Clinical Exam Diagnostics test 1

In deep tendon reflex grading, hyperreflexia is graded as which of the following? a) 3+ b) 1+ c) 0 d) 2+

3+

Which of the following types of muscle injury is seen when there is a tearing of less than one muscle fascicle? a) 2B b) 3B c) 4 d) 3A

3A

At which levels do cervical dislocations primarily occur? a) C3-C4 b) C4-C6 c) C1-C3 d) C6-C7

C4 - C6

What type of injury occurs to a patient when this or her skull is moving at a relatively high velocity and is suddenly stopped, such as a volleyball player falling and striking her head on the court? a) Subconcussive b) Contrecoup c) Cardiac contusion d) Coup

Contrecoup

What type of muscle action is associated with the dynamic overload of a muscle? a) Isotonic b) Eccentric c) Concentric d) Isometric

Eccentric

Which type of fracture is reserved for prepubescent boys and girls? a) Metaphyseal b) Osteochondral c) Epiphyseal d) Diaphyseal

Epiphyseal

Which of the following is not identified within an emergency action plan (EAP)? a) Facility design b) Equipment c) Lines of communication d) Personnel

Facility design

A blood pressure with a systolic reeding of 80 mmHg would be considered a) prehypertension. b) normal. c) hypertension. d) hypotension.

Hypotension

Which of the following should not occur during the inspection portion of an evaluation? a) Measure range of motion (ROM). b) Observe skin. c) Observe swelling. d) Look for deformity.

Measure rand of motion (ROM)

Which of the following represents an extreme risk factor for permanent disability? a) Facet fracture b) Odontoid fracture c) Lateral mass fracture d) Acute lateral disc herniation

Odontoid Fracture

Rhomboid Minor Origin Insertion Action Innervation

Origin: Spinus Process C7 - T1 Insertion: Medial Border of scapula at root of spine Action: Adduction, elevates scapula Innervation: Dorsal scapular C4 and C5

Which of the following would not be grounds for immediate referral to a physician? a) Quadriceps hematoma b) Reports of significant chest pain c) Cyanosis d) Reports of difficulty breathing

Quadriceps hematoma

What type of splint is arguable the most widely used? a) SAM b) Vacuum c) Halo d) Gutter

Vacuum

Which cranial nerve(s) are responsible for eye movement?

Which cranial nerve(s) are responsible for eye movement?

Which of the following history questions should not be asked during on-field evaluation of an elbow injury? a) "Can you feel your fingers?" b) "Have you hurt this before?" c) "Did someone contact you?" d) "Where does it hurt?"

"have you hurt this before?"

Which of the following would be considered a coup injury? Select all that apply. - A volleyball player lands on her buttocks. - A cheerleader falls from the top of a pyramid, hitting her head on the ground. - A hockey player is struck in the head with a puck. - A boxer gets hit in the temple region of the head and is knocked out.

- A hockey player is struck in the head with a puck. - A boxer gets hit in the temple region of the head and is knocked out.

For every minute that defibrillation is delayed, the chance of surviving sudden cardiac arrest reduces by what percentages? a) 1% b) 7% c) 5% d) 10%

10%

Which of the following types of muscle injury is seen when generalized muscle pain following exercise is reported? a) 2A b) 2B c) 1A d) 1B

1B

The development of heterotopic ossification is first detectable on which of the following radiographs? a) 1 day following injury b) 1 week following injury c) 3 weeks following injury d) 8 weeks following injury

3 weeks following injury

In normal healthy tissue, which of the following is true? a) Active range of motion is the same as passive range of motion. b) Active range of motion is greater than passive range of motion. c) Passive range of motion should not be compared to active range of motion. d) Active range of motion is less than passive range of motion

Active range of motion is less than passive range of motion

Which of the following is not a finding that indicates an alert to refer for possible cancer? a) Blood in urine b) Slow-to-heal skin lesions c) Unexplained weight loss d) Blood in stool

Blood in Urine

Which of the following is not palpable unless inflamed? a) Bursa b) Bone c) Tendon d) Ligament

Bursa

After splinting an injury, the athlete complains that the pain is getting worse. Which of the following might give you information regarding the injury? a) Capillary refill distal to the injury site b) The athlete realizing that he or she is injured and the pain is going to increase c) Visual analog pain scale d) Taking off the splint

Capillary Refill distal to the injury site

What disorder is the result of a bacterial infection of the skin's connective tissue that is marked by edema, redness, and tightening of the skin? a) Capsulitis b) Lymphangitis c) Furunculosis d) Cellulitis

Cellulitis

What section of the brain's primary function is to maintain balance and coordination? a) Frontal lobe b) Cerebellum c) Temporal lobe d) Parietal lobe

Cerebellum

Which of the following is not a correct principle of splinting and immobilization? a) Completely cover the fingers or toes so that they don't get cold. b) Establish a baseline level of sensation and skin temperature so that any changes can be noted. c) Immobilize the joint(s) proximal and distal to the injured site. d) Splint the extremity in the position in which it was found.

Completely cover finger and toes so that they don't get cold.

Which of the following is not considered to be a potential delayed symptom of concussion?A. Personality changesB. FatigueC. Sleep disturbanceD. Dizziness

D. Dizziness

What type of fracture typically results from direct trauma to flat bones? a) Compacted fracture b) Depressed fracture c) Transverse fracture d) Comminuted fracture

Depression fracture

After removal from the field, a more detailed examination process ensues. Which of the following is not a goal of this examination? a) Determine a diagnosis. b) Obtain enough information to formulate a return-to-play decision. c) Decide on an immediate plan of care. d) Determine long-term rehabilitation goals.

Determine long-term rehabilitation goals.

A decerebrate posture is identified when there is flexion of the elbows and wrists, clenched fists, and extension of the lower extremity. [True/False]

False

Active range of motion (AROM) should be completed unless which of the following is present? a) Strain b) Fracture c) Sprain d) Contusion

Fracture

Sometimes called "growing pains," what term identifies an inflammatory condition involving a bone's growth plate? a) Arthralgia b) Exostosis c) Osteochondritis dissecans d) Apophysitis

Otheochondritis dissecans

Which of the following terms describes the idea that the body's tissues react to the forces and stresses placed on them in a meaningful and predictable manner? a) Hypertrophy b) Physical stress theory c) Atrophy d) Dynamic overload

Physical stress theory

Which of the following is a systemic condition that affects the articular cartilage of multiple joints? a) Osteoarthritis b) Osteochondritis dissecans c) Rheumatoid arthritis d) Arthritis

Rheumatoid arthritis

After a primary survey, what part of the on field examination is performed when the athlete is unconscious, unable to move (or should not be moved), or unable to communicate with the responder? a) Palpation b) History c) Joint stability tests d) Secondary survey

Secondary survey

what motor testing is associated with C4 nerve root level? a) Shoulder abduction b) Elbow flexion c) Elbow extension d) Shoulder shrug

Shoulder shrug

Joint motion that is stopped by involuntary or voluntary muscle contraction describes what pathological end-feel? a) Soft b) Spasm c) Hard d) Firm

Spasm

A decrease in the ability of a muscle to generate force indicates which Injury? a) Tear b) Contusion c) Sprain d) Meniscal injury

Tear

A soccer player who receives repeated non-traumatic blows to the head has a higher degree of degenerative changes within the central nervous system. [True/ False]

True

Although spearing is illegal in football, it still occurs in 19% of football plays. [True/ False]

True

Athletes with a history of multiple concussions can show signs and symptoms of a concussion in the absence of a recent concussion. [True/ False]

True

The skin covering the skull greatly increases the cranium's ability to protect the brain by absorbing and redirecting forces away from the skull. [True/ False]

True

Which of the following should not be done in an effort to minimize the risk of misdiagnosis? a) Understand cultural groups' attitudes, beliefs, and values as related to issues of health and illness. b) Use only the clinician's experiences or cultural beliefs when thinking about a diagnosis. c) Use cultural resources and knowledge to address healthcare problems. d) Involve patients in their own health care.

Use only the clinician's experiences or cultural beliefs when thinking about a diagnosis.

Which injury would likely be caused by compression-type forces? a) Vertebral disc injury b) Dislocation c) Ligament sprain d) Muscle tear

Vertebral disc injury

Capillary refill can give us information in all of the following cases except a) when assessing injury with deformity. b) a tape job that is applied too tightly. c) a ligament injury. d) when splinting a fracture.

a ligament injury

What can the presence of nystagmus indicate? Select all that apply. - A ruptured glob - Corneal abrasion - Disruption of the inner ear - Pressure on the motor nerves of the eye

- Disruption of the inner ear - Pressure on the motor nerves of the eye

Which of the following responses from an athlete indicate transitory unconsciousness? Select all that apply. - The athlete states he was "knocked out." - The athlete states he "saw stars." - The athlete states he "did not lose consciousness at all." - The athlete states he "just blacked out for a second or two."

- The athlete states he "just blacked out for a second or two." [Stating he was "knocked out" does not imply the unconscious event was transitory or brief, but it is important to note any loss of consciousness, no matter how brief.]

According to common documentation of goniometric data, which of the following would indicate a patient lacking 7 degrees of knee extension? a) 0°-7°-120° b) 7°-0°-120° c) 120°-0°-7° d) 7°-120°-0°

0 -7 -20 degrees

If an athlete is returned to play, how much of a difference in bilateral strength should be allowed? a) 15% b) 40% c) 0% d) 30%

0%

A patient comes to the athletic training room with an acute ankle sprain. Which of the following pain descriptions is typically used to indicate acute pain symptoms? a) "It hurts from my toes to my knee." b) "It hurts right here" (pointing to the anterior talofibular ligament). c) "My whole ankle is throbbing." d) There is no difference between the feeling of acute and chronic pain.

"It hurts right here" (pointing to the anterior talofibular ligament)

What is considered to be a normal pulse pressure? a) 30 mm Hg b) 20 mm Hg c) 50 mm Hg d) 40 mm Hg

40 mm Hg

Which of the following represents the heart rate range in beats/minute (BPM) of the general population? a) 90 to 120 bpm b) 60 to 100 bpm c) 80 to 120 bpm d) 70 to 110 bpm

60-100 bpm

For every degree (centigrade) the body's core temperature increases, the brain's need for oxygen increases by what percentage? a) 3% b) 5% c) 7% d) 9%

7%

A second-degree sprain is characterized by which of the following? a) A soft but definite endpoint is present. b) A normal, firm endpoint is felt. c) There is gross joint laxity with possible instability. d) The ligament is stretched with little or no tearing of its fibers.

A soft but definite endpoint is present

Which of the following is considered the most important test to be performed while the athlete is still on the field? a) Resistive ROM (RROM) b) AROM c) MMT d) Weight-bearing status

AROM

What ROM test(s) must an athlete be able to perform while on the field in order to be allowed to walk off the field? a) AROM only b) AROM and RROM, but not PROM c) AROM, RROM, and PROM d) AROM and PROM

AROM, RROM, and PROM

Which of the following would have an insidious onset? a) Achilles tendinopathy b) Acromioclavicular sprain c) Quadriceps contusion d) Medial collateral ligament sprain of the knee

Achilles tendinopathy

In order to perform manual muscle testing (MMT) , which of the following has to occur? a) Passive range of motion (PROM) b) Resistive range of motion (RROM) c) Active range of motion (AROM) d) Maximal voluntary isometric contraction (MVIC)

Active range of motion AROM

The uninjured body part should not by used for which of the following purposes? a) Allowing the patient to demonstrate the mechanism of the injury b) Allowing the clinician to determine that an injury exists to the opposite limb c) Allowing for unilateral comparison of the injured body part d) Allowing the clinician to understand the normal "feel" of the patient during assessments

Allowing the unilateral comparison of the injured body part

What is the term for a severe, potentially life-threatening allergic reaction? a) Allergy b) Anaphylaxis c) Apnea d) Dyspnea

Anaphylaxis

Deep tendon reflexes should be assessed in all the following injuries except: a) concussion. b) possible brain lesion. c) anterior cruciate ligament sprain. d) lumbar disc herniation.

Anterior cruciate ligament sprain

When a patient who suffers a head injury cannot remember events after the injury, the patient is said to be suffering from what? a) Psychogenic amnesia b) Delusional amnesia c) Retrograde amnesia d) Anterograde amnesia

Anterograde amnesia

Which of the following represents a component of the diagnostic criteria for post-concussion syndrome under the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual (DSM) but not the World Health Organization's International Classification of Diseases? a) Fatigue b) Apathy c) Dizziness d) Headache

Apathy

What is the term for the temporary cessation of breathing? a) Allergy b) Anaphylaxis c) Dyspnea d) Apnea

Apnea

Which type of breathing might result from damage to the pons? a) Biot's b) Thoracic c) Cheyne-Stokes d) Apneustic

Apneustic

Which of the following tests would be used to assess a patellar subluxation? a) McMurray's test b) Valgus stress test c) Apprehension test d) Varus stress test

Apprehension Test

An athlete goes down on the football field during a practice after colliding with another player. When you arrive, you realize the athlete is lying prone and is unconscious. What is your primary concern? a) Activating EMS b) Rolling the athlete over c) Calling the physician d) Assessing the athlete's ABCs

Assessing the athlete's ABC's

The return - to - activity decision should be based on all the following except the a) athlete's gender. b) relative risk of reinjury. c) athlete's functional ability. d) athlete's age.

Athletes gender

When the relative level of applied stress falls below the maintenance level, which of the following occurs? a) Hyperplasia b) Atrophy c) Hypoplasia d) Hypertrophy

Atrophy

What term describes a peripheral nerve injury in which there is a disruption of the axon and the myelin sheath, while the epineurium remains intact? a) Axonotmesis b) Neurotmesis c) Neurapraxia d) Complex regional pain syndrome

Axonetmesis

In which sport are players permitted to wear only one elbow pad that does not exceed 10 inches in length? a) Wrestling b) Baseball c) Ice hockey d) Basketball

Baseball

which of the following is not part of the primary survey? a) Bleeding b) Breathing c) Airway d) Circulation

Bleeding

Before beginning the physical inspection portion of the exam, the clinician should be most concerned about his or her own safety. Which of the following is the greatest threat to the clinician if an injured knee is about to be evaluated? a) Swelling on the lateral portion of the knee b) Bruising on the knee c) Swelling on the medial portion of the knee d) Bleeding from an abrasion on the knee

Bleeding from an abrasion of the knee

Which of the following would be a good practice when adding a splint or protective device to an injured area? a) Check with the referee prior to the event to make sure it is legal. b) Only over-the-counter or off-the-shelf splints and braces should be used. c) All splints are legal, no matter their construction. d) Don't worry about the referee; you are the athletic trainer and you know best.

Checking with the referee prior to the event to make sure it is legal.

Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) originates from which of the following? a) Circle of Willis b) Choroid plexuses c) Subarachnoid space d) Subdural space

Choroid Plexuses

The ______ allow(s) for a partial supply of blood to reach the affected area of the brain if one of the cranial arteries is obstructed. a) circle of Willis b) subarachnoid space c) choroid plexuses d) subdural space

Circle of Willis

A complete history should be taken in which of the following injury situations? a) Sideline evaluation of a sprained ankle b) On-field evaluation of an injured knee c) Clinical evaluation of an injured shoulder d) Follow-up orthopedic exam

Clinical evaluation of an injured shoulder

What fracture type usually results from extremely high-velocity impact forces? a) Depressed fracture b) Transverse fracture c) Comminuted fracture d) Compacted fracture

Comminuted fracture

What structure in the brain is formed by the thalamus, hypothalamus, and epithalamus? a) Brain stem b) Diencephalon c) Longitudinal fissure d) Medulla oblongata

Diencephalon

Which of the following is not an open-ended question? a) "When does your injury limit you?" b) "When is your pain the worst?" c) "When does your arm hurt?" d) "Does your ankle hurt when you walk?"

Does your ankle hurt when you walk?

What is the outermost meningeal covering of the brain called? a) Dura mater b) Pia mater c) Arachnoid mater d) Subarachnoid space

Dura mater

Which of the following is not true when developing an EAP? a) Establish one written EAP that is not venue specific. b) Determine the venue-specific access to early defibrillation. c) Integrate the EAP into the local EMS response. d) Coordinate the EAP with the pertinent individuals.

Establish one written EAP that is not venue specific

Which of the following is considered a sign of shock? a) High blood pressure b) Deep breathing c) Slow, strong pulse d) Excessive thirst

Excessive thirst

Which of the following terms describes growth of extraneous bone that can occur as a stress reaction from injury or from irregular forces being placed on the bone? a) Osteochondritis dissecans b) Arthralgia c) Apophysitis d) Exostosis

Exostosis

Where does muscles rupture occur on the load-deformation curve? a) Tensile region b) Elastic region c) Failure point d) Plastic region

Failure point

A patient is able to extend the leg (knee extension) against gravity but cannot overcome any other resistance. The grade for this manual muscle test is: a) Normal (5/5). b) Good (4/5). c) Poor (2/5). d) Fair (3/5).

Fair (3/5)

After knee dislocation, angiography is warranted whether or not there is a palpable pulse and/ or sign of ischemia. [True / False]

False

Assessing motor function distal to the site of injury is indicated whether or not you have to move the involved bone or joint? [True/ False]

False

Cervical fractures alone tend to cause spinal cord trauma. [True/ False]

False

Research has shown that head injuries occur most frequently in women's/girl's high school athletics. [True/ False]

False

The tandem walking test is failed if the patient's best time is greater than 14 seconds. [Ture/ False]

False

To assess for concussion, one should monitor for changes in pulse, blood pressure, and respiration. [True/ False]

False

What is the fold in the dura mater located in the longitudinal fissure between the two cerebral hemispheres called? a) Falx cerebelli b) Falx c) Falx cerebri d) Subarachnoid space

Flax cerebri

Axial loading of the cervical spine combined with what other motion is most likely to produce a catastrophic injury? a) Hyperextension b) Extension c) Flexion d) Lateral flexion

Flexion

Which statement best represents a grade 4 classification of a stress fracture? a) Incidental "stress reaction" found on imaging b) Fracture displacement greater than or equal to 2 mm identified on imaging c) Nonunion fracture identified on imaging d) Nondisplaced fracture line on imaging

Fracture displacement greater than or equal to 2 mm identified on imaging

What factors influence ROM? a) Gender and age b) Height and age c) Height, age, and gender d) Height and gender

Gender and age

The medical record does not allow for which of the following? a) Documenting facts regarding the patient b) Giving the treatment protocol for the patient c) Communicating information about the patient d) Giving a disposition about the patient

Giving the treatment protocol for the patient

What test is used to determine whether cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is present in fluids leaking from a head-injury patient's nose or ears? a) Halo test b) Battle's test c) Babinski's test d) Romberg's test

Halo test

Blood accumulation can result in what type of tissue density change? a) Hard, warm b) Dense thickening c) Dense/viscous d) Spongy

Hard, warm

To Properly check cranial nerve (CN) VIII, the examiner should check which of the following? a) Facial movement b) Hearing and balance c) Hearing and swallowing d) Swallowing and gag reflex

Hearing and balance

Which of the following components of the exam is the most informative? a) Inspection/observation b) History c) Palpation d) Special tests

History

what part of the on-field examination is brief, compared with the clinical evaluation, and tends to focus on the immediate events as reported by the athlete? a) Secondary survey b) Palpation c) Joint stability tests d) History

History

What is the correct positioning when performing abdominal percussion? a) Prone b) Side-lying c) Seated d) Hook-lying

Hook-lying

During the on-field evaluation immediately following an injury, the focus of the examination should be on all of the following except a) how to remove the athlete from the playing area. b) how to get the athlete back into the game. c) how and if to splint the body part. d) where to transport the athlete.

How to get the athlete back into the game

When auscultating the lungs, what sound indicates possible fluid in the lungs? a) Crackles b) Hyperresonance c) Wheezing d) Rhonchi

Hyperresonance

Which of the following occurs when the duration and magnitude of the stress applied to the body are progressively increased at a rate that allows the tissues to accommodate their cellular structure and composition to meet the imposed demands? a) Physical stress theory b) Atrophy c) Hypertrophy d) Dynamic overload

Hypertrophy

In addition to regulating some of the body's hormones, which structure is also the center of the body's autonomic nervous system, regulating sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system activity? a) Thalamus b) Hypothalamus c) Thyroid gland d) Cerebellum

Hypothalamus

Which Salter-Harris classification is identified when the fracture starts through the physis and ends in the shaft, creating a displaced wedge? a) II b) I c) III d) IV

II

Which salter-harris classification may result in avascular necrosis or inhibition of growth if undetected? a) II b) III c) IV d) I

IV

What is the best method for palpating an injury? a) Palpate away from the injury working toward the injury. b) If there is a bilateral structure, palpate it first. c) Palpation doesn't offer any information and shouldn't be performed. d) Immediately palpate the most painful site.

If there is a bilateral structure, palpate it first.

What type of consent is needed before evaluating an injury? a) Informed consent b) Assumed consent c) Nonconsent d) Implied consent

Informed consent

When performing an immediate on-field examination, which of the following injuries should be ruled out first? a) Profuse bleeding b) Inhibition of the cardiovascular and respiratory systems c) Life-threatening trauma to the head or spinal column d) Fractures

Inhibition of the cardiovascular and respiratory systems

When determining a treatment and rehabilitation program, which evaluation should be used as a baseline? a) Initial evaluation b) Reevaluation c) Discharge evaluation d) Final evaluation

Initial evaluation

Which of the following statements is false concerning hematuria? a) It can only be detected through a urinalysis. b) It may be present normally after long-distance events. c) It may not be visible to the naked eye. d) It may be present normally due to menstruation.

It can only be detected through urinalysis

During the examination of an acute injury, which of the following findings may be so profound that the athlete is transported and no other information need be collected? a) Strain b) Sprain c) Paresthesia d) Joint dislocation

Joint Dislocation

During what type of the on field examination is the examiner able to gain an immediate impression of the integrity of the capsule and ligaments involved in the injury before muscle guarding or swelling masks the degree of instability? a) Palpation b) Secondary survey c) Joint stability tests d) History

Joint stability tests

One of the best ways to prevent heterotopic ossification in the quadriceps muscles is to do which of the following? a) Keep a sustained stretch with the knee maintained in 120° of flexion. b) Cast the leg to prevent further movement and injury. c) Keep a sustained stretch with the knee maintained in 30° of flexion. d) Don't stretch the muscle, but instead keep it in full extension.

Keep a sustained stretch with the knee maintained in 120° of flexion

Which movement would result in a physiological end-feel of "soft" during PROM? a) Hip flexion with the knee extended b) Knee flexion c) Extension of the metacarpophalangeal joint d) Elbow extension

Knee flexion

Which of the following conditions would not warrant activating emergency medical services (EMS) and stopping an on-field evaluation? a) Cyanosis b) Prolonged loss of consciousness c) Unequal chest expansion d) Left shoulder pain

Left shoulder pain

If an athlete came into the athletic training room stating that she thinks her appendix ruptured, where would the pain be located? a) Upper right quadrant b) Lower left quadrant c) Lower right quadrant d) Upper left quadrant

Lower right quadrant

Athletes may not want to compete or practice. They may exaggerate or fake their signs and/or symptoms. This is know as a) outsmarting the coaches. b) faking. c) exaggerating. d) malingering.

Malingering

Which of the following is used to assess strength and provocation of pain by isolating muscles or groups of muscles? a) Break test b) Resisted range of motion c) Manual muscle test d) Active range of motion

Manual muscle test

What area is assessed when heart auscultation is performed in the left midclavicular line between ribs 5 and 6? a) Mitral area b) Tricuspid area c) Aortic area d) Pulmonary area

Mitral area

Which of the following is not examined during the inspection, when checking the injured body part and comparing the results with the opposite strecture? a) Movement pattern b) Ecchymosis c) Infection d) Edema

Movement pattern

which of the following nerve injuries is the least serious? a) Axonotmesis b) Wallerian degeneration c) Neurapraxia d) Neurotmesis

Neurapraxia

What term describes a peripheral nerve injury in which there is a complete disruption of the nerve? a) Axonotmesis b) Neurapraxia c) Neurotmesis d) Complex regional pain syndrome

Neurotmesis

What are the four scored sections of the Standardized Assessment of Concussion (SAC) test?

Orientation, Immediate Memory - alternate word list, Concentration - Digits backwards, Months in order, Delayed Recall - after immediate memory.

Trapezius Origin Insertion Action Innervation

Origin: Base of skull, C1 - T12, Spinous process Insertion: Posterior Lateral clavicle, Medial acromion process, spine of scapula Action: Rotation, adduction, raises/ lowers scapula. Head same side, Face opposite side Innervation. Cranial XI (accessory C2-C4

Rhomboid Major Origin Insertion Action Innervation

Origin: Spinous process T2 - T5 Insertion: Medial border of scapula between spine and inferior angle Action: adduction, elevation of scapula Innervation: Dorsal Scapular C4 and C5

Lattisimus Dorsi Origin Insertion Action Innervation

Origin: Spinous process T6-S5, Posterior iliac crest, Lower 4 ribs Insertion: Humeral Shaft just below lesser tuberosity Action: Extention, adduction, medial rotation of humerous Innervation: Thoracodorsal C6-C8

Levator Scapulae Origin Insertion Action Innervation

Origin: Transverse process C1- C4 Insertion: Medial boarder of scapula between superior angle and spine Action: Origin fixed - elevates and rotates scapula vertebrae Insertion fixed - Unilaterally - lateral flexion and rotation /Bilaterally - assists extension of cervical spine Innervation: Cervical C3 and C4, Dorsal scapula C4 and C5

A 12-year-old boy reports pain, periods of joint locking, and an inability to use his arm. Which of the following injuries does this boy have? a) Olecranon bursitis b) Osteochondral defect c) Ligament sprain d) Meniscal tear

Osteochondral defect

During what part of the on-field examination do findings of possible fractures, joint dislocations, or neurovascular pathology warrant terminating the evaluation and transporting the athlete to a medical facility? a) Palpation b) Joint stability tests c) Secondary survey d) History

Palpation

Which part of the examination process allows the examiner to detect tissue damage or tissue change by comparing the findings of one body part with those of the opposite one? a) Inspection b) Palpation c) Physical examination d) History

Palpation

Which is the term for the sensation of numbness or tingling, often described as "pins and needles" a) Upper motor neuron lesion b) Malingering c) Paresthesia d) Painful arc

Paresthesia

Which pain rating scale provides descriptors that the patient uses to identify the intensity and nature of the pain? a) Numeric rating scale b) Visual analog scale c) Part B of the McGill Pain Questionnaire d) Part A of the McGill Pain Questionnaire

Part B of the McGill Pain Questionnaire

Which is not one of the "five P's," pr classic signs of late-stage compartment syndrome? a) Paresthesia b) Pain c) Pallor d) Pink color

Pink Color

A patient who can move his or her body part through a full ROM in a gravity - eliminated position would be given what MMT grade? a) 2/5, Poor b) 1/5, Trace c) 3/5, Fair d) 4/5, Good

Poor (2/5)

Which of the following is not information that would be acquired while taking a patient history? a) Mechanism of injury b) Posture c) Treatment to date d) Onset of symptoms

Posture

Swelling after an injury is often associated with disruption of soft tissue. Which of the following injuries may present with swelling that is disproportionate to the injury? a) Prepatellar bursitis b) Quadriceps tear c) Ankle sprain d) Shoulder sprain

Prepatellar Bursitis

Which of the following would indicate a nasal fracture and/ or a skull fracture? a) Raccoon eyes b) Bleeding from the mouth c) Nystagmus d) Bleeding from the forehead

Raccoon eyes

Which of the following is not a good practice when performing an evaluation? a) A systematic approach to the evaluation following the history, inspection/observation, palpation, and special testing process b) Developing high reliability in the order with which processes are performed to maximize the information gained during the evaluation c) Utilizing a repeatable process that the clinician uses each time when performing an evaluation d) Randomly assessing areas or structures

Randomly assessing areas or structures

During the inspection portion of the on-field evaluation, which of the following is not a finding that warrants immediate physician referral? a) Obvious fracture b) Report of significant chest pain c) Obvious joint dislocation d) Unequal chest expansion

Report of significant chest pain

What is the term for the inability to recall events before the onset of a head injury? a) Retrograde amnesia b) Anterograde amnesia c) Psychogenic amnesia d) Post-traumatic amnesia

Retrograde amnesia

As you stand on the sideline of a football game, you see a player go down on the field while holding his knee. Which of the following is the first step in the evaluation process? a) Palpating the injury b) Seeing the mechanism of injury c) Getting a history once you arrive at the player's side d) Performing passive range of motion (PROM)

Seeing the mechanism of injury

Which assessment can quickly asses or determine a patient's analytical skills? a) Romberg's test b) Oppenheim's test c) Babinski's test d) Serial 7's test

Serial 7's test

Which of the following forces is primarily responsible for a dislocation? a) Shear b) Compression c) Torsion d) Tension

Shear

Which of the following statements is false concerning skull fractures? a) Skull fractures do not occur in those wearing a helmet. b) Athletes wearing headgear have a lower chance of sustaining a skull fracture. c) Comminuted skull fractures result in fragmentation of the skull. d) Depressed skull fractures can be life-threatening injuries.

Skull fractures do not occur in those wearing a helmet.

Which of the following sports requires that the athletic trainer be summoned onto the field/ court/ mat before entering? a) Baseball b) Football c) Softball d) Soccer

Soccer

What injury occurs when a joint is forced beyond its normal anatomical limits, resulting in the stretching or tearing of the ligamnets, joint capsule, or both? a) Sprain b) Compartment syndrome c) Strain d) Heterotopic ossification

Sprain

After colliding with another player, a soccer player is unconscious on the field when you arrive. what would be your main concern? a) Checking pupillary response b) Stopping epistaxis c) Checking for bleeding d) Stabilizing the cervical spine

Stabilizing the cervical spine

What stage of chronic traumatic encephalopathy (CTE) is associated with depression, explosive behavior, and short-term memory loss? a) Stage I b) Stage IV c) Stage III d) Stage II

Stage II

List two ways to elicit a pain response from an unconscious patient.

Sternal Rub, pinching 1st and 2nd digit webbing space on hand

Which of the following fractures occur due to cumulative microtrauma? a) Oblique b) Stress c) Transverse d) Avulsion

Stress

Which of the following statements regarding stress is not true? a) Stress has to be applied in a certain amount, specific to each individual, in order for tissue growth to occur. b) Stress can be physical, psychological, social, or emotional. c) Stress always results in injury. d) Stress is required for bone to maintain homeostasis.

Stress always results in injury

which of the following body fluids is least likely to transmit blood-borne pathogens? a) Sweat b) Synovial fluid c) Blood d) Saliva

Sweat

During an on-field examination, which is not considered when specifically palpating boney structures? a) Crepitus b) Joint alignment c) Bony alignment d) Swelling

Swelling

What term is used to describe an inflammation of the muscle tendon sheath? a) Peritendinitis b) Tendinosis c) Tendinitis d) Tenosynovitis

Tendinitis

Which of the following is more common in the hands and is described as an inflammation of the synovial sheath surrounding a muscle tendon? a) Tenosynovitis b) Tendinosis c) Tendinitis d) Peritendinitis

Tenosynovitis

Muscle tissue, including tendons, ligaments, and fascia, are most prone to being injured as the result of what force? a) Torsion b) Shear c) Tensile d) Compressive

Tensile

Which of the following is the most common force causing injury to a muscle or ligament? a) Tension b) Compression c) Shear d) Torsion

Tension

Before you perform manual muscle testing (MMT) on an athlete's knee, which of the following should occur first? a) The athlete should be assessed to make sure there are no positive ligamentous stress tests. b) The athlete should be able to walk without an antalgic gait. c) The athlete should be able to perform active ROM (AROM). d) The athlete should be able to jog in place.

The athlete should be able to perform active ROM (AROM)

Shaking the victim or using "smelling salts" to arouse an unconscious athlete should not be done for which of the following reasons? a) The smelling salts may burn the nasal passage. b) The cervical spine may be compromised. c) Shaking the victim without consent could be interpreted as battery. d) Informed consent hasn't been given.

The cervical spine may be compromised

Which of the following statements is tru regarding epidural hematomas? a) They are formed between the brain and dura mater. b) They are a result of arterial bleeding. c) They are a result of venous bleeding. d) Symptoms can occur days or even weeks after the initial trauma.

They are a result of arterial bleeding.

Which type of breathing is identified by respirations in which the diaphragm is inactive? a) Thoracic b) Cheyne-Stokes c) Biot's d) Apneustic

Thoracic

What reflex is associated with the L5 nerve root? a) Patellar tendon b) Semitendinosus c) Achilles tendon d) Tibialis posterior

Tibialis posterior

Although traction is desired in most sporting events, too much traction from shoes can cause which type of injury? a) Tension b) Shear c) Torsion d) Compression

Torsion

Which type of fracture results in fracture line that crosses the long axis of a bone? a) Comminuted fracture b) Compacted fracture c) Depressed fracture d) Transverse fracture

Transverse Fracture

What is the term for a hypersensitive area located in a muscle belling that, when irritated, refers pain to another body area? a) Muscle spasm b) Crepitus c) Trigger point d) Point tenderness

Trigger point

Phase 1 of the Balance Error Scoring System (BESS) involves the use of a tandem leg stance. [True/ False]

True

Which cranial nerve (CN) is implicated with a positive Romberg test? a) VIII b) IV c) II d) VII

VIII

Which of the following represents a correct functional progression for a soccer player trying to return to play? a) Walk, jog, dribble while walking, run b) Jog, walk while changing direction, dribble c) Walk, jog, change direction while jogging, run d) Walk, jog, run straight, jog while changing direction

Walk, jog, run straight, jog while changing direction

When should the evaluation of an injury begin? a) During the inspection/observation portion of the evaluation b) During the history portion of the evaluation c) When the patient comes into the athletic training room d) While observing the mechanism of injury

While observing the mechanism of injury

in which sport are only two injury time outs given for a cumulative maximum of 90 seconds for the entire game or match? a) Wrestling b) Baseball c) Basketball d) Ice hockey

Wrestling

Which CN is not associated with facial expression? a) V b) XI c) VII d) XII

XI

What would be the pulse pressure of a patient whose blood pressure was 140/80 mm Hg? a) 80 mm Hg b) 220 mm Hg c) 140 mm Hg d) 40 mm Hg

[60 mm Hg] (maybe 40 mm Hg) To calculate the pulse pressure, the diastolic pressure is subtracted from the systolic pressure.