patient's hips and knees involuntarily flex. This finding would be indicative of which of the following conditions? a. Meningeal irritation b. Fractured cervical vertebra c. Multiple sclerosis d. Cervical sprain/strain injury
A
23. If a patient presents with left head tilt and Atlas is moving properly, you would expect Atlas to? a. Move laterally to the left b. Move laterally to the right c. Remain centered on the NAL d. Rotate C2 spinous to the left e. Obliterate the foramen magnum on the APOM view
A
23. Riser's sign is identified on which of the following view? a. AP view of the pelvis b. AP and lateral thoracic c. Lateral bending views of the thoracic spine d. Lateral view of the wrist
A
25. The hook of the hamate is normally visualized on the PA wrist view a. True b. false
A
26. The drop head piece on the toggle table: a. Minimizes the force required for an adjustment b. Should always be kept at twelve degree inclination c. Compromises the vectors of the adjustment d. A and B e. A and C
A
26. What is the segmental contact point for a PS RS RP occiput when adjusted in the supine position using the Diversified Technique? a. Right mastoid groove b. Left mastoid groove c. Right TP of atlas d. Left TP of atlas
A
27. A positive right Dvorack's in flexion gives you clues for which listing? a. Upper cervical subluxation b. Lumbar subluxation c. Facet imbrication d. Functional scoliosis
A
29. The examiner grasps the patient's flexed wrist and attempts to extend the wrist while instructing the patient to resist her efforts. This stresses the wrist________ group which originates on the _________ epicondyle. a. Flexor, medial b. Flexor, lateral c. Extensor, medial d. Extensor, lateral
A
3. Contact point #1 is the: a. Pisiform b. MCP joint c. Thenar d. Knife-edge
A
3. The most common presentation of a hemivertebra is? a. Lateral b. Dorsal c. Ventral d. Central
A
36. In a patient presenting with nuchal rigidity, decreased range of motion in forward flexion in the cervical spine, a severe headache, and an elevated temperature which of the following orthopedic test would most likely result in a positive finding? a. Kernig's test b. Goldwaithe's test c. Thomas Test d. Lachman's test
A
37. The right pars can be visualized on which of the following view of the lumbar spine? a. RPO or LAO b. LPO or RAO c. LPO or LAO d. RPO or RAO
A
40. Closing of the mitral valve corresponds to which of the following findings? a. The first heart sound b. The opening snap c. The second heart sound d. An early systolic ejection sound
A
42. This periosteal response of bone denotes a slow form of irritation and is therefore the hallmark of a benign process a. Solid b. Laminated c. Codman's triangle d. Spiculated
A
42. When evaluating the pupillary light reflexes, the left and right pupil constrict when light is shown into the left eye. However, neither pupil constricts when light is shown into the right eye. A lesion of which of the following cranial nerves would cause this finding? a. Right optic nerve b. Left optic nerve c. Left oculomotor nerve d. Right oculomotor nerve
A
45. Riser's sign is identified on which of the following views? (repeat?) a. AP view of the pelvis b. AP and lateral thoracic c. Lateral bending views of the thoracic spine d. Lateral view of the wrist
A
47. Which of the following conditions is commonly associated with an increase in the atlantodental interspace (ADI)? a. Down's syndrome b. DJD c. DISH d. Spasm of the cervical musculature
A
48. Which of the following test for Thoracic Outlet Syndrome would be indicative of a cervical rib syndrome? a. Adson't test b. Eden's test c. Wright's test d. Allen's test
A
49. Your patient is complaining of dark colored urine, resembling the color of Coca-Cola and states that his stools are the color of clay. Which of the following would be the primary working diagnosis? a. Hepatitis b. Ulcerative colitis c. Crohn's disease d. Kidney stones
A
53. Which of the following findings specifically suggest a brainstem lesion? a. Loss of pain and temperature sensation on one half of the face b. Double vision in multiple directions of gaze c. Slight ptosis of the eyelid with a constricted pupil d. Weakness of the mimetic muscles in the lower quadrant of the face
A
54. The type of spondylolisthesis seen at L5 due to pars defects: a. Congenital b. Traumatic c. Isthmic d. degenerative
A
55. the mechanism of injury for Hangman's fracture is: a. hyperextension b. hyperflexion c. axial load
A
56. A positive McMurray test, with a positive Apley's compression test, and a negative Apley's Distraction test would be indicative of which of the following conditions? a. Damaged or torn meniscus b. Anterior cruciate ligament sprain c. Quadracep's strain d. Biceps femoris strain
A
58. An acquired blocked vertebra can be caused by which of the following conditions? a. JRA b. Ostoeporosis c. Osteomalacia d. Multiple Myeloma
A
6. Which of the following radiological findings would be most consistent with a clinical impression of pain on lumbar extension? a. Knife clasp syndrome b. Iliolumbar ligament calcification c. Spondylolysis d. Lumbosacral transitional segment
A
61. A "ciliary injection" pattern of redness in the eyes, with decreased vision and dilated pupil suggest which of eh following conditions? a. Glaucoma b. Corneal injury c. Acute iritis d. conjunctivitis
A
63. The "collar" of the scotty dog represents which of the following vertebral structures? a. Pars interarticularis b. Transverse process c. Pedicle d. Descending process
A
65. Activities associated with repetitive wrist flexion, such as throwing, would most commonly be associated with which of the following conditions? a. Medial epicondylitis b. Lateral epicondylitis c. Olecranon burisits d. Arthritis of the elbow
A
68. The earliest syndesmophyte is usually seen: a. At the lumbosacral jxn b. At the toracolumbar jxn c. At the sacroiliac joints d. At the cervicothoracic jxn
A
7. The LAO view of the lumbar spine would show the pars on which side? a. Right b. Left
A
71. The most common location to see changes of DISH is: a. Cervical spine b. Thoracic spine c. Lumbar spine d. SI joints
A
83. A new patient has had a blood lab done by their MD two months ago as part of a complete physical examination. You request a copy of the lab and evaluate the results and present the findings during your CMR on this case. In this case, would CMR laboratory credit be applied? a. Yes b. No
A
84. Percussion of the spleen in the 10th or 11th ICS is done in the left ____ line. a. Anterior axillary b. Midclavicular c. Midaxillary d. Posterior axillary
A
85. Health Center interns must provide the college with their text messenger service provider and telephone number a. True b. False
A
85. When auscultating the abdomen, you hear grating sounds with respiratory variations. What type of abdominal sound does this describe? a. Friction rub b. Abdominal aortic bruit c. Venous hum d. Normal bowel sounds
A
86. What would be the significance of the finding described in the test in question 66? (test= kernig's) a. Meningeal irritation b. Cervical fracture c. Space occupying lesion d. Multiple sclerosis
A
86. When writing in a patient's file, which of the following is acceptable for the LCCW Health Center Protocol? a. Writing in blue or black ink only b. Any ink color is acceptable as long as it is legible c. Files can be written in either ink or pencil, as long as it is a #2 pencil d. All of the above are acceptable for writing in a patient file
A
89. Cotton wool exudates visualized on the opthalmoscopic examination are suggestive of which of the following conditions? a. Malignant hypertension b. Diabetes mellitus c. Increased intracranial pressure d. Macular degeneration
A
67. When a positive Hibb's test is elicited, which of the following orthopedic tests would most likely also elicit a positive finding? a. Lewin Gaenslen's test b. Kemp's test c. Ober's test d. Maximum Cervical Compression test
A-HL B- S
10. The SCP for traditional toggle recoil is the: a. Transverse process of C1 b. Posterior arch of C1 c. Transverse process of C2 d. Lamina-pedicle junction of C2 e. Lateral portion of the spinous process of C2
A
102.The deltoid ligament would be sprained with which of the following injuries? a. Eversion ankle sprain b. Inversion ankle sprain c. Lateral epicondylitis d. Medial epicondylitis
A
105.Synonym for external sty: a. Hordeolum b. Chalazion c. Entropian d. ectropian
A
108.Regarding the belt test, if there is less pain on supported bending it indicates: a. SI lesion b. Disc herniation c. Lumbar lesion of any type d. Hip lesion
A
109.On Weekdays, what is the latest possible time you can schedule a patient's appointment? a. 7:15 b. 7:30 c. 7:45 d. 8:00
A
11. According to the Drop Table technique, which of the following is the most common subluxation for the first rib? a. PLS b. PMS c. PRI d. PMI
A
11. When adjusting the Gonstead technique, using the cervical chair, the contact point on the doctor's hand for adjusting an ASLA listing is the_________ a. Tip of the left thumb b. Tip of the right thumb c. Pisiform of the right hand d. Pisiform of the left hand e. Right index finger
A
112.Which of these structures can be palpated on the lateral aspect of the knee? a. Iliotibial tract b. Pes anserine tendons c. Tibial collateral ligament d. Anterior cruciate ligament
A
113.Parental consent for care in the LCCW Health Center is required for patients under the age of: a. 18 years b. 16 years c. 12 years d. 10 years
A
114.An UMN lesion would most likely result in__________. a. Spasticity b. Rigidity c. Flaccidity d. No change in muscle tone
A
12. "Gull wings" are associated with which of the following? a. Erosive osteoarthritis b. Rheumatoid arthritis c. Reiter's syndrome d. gout
A
Drop table 1. Using the Thompson technique, the patient has a short left leg during a prone leg check in extension. When the patient's head is rotated to the right, there is no change. When the head is rotated to the left, the legs level. Tenderness is noted on the right side of the cervical spine. What subluxation would be indicated by this finding? a. Right cervical syndrome b. Left cervical syndrome c. Bilateral cervical syndrome d. Negative Derefield
B
Gonstead 1. Using the Gonstead Technique, torque would be used when adjusting which of the following subluxations? a. L3 PR b. L5 PRI-m c. P-R d. Ant. coccyx
B
Pathology 1. Which of the following would be most indicative of weakness resulting from a lesion involving the right spinal accessory nerve? a. Weakness to resistance while turning the head to the right b. Weakness to resistance while turning the head to the left c. Weakness in elevation of the left shoulder d. Weakness in abduction of the right arm
B
11. When adjusting a T2 PLS using the Diversified Technique with a Single Hand contact, which of the following would be the correct Contact Point? a. Thenar eminence with fingers pointing up the spine b. Thenar eminence with fingers pointing down the spine c. Fleshy pisiform with fingers pointing up the spine d. Fleshy pisiform with fingers pointing down the spine
C
110.When the femoral nerve traction test is positive, it is an indicator of: a. Radiculopathy of the mid and upper lumbar spine b. Possible spondylolysis c. Hip lesion d. SI lesion
C
110.Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the required appearance and dress code for Interns in the LCCW health center? a. Female interns may wear open toed shoes b. Male interns may wear a polo style shirt, only if it has a LCCW logo on it c. Socks are required of all interns. However hose are acceptable for female interns d. All of the above are true statements
C
111.While performing the straight-leg-raise, the examiner places their free hand under the lumbar spine: a. Hyperextension test b. Kemp's test c. Goldthwait's test d. Fajersztajn's test
C
112.When a "Red Dot" is placed on the outside of the patient's file, what should the intern do? a. Immediately contact any CMR faculty prior to scheduling the patient b. Report to the records room to determine the meaning of the "Red Dot" c. Look for contraindications written on the Faculty Notes page d. Refer the patient to the finance department
C
113.According to LCCW health center procedure, girth should be measured_____ inches above/below the elbow and ____ inches above/below the knee a. 2, 4 b. 3,3 c. 3,6 d. 4,8
C
115.What muscle strength grade would be most appropriate when a patient is able to abduct their arm fully against gravity, but is unable when even a little resistance is applied by the examiner? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
C
117.With the patient seated, the patient attempts to extend each leg one at a time. The examiner resists the patient's attempt at hip flexion with downward pressure on the thigh: a. Lasegue sitting b. Deyerle's c. Bechterew's sitting d. Turyns's
C
12. T6 has misaligned PRI-t, which of the following represents the proper contact point by the doctor using Gonstead? a. Right transverse process of T6 b. Right spinous process of T6 c. Left transverse process of T6 d. Left spinous process of T6
C
12. Which of the following listing would be consistent with a subluxation listing in the region of C2-C6, using diversified Technique? a. SR b. PLS c. BL d. B or C
C
13. According to Diversified Technique, the segmental contact point for adjusting a Body right or Body Left in the prone position is the ___________. a. Spinous process b. Transverse process c. Lamina on the side of body rotation d. Lamina on the opposite side of body rotation
C
14. Using the Gonstead Technique, which of the following would be the correct move for adjusting a Grade 3 spondy at L5 a. Pisi push with involved side up b. Finger pull with involved side down c. Adjust as a base posterior sacrum d. Supine with hips and knees flexed
C
15. The side of cervical syndrome is determined by which of the following factors? a. the side of the short leg b. the side of the long leg c. the side of head rotation d. the side opposite head rotation
C
16. Which of the following is the patient position for a Gonstead listing of PR-t at T-11? a. Side posture, right side up b. Side posture, right side down c. Prone d. supine
C
17. Which of the following is the LEAST helpful differentiating factor between an Os Odontodeum and a Type III Odontoid fracture? a. Zone of separation b. Marginal details c. Posterior cervical line d. The size and density of the anterior tubercle
C
17. Which one of the following is NOT pain producing as part of Dejerine's Triad: a. Coughing b. Straining at the stool c. Swallowing d. Sneezing
C
18. According to the Drop Table technique, the 2nd through 10th ribs usually subluxate in which of the following directions? a. PLS b. PRI c. PMS d. PMI
C
18. On the AP-pelvic film, if the margin of the acetabulum crosses Kohler's line, it indicates the following: a. Slipped femoral capital epiphysis b. Os acetabula c. Protrusio acetabula d. Legg-Calve-Perthe's disease
C
18. Which of the following listings would be consistent with a subluxation listing in the region of C2-C6 using the diversified technique? a. SR b. PLS c. BL d. B or C
C
19. Discrete, short range movements of a joint independent of the action of voluntary muscles, determined by springing each vertebrae at the limit of its passive range of motion is the definition of which of the following chiropractic terms? a. trigger points b. adjustment c. end play d. fixation
C
19. In scoliosis evaluation, this x-ray view is helpful in distinguishing between structural and functional scoliosis? a. AP thoracic b. Lateral thoracic c. Lateral bending d. AP view of the pelvis
C
19. The swallowing test is most likely to be positive in which one of the following conditions affecting the cervical spine: a. Psoriasis b. Pancoast tumor c. Advanced DISH d. Annular bulge
C
2. A bilateral Cervical Syndrome is indicative of: a. a PI ilium b. An AI sacrum c. An anterior occipital misalignment d. A posterior occipital misalignment
C
2. A patient presents with a painful rash on the right side of his chest, in a band-like distribution extending from the back around toward the xiphoid process. The pattern of this rash is consistent with a lesion associated with which of the following structures? a. Anterior horn cells in the T5 segmental level of the spinal cord b. Degeneration of the dorsal columns of the spinal cord c. Dorsal nerve root ganglia of the T7 spinal nerve root d. Polyneuropathy associated with Diabetes Mellitus
C
20. According to the Diversified Technique, a P-R sacrum, adjusted with the patient in a side posture position, which of the following would be the correct doctor's contact point? a. Pisiform b. Thenar c. Knife edge d. Lateral index
C
21. A positive right cervical syndrome is associated with which listing? a. ASLP b. ASRP c. BL d. BR
C
22. The purpose of paraspinal thermographic scans in Toggle Technique is to: a. Specifically determine if Atlas needs to be adjusted b. Specifically determine if Axis needs to be adjusted c. Determine the presence of an upper cervical subluxation d. Determine the side of Atlas or Axis laterality
C
22. With a right cervical syndrome, the doctor palpates for a tender nodule on the ____ side of the cervical spine, while standing on the _____ side of the patient a. Right, right b. Right, left c. Left, left d. Left, right
C
23. The PS Occiput listing using Diversified technique, would be determined by which of the following findings? a. Left cervical syndrome b. Right cervical syndrome c. Bilateral cervical syndrome d. None of the above
C
24. A line drawn on both the lateral film and the base posterior film. On each view it uses a different set of landmarks for its construction. What is the name of the line? a. Lateral atlas line b. Horizontal basilar line c. Atlas plane line d. Saggital skull line e. Saggital occiput Atlas
C
24. Which of the following is the most radiolucent of the four endogenous radiograph densities? a. Calcium b. Fat c. Air d. Water
C
25. A PRI-t Gonstead Listing means there is: a. Open wedge on the right b. Concavity on the left c. Open wedge on the left d. None of the above
C
25. Using the integrated drop table technique, which of the following would be the correct procedure for adjusting a retrolisthesis of L5? a. Supine move with one drop b. Supine move with three drops c. Prone move with one drop d. Prone move with three drops *
C
26. In Drop table 2nd-10th ribs usually subluxate: a. PLS b. PRI c. PMS d. PMI
C
26. What films are taken to determine a positive Ulman's Line? a. Lumbar obliques b. A-P lumbo-pelvic c. Lateral lumbar d. Spot A-P lumbo sacral
C
27. With the patient seated, the patient attempts to extend each leg one at a time. The examiner resists the patient's attempts at hip flexion with downward pressure on the thigh: a. Lasegue sitting b. Deyerle's c. Bechterew's Sitting d. Turyn's
C
29. Hangman's fracture is best seen on which view: a. APOM b. Lower AP cervical c. Lateral
C
3. In conducting a routine neurological examination on a patient, which of the following would be the minimum to evaluate both large and small diameter fibers? a. Pinprick and temperature sensations b. Vibration and light touch sensation c. Pinprick and joint position sense d. Any of the above two modalities would be an acceptable combination
C
32. Codman's Test (Drop Arm Test) is used to determine which of the following conditions? a. Frozen shoulder b. Glenohumeral Instability c. Rotator Cuff tears d. Acromioclavicular Instability
C
32. The "eye" of the Scotty-dog represents which of the following vertebral structures? a. Pars b. Transverse process c. Pedicle d. Descending process
C
34. When Ober's test is positive, the significance would be the possibility of which of the following conditions? a. Sacroiliac Joint dysfunction b. Sciatic Nerve Irrititation c. Contraction of the Iliotibial band d. Lumbar Disc Protrusion
C
44. The tibiotalar, talocalcaneal and talonavicular joints would be evaluated in which of the following views? a. AP ankle b. Medial oblique ankle c. Lateral ankle d. Dorsiplantar
C
44. Which of the following skin lesions would be most suggestive of liver disease? a. Cherry angiomas b. Ecchymosis c. Spider angiomas d. Café-au-lait spots
C
48. Which of the following views would best be used to confirm a suspected SI transitional segment with possible accessory articulation? a. Lateral L5 spot b. Lateral bending views c. AP sacral base tilt d. oblique
C
5. Abdominal aortic aneurysms are most common in which of the following locations? a. At the aortic knob b. Between the renal arteries and the aortic knob c. Between the renal arteries and the iliac bifurcation d. Below the iliac bifurcation
C
50. the purpose of measuring the femoral angle is to evaluate a. Slipped femoral capital epiphysis b. patellar position c. coxa vera/ coxa valga d. Osgood-Schlatter's disease
C
51. When performing the straight leg raise test, what is the normal range of pain-free motion that the patient should be expected to achieve? a. 45 degrees b. 60 degrees c. 80 degrees d. 110 degrees
C
52. Greenstick fractures are seen in? a. Osteomalacia b. Paget's c. Children d. All of the above
C
52. Which of the following would be more consistent with a ruptured appendix than with an inflamed appendix? a. Nausea and vomiting b. Abdominal pain in the right lower quadrant c. Involuntary guarding of the abdominal muscles d. Low grade fever
C
55. A change in percussion noted along the 8th-11th interspace on the left anterior axillary line from tympany to dullness, on inspiration, suggests which of the following conditions? a. Enlargement of the liver b. Inflammation of the gallbladder c. Enlargement of the spleen d. Enlargement of the kidney
C
59. Noticeable winging of the scapula that is evident when the patient pushes against a wall suggests weakness of which of the following muscles? a. Supraspinatus b. Infraspinatus c. Serratus anterior d. Rhomboid major
C
6. Numerous, large (greater than 1.5cm) Café-Au-Lait spots on the patient's skin suggests which of the following conditions? a. Cirrhosis of the liver b. Rheumatoid arthritis c. Neurofibromatosis d. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
C
60. When a patient presents with pain in the left shoulder, careful attention must be given to evaluation of which of the following visceral structures? a. Gallbladder b. Spleen c. Heart d. Kidney
C
61. A sesamoid bone found in the tendon of the lateral head of the gastrocnemius, visualized on the lateral view of the knee is called: a. Os peroneum b. Os sustentaculi c. Os Fabella d. Os Tibiale Externum
C
65. An absent pedicle on one side, with hypertrophy of the contralateral pedicle is indicative of which of the following conditions? a. Metastatic carcinoma b. Canal stenosis c. Congenital lesion d. Spondylolisthesis
C
66. Which of the following is the health center's preferred method for scoliosis evaluation? a. Cobb's method b. Eisenstein's Method c. Risser-Ferguson Method d. Franklin's method
C
68. The shoulder Apprehension test, when positive, is suggestive of which of the following conditions? a. Frozen shoulder b. Rotator cuff tears c. Glenohumeral instability d. Acromioclavicular instability
C
7. A "simple" listing is which of the following? a. PRI-m b. PRI-t c. PRS d. PRI-lam
C
7. Your patient's radiography reveals a Right PI 10 EX 5 on the right and a P7-R. During your physical examination you determine the right SI joint is fixated. Based on these findings, using the Gonstead Protocol, what should you adjust? a. Right AS10 In5 b. Left AS10 IN5 c. Right PI10 EX5 d. P-R
C
70. in the portion of the cranial nerve examination, when you ask the patient to say "Ah" and you look inside their mouth, which of the following cranial nerves is being evaluated? a. Facial nerve b. Glossopharyngeal nerve c. Vagus nerve d. Hypoglossal nerve
C
72. A 54 year old patient presents with weakness of the left leg. Upon physical examination, the patient is unable to "heel walk" on the left side. The medial hamstring reflex is absent on the left, and 1+ on the right. All somatosensory modalities are decreased on the antero-lateral aspect of the left leg, across the dorsum of the left foot, and into the great toe. Based upon these findings, which of the following would be the primary diagnosis? a. Tibial neuropathy b. Common peroneal neuropathy c. L5 radiculopathy d. S1 radiculopathy
C
72. The term "uniform" indicates a. Changes are similar when comparing right with left b. Only one part of the joint space is affected c. The entire joint space is evenly affected d. Both sides are evenly affected
C
73. A measurement of less than _____ at any level of the lumbar spine must be indicative of canal stenosis. a. 21mm b. 17mm c. 15mm d. 19mm
C
74. A compression fracture of the calcaneous could be identified using the following measurement: a. Skinner's line b. McGreggor's line c. Boehler's angle d. Ullmann's line
C
76. The pathway for bronchial dilation originates in which of the following region? a. Dorsal motor nucleus of the CNX b. Intermediolateral Cell Column of T1-T5 c. Sympathetic trunk ganglia d. Ventral primary rami
C
8. Which of the following is the patient position for a Gonstead listing of PRI-t at T-8? a. Side posture, right side up b. Side posture, right side down c. Prone d. supine
C
81. Visualization of an ossiclum terminale at C2 is considered anomalous after what age? a. 2 years b. 5-7 years c. 10-12 years d. 16-18 years
C
84. How many adjustments must be preformed on student patients before an Intern is allowed to begin outpatient adjustments? a. 0 b. 24 c. 30 d. 50
C
9. Using the Diversified Technique, a listing of PS RS RP would involve what segment? a. Atlas b. Axis c. Occiput d. coccyx
C
91. 60 yr old male has 2 mos hx of progressive weakness and fasciculation of the tongue. Neuro exam reveals weakness in upper and lower extremities, and the plantar reflex was bilaterally extensor. Some DTR's in the UE are diminished. The sensory exam was unremarkable. Which of the following is most likely the etiology? a. Multiple sclerosis b. Subacute combined systems disease (PLS) c. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) d. Polymyositis e. Myasthenia gravis
C
92. Where is physiotherapy equipment kept in the Health Center? a. In the adjusting cubicles b. In the examination rooms c. In the preparation room (records room) d. Interns must provide their own PT equipment
C
93. All acute care patients must be through CMR within ______ of the initial visit unless the supervising faculty doctor authorizes additional time. a. One week b. 48 hours c. 24 hours d. Two weeks
C
93. Hydroxyapetite crystals are associated with: a. CPPD b. Gout c. HADD d. RA
C
97. Which of the following cranial nerves is affected when general pain sensation on the tongue is lessened? a. Hypoglossal nerve b. Glossopharyngeal nerve c. Trigeminal nerve d. Facial nerve
C
6. For an AI sacrum which of the following areas would NOT have a trigger point? a. Pubic tubercle b. Ischial tuberosity c. PSIS d. ASIS
C- star D- HL
100.At what point is an Intern qualified to use an elective technique to adjust a patient? a. After the intern has completed a minimum of 125 adjustments using techniques from the core technique curriculum b. When the intern has successfully completed the elective technique course and is certified by the health center registrar c. When the intern is authorized to care for outpatients d. A and B
B
104.Which of the following types of headache also has autonomic nerve dysfunction? a. Migraine HA b. Cluster HA c. Tension HA d. Subarachnoid hemorrhage e. Temporal arteritis
B
106.Conduction loss localizes to the good ear (+) in the Weber test. a. True b. False
B
107.When the patient's file is contained in a blue folder, what does that mean? a. The patient is under acute care protocol b. The patient is covered by Medicare insurance c. The intern would need authorization from the DOD to check out the file d. There is a specific contraindication to adjusting the patient that is noted in the file
B
107.With the patient prone, a hand is placed on the sacrum to stabilize while the knee is flexed 90 degrees and the hip is internally rotated: a. Fly's b. Hibb's c. Gaenslen's d. Yeoman's
B
11. Which of the following listings has an A-P vector? a. ESL b. AILA c. ASRP d. BR e. All of the above
B
11. a lesion affecting the posterior lobe of the pituitary would most likely result in which of the following conditions? a. Amenorrhea b. Diabetes insipidus c. Diabetes mellitus d. hyperthyroidism
B
116.Regarding the "Antalgia" sign, if a patient has a medial disc herniation they are most likely to lean: a. Away from leg pain b. Toward the leg pain c. Directly forward
B
13. The high end of the normal range for the systolic blood pressure is _____mm Hg a. 120-129 b. 130-139 c. 140-149 d. 150-159
B
14. Which combination of Toggle listings would best yield an ESR listing? a. spinous left of the ALL, dens right of the SSL b. Dens right of the NAL, spinous right of the dens c. Desn right of the SSL, spinous left of the dens d. Spinous right of the NAL, dens right of the spinous
B
15. The heart sound auscultated at the apex of the heart is produced by: a. Opening of the tricuspid valve b. Closure of the mitral valve c. Closure of the pulmonic valve d. Opening of the aortic valve
B
15. The listing of "Body Right" is used by which technique(s)? a. Gonstead b. Diversified c. Toggle d. A and B
B
16. Movement around the Y-axis is said to be in the ____ plane? a. coronal plane b. horizontal plane c. sagittal plane
B
16. When performing a Deerfield Test, and the left leg is short in position one and becomes long in position two, which of the following listings would this finding suggest? a. PI ilium on the right b. PI ilium on the left c. AI ilium on the right d. AI ilium on the left
B
17. A leg check following a Toggle adjustment always results in an even length of the patient's legs? a. true b. false
B
18. Raynaud's phenomenon is most closely associated with which one of the following: a. Ankylosing spondylitis b. Scleroderma c. DISH d. Thoracic outlet syndrome
B
18. Using the Gonstead Technique, which of the following would be the correct procedure for adjusting a left PIEX using a Pull Move a. patient's right side down with a kick b. patients left side down with a kick c. patients right side down pocket to pocket with a swift body drop d. patients left side down, pocket to pocket with a swift body drop
B
20. Using the Gonstead Technique, torque would be used when adjusting which of the following subluxations? a. L3 PR b. L5 PRI-m c. P-R d. Ant Coccyx
B
20. When blocked vertebra are visualized on a lateral cervical film, which of the following would definitely suggest a failure of segmentation during fetal development? a. Convex anterior margin of the vertebral bodies b. One spinous process for two segments c. The presence of osteophytes d. A normal disc space between two segments
B
21. According to the modified toggle method, the line of correction for an AIL is: a. L-M, I-S, A-P b. L-M, S-I, CW Torque c. L-M, S-I, A-P, CW torque d. L-M, I-S, A-P, CW torque e. None of these choices
B
22. A Derefield negative is indicative of: a. A PI ilium b. An AI sacrum c. A bilateral cervical syndrome d. A lumbar misalignment
B
24. Using the Thompson technique to adjust the atlas a. The patient sits in a chair b. Uses toggle recoil * c. The patient lies supine d. The patient lies prone
B
24. Which of the following findings on the ophthalmoscopic examination would suggest an increased intracranial pressure? a. Yellowish orange appearance of the fundus b. Swollen optic disc with loss of cup c. Pale color at the base of an enlarged cup d. Hard exudates
B
26. Regarding the "Antalgia" sign, if a patient has a medial disc herniation they are most likely to lean: a. Away from leg pain b. Toward the leg pain c. Directly forward
B
27. Congenital blocked vertebrae can be differentiated from acquired block vertebra by? a. Congenital block vertebrae result in a decrease in segmental height b. Congenital block vertebrae usually are narrowed at the "waist" c. Acquired block vertebrae will frequently have associated anomalies elsewhere d. Acquired block vertebrae will have one spinous process for two vertebral segments
B
28. The RAO view of the lumbar spine would show the pars on which side? a. Right b. Left
B
3. An atlas with an inclination of 10 degrees on the lateral film is listed as? a. AS b. AI c. Neutral
B
30. Lachman's test is used to evaluate which of the following structures? a. Rotator cuff b. Anterior cruciate ligament c. Ulnar collateral ligament d. Medial collateral ligament
B
30. Which of the following is the most common type of spondylolisthesis in persons under the age of 50? a. Dysplastic b. Isthmic c. Traumatic d. pathological
B
33. Which of the following congenital anomalies may cause traction and compression of the vertebral artery? a. Ossiculum terminale b. Posterior pontacle c. Spina bifida occulta d. Hypoplastic odontoid
B
35. A femoral angle measurement of 135 degrees suggests which of the following? a. Coxa vara b. Coxa valga c. Slipped epiphysis d. None of the above, this is a normal finding
B
35. Clonus is commonly tested for in which of the following locations? a. Fingers and Toes b. Ankle and Wrist c. Hip and Shoulder d. Cervical spine
B
37. When evaluating a 15 month old infant, a palpable and audible click is identified when the patient is placed in a supine position and the hips are flexed and abducted. This finding would be indictative of which of the following conditions? a. This would be a normal finding b. Cengenital hip dislocation c. Weakness of the gluteus medius d. Rotated sacrum
B
38. Which of the following changes in the retinal blood vessels occurs with Diabetes Mellitus? a. Flame hemorrhages b. Blot hemorrhages c. Drusen bodies d. Cotton wool patches
B
39. A 59 year old male presents with a chief complaint of hearing loss. The following findings were present on examination. On Weber's test, sound lateralized to the right ear. On the Rinne Test, air conduction exceeds bone conduction bilaterally. However, both air conduction and bone conduction were decreased on the left as compared to the right. Which of the following best describes this patient's hearing loss? a. Sensorineural hearing loss on the right b. Sensorineural hearing loss on the left c. Conduction hearing loss on the right d. Conduction hearing loss on the left
B
39. Which of the following is the most metabolically active area of bone during growth? a. Epiphysis b. Metaphysis c. Physis d. Diaphysis
B
4. A congenital elevation of the scapula is referred to as: a. Kleppel-Feil syndrome b. Sprengel's deformity c. Scheuermann's Disease d. Risser's sign
B
4. A thoracic rotatory scoliosis is associated with which listing? a. PLS b. PRI-t c. PRS d. PR
B
4. When testing the strength of wrist extension, the patient is unable to extend the wrist against resistance with the forearm in pronation. With the forearm pronated, the patient is still unable to extend the wrist without examiner resistance. However, when the forearm is rotated half way between pronation and supination, the patient is able to extend the wrist. What would be the correct grade for the muscle strength of the wrist extensors with gravity eliminated? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. 5
B
4. Which of the following listings has a P-A vector component? a. AIR b. ASLP c. AIRA d. SR
B
4. With the patient in a standing position, a PIEx ilium subluxation has what effect on the leg length? a. Raises the ipsilateral femur head b. Lowers the ipsilateral femur head c. Causes the ipsilateral foot to flare out d. Has no effect on leg length
B
40. Which of the following would be the most appropriate view to assess the Atlanto-dental interspace? a. RAO cervical b. Cervical flexion c. Cervical extension d. APOM
B
41. Which of the following times is the safest time to x-ray a female patient? a. Within ten days of the last day of menses b. Within ten days of the first day of menses c. Within the 10 days prior to the onset of the patient next menses d. Within five days before or five days after the onset of menses
B
43. The standard view of the pelvis is the AP film, taken with the patient in which of the following positions? a. With the feet in a neutral position b. With the feet internally rotated 15 degrees c. With the feet externally rotated 25 degrees d. With the leg on the involved side adducted at the hip, with knee flexion
B
46. The growth centers of the tip of the dens are normally ossified by what age? a. 5-7 years b. 10-12 years c. 15-17 years d. 23-25 years
B
47. a fall on an outstretched hand is most likely to dislocate which of the following carpal bones? a. Capitate b. Lunate c. Triquetrum d. pisiform
B
49. The RAO view in the cervical region would show which of the following structures? a. Left IVF b. Right IVF c. Left pars d. Right pars
B
5. The listing of "Body Left" using the Diversified Technique, would correlate to which of the following Gonstead listings? a. PL b. PR c. both d. neither
B
87. A flexor response to the plantar stimulation in an adult would be considered: a. Pathological reflex b. Normal superficial reflex c. Abnormal superficial reflex d. Primitive reflex
B
88. When working on your patient file, you can take the file to which of the following locations as long as the file is turned into the records room before the close of that day? a. Any place on the LCCW campus b. Any place within the LCCW health center c. Any place off campus d. Only to the intern preparation area on the second floor
B
9. According to the Gonstead theory, an inferior tipping of the sacrum could occur in which of the following locations? a. On the side of anterior rotation b. On the side of posterior rotation c. Only with lumbar rotation d. Only on side of PI ilium e. Can occur anywhere
B
95. A positive Anterior Drawer sign would indicate a tear in which of the following ligaments? a. Posterior cruciate ligament b. Anterior cruciate ligament c. Medial collateral ligament d. Lateral collateral ligament
B
98. Which of the following is another term for a positive Babinski's test? a. Flexor plantar response b. Extensor plantar response c. Absent plantar response d. Exaggerated plantar response
B
21. Upon motion palpating T-10, there is a noted decrease in left lateral flexion and decreased right spinous process rotation, compared to the segment above and below. Based upon these findings, what would the expected T-10 listing be? a. PLS b. PLI-t c. PRS d. PRI-t
D
21. Which of the following would be the optimal view for evaluation of Chondromalacia Patella? a. AP Knee b. Lateral knee c. Tunnel view d. Sunrise view
D
23. What neurological components cause the short leg? a. Adverse sensory afferent input to the bulbar reticular formation b. Spasticity in the extensor muscles c. Muscle contraction causing a short leg d. All of the above
D
23. Your patient's radiograph reveals as AS10IN5 on the left and P7-R. During your physical exam you determine the right SI joint is fixated. Based on these findings, using the Gonstead protocol, what should be adjusted? a. Left ASIn b. Right PIEx c. Ex pull move d. P-R
D
24. Using the Diversified Technique, the Double Transverse move would be used when adjusting the patient in a prone position for which of the following listings? a. PLS b. PR c. PLI-m d. PRI-t
D
24. Using the Gonstead Technique, torque would be applied when adjusting which of the following listings? a. PRS at L2 b. PRI-m at L4 c. PIEX d. All of the above
D
25. According to Diversified Technique, the segmental contact point for adjusting a Body Right or Body Left in the prone position in the _____. a. Spinous process b. Transverse process c. The lamina on the side opposite body rotation d. The lamina on the side of body rotation
D
25. Which of the following is the expected finding on the Weber's Test with conduction deafness? a. Air conduction exceeds bone conduction by a 2:1 ratio b. Sound is heard equally in both ears when a tuning fork is placed on the glabella c. Sound lateralizes to the "good" ear from a tuning fork placed on the glabella d. Sound lateralizes to the "bad" ear from a tuning fork placed on the glabella
D
27. A PRI-t Gonstead listing means there is? a. Inferior wedging on the right b. Superior wedging on the left c. Concavity on the left d. Both A and B are correct
D
27. Computerized paraspinal thermography detects subluxation by: a. Measuring the difference in paraspinal muscle tension b. Demonstrating to the doctor the region of pain c. Sensing edema over the affected areas of the spine d. Measuring autonomic changes of spinal nerves e. Both A and D are correct
D
27. When setting the drop piece, after loosening the tension knob until the weight forces the drop piece to release, which of the following should be done? a. Tighten the tension by a turn b. Tighten the tension by 1 full turn c. Tighten the tension by 1 turns d. Tighten the tension by 2 full turns
D
28. When moving from a flexed to an extended position the tibia________ on the femur. a. Glides posterior b. Rocks posterior c. Internally rotates d. Externally rotates
D
3. When performing the cervical syndrome objective test, you find that the patient has a right short leg and when the head is turned to the left the legs even out. This is called a ______ cervical syndrome, suggesting a body ________. a. Right, Right b. Right, Left c. Left, Left d. Left, Right
D
31. Which of the following would be TRUE regarding an acquired blocked vertebra? a. Acquired block vertebrae have a rudimentary or hypoplastic disc b. Acquired block vertebrae are narrowed at the "waist" c. Acquired blocked vertebrae will have other associated anomalies elsewhere in the spine d. Acquired blocked vertebrae are convex at the level of the disc segment
D
36. Yochum states that the minimum requirement for classifying a segment as transitional is an increase in height greater than _____ of at least one L5 TP a. 5mm b. 9mm c. 12mm d. 19mm
D
69. Which arthropathy affects predominately the feet and spine? a. Rheumatoid arthritis b. Systemic lupus c. Psoriatic arthritis d. Reiter's syndrome
D?
64. persistence of the lumbar lordosis as the patient bends forward to touch their toes is suggestive of which of the following? a. Normal motion of the lumbar spine b. Scoliosis c. Muscle spasm d. Facet syndrome
C? <- Only one that makes sense -Mike
45. When palpating the liver, which of the following would be considered normal? a. Firmness of the surface of the liver with irregular contours b. Smoothness of the surface with sharp boarders c. Bluntness or roundness of the borders of the liver d. All of the above are normal variations of the liver
C? <- Yeah -Mike
10. According to Gonstead theory, when a patient presents with an external foot flare on the right, which of the following misaliagnments should be suspected? a. PI ilium on the right b. Ex ilium on the right c. Ex ilium on the left d. IN ilium on the right e. AS ilium on the right
D
10. The listing, level, order of adjustment and technique would be included in which portion of the SOAP note? a. S b. O c. A d. P
D
102.Which of the following is the first page on the right side of the patient file, given the correct order of pages required by the LCCW health center protocols and procedures? a. Most recent page of SOAP Notes b. Faculty Notes page c. Patient Information Sheet d. CMR Action summary page
D
103.To correct anterior pelvic tilt which muscle group should be strengthened? a. Low back muscles b. Flexor digitorum longus c. Hip flexors d. Abdominal
D
106.Which of the following would be an acceptable shoe style that would be consistent with the intern dress code policy in the health center? a. Low healed shoes with a closed toe, and ankle strap around the back b. High healed shoes with closed toes and closed back c. Dress-style shoes with closed toes and closed back d. All of the above would be acceptable shoes to wear in the health center
D
115.What factors determine the frequency of care that is authorized for a patient? a. The patients request b. The intern's choice of technique c. The interns need of adjusting credits d. The combination of findings from the history, physical, review of systems, x-rays as well as the technique used by the intern e. Whatever the CMR faculty would do in their own practice
D
116.How many Physical Exam credits are needed to graduate? a. Maximum of 10 student credits b. Maximum of 4 student credits c. Minimum of 20 outpatient credits d. A and C are both correct e. B and C are both correct
D
12. A bilateral Cervical Syndrome in the Drop table technique is consistent with which of the following listings? a. body left b. PS occiput c. body right d. AS occiput
D
12. McBurney's point is located in which of the following locations? a. Right upper quadrant b. Left upper quadrant c. Left lower quadrant d. Right lower quadrant
D
13. Dislocations are most common in which of the following? a. Femoacetabular joint b. Sternoclavicular joint c. Acromioclavicular joint d. Glenohumeral joint
D
13. Which of the following questions must be asked of a patient prior to performing an adjustment for an L5 spondylolisthesis on a female patient prior to performing a Drop Table Adjustment? a. What method of birth control is the patient currently using? b. is there any possibility of pregnancy? c. does the patient need to use the restroom? d. all of the above
D
14. A patient presents with bilateral leg pain with absent deep tendon reflexes in the lower extremities, which of the following additional findings would warrant an immediate referral to an emergency room? a. Fasciculations and atrophy in the lower extremities b. Numbness and tingling in the feet bilaterally c. Bowel and/or bladder incontinence d. All of the above
D
15. Which of the following would be most relevant for determining the side of atlas laterality using the Toggle technique? a. a superior inclination of C1 b. the side with rotation less than 90 degrees on the base posterior view c. the side with rotation less than 90 degrees on the APOM view d. C1 relationship to the neural axis
D
15. Which one of the following has a component of rotation/torsion in the mechanism of injury? a. Oblique b. Transverse c. Vertical d. Spiral
D
17. In LCCW clinic, how many objective findings are required in order to adjust a particular segment? a. none b. one c. two d. three e. four
D
17. When adjusting the first rib on the right using the drop table technique, which of the following would be the correct position to place the patient's head? a. Face down b. Rotated to the right c. Face up d. Rotated to the left
D
18. The atlanto-occipital articulation: a. Is strictly a ligamentous relationship b. Is completely dependent upon support form the dens process c. Has an encapsulated joint between the odontoid and the transverse ligament d. Has four supportive ligaments in addition to the two condyloid joints e. B and C
D
19. Which of the following questions must be asked of a patient prior to performing an adjustment for an L5 spondylolisthesis on a female patient prior to performing a Drop Table Adjustment? a. What method of birth control is the patient currently using? b. Is there any possibility of pregnancy c. Does the patient need to use the restroom? d. All of the above *
D
2. A radiological finding of spina bifida of S1 associated with an elongated L5 spinous would be most consistent with which of the following physical exam findings? a. Decreased range of motion on forward flexion b. Pain on static palpation over the lumbar spine c. Lumbar hypolordosis on inspection d. Pain on lumbar extension
D
2. The best non-invasive way to objectively monitor nervous system function is through the use of? a. X-ray b. Motion palpation c. EMG d. Computerized Thermography e. Goniometer
D
3. Using the Gonstead Technique, torque would be applied when adjusting which of the following listings? a. PRS at L2 b. PRI-m at L4 c. PIEX d. Torque is used when adjusting all of the above
Starred B highlight-- D
16. Which of the following Toggle listings uses inferior hand stabilization? a. SR/SL b. ASLP c. ESR e. all of the above
E
20. The main purpose of the patient set up is to: a. Make the patient aware that Toggle Recoil is a very precise technique b. Make sure the doctor can easily find the segmental contact point c. Provide a good posture for resting the patient after the adjustment d. Allow the doctor to obtain the best posture for delivering the adjustment e. Place the patient in a neutral posture
E
25. Using Toggle technique, proper patient positioning requires that: a. The external auditory meatus, anterior portion of the glenohumeral joint and the greater trochanter are aligned b. The patient's head is in the neutral position c. The patient keeps their eyes closed d. All of the above e. A and B
E
26. Typically ____ causes Pubic symphysis deviation to the Left of center, radiographically. a. A left Ex ilium subluxation b. A P-R subluxation c. A P-L subluxation d. A right ASIn subluxation e. A right ASEx subluxation
E
31. Atrophy and fasciculations in the thenar eminence, with a positive Tinnel's sign at the wrist, and a normal response to the Bicep's DTR is most suggestive of which of the following conditions? a. C6 Radiculopathy b. C6 Radiculopathy c. C8 Radiculopathy d. Ulnar nerve neuropathy e. Median nerve neuropathy
E
33. In the Bunnell-Littler Test a positive finding would suggest joint capsule contracture in which of the following situations? a. With the MCP joint in slight flexion, the examiner can flex the PIP joint b. With the MCP joint in slight flexion, the examiner cannot flex the PIP joint c. With the MCP joint in slight extension, the examiner cannot flex the PIP joint d. With the MCP joint in slight extension, the examiner can flex the PIP joint e. Both B and C together would suggest a positive finding for joint capsule contracture
E
38. A diagnostic impression can be obtained from one view in which of the following areas? a. Wrist b. Ankle c. Shoulder d. Spine e. None of the above
E
4. Which of the following techniques can be used on the drop table? a. Diversified b. Gonstead c. Chiropractic Biophysics d. Toggle e. All of the above
E
7. The absence of the intervertebral disc and typical facet joints in the upper cervical region means that? a. The region is relatively unstable when compared to the rest of the spine b. The articulations allow for a great deal of motion c. Only muscles, ligaments and joint capsules maintain the region's stability d. It is an area with a great deal of health altering potential e. All of the above are correct
E
8. Which of the following is correct regarding the Bilateral Cervical Syndrome? a. Feet are even in position one b. Feet are even in position two c. Left leg short when head turned left d. Right leg short when head turned right e. All of the above are correct
E
9. Scheuermann's Disease includes all of the following x-ray views EXCEPT a. Anterior wedging of at least 3 contiguous vertebrae b. Irregular endplates with multiple Schmorl's nodes c. Horizontal linear radiolucencies in vertebral bodies d. Thoracic hyperkyphosis e. A, B, and D are correct
E
97. What is the proper procedure to follow if you will be away durng the College Break? a. Inform your patients of the dates you will be on vacation b. Provide each patient with a list of Intern(s) who will be available to care for them during your absence. c. Have Clinic faculty write intern name and time they will cover for you in the Faculty Notes page of the file. d. Provide the inter(s) who will be covering for you with a list of your patient's names, and discuss any special circumstances e. All of the above are the responsibility of the Intern of Record
E
99. Which of the following types of patients count as student credits in the Health Center? a. Students at LCCW b. The spouse of a student at LCCW c. The parents of a student at LCCW d. The children of a student at LCCW e. All of the above
E
Toggle 1. If Atlas has moved left on APOM analysis and C2 body and dens have moved to the right of the NAL a. C2 body and dens should always remain centered on the SSL b. C2 motion is abnormal and should be addressed c. C2 motion is normal and other segment(s) should be considered d. Thermography will demonstrate a "hot spot" directly over C2 e. Atlas will always rotate anterior to the right
E
81. calcified lymph nodes are: a. fixed b. movable
B
83. Which part of the stethoscope does one use to hear low pitched sounds best? a. Diaphragm b. Bell
B
6. The contact point and line of drive for a PRI-t T2 adjustment would be: a. Right tip of spinous process, P to A, L to M, through the line of the disc (which is S to I) with counterclockwise torque b. Right TP, P to A, M to L, through the line of the disc (which is I to S) with no torque c. Right TP, P to A, L to M, through the line of the disc (which is S to I) with clockwise torque d. Left TP, P to A, L to M through the line of the disc (which is S to I) with clockwise torque e. Left TP, P to A, L to M, through the line of the disc (which is I to S) with no torque
... Big D - Mike
89. When interviewing your patient regarding their past medical history, the patient reveals to you that they are HIV positive, but does not want this information written in her patient file. Which of the following is the correct policy for the LCCW health center? a. The intern is legally required to include this information in the patient's file b. This information can be recorded in a separate, supplemental file in the Dean of the Health Center's office c. At the request of the patient, the intern is not required to record or report this information d. The LCCW health center is not properly equipped to handle patients with HIV and/or AIDS. Therefore, the patient must be referred.
A
9. As the doctor addresses the patient, the doctor's episternal notch should be: a. At or slightly superior to the patient's EAM b. At or slightly inferior to the patient's EAM c. At or slightly superior to the tip of the patient's mastoid process d. At or slightly inferior to the tip of the patient's mastoid process e. At or slightly superior to the tip of the patient's ear lobe
A
90. When a positive Yeoman's test is elicited, which of the following orthopedic tests would most likely also elicit a positive finding? a. Lewin Gaenslen's test b. Ober's test c. Braggard's test d. Maximum cervical Compression test
A
94. All transfer patients must be through CMR within _____ of the initial visit unless the supervising faculty doctor authorizes additional time. a. One week b. 48 hours c. 24 hours d. Two weeks
A
95. What is the maximum number of student category adjustments that will count toward graduation requirements? a. 50 adjustments b. 125 adjustments c. 200 adjustments d. 250 adjustments
A
96. On extreme upward gaze to the right, which cranial nerve is primarily being used in the right eye? a. CN III b. CN IV c. CN V d. CN VI
A
96. When the Intern is in the clinic, and available for patient care, the Intern is required to clock-in at the records room. a. True b. false
A
99. The correct name for the test where the patient is in the supine position and the doctor places his fingers in the lumbar interspinous spaces of the patient's spine, elevates the patients legs and looks for movement of the lumbar spine at the time the patient reports pain is called a. Goldwaithe's b. Ely's c. Lesague's d. Hoover's
A
Diversified 1. When adjusting a T5 PLS with a single hand contact with the patient in a prone position, using the Diversified Technique, which of the following would be the correct position of the Doctor's Contact hand? a. Fingers pointing up the spine b. Fingers pointing down the spine c. Fingers pointing diagonally across the spine d. Both hands placed at a 90 degree angle in a "butterfly" position
A
Health Center 82. The "Three times per quarter" rule for One-Time-Only (OTO) adjustments applies to which of the following? a. An intern can only perform three OTOs per quarter b. A patient can receive a maximum of three adjustments from an Intern other than the intern of Record, per quarter c. Both d. neither
A
101.Subtalar pronation has been defined as a combination of which of the following three movements: a. Abduction b. Plantarflexion c. Dorsiflexion d. Inversion e. Eversion
ACE
10. The "bare area" is found in which type of joint? a. Fibrous b. Cartilage c. Synovial d. None of the above
B
10. Which of the following is the convention used for listing segments in the cervical spine in the Diversified technique with the patient either supine or prone? a. Spinous right/left b. Body right/left c. Orthogonal listings d. Restricted motion
B
10. the finding of papilledema would indicate: a. glaucoma b. increased intracranial pressure c. optic atrophy d. detached retina e. cataracts
B
5. Which of the following patterns of facial weakness would be consistent with Bell's Palsy? a. Weakness of muscles of facial expression on half of the face, with an inability to open the eyelid. b. Weakness of muscles of facial expression on half of the face, with inability to close the eyelid c. Weakness of the lower quadrant of one half the face, with no involvement of the eyelid d. Weakness of muscles of facial expression and muscles of mastication on one half of the face
B
50. Which of the following would be most useful in evaluation of the ulnar collateral ligament? a. Varus stress testing of the elbow b. Valgus stress testing of the elbow c. Dynamonmeter strength testing d. Phalen's test
B
51. McGregor's Line is the most accurate and reliable measurement of which of the following conditions? a. Canal stenosis b. Basilar impression c. Occipitalization of the atlas d. hypolordosis
B
53. a fracture which goes partially through the growth plate then extends up through the metaphysis represents which pattern of Salter-Harris fracture: a. I b. II c. III d. IV
B
54. A positive finding on which of the following tests would prohibit adjusting of the cervical spine until the patient consulted a vascular specialist? a. Soto hall's test b. George's test c. O'Donoghue's maneuver d. All of the above
B
56. Retropulsion is seen with: a. Stable vertebral compression fracture b. Burst fracture c. Stable pelvic fracture d. Unstable pelvic fracture
B
57. Which of the following is the best differentiating factor between a cervical rib and a thoracic rib? a. The C7 spinous process is always bifid b. The transverse processes of T1 points upward c. The transverse processes of C7 points upward d. The transverse processes of C2 are usually small
B
58. A 36-year-old patient presents with decreased sensation in the lateral aspect of the left foot extending into the fifth toe. Muscle stretch reflex test of the Achilles tendon on the left is measured as (1+). Further examination findings also included a positive Valsalva's maneuver, Well leg raise test, and inability to toe walk on the left. These findings are most consistent with which of the following clinical impressions a. L5 radiculopathy b. SI radiculopathy c. Superficial peroneal neuropathy d. B or C
B
6. The Atlas Plane Line (APL) is drawn on which films? (mark all that are correct) a. A-P cervical b. Lateral cervical c. APOM d. Base posterior
B
64. The left IVF in the cervical spine can be visualized on which of the following views? a. RAO and LPO b. LAO and RPO c. RAO and RPO d. LAO and LPO
B
66. Lateral curavature of the spine identified by inspection with the patient in a standing position that disappears when the patient flexes forward at the waist would be considered a structural scoliosis? a. True b. False
B
67. Preservation of joint space, erosions and soft tissue masses best describes: a. Degenerative joint disease b. Inflammatory joint disease c. Metabolic joint disease d. A degenerative variant
B
7. The strength of abduction between the 2nd and 3rd digits of the hand is normally _______ the strength of abduction between the 4th and 5th digits. a. Equal to b. Greater than c. Less than
B
7. When performing a Derefield Test and the left leg is short in position one and becomes long in position two, which of the following listings would this finding suggest? a. PI ilium on the right b. PI ilium on the left c. AI ilium on the right d. AI ilium on the left
B
71. Which of the following types of cholesterol suggests the highest risk factor for coronary heart disease? a. Increased levels of HDLs and low levels of LDLs b. Decreased levels of HDLs and high levels of LDLs c. Increased levels of HDLs and LDLs d. Decreased levels of HDLs and LDLs
B
73. When using a reinforcement technique to facilitate the response of deep tendon reflex activity, which of the following would be the correct method to use? a. Ask the patient to contract the identified muscle group, and then striking the tendon simultaneously b. Ask the patient to contract the identified muscle group, and relax the muscle before striking the tendon c. Ask the patient to contract the identified muscle group as soon as they feel the examiner strike the tendon d. Ask the patient to strike the tendon themselves
B
74. Motor deficits of major muscle groups throughout all four extremities as well as dysarthria and difficulty swallowing, with atrophy, fasiculations, and minimal deep tendon reflex responses, bilateral extensor plantar reflexes, and normal sensory findings is most consistent with which of the following conditions? a. Myasthenia gravis b. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis c. Brown-Sequard syndrome d. Syringomyelia
B
75. An A-P measurement of the abdominal aorta of ____ cm or greater is a potentially life threatening condition and calls for a cardiovascular consultation. a. 2.4 b. 3.8 c. 4.2 d. 5.6
B
75. When a patient is asked to slowly lower their arm from a fully abducted position, and the patient's arm drops from a position of about 90 degrees, the suspected lesion would be which of the following? a. Bicipital tendonitis b. Tear in the supraspinatus c. Weakness of the serratus anterior d. Cervical radiculopathy
B
76. Eisenstein's method is used for which of the following? a. Grading spondylolisthesis b. Measuring the sagittal canal c. Identifying a pars defect d. Identifying a disruption of cortical margins
B
77. The most common location for degenerative joint disease is a. The cervical spine b. The knee c. The hip d. The lumbar spine
B
79. You suspect a fracture rather than failure of complete patella ossification if: a. The radiolucency is at the superiorlateral corner of the patella b. The radiolucency traverses the waist of the patella c. The finding is bilateral or bipartite d. All of the above
B
8. With the patient in a supine position, the examiner stabilizes the sternum and flexes the patients neck forward. The patient's hip and knees involuntarily flex. This would be a positive finding for which of the following orthopedic tests? a. Kernig's b. Brudzinski's c. Babinski's d. Burn's Bench
B
59. Which of the following would be the optimum view to assess the atlantodental interspace? a. Right Anterior Oblique cervical b. Cervical flexion c. Cervical extension d. APOM
B- HL C- S
88. Which of the following is the correct location of the isthmus of the thyroid gland? a. Superior to the thyroid cartilage b. Between the thyroid cartilage and the cricoid cartilage c. Superior to the cricoid cartilage d. Inferior to the cricoid cartilage
B- S D- H:L <- It's D. -Mike
82. Using an average adult blood pressure cuff (12-14cm) on a petite patient with an arm circumference of 9 cm would result in which of the following situations? a. A normal blood pressure reading would be obtained b. An inaccurate reading will be obtained with a false high value c. An inaccurate reading will be obtained with a false low value
B- s C- HL <- It's C. -Mike
16. The aura of a classic migraine headache is attributed to which of the following: a. Vasoconstriction of the cerebral vessels b. Vasodilation of the cerebral vessels c. Increased synaptic activity in the frontal lobe
B?
100.The examiner percusses the groove between the medial epicodyle and the olecranon process of the elbow. The patient reports a tingling sensation into her ring and little fingers (her chief complaint). This is a positive _____ sign a. Womack's b. Staap c. Tinel's d. Froment's
C
105.During the CMR, the health center faculty decides that osseous adjusting would be contraindicated for your patient based upon the clinical findings and the patient's history. However, you wish to adjust, and your clinical impression leads you to believe that this would not be contraindicated. Which is the appropriate response to this situation? a. Arrange to have another CMR with a different Health center faculty doctor b. Call in the DOD to moderate this dispute between the intern and CMR doc c. Appeal the decision to the Dean of the health center for peer review d. The decision of the CMR faculty is final, and you must comply by their decision
C
109.When a positive Bow String test is elicited, which of the following orthopedic tests would most likely also elicit a positive finding? a. Lewin Gaenslen's test b. Ober's test c. Braggard's test d. Maximum cervical compression test
C
11. The earliest indication of degenerative disc disease of the spine is a. Osteophyte formation b. Subchondral cyst formation c. Subchondral sclerosis d. Loss of disc height
C
94. Which valve would be heard best in the 2nd right interspace at the sternal border? a. Mitral b. Pulmonic c. Tricuspid d. Aortic
D
41. bilateral loss of pain and temperature sensation from the axillary region down, with bilateral extensor plantar reflexes, absent superficial abdominal reflexes, and spastic paralysis in all muscle groups in the trunk and lower extremities with preserved tactile and conscious proprioceptive sensations suggest which of the following condition? a. Transection of the spinal cord atT2 segmental level b. Hemisection of the spinal cord on the left at the C7 segmental level c. Vascular occlusion of the Anterior Spinal Artery d. Amyotropic Lateral Sclerosis (Lou Gherig's dx)
D
43. A positive finding on Yergason's Test is most indicative of which of the following conditions? a. Subacromial bursitis b. Glenohumeral instability c. Rotator cuff impingement d. Biceps tendonitis
D
46. Enlarged hard fixed nodules in which of the following locations would be most consistent with thoracic or abdominal malignancy? a. Posterior auricular b. Submandibular c. Tonsillar d. Supraclavicular
D
5. A Body Left (BL) or Body Right (BR) listing is determined by: a. The relationship of the dens to the NAL on the Base Posterior film b. How the Axis spinous relates to the SSL on the APOM film c. How the Axis spinous relates to center of the dens on the Base Posterior film d. Having the C2 SP centered while the dens is lateral to the NAL on the APOM film
D
5. To correct forward head flexion, CBP would set up at: a. T1 b. T2 c. C1 d. C5
D
5. What Diversified move would be used for a T-9 PRI-t listing? a. Single transverse b. Double transverse c. Double thenar d. All of the above
D
57. When examining the abdomen, which of the following examination procedures should be done first? a. Light palpation b. Deep palpation c. Percussion d. Auscultation
D
6. The T-8 spinous has rotated to the left and the body has tilted Superior on the right. What is the listing? a. PLS b. PRS c. PRI-t d. PLI-t
D
60. A significant increase in the retrotracheal interspace would indicate all of the following EXCEPT: a. Hematoma b. Infection c. Mass d. DJD
D
62. Radiodense structures appear as what color on x-ray? a. Black b. Dark gray c. Light gray d. White
D
62. a fixed, palpable non-tender axillary node is associated with: a. calcification b. bacterial infection c. leukemia d. cancer e. not a significant finding
D
63. tendon rupture of the rotator cuff most frequenly involves which of the following muscles? a. Subscapularis b. Teres minor c. Infraspinatus d. Supraspinatus
D
69. Ober's test is performed with the patient in a slide lying position, and is positive when: a. the patient is unable to hold the leg in an abducted position with the knee extended. b. The patient is unable to hold the leg in an abducted position with the knee flexed c. The patient's leg falls into adduction after the examiner abducts and extends the leg and releases the leg d. The patient's leg remains abducted when the examiner releases the leg in an abducted and extended position
D
70. Which of the following has been shown to have clinical significance as a likely cause of extremity pain and/or paresthesia: a. Cervical IVF narrowing due to uncovertebral osteophytes b. Cervical IVF narrowing due to posterior facet osteophytes c. Lumbar IVF narrowing from facet osteophytes d. All of the above
D
77. Anosmia is a condition associated with the ______ nerve? a. Maxillary b. Optic c. Ophthalmic d. Olfactory
D
78. Which of the following would be an expected x-ray finding in Osgood'Schlatter's disease a. Thickened patellar ligament b. Blurred infrapatellar fat pad c. Irregularity of the anterior tibial tuberosity d. All of the above
D
78. Which of the following would be considered a normal "carrying angle" of the elbow? a. 20-25 degrees cubitus varus b. 5-15 degrees cubitus varus c. 20-25 degrees cubitus valgus d. 5-15 degrees cubitus valgus e. None of the above
D
79. A reduced or reversed cervical lordosis can result from which of the following conditions? a. Trauma b. Muscle spasm c. DJD d. All of the above
D
8. In the Diversified Technique, a listing of PS-LS-LP would be corrected with the patient in which of the following positions? a. Supine b. Prone c. Seated d. Supine or seated
D
8. The reason that the Toggle Recoil x-ray marking system we use is so effective is because it a. Measures the misalignment of one bone to another with precision and accuracy b. Is completely objective in its principles of analysis and application c. Represents the relationship of the condyles to C1 and C2 accurately d. Allows for an accurate assessment of the upper cervical complex in relation to the foramen magnum e. Takes into account upper cervical anomalies and renders them unimportant
D
80. A solid elevated lesion >2cm diameter extending into deep tissues is called a _______? a. Erosion b. Fissure c. Papule d. Tumor e. lipoma
D
80. Degenerative Spondylolisthesis is most common at which of the following vertebral levels? a. C5 and L2 b. C4 and L3 c. C7 and L4 d. C3 and L5
D
87. Interns in Clinic I are required to meet with their faculty advisor for individual meetings a minimum of how many times per quarter? a. None b. Once c. Twice d. Three times
D
9. A 40-yr old female has a long history of non-exertional chest pain, palpitations, lightheadedness, and fatigue> Physical examination revealed only a mid-systolic click. The most likely diagnosis is: a. anxiety reaction b. pericarditis c. aortic regurgitation d. mitral valve prolapse e. tricuspid valve stenosis
D
9. A bilateral cervical syndrome in the Drop Table Technique is consistent with which of the following listings? a. Body left b. Body right c. PS occiput d. AS occiput
D
90. The patient that has not been under care for what period of time is considered a new patient? a. 90 days b. 6 months c. 1 year d. 3 years
D
92. The apical impulse is most easily felt with the patient in which of the following positions? a. Supine b. Seated c. Prone d. Left lateral decubitis
D
98. Which of the following represents the correct process by which an intern gains entrance into the Health Center? a. The intern must pass the written entrance exam on either the original or remake b. The intern must pass the x-ray practical exam, on either the original or remake c. The intern must pass all stations on the 14 station practical exam on either the original or remake d. The intern must do A, B, and C to gain entrance into the Health Center e. The intern only has to listen to the rumor of upper quarter students who always tell the truth
D
Radiology 1. Which of the following is TRUE regarding spondylolisthesis? a. Most commonly found at L4 vertebral body b. Commonly, the greater the amount of anteriority, the more severe the pain c. Pain commonly radiates into the posterior thigh, above the knee d. Stress fracture of the pars is the most common cause under age 50
D
23. Which of the following would be inconsistent with a diagnosis of multiple sclerosis? a. Lhermitte's sign b. Clonus c. Intention tremor d. fasciculations
D- HL + Mike
