Combo with "Chapter 1 Scope" and 19 others
14. The minimum sterilizing conditions in a steam autoclave are: A) 121 C at 15 psi for 15 minutes B) 63 C for 30 minutes C) 160 C for 2 hours D) 71.6 C for 15 seconds E) 100 C for 30 minutes
121 C at 15 psi for 15 minutes
The latency period of syphilis is a. 3 to 6 months. b. 1 year. c. 10 years. d. 20 years or longer.
20 years or longer
A common cause of epiglottitis in children and young adults is
: A) Haemophilus influenzae B) Haemophilus ducreyi C) Haemophilus aegyptius D) Haemophilus parainfluenzae E) Haemophilus aphrophilus
A patient with a _______ titer of antibodies to an infectious agent generally has greater protection than a patient with a ________. a. high, low b. low, high c. negative, positive d. old, new
A
All species of Staphylococcus: A. lack spores B. are motile C. have capsules D. produce coagulase E. all of the choices are correct
A
Animals are required for the cultivation of A. Treponema pallidum B. Pseudomonas C. Streptococcus D. Salmonella E. Clostridium
A
Direct immunofluorescence tests use a labeled antibody to identify: a. an unknown microbe b. an unknown antibody c. fixed complement d. agglutinated antigens
A
Formation of a pseudomembrane in the back of the throat is seen in: A. diphtheria B. listeriosis C. tuberculosis D. erysipeloid E. botulism
A
Smallpox is a disease in which: A. fever, prostration, rash, and possible toxemia and shock occur B. virus becomes latent in ganglia of sensory neurons C. recurrent episodes are called shingles D. can only be transmitted by direct skin contact with skin crusts E. all of the choices are correct
A
Sudden acute respiratory syndrome (SARS): A. causes high fever, pneumonia, and respiratory distress B. began with an initial outbreak in the United States and then spread to Canada and China C. is caused by the respiratory syncytial virus D. is a zoonosis E. all of the choices are correct
A
The VRDL test detects A. syphilis B. rickettsia C. salmonella D. Candida E. none of the choices are correct
A
The most likely interpretation of the isolation of 50 colonies of Streptococcus pneumoniae is: a. probable infection b. normal biota c. contamination
A
Which disease involves transmission by aerosolized water from whirlpool spas, air conditioners, cooling towers, and supermarket vegetable misters? A. legionellosis B. pertussis C. brucellosis D. plague E. traveler's diarrhea
A
Which of the following is not an agglutination test? A. counter-immunoelectrophoresis B. Rapid Plasma Reagin (RPR) test C. Weil-Felix reaction D. viral hemagglutination E. Widal test
A
This is a promising treatment for stopping the expression of an unwanted gene: a. DNA fingerprinting b. Antisense therapeutic c. None of the choices are correct d. Cloning e. Gene therapy
Antisense Theraputic
9. The Dutch merchant who made and used quality magnifying lenses to see and record microorganisms was
Antonie van Leeuwenhoek.
The most likely interpretation of the isolation of 80 colonies of various streptococci on a culture from a throat swab is: a. probable infection b. normal biota c. contamination
B
The most likely interpretation of the isolation of two colonies of E. coli on a plate streaked from a urine sample is: a. probable infection b. normal biota c. contamination
B
This test is the confirming test for people who initially tested antibody-positive in the screening ELISA test: A. Ouchterlony double diffusion B. Western blot C. immunelectrophoresis D. radioimmunoassay (RIA) E. the Quellung test
B
Titer is the amount of A. antigen in serum B. antibody in serum C. WBC in serum D. complement in serum E. none of the choices are correct
B
Whole antigens are detected in this type of test: A. cross-reactions B. agglutination C. precipitation D. specificity E. sensitivity
B
Assume that your lab partner swabs the side of his face and used the swab to inoculate a nutrient agar plate. The next day, he performs a Gram stain on the colonies. They are gram-positive cocci. You advise him that he should next look for A) An acid-fast reaction. B) A coagulase reaction. C) Conidiospores. D) Pseudohyphae. E) Pseudopods.
B) A coagulase reaction.
Glomerulonephritis is A) Caused by Streptococcus pyogenes. B) An immune complex disease. C) Treated with penicillin. D) Transmitted by contaminated water. E) A and C
B) An immune complex disease.
The dutch merchant who made and used quality magnifying lenses to see and record microorganisms was: A) Francesco Redi B) Antonie van Leeuwenhoek C) Louis Pasteur D) Joseph Lister E) Robert Koch
B) Antonie van Leeuwenhoek
Resident flora of the intestines include: A) Streptococcus B) Bacteroides C) Staphylococcus D) Haemophilus E) all of the choices are correct
B) Bacteroides (p.392)
The most common NGU in the United States is treated with A) Penicillin. B) Cephalosporins. C) Acyclovir. D) AZT. E) Doxycycline.
B) Cephalosporins.
A functional group is the part of a molecule that determines its: A) nitrogen B) Chemical class C) replication D) state (solid, liquid, gas) E) eletronegativity
B) Chemical class
One form of NGU is lymphogranuloma venereum caused by A) Leptospira interrogans. B) Chlamydia trachomatis. C) Neisseria gonorrhoeae. D) Treponema pallidum. E) Candida albicans.
B) Chlamydia trachomatis.
The term that refers to all of the genetic material of the cell is: A) replication B) DNA C) chromosomes D) metabolism E) genome
B) DNA
In the process of bioremediation, biological agents perform what function? A) Produce organic carbon from carbon dioxide B) Degrade environmental pollutants C) Produce human hemoglobin D) Ferment sugars into alcohol E) Mine metals from raw materials
B) Degrade environmental pollutants
Chlamydia can cross the placenta and cause intrauterine infection. A) True B) False
B) False
During phagocytosis, intracellular digestion begins as soon as the phagosome is formed. A) True B) False
B) False
Lyme disease is only seen in people living in Lyme, Connecticut. A) True B) False
B) False
People who have received the BCG immunization will generally have a negative tuberculin skin test. A) True B) False
B) False
The two bacterial genera of non-obligate parasites are Chlamydia and Rickettsia. A) True B) False
B) False
Septicemia means that a pathogen is present and multiplying in the blood. A) True B) False
B) False (p. 407)
When an infected person is in the incubation period, that person cannot transmit the pathogen to others. A) True B) False
B) False (p. 409)
Inflammatory responses are orchestrated by the immune system and are part of the body's third line of defense. A) True B) False
B) False (p. 425, 437 & 448 Figure 14.21)
Plasma is also called lymph. A) True B) False
B) False (p. 430)
B lymphocytes and T lymphocytes mature in the thymus gland. A) True B) False
B) False (p. 432)
During inflammation, a high neutrophil count is a common sign of bacterial infection. A) True B) False
B) False (p. 432)
Complement proteins are produced by the spleen. A) True B) False
B) False (p. 446)
Most of the skin's resident flora are found in the uppermost, superficial layers of the epidermis A) True B) False
B) False (p.397)
The virulence factors of a pathogen are established by how strong or weak a patient's body defenses are at the time of infection. A) True B) False
B) False (p.399) ??
A pelvic examination of a 23-year-old woman showed vesicles and ulcerated lesions on her labia. Cultures were negative for Neisseria and Chlamydia; the VDRL test was negative. Which of the following is probable? A) Candidiasis B) Genital herpes C) Gonorrhea D) NGU E) Syphilis
B) Genital herpes
Recurring vesicles are symptoms of A) Gardnerella vaginosis. B) Genital herpes. C) Candidiasis. D) Trichomoniasis. E) Lymphogranuloma venereum.
B) Genital herpes.
The etiologic agent of chickenpox. A) Herpes simplex B) Herpes zoster C) HHV-6 D) Parvovirus E) Poxvirus
B) Herpes zoster
The majority of the oxygen in the earth's atmosphere is derived from processes carried out by what group of microorganisms? A) Photosynthetic organisms B) Anaerobic organisms C) Soil fungi D) Yeasts E) Extremophiles
A) Photosynthetic organisms
Which of the following is not normal microbiota of the skin? A) Streptococcus B) Pityrosporum C) Staphylococcus D) Propionibacterium E) Corynebacterium
A) Streptococcus
Type of chemical reactions include? (Answer all that apply) A) Synthesis B) Combustion C) Decomposition D) Exchange E) none of the choices are correct
A) Synthesis C) Decomposition D) Exchange
Which of the following is greater? A) The number of reported cases of gonorrhea last year B) The number of reported cases of AIDS last year C) They are equal.
A) The number of reported cases of gonorrhea last year
Each FADH2 that enters the electron transport system gives rise to _____ ATP. A. 2 B. 3 C. 24 D. 36 E. 38
A. 2
When glucose is broken down by glycolysis during bacterial fermentation, how many ATP are generated? A. 2 ATP B. 3 ATP C. 24 ATP D. 36 ATP E. 38 ATP
A. 2 ATP
Persistent viruses that can reactivate periodically are A. Chronic latent viruses B. Oncoviruses C. Syncytia D. Inclusion bodies E. Cytiopathic
A. Chronic latent viruses
The specimen preparation that is best for viewing cell motility is A. Hanging drop B. Fixed stained smear C. Gram stain D. Negative stain E. Flagellar stain
A. Hanging drop
32. Which of the following is less subject to degradation than is chromosomal DNA and is used as an evolutionary time clock? A. mitochondrial DNA B. chloroplast DNA C. rRNA D. mRNA
A. mitochondrial DNA
When enzyme action stops due to a buildup of end product this control is called: A. negative feedback. B. competitive inhibition. C. enzyme induction. D. enzyme repression. E. None of the choices are correct.
A. negative feedback.
A 25-year-old man presented with fever, malaise, and a rash on his chest, arms, and feet. The etiology could be any of the following EXCEPT A) Borrelia. B) Mumps virus. C) Rickettsia. D) Streptococcus. E) Treponema.
B) Mumps virus.
If the ID for gonorrhea is 1,000 cells and the ID for tuberculosis is 10 cells, which organism is more virulent? A) Neisseria gonorrhea B) Mycobacterium tuberculosis C) They are equally virulent D) It is impossible to determine.
B) Mycobacterium tuberculosis (p. 399) - smaller infectious doses have greater virulence
What is the smallest and most specific of the levels of classification? A) Domain B) Species C) Family D) Genus E) Phylum
B) Species
Which genus is the most common resident flora of mouth surfaces? A) Lactobacillus B) Streptococcus C) Haemophilus D) Escherichia E) Mycobacterium
B) Streptococcus (p.391)
Which of the following diseases causes a skin rash, hair loss, malaise, and fever? A) Gonorrhea B) Syphilis C) NGU D) Trichomoniasis E) Genital herpes
B) Syphilis
Which of the following statements does not describe viruses? A) They are dependent on the host cell's machinery for their activities B) They are more complex than prokaryotes and eukaryotes C) They are referred to as parasites D) Some scientists view viruses as primitive organisms E) They are composed of hereditary material surrounded by a protein coat
B) They are more complex than prokaryotes and eukaryotes
Which of the following statements is true of the prokaryotes? A) They contain a nucleus B) They do not contain a nucleus C) They are larger than eukaryotes D) They contain specialized organelles E) Some are multicellular
B) They do not contain a nucleus
A bacterial cell exhibiting chemo taxis probably has A. Fimbriae B. A capsule C. Thylakoids D. Flagella E. Met achromatic granules
B. A capsule
In the cell, energy released by electrons is often used to phosphorylate: A. ATP. B. ADP. C. pyruvic acid. D. oxygen. E. NAD
B. ADP.
Protists include A. Yeasts and molds B. Algae and protozoa C. Helminths D. All of the choices are correct E. None of the choices are correct
B. Algae and protozoa
Diagnosis of viral infections sometimes involves analyzing the patient's blood for specific _____ that the immune system produced against the virus. A. Glycoproteins B. Antibodies C. Complement proteins D. Antigens E. None of the choices are correct
B. Antibodies
Gram negative organisms A. Are more susceptible to antibiotics than gram positive organisms B. Are less susceptible to antibiotics than gram positive organisms C. Stain purple in the gram stain D. Encompass all pathogens E. None of the choices are correct
B. Are less susceptible to antibiotics than gram positive organisms
Sam works in construction and stepped on a sharp nail. He can't remember the last time he had a tetanus shot. What type of immunity is the most important for him to receive? A. Natural active immunity B. Artificial passive immunity C. Natural passive immunity D. Artificial active immunity E. None of the choices will help him.
B. Artificial passive immunity
Decaying vegetation, such as piles of leaves and compost matter, allows growth and transmission of A. Cryptococcus. B. Aspergillus. C. Candida. D. Dermatophytes. E. Pneumocytis.
B. Aspergillus.
The two functions of bacterial appendages are A. Attachment and protection B. Attachment and motility C. Motility and slime production D. Energy reactions and synthesis E. Protection and motility
B. Attachment and motility
Which of the immunizations would carry the greatest risk for immunocompromised patients? A. Killed, inactivated vaccines B. Attenuated vaccines C. Toxoids D. Immune serums E. Subunit vaccines
B. Attenuated vaccines
Viral spikes A. Are always present on enveloped viruses B. Bind viral capsid and envelope together C. Allow bacteria to evade host defenses D. Are derived from host proteins E. All of the choices are correct
B. Bind viral capsid and envelope together
Photosynthesis is responsible for producing >50% of Earth's oxygen. During photosynthesis inorganic __ is fixed into organic compounds like___ without the help of sunlight. A. H2O, Oxygen B. CO2, C6H12O6 C. H2O, C6H12O6 D. CO2, Oxygen E. All of the choices are correct
B. CO2, C6H12O6
Halobacterium salinarium lives in and requires salt. This is an example of an archaeabacterium described as a(n) __. A. Osmophile B. Halophile C. Thermophile D. Psychrophile
B. Halophile
Which type of cell is severely depressed in AIDS patients? A. Cytotoxic T cells B. Helper T cells C. B cells D. Plasma cells E. Suppressor T cells
B. Helper T cells
Which process involves antibodies coating microorganisms in order to facilitate phagocytosis? A. Neutralization B. Opsonization C. Complement fixation D. Agglutination E. Anamnestic response
B. Opsonization
What type of isolation technique is most effective for the majority of applications? A. Pour plate B. Streak plate C. Spread plate D. Loop dilution E. Culture plate
B. Streak plate
Pfiesteria is a/an A. Toxic fungus B. Toxic algae C. Toxic heminth D. Toxic protozoan E. Bacterial endospore
B. Toxic algae
If the DNA sequence is ATTCCGGA, the mRNA transcript would be A. TAAGGCCT B. UAAGGCCU C. ATTCCGGA D. GUUAATTG E. CAAGGUTA
B. UAAGGCCU.
The gram staining procedure is best described as a __staining technique. A. acid fast or Ziehl-Neelson B. differential C. capsule D. Schaefer-Fulton
B. differential
The movement of molecules from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration is called: A. facilitated diffusion B. diffusion C. active transport D. osmosis E. endocytosis
B. diffusion
Why is ionization important? A) So atoms will have zero net charge B) Ions are the basis of all physical processes in the body C) It makes things smaller D) Polyion formation E) Elements are ions
B) Ions are the basis of all physical processes in the body
Which of the following is correct about skatole? A) It is the general term for the flora of the gastrointestinal tract. B) It is s mixture of amines and gases that gives feces its characteristic stench. C) It is another term for the sexually transmitted disease, syphilis. D) It is a general term for the endogenous flora in humans. E) It is a chemical released by gram positive rods during inflammation.
B) It is s mixture of amines and gases that gives feces its characteristic stench. (p. 392)
Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) Pustular rash smallpox B) Koplik spots rubella C) Papular rash measles D) Vesicular rash chickenpox E) None of the above
B) Koplik spots rubella
Whose experiments finally discounted the theory of abiogenesis? A) Francesco Redi B) Louis Pasteur C) John Needam D) Louis Jablot E) Franz Shultze and Theodor Schwann
B) Louis Pasteur
The patient has scaling skin on his fingers. Conidiospores are seen in microscopic examination of skin scrapings. A) Candida B) Microsporum C) P. aaeruginosa D) S. aureus E) Scabies
B) Microsporum
Creutzfeld-Jacob disease is A. Caused by a chronic latent virus B. Initiated by an oncogenic virus C. Caused by a viroid D. A spongiform encephalopathy of humans E. Also called "mad cow disease"
D. A spongiform encephalopathy of humans
The purpose of staining cells on a microscope slide is to A. Kill them B. Secure them to the slide C. Enlarge the cells D. Add contrast in order to see them better E. See motility
D. Add contrast in order to see them better
Which process involves antibodies cross-linking cells or particles into large aggregates? A. Neutralization B. Opsonization C. Complement fixation D. Agglutination E. Anamnestic response
D. Agglutination
Agar is a complex polysaccharide that comes from a/an A. Green plant B. Fungus C. Mold D. Algae E. Euglena
D. Algae
Mitochondria possess all of the following except A. Enzymes for metabolism B. Cristae C. Electron transport chain proteins D. Enzymes for photosynthesis E. 70S ribosomes (prokaryote)
D. Enzymes for photosyntesis
Each genetically distinct group of lymphocytes that possesses the same specificity is called a _____.
Clone
Production of enterotoxin is a characteristic of: A) Clostridium botulinum B) Clostridium perfringens C) Clostridium difficile D) Clostridium tetani E) all of the choices are correct
Clostridium perfringens
This organism can infect deeper wound sites and produce exotoxins, enzymes and gas that cause tissue and muscle necrosis: A) Clostridium botulinum B) Clostridium perfringens C) Clostridium difficile D) Clostridium tetani E) all of the choices are correct
Clostridium perfringens
Synthesis of a repressible enzyme is inhibited by: a. Substrate bound to repressor b. Substrate bound to promoter c. Co repressor and repressor binding to operator d. None of the choices are correct e. Repressor alone bound to operator
Co repressor and repressor binding to operator
Which of the following species of bacteria is not closely related to the others? A. Staphylococcus aureus B. Staphylococcus epidermidis C. Staphylococcus saprophyticus D. Escherichia coli
D. Escherichia coli
The endosymbiotic theory has been developed to explain the emergence of A. Archea B. Bacteria C. Prokaryotes D. Eukaryotes E. None of the choices are correct
D. Eukaryotes
3. Enzymes are: A. broken down in reactions that require energy input. B. proteins that function as catalysts. C. electron carrier molecules. D. not needed for catabolic reactions. E. All of the choices are correct.
B. proteins that function as catalysts
Which of the following microorganisms would find hypotonic conditions most detrimental? A. bacteria B. protozoa C. fugi D. algae E. cyanobacteria
B. protozoa
A second encounter with an allergen that causes a response is called the A. sensitizing dose. B. provocative dose. C. allergic dose. D. hypersensitivity dose. E. desensitizing dose.
B. provocative dose.
The size of DNA is often given in the number of _____ that it contains. a. Codons b. Base pairs c. Genes d. Triplets e. Proteins
Base pairs
A positive serological test for tuberculosis indicates that A. the patient has active tuberculosis B. the patient is an asymptomatic carrier of tuberculosis C. the patient has been exposed to tuberculosis D. all of the choices are correct
C
Biochemical tests include: A. Gram stain reaction B. acid-fast reaction C. sensitivity to antibiotics D. G+C composition E. all of the choices are correct
C
If a person who has never been infected with the varicella-zoster virus comes in contact with a person who has shingles, they will come down with: A. herpes labialis B. shingles C. chickenpox D. infectious mononucleosis E. herpes keratitis
C
Keratitis is caused by: A. Streptococcus pyogenes B. Staphlococcus aureus C. Herpes simplex D. Neisseria gonorrhoeae E. all of the choices are correct
C
Rubella is: A. caused by the measles virus (Morbillivirus) B. a very contagious disease C. associated with congenital transmission causing miscarriage, deafness, and cardiac and mental defects D. seen as high fever, severe sore throat, severe cough, and myalgia E. all of the choices are correct
C
Soluble antigens are detected in this type of test: A. cross-reactions B. agglutination C. precipitation D. specificity E. sensitivity
C
Specimen collection A. is always done by a medical professional B. must be done under sterile conditions C. must utilize aseptic techniques D. does not require special handling E. all of the choices are correct
C
Staphylococci can be differentiated from streptococci by the: A. Gram stain B. coagulase test C. catalase test D. fermentation of mannitol E. none of the choices are correct
C
Symptoms of influenza include: A. nasal discharge, mild fever, absence of cough B. fever, diarrhea, vomiting C. fever, myalgia, sore throat, cough, nasal discharge D. fever, sore throat, rash, cough E. fever and pneumonia
C
The Widal test is determinant for A. syphilis B. rickettsia C. salmonella D. Candida E. none of the choices are correct
C
The most likely interpretation of colonies of black bread mold on selective media used to isolate bacteria from stool is: a. probable infection b. normal biota c. contamination
C
The smallpox vaccine uses the _____ virus. A. small pox B. herpes simplex C. vaccinia D. herpes virus 6 E. none of the choices are correct
C
When serum proteins are separated by electrophoresis and then antibodies specific for the serum proteins are placed in a parallel trough in order to form reaction arcs for each protein, the test is called: A. Ouchterlony double diffusion B. Western blot C. immunelectrophoresis D. radioimmunoassay (RIA) E. the Quellung test
C
Which of the following methods can identify different strains of a microbe? a. microscopic examination b. radioimmunoassay c. DNA typing d. agglutination test
C
Which reaction requires complement? a. hemagglutination b. precipitation c. hemolysis d. toxin neutralization
C
Scabies is a skin disease caused by A) A slow virus. B) A protozoan. C) A mite. D) A bacterium. E) A prion.
C) A mite.
A patient presents with fever and extensive lesions of the labia minora. Her VDRL test was negative. What is the most likely treatment? A) Metronidazole B) Cephalosporins C) Acyclovir D) Miconazole E) No treatment is available.
C) Acyclovir
Used to treat epidemic herpetic keratitis. A) Penicillin B) Sulfonamide C) Trifluridine D) Fungicide E) None of the above
C) Trifluridine
Which of the following is correct? A) Vibrio Cholera B) vibrio cholera C) Vibrio cholera D) vibrio Cholera
C) Vibrio cholera
"Rice water stools" are associated with disease caused by this organism: A) Vibrio vulnificus B) Vibrio parahaemolyticus C) Vibrio cholerae D) Campylobacter jejuni E) Helicobacter pylori
C) Vibrio cholerae
Permanent cardiovascular and neurological damage is seen in which stage of syphilis? A) primary B) secondary C) tertiary D) latent E) all of the choices are correct
C) tertiary
Subacute encephalitis may be caused by A. Toxoplasma gondii. B. prions. C. herpes simplex virus. D. persistent measles virus. E. All of the choices are correct.
C. herpes simplex virus
Barophiles are microorganisms able to tolerate: A. a pH of 1 to 2 B. high solute concentration C. high atmospheric pressure D. high osmotic pressure E. intense ultraviolet light
C. high atmospheric pressure
As the electron transport carriers shuttle electrons, they actively pump _____ into the outer membrane compartment setting up a concentration gradient called the proton motive force. A. ATP B. phosphate C. hydrogen ions D. oxygen E. NADH
C. hydrogen ions
Toxoplasmosis prevention includes A. vaccination of humans. B. vaccination of cats. C. hygienic precautions. D. vector control. E. All of the choices are correct.
C. hygienic precautions.
Any heightened or inappropriate immune response resulting in tissue damage is called a/an A. autoimmune disease. B. immunodeficiency. C. hypersensitivity. D. transfusion reaction. E. desensitization.
C. hypersensitivity.
13. DNA polymerases used in PCR A. DNA Polymerase I B. Thermus Polymerase C. Include Taq polymerase and Vent polymerase D. None of the above
C. include Taq polymerases and Vent polymerase.
Bee sting venom is considered to be which type of allergen? A. ingestant B. inhalant C. injectant D. contactant E. None of the choices is correct.
C. injectant
Specificity and memory are associated with which body defense mechanism? A) inflammatory response B) phagocytosis by macrophages and neutrophils C) interferon D) T cell and B cell responses E) anatomical barriers in the body
D) T cell and B cell responses (p. 432)
Leukocytes at the infected site is a symptom of A) Gardnerella vaginosis. B) Genital herpes. C) Candidiasis. D) Trichomoniasis. E) Lymphogranuloma venereum.
D) Trichomoniasis.
You and your husband have been trying to get pregnant for a few years, but there appears to be a medical cause for the infertility. After a full checkup, your doctor tells you that she has found a lot of scar tissue in the uterine tubes. What disease did you most likely have that created this problem for you? a. gonorrhea b. leptospirosis c. syphilis d. trichomoniasis
Gonorrhea
Syphilitic tumors called ____ develop in the liver, skin, bone and cartilage during the tertiary stage of syphilis. a. chancres b. gummas c. nodules d. ulcers
Gummas
The most common cause of liver cancer in the U.S, is a. HAV. b. HBV. c. HCV. d. HDV. e. HEV.
HCV
30. Antivirals that target reverse transcriptase would be used to treat: A) influenza A virus B) HIV C) herpes zoster virus D) respiratory syncytial virus E) hepatitis C virus
HIV
33. The most common infectious cause of death worldwide is
HIV/AIDS.
You, a 29 year old sexually active male, have discovered some small little vesicles on the penis. They are fluid-filled, red, and very painful. This is the second time that you have seen this symptom. The first time around, about 2 months ago, you saw them but managed to ignore them. The lesions went away - no doctor, no treatment. But here they are again. You think that perhaps this disease was picked up six months ago, the last time you had sex. Identify the disease. a. candidiasis b. Chlamydia c. HSV-1 infection d. HSV-2 infection e. syphilis
HSV-2 infection
An agent of conjunctivitis (pinkeye) is: A) Haemophilus influenzae B) Haemophilus ducreyi C) Haemophilus aegyptius D) Haemophilus parainfluenzae E) Haemophilus aphrophilus
Haemophilus aegyptius
The agent of chancroid is: A) Haemophilus influenzae B) Haemophilus ducreyi C) Haemophilus aegyptius D) Haemophilus parainfluenzae E) Haemophilus aphrophilus
Haemophilus influenzae
A reducing medium contains A. Sugars that can be fermented B. Extra oxygen C. Hemoglobin, vitamins or other growth factors D. Substances that remove oxygen E. Inhibiting agents
D. Substances that remove oxygen
A nutrient medium that has all of its chemical components identified and their precise concentrations known and reproducible, would be termed A. Complex B. Reducing C. Enriched D. Synthetic E. None of the choices are correct
D. Synthetic
A microbiologist inoculates Staphylococcus epidermidis and Escherichia coli into a culture medium. Following incubation, only the E. coli grows in the culture. What is the most likely explanation? A. The microbiologist used too much inoculum B. The culture is contaminated C. The incubation temperature was incorrect D. The culture medium must be selective E. The culture medium must be differential
D. The culture medium must be selective
Which of the following is not true about transposons? A. They contain DNA that codes for their own removal and insertion. B. They can move from a chromosome to another chromosome. C. They can move from a chromosome to a plasmid. D. They are rare among prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells. E. They can replicate themselves before jumping to the next location., they are pieces of RNA that can move within a genome, they are pieces of RNA that can move within a genome
D. They are rare among prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.
Which of the following is not a causative agent of acute encephalitis? A. JC virus B. West Nile virus C. herpes simplex virus D. Toxoplasma gondii E. California Encephalitis
D. Toxoplasma gondii
Viral tissue specificities are called A. Ranges B. Virions C. Receptacles D. Tropisms E. Uncoating
D. Tropisms
Which type of microscope cannot image live specimens? A. Bright-field B. Phase-contrast C. Dark-field D. Tunneling electron E. Differential interference
D. Tunneling electron
Which of the following, pertaining to prokaryotic cell membranes is mismatched? A. Contain photosynthetic pigments - cyanobacteria B. Sterols present - mycoplasmas C. Form a bilayer - phospholipids D. Unique hydrocarbon present - cyano bacteria E. Function - regulates transport of nutrients and wastes
D. Unique hydrocarbon present- cyano bacteria
Lysogeny refers to A. Altering the host range of a virus B. Latent state of herpes infections C. Virion exiting host cell D. Viral genome inserting into bacterial host chromosome E. None of the choices are correct
D. Viral genome inserting into bacterial host chromosome
An example of natural passive immunity would be A. chickenpox infection is followed by lifelong immunity. B. chickenpox vaccine triggers extended immunity to chickenpox. C. giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease. D. a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta. E. None of the choices are correct.
D. a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta.
Which of the following species belong to the genus Streptococcus? A. pyogenes B. pneumoniae C. faecalis D. all of these
D. all of these
Semiconservative replication refers to A. each base bonding at the 1' positioin of the sugar. B. a purine always bonding to a pyrimidine C. one helix strand that runs from the 5' to 3' direction and the other strand runs from the 3' to 5' direction D. an original parent DNA strand and one newly synthesized DNA strand comprising a new DNA molecule. E. none
D. an original parent DNA strand and one newly synthesized DNA strand comprising a new DNA molecule.
Which is incorrect about rabies? A. is a zoonotic disease B. wild populations of bats, skunks, raccoons, cats, and canines are primary reservoirs C. transmission can involve bites, scratches ,and inhalation D. average incubation in human is one week E. symptoms include anxiety, agitation, muscle spasms, convulsions, and paralysis
D. average incubation in human is one week
Cyanide will cause rapid death in humans because it: A. stops glycolysis. B. stops the TCA cycle from turning. C. stops the electron transport chain at coenzyme Q. D. blocks cytochrome c oxidase. E. inhibits the ATP synthase
D. blocks cytochrome c oxidase.
The Argyll Robertson pupil that is fixed and small and does not react to light but does accommodate for focusing is associated with: A) Lyme disease B) leptospirosis C) chlamydiosis D) Rocky Mountain spotted fever E) tertiary syphilis
E) tertiary syphilis
The important solvent associated with living things is: A) carbon dioxide B) sodium chloride C) ethyl alcohol D) benzene E) water
E) water
Vaccinia virus is often used in the technique to make A. adjuvant. B. booster. C. antibodies to toxin. D. gamma globulin. E. "Trojan horse" recombinant vaccine.
E. "Trojan horse" recombinant vaccine.
In bacterial cells, when glucose is completely oxidized by all the pathways of aerobic cellular respiration, how many ATP are generated? A. 2 ATP B. 3 ATP C. 24 ATP D. 36 ATP E. 38 ATP
E. 38 ATP
The size of a eukaryotic cell ribosome is A. 30S B. 40S C. 50S D. 70S E. 80S
E. 80S
If a microbiologist is studying a specimen at a total magnification of 950X, what is the magnifying power of the objective lens if the ocular lens is 10X? A. 100X B. 950X C. 85X D. 850X E. 95X
E. 95X
All of the following are helminths except A. Tapeworms B. Flukes C. Flatworms D. Round worms E. All of the choices are helminthes
E. All of choices are helminthes
Chlamydia trachomatis causes a. cervicitis in females. b. congenital conjunctivitis. c. nongonococcal urethritis in males. d. pelvic inflammatory disease in females. e. all of the choices are correct
E. All of the choices are correct
Differential media results in which of the following growth characteristics? A. Different color colonies B. Different media color post incubation C. Precipitates D. Gas bubbles E. All of the choices are correct
E. All of the choices are correct
Endospores are A. Metabolically inactive B. Resistant to heat and chemical destruction C. Resistant to destruction by radiation D. Living structures E. All of the choices are correct
E. All of the choices are correct
The DTaP immunization A. contains diphtheria toxoid. B. is administered in childhood. C. contains tetanus toxoid. D. contains a pertussis vaccine with acellular capsule material. E. All of the choices are correct.
E. All of the choices are correct.
Transfusion of the wrong blood type can cause A. recipient antibody activating the complement cascade to attack the RBCs. B. fever and anemia. C. systemic shock and kidney failure. D. massive hemolysis of the donor RBCs. E. All of the choices are correct.
E. All of the choices are correct.
Treatment of an animal bite for possible rabies includes A. debridement. B. washing bite with soap or detergent. C. infusing the wound with human rabies immune globulin (HRIG). D. postexposure vaccination with inactive vaccine. E. All of the choices are correct.
E. All of the choices are correct.
Which of the following are likely to predispose patients to fungal infections? A. cancer B. AIDS C. tuberculosis D. malnutrition E. All of the choices are correct.
E. All of the choices are correct.
Which of the following is a sign of meningitis? A. headache B. stiff neck C. white blood cells in cerebrospinal fluid D. fever E. All of the choices are correct.
E. All of the choices are correct.
Eukaryotic chromosomes differ from prokaryotic chromosomes because only eukaryotes have A. histone proteins. B. chromosomes in a nucleus C. several to many chromosomes D. elongated, not circular, chromosomes E. all are correct
E. All of the choices are correct.,
26. Transgenic animals A. can be engineered to become factories for manufacturing proteins B. are often obtained from germ line engineering C. will pass the genes on to their offspring D. commonly include mice E. all are correct
E. All of the choices are correct.;
10. Analysis of DNA fragments in gel electrophoresis involves A. larger fragments move slowly and remain closer to the wells. B. DNA has an overall negative changes and moves to the positive pole C. DNA fragments are stained to see them D. an electric current through the gel causes DNA fragments to migrate. E. all choices
E. All of the choices are correct;
Among the microorganisms, various genomes can include: A. chromosomes B. plasmids C. mitochondrial DNA D. chloroplast DNA E. all choices
E. All of the choices are correct; chromosomes, plasmids, mitochondrial DNA. chloroplast DNA.
Which of the following is not a theory to explain the origin of autoimmune diseases? A. sequestered antigen theory B. clonal selection theory C. theory of immune deficiency D. viral infection theory E. All of the choices are possible theories.
E. All of the choices are possible theories.
Which of the following will not support viral cultivation? A. Live lab animals B. Embryonated bird eggs C. Primary cell cultures D. Continuous cell cultures E. All of the choices will support viral cultivation
E. All of the choices will support viral cultivation
Neisseria gonorrheae is a. called the gonococcus. b. the cause of gonorrhea. c. the cause of ophthalmia neonatorum. d. virulent due to fimbriae and a protease that inactivates IgA. e. all of the choices are correct
E. All the choices are correct
Treponema pallidum a. can cross the placenta. b. has a hooked tip to attach to epithelium. c. has humans as the reservoir. d. is transmitted by direct sexual contact. e. all of the choices are correct
E. All the choices are correct
Trichomonas vaginalis a. does not produce cysts. b. has four flagella and an undulating membrane. c. in females, causes vaginitis with a foul-smelling discharge. d. in males, causes urethritis. e. all of the choices are correct
E. All the choices are correct
Blooms of certain alga are associated with all of the following except A. Paralytic shellfish poisoning B. Red tides C. Ciguatera D. Pfiesteria piscicida E. Amoebic dysentery
E. Amoebic dysentery
Which process involves a more rapid synthesis and greatly increased titer of antibody when the immune system is subsequently exposed to the same antigen? A. Neutralization B. Opsonization C. Complement fixation D. Agglutination E. Anamnestic response
E. Anamnestic response
Which of the following is not a function of a prokaryote cell membrane? A. Transport B. Secretion C. Cellular respiration D. Macromolecule synthesis E. Antigens and receptors
E. Antigens and receptors
Plasmids A. Are found in all bacteria B. Are essential for survival C. Cannot be passed between organisms D. Cannot be passed on to progeny E. Are often the site of pathogenic genes
E. Are often the site of pathogenic genes
Fungal asexual spores A. Are only produced under harmful environmental conditions B. Are only asexually produced C. Cannot be seen in a light microscope D. Are produced by molds but not by yeasts E. Are used to identify fungi
E. Are used to identify fungi
This organism commonly contaminates grains, corn, and peanuts and produces a potent mycotoxin called aflatoxin: A. Pneumocystis (carinii) jiroveci B. Fusarium species C. Rhizopus species D. Geotrichum candidum E. Aspergillus flavis
E. Aspergillus flavis
What is the term for a culture made from one isolated colony? A. Axenic B. Mixed C. Pure D. Both axenic and mixed E. Both axenic and pure
E. Both axenic and pure
Which of the following is/are good prevention method(s) for reducing the risk of developing UTIs? a. avoid sharing living space with infected individuals. b. drink cranberry juice. c. flush tract with alcohol regularly. d. good personal hygiene. e. both b and d are correct.
E. Both b and d are correct (B.drink cranberry juice and D.good personal hygiene)
The basal body of a flagellum is anchored into the A. Hook B. Outer membrane C. Cell wall D. Peptidoglycan layer E. Cell membrane
E. Cell membrane
The site/s for most ATP synthesis in prokaryotic cells is/are the A. Ribosomes B. Mitochondria C. Cell wall D. Inclusions E. Cell membrane
E. Cell membrane
All of the following are found in some or all protozoa except A. Motility B. Ectoplasm and endoplasm C. Heterotrophic nutrition D. Formation of a cyst stage E. Cell wall
E. Cell wall
When a eukaryotic cell is not undergoing mitosis, the DNA and its associated proteins appear as a visible thread-like mass called the A. Nuclear envelope B. Nucleosome C. Nucleolus D. Nucleoplasm E. Chromatin
E. Chromatin
Eukaryotic flagella differ from prokaryotic flagella because only eukaryotic flagella A. Are used for cell motility B. Facilitate chemo taxis C. Facilitate photo taxis D. Are long whip-like structures E. Contain microtubules
E. Contain microtubules
The core of every virus particle always contains A. DNA B. Capsomeres C. Enzymes D. DNA and RNA E. Either DNA or RNA
E. Either DNA or RNA
Which type of microscope achieves the greatest resolution and highest magnification? A. Bright-field B. Dark-field C. Phase-contrast D. Fluorescence E. Electron
E. Electron
Which type of microscope does not use light in forming the specimen image? A. Bright-field B. Dark-field C. Phase-contrast D. Fluorescence E. Electron
E. Electron
The cell's series of tunnel-like membranes functioning in transport and storage are the A. Mitochondria B. Iysosomes C. Golgi apparatus D. Chloroplasts E. Endoplasmic reticulum
E. Endoplasmic reticulum
Chemical analysis of a bacterial cell structure detects calcium dipicolinic acid. What is the identity of this structure? A. Cell wall B. Capsule C. Slime layer D. Nucleoid E. Endospore
E. Endospore
Gram negative bacteria do not have peptidoglycan in their cell walls. True or False.
False
If during the gram stain procedure, the bacterial cells were viewed immediately after crystal violet was applied, gram positive cells would be purple but gram negative cells would be colorless. True or False.
False
Immune serum can give years of protection against a specific infectious disease. T/F
False
In humans, fungi can only infect the skin. True or False
False
Iodine is the decolorizer in the Gram stain. True or False.
False
Listeria monocytogenes does not grow in refrigerated foods. A) True B) False
False
Most microorganisms on earth can only live and survive in habitats that are similar to human body conditions.
False
Plankton are floating communities of helminths. True or False.
False
Prokaryotes include bacteria and viruses. True or False.
False
Saprobes do not need a carbon source for growth and metabolism
False
Serological tests should have low sensitivity and specificity. T/F
False
The Enterobacteriaceae do not produce oxidase compared to the pseudomonads that do produce oxidase. A) True B) False
False
The adeno-associated virus (AAV) and the delta agent are prions. True or False
False
The cell wall of fungi and algae are chemically identical to the prokaryotic cell wall. True or False.
False
The direct cell count, using a cytometer, can quantitate viable cell numbers from a sample
False
The eukaryotic cell membrane is a bilayer of sterols. True or False.
False
The most common immunoglobulin deficiency is an IgG deficiency. True False
False
The most serious teratogenic effects of intrauterine rubella infection occur if it is acquired during the third trimester. T/F
False
The nuclear envelope is a single layer. True or False.
False
The practice of delaying the introduction of solid foods has no validity in preventing allergies in children. True False
False
The region between the bacterial cell membrane and the cell wall is called the outer membrane. True or False.
False
The slime layer gives bacteria a greater pathogenicity as compared to the capsule. True or False.
False
The term diplococcus refers to an irregular cluster of spherical bacterial cells. True or False.
False
The tuberculin reaction develops within 30 minutes of the skin test in people with prior sensitization due to tuberculosis infection True False
False
There are no algae that can cause human disease. True or False.
False
Transverse binary fission results in 4 daughter cells from 1 parent cell.
False
Viruses are not filterable. True or False
False
Viruses are ultramicroscopic because they range in size from 2 mm to 450 mm. True or False
False
11. Ampicillin, amoxicillin, mezlocillin, and penicillin G all have: A) a beta-lactam ring B) resistance to the action of penicillinase C) a semisynthetic nature D) an expanded spectrum of activity E) all of the choices are correct
a beta-lactam ring
Anthrax is: A) a zoonosis B) transmitted by contact, inhalation, and ingestion C) a disease that, in humans, can cause a rapidly fatal toxemia and septicemia D) only seen sporadically in the United States E) all of the choices are correct
all of the choices are correct
Lichens have all the following characteristics except A. leguminous plants. B. a complex symbiotic relationship. C. early colonizers of rocks. D. important to the development of soil. E. an association of a fungus and a green alga or cyanobacterium.
leguminous plants
____ carriers are shedding and transmitting pathogen while they are recovering from an infectious disease. a. Asymptomatic b. Chronic c. Convalescent d. Incubation e. Passive
c. Convalescent
All of the following are involved in Type 2 hypersensitivity, exept a. IgM b. IgG c. IgE d. complement e. foreign cells
c. IgE
Which of these chemicals is a powerful inflammatory agent that also stimulates uterine contractions? a. Bradykinin b. Platelet-activating factor c. Prostaglandins d. Leukotrien e. Histamine
c. Prostaglandins
The DiGeorge syndrome is the result of a. autoantibodies b. delayed hypersensitivity c. congenital absense or immaturity of thymus gland d. failure of B cell development and maturity e. a genetic defect in the development of both T cells and B cells.
c. congenital absense or immaturity of thymus gland
Which of the following water-borne pathogens are protozoans? a. Vibrio b. Hepatitis A c. Giardia d. Shigella e. Norwalk virus
c. giardia
Any heightened or inappropriate immune response resulting in tissue damage is called a/an a. autoimmune disease b. immunodeficiency c. hypersensitivity d. transfussion reaction e. desenesitization
c. hypersensitivity
The minimum amount of microbes in the inoculating dose is the a. endotoxin. b. indigenous biota. c. infectious dose. d. minimal dose. e. virulence factor.
c. infectious dose.
Bee sting venom is considered to be which type of allergen? a. ingestant b. inhalant c. injectant d. Contactant e. none of the choices are correct
c. injectant
The chemical mediator that causes prolonged bronchospasm, vacular permeability, and mucus secretion of asthmatic patients is a. prostaglandin b. histamine c. leukotriene d. serotonin e. platelet-activating factor
c. leukotriene
The number of persons afflicted with an infectious disease is the ____ rate. a. endemic b. incidence c. morbidity d. mortality e. pandemic
c. morbidity
A group of organisms of the same species within a community is called a. niche b. habitat c. population d. community e. biome
c. population
The primary, natural habitat of a pathogen where it continues to exist is called the a. carrier. b. fomes. c. reservoir. d. source. e. vector.
c. reservoir.
The greatest number of pathogens enter the body through the a. gastrointestinal system. b. genital system. c. respiratory system. d. skin. e. urinary system.
c. respiratory system.
Root nodules contain _____ which can _____ a. Azotobacter, fix N2 b. Nitrosomonas, nitrify NH3- c. rhizobia, fix N2 d. Bacillus, denitrify NO3-
c. rhizobia, fix N2
Which of the following is not a major subdivision of the biosphere? a. hydrosphere b. lithosphere c. stratosphere d. atmosphere
c. stratosphere
Cations are: A) charged subatomic particles B) atoms that have gained electrons C) radioactive isotopes D) capable of forming ionic bonds with anions E) atoms without protons
capable of forming ionic bonds with anions
Which of the following atmospheric gases have been increasing in concentration and are believed to be contributors to climate change? A. oxygen and carbon dioxide B. hydrogen and carbon dioxide C. nitrogen and oxygen D. carbon dioxide and methane E. methane and oxygen
carbon dioxide and methane
Pertussis has the following characteristics except: A) pathogen has virulence factors to destroy the action of respiratory cilia B) catarrhal stage has persistent, hacking coughs with "whoops" C) early stage resembles a cold with nasal discharge and sneezing D) DTaP immunization will prevent it E) transmission is by respiratory droplets
catarrhal stage has persistent, hacking coughs with "whoops"
Leprosy is a disease: A) of lung tissue B) that has been eradicated around the world C) caused by a pathogen that cannot be cultured in the lab D) can be diagnosed by the Mantoux test E) caused by a sporeforming, gram-positive bacillus
caused by a pathogen that cannot be cultured in the lab
Which is not correct about Bacillus cereus? A) present in soil B) produce enterotoxins C) causes foodborne intoxication D) causes a zoonosis E) associated with cooked rice, potato, and meat dishes that are stored at room temperature
causes a zoonosis
Which PCR step causes the denaturation of double-stranded DNA? a. Cool DNA to between 50° C and 65° C b. Add primers c. Heat target DNA to 94° C d. Add DNA polymerase and nucleotides at 72° C e. Repeat the cycle of heating and cooling
Heat target DNA to 94° C
43. Which of the following branches of Microbiology is important when someone is broken out in hives and experiencing respiratory distress due to an exposure to a microbial toxin?
Immunology
29. An antiviral that is a guanine analog would have an antiviral mode of action that: A) blocks penetration B) blocks transcription and translation C) inhibits DNA synthesis D) blocks maturation E) bonds to ergosterol in the cell membrane
inhibits DNA synthesis
Lactobacillus in the female reproductive tract a. can contribute to STIs. b. can lead to pelvic inflammatory disease. c. is indicative of underlying infection. d. is protective. e. is the causative agent in common yeast infections.
Is protective
18. Which of these drugs have the most narrow spectrum? A) tetracycline B) Isoniazid C) erythromycin D) aminoglycosides E) cephalosporins
Isoniazid (tuberculosis treatment)
All of the following are coliforms that cause opportunistic and nosocomial infections except: A) Enterobacter B) Citrobacter C) Shigella D) Klebsiella E) Serratia
Shigella
Which fastidious genus requires hemin (X factor) and NAD (X factor) in its growth medium? A) Legionella B) Haemophilus C) Brucella D) Shigella E) all of the choices are correct
Shigella
Herpes zoster virus is the causative agent for a. genital herpes. b. mononucleosis. c. oral herpes. d. shingles.
Shingles
The RNA molecules that carry amino acids to the ribosomes during protein synthesis are called: a. Transfer RNA b. Ribozymes c. Messenger RNA d. Ribosomal RNA e. Primer RNA
Transfer RNA
49. The fossil record has established that prokaryotes existed on earth for approximately 2 billion years before eukaryotes appeared. True False
True
51. The term sterile means free of all life forms. True False
True
54. The scientific method involves formulating a tentative explanation, called the hypothesis, to account for what has been observed or measured. True False
True
56. A hypothesis must be tested before it can be considered a theory. True False
True
58. One distinguishing characteristic of the archaebacteria is that they live in extreme environments. True False
True
A PNA FISH test utilizes both fluorescence and nucleic acids. T/F
True
A closed culture system is used to determine a population growth curve.
True
A fully formed virus that can cause an infection in a host cell is called a virion. True or False
True
A paroxysmal cough is associated with Legionnaires' disease. A) True B) False
True
After a bone marrow transplant, the recipients blood type may change to the blood type of the donor. True False
True
Alcohol-based compounds can weaken the outer membrane. True or False.
True
All algae have chloroplasts. True or False.
True
Archaea do not have the typical peptidoglycan structure found in bacterial cell walls. True or False.
True
Bacteria in the genus Mycoplasma and bacteria called L-forms lack cell walls. True or False.
True
Biochemical identification methods are based on a microbes utilization of nutrients. T/F
True
Botox injections contain botulin toxin. A) True B) False
True
Chromosomes are generally not visible in the nucleus unless the cell is undergoing nuclear division. True or False
True
DNA probes are used to search for complementary segments of DNA. T/F
True
Debridement of diseased tissue is important in the care of patients with gas gangrene. A) True B) False
True
During graft rejection, cytotoxic T cells of the recipient recognize and respond to foreign class I MHC receptors on grafted cells. True False
True
Endospores of certain bacterial species can enter tissues in the human body, germinate and cause an infectious disease. True or False.
True
Eukaryotic mitochondria have their own 70S ribosomes and circular DNA. True or False.
True
Facilitated diffusion and active transport require a carrier protein to mediate the movement across the plasma membrane.
True
Food allergies include gastrointestinal symptoms and often hives. True False
True
Fungi can reproduce both sexually and asexually. True or False.
True
Herpes keratitis is an infection of the eye. T/F
True
Hot carbol fuchsin is the primary dye in the acid fast stain. True or False.
True
If you observe rod shaped, pink cells on a slide that had just been gram stained, you can assume that their cell walls contain endotoxin. True or False.
True
In an isograft, tissue from an identical twin is used. True False
True
In both botulism and tetanus, respiratory muscles cannot facilitate breathing and, if untreated, respiratory collapse leads to death. A) True B) False
True
In commensal relationship, the commensal benefits but the cohabitant is neither harmed nor benefited.
True
Infections caused by fungi are called mycoses. True or False.
True
Legionellosis is a zoonosis. A) True B) False
True
Lithoautotrophs use inorganic nutrients for carbon and energy sources.
True
Molluscum contagiosum is transmitted by direct contact with skin lesions, fomites, and sexual activity. T/F
True
Organisms depending on each for survival through time is coevolution.
True
Plague is a quarantinable disease. A) True B) False
True
Prophages can be activated into viral replication and enter the lytic cycle. True or False
True
Propionibacterium acnes is normal flora of sebaceous glands of the skin. A) True B) False
True
Proteus species often cause urinary tract infections. A) True B) False
True
Pseudomonas aeruginosa is resistant to many antimicrobics. A) True B) False
True
Pseudomonas is an enteric gram negative rod. A) True B) False
True
Rough endoplasmic reticulum is studded with ribosomes. True or False.
True
Serological testing always involves reactions between specific antibody and antigen. T/F
True
Some bacteria have a cytoskeleton of sterols to help maintain their shape. True or False.
True
Specific immune globulin is obtained from the serum of convalescing patients. T/F
True
Spikes are glycoproteins of the virus capsid. True or False
True
Systemic anaphylaxis can quickly result in airway blockage, shock, and death. True False
True
Tetanus can be prevented with the DTaP childhood immunization and boosters of the tetanus toxoid. A) True B) False
True
The IMViC series of biochemical tests are used to identify the Enterobacteriaceae. A) True B) False
True
The Widal test is used for diagnosing salmonellosis. T/F
True
The allergen in poison ivy plants is oil called urushiol. True False
True
The cell envelope of gram positive bacteria has two layers: a thick cell wall and the cell membrane. True or False.
True
The cell envelope or its parts can interact with human tissue and cause disease. True or False
True
The degree of turbidity in a culture correlates to the amount of cell growth.
True
The fermentation by-products of Clostridium perfringens contribute to tissue necrosis in myonecrosis. A) True B) False
True
The first cells on earth were probably archaea. True or False.
True
The main reservoir of nitrogen is nitrogen gas from the earth's atmosphere.
True
The major reservoir for the hantavirus is the deer mouse. T/F
True
The pathogen that causes Legionnaires pneumonia also causes a milder infection called Pontiac fever. A) True B) False
True
The primary transmission route for acquiring agents of the common cold is by contact with hands and fomites contaminated with the nasal discharges of an infected person. T/F
True
The prokaryote cell membrane is made of the same materials as the eukaryote cell membrane. True or False.
True
The prokaryotic cell membrane is a site for many enzymes and metabolic reactions. True or False
True
The time it takes for a freshly inoculated agar culture to develop visible colonies is principally governed by that species generation time.
True
The tuberculin test is an example of an in vivo serological test. T/F
True
True pili used for conjugation are only found on gram negative bacteria. True or False.
True
Varicella and herpes zoster are caused by the same virus. T/F
True
Viral spikes are inserted into the host cell membrane before budding or exocytosis. True or False
True
Viruses are simple, non-cellular and lack mRNA. True or False
True
Viruses are the most common cause of acute infections that do not result in hospitalization. True or False
True
Viruses are unable to multiple outside of a host cell. True or False
True
Viruses are used to produce vaccines for prevention of certain viral infections. True or False
True
Viruses mutate and some have not been discovered. True or False
True
When a virus enters a host cell, the viral genes redirect the genetic and metabolic activities of the host cell. True or False
True
When antibodies or other substances in serum cross-react with the test reagents, a false positive result can occur. T/F
True
Both gram positive and gram negative cells have outer membranes. True or False.
True.
40. The most important antibiotic of the penicillin family is penicillin G. A) True B) False
True? I think
7. Broad-spectrum drugs that disrupt the body's normal flora often cause: A) nephrotoxicity B) superinfections C) allergic reactions D) drug toxicity E) all of the choices are correct
superinfections
Which is not associated with tularemia? A) a zoonosis B) transmitted by arthropod vectors C) transmitted by contact D) symptoms include fever, swollen lymph nodes, ulcerative lesions, conjunctivitis, and pneumonia E) in animals, infects the placenta and fetus
symptoms include fever, swollen lymph nodes, ulcerative lesions, conjunctivitis, and pneumonia
Which form of anthrax involves a black eschar on the skin? A) pulmonary B) gastrointestinal C) cutaneous D) all of the choices are correct E) none of the choices are correct
none of the choices are correct
Most cases of human rabies outside of the United States result from exposure to A. rabid bats. B. rabid raccoons. C. rabid dogs. D. other rabid humans.
rabid dogs
This type of anthrax is called "woolsorter's disease": A) pulmonary B) gastrointestinal C) cutaneous D) all of the choices are correct E) none of the choices are correct
pulmonary
Bacteria hava an average generation time of 24 hours.
False
Flagella move in a whip-like motion. True or False.
False
46. Chlorine dioxide and ethylene oxide are sterilizing gases. A) True B) False
True
46. Viruses are not classified in any of Whittaker's 5 kingdoms. True False
True
49. Sulfonamides are analogs of PABA and, as a result, they inhibit _____ synthesis.
...
50. Drugs that insert on the _____ ribosomal subunit prevent peptide bond formation or inhibit translocation of the subunit during translation.
...
51. Drugs that act by mimicking the normal substrate of an enzyme, thereby blocking its active site, are called _____.
...
52. All _____ consist of a thiazolidine ring, a beta-lactam ring, and an R group.
...
53. The major source of naturally produced penicillin is the mold _____.
...
54. The _____ are drugs that deposit in developing teeth and cause a permanent brown discoloration.
...
55. Polyene drugs bind to fungal _____ and cause loss of selective permeability.
...
56. Primaquine and chloroquine are drugs used in the treatment of _____.
...
57. If pathogen A is more resistant to an erythromycin disc on a Kirby-Bauer plate compared to pathogen B, then pathogen A will have a _____ zone of inhibition compared to pathogen B.
...
58. Discuss the problems with development of antifungal, antiprotozoan, antihelminth, and antiviral drugs compared to the antbacterial drugs. Discuss at least 3 different modes of action that have been developed for these drugs.
...
59. Describe how the therapeutic index of a drug is determined and explain its function.
...
60. Discuss 5 factors that have influenced the increasing development of resistant microbial strains.
...
Select 5 specific virulence factors and explain how each factor increases a pathogen's virulence.
1) Mucinase digests the protective coating on mucous membranes and is a factor in amoebic dysentery. 2) Keratinase digests the principal component of skin and hair, and is secreted by fungi that cause ringworm. 3) Collagenase digests the principal fiber of connective tissue and is an invasive factor of Clostridium species and certain worms. 4) Hyaluonidase digests hyaluronic acid, the ground substance that cements animal cells together. 5) Hemotoxins lyse red blood cells (p. 402)
All of the following pertain to gonorrhea except a. a chancre-type lesion develops at the portal of entry. b. it is a sexually transmitted disease. c. pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), epididymitis and infertility are complications. d. symptoms include painful urination and discharge. e. that females can have asymptomatic infections.
A chancre-type lesion develops at the portal of entry
What part of a phospholipid forms hydrophobic tails? A) fatty acids B) glycerol C) phosphate D) alcohol E) all of the choices are correct
A) fatty acids
Which of the following statements defines a theory? A) A collection of statements, propositions, or concepts that explains or accounts for a natural event B) A principle C) A prediction D) A process of experimentation E) A tentative explanation to account for what has been observed or measured
A) A collection of statements, propositions, or concepts that explains or accounts for a natural event
A 17-year-old male has pus-filled cysts on his face and upper back. Microscopic examination reveals gram-positive rods. This infection is A) Acne. B) Boils. C) Carbuncles. D) Impetigo. E) Pimples.
A) Acne.
A pelvic examination of a 23-year-old woman showed vesicles and ulcerated lesions on her labia. Cultures were negative for Neisseria and Chlamydia; the VDRL test was negative. Which treatment is appropriate? A) Acyclovir B) Metronidazole C) Miconazole D) Penicillin E) Surgery
A) Acyclovir
Who is known as the "Father of Bacteriology and Protozoology?" A) Antonie van Leeuwenhoek B) Francisco Redi C) Louis Pasteur D) Ignaz Semmelweis E) Joseph Lister
A) Antonie van Leeuwenhoek
Which region of the skin supports the largest bacterial population? A) Axilla B) Scalp C) Forearms D) Legs E) All are equal
A) Axilla
A 35-year-old female has a red, raised rash on the inside of her thighs. Gram -stained skin scrapings show large budding cells with pseudohyphae. The infection is caused by A) Candida albicans. B) Herpes simplex virus. C) Staphylococcus aureus. D) Streptococcus pyogenes. E) Varicella-zoster virus.
A) Candida albicans.
The principal government agency responsible for tracking infectious diseases in the United States is A) Centers for Disease Control and Prevention B) World Health Organization C) National Institutes of Health D) United States Department of Agriculture E) Infection Control Committee
A) Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (p.416)
Which of the following statements regarding evolution is incorrect? A) Changes that favor survival of an organism or group of organisms are lost B) All new species originate from preexisting species C) Living things change gradually through hundreds of millions of years D) It results in various types of structural and functional changes in organisms E) Changes that are less beneficial to survival are lost
A) Changes that favor survival of an organism or group of organisms are lost
An 8-year-old female has scabs and pus-filled vesicles on her face and throat. Three weeks earlier she had visited her grandmother who had shingles. What infection does the 8 -year-old have? A) Chickenpox B) Measles C) Fever blisters D) Scabies E) German measles
A) Chickenpox
Which of the following is incorrectly matched? A) Chickenpox Poxvirus B) Conjunctivitis Chlamydia trachomatis C) Conjunctivitis Pseudomonas D) Infected tissue fluoresces Dermatomycosis E) Opportunistic infection in AIDS patients Candidiasis
A) Chickenpox Poxvirus
Which of the following is not a characteristic used to identify S. pyogenes? A) Coagulase-positive B) Group A cell wall antigen C) Group M proteins D) Beta-hemolytic E) None of the above
A) Coagulase-positive
Staphylococcus saprophyticus causes A) Cystitis. B) Pyelonephritis. C) Vaginitis. D) Gonorrhea. E) Syphilis.
A) Cystitis.
Herpes gladiatorium is transmitted by A) Direct contact. B) The respiratory route. C) The fecal-oral route. D) Insect bites. E) All of the above.
A) Direct contact.
Most nosocomial infections of the urinary tract are caused by A) E. coli. B) Enterococcus. C) Proteus. D) Klebsiella. E) Pseudomonas.
A) E. coli.
A possible complication of herpetic keratitis is A) Encephalitis. B) Fever blisters. C) Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis. D) Congenital rubella syndrome. E) None of the above.
A) Encephalitis.
All of the following genera are considered resident flora of skin sites except A) Escherichia B) Staphylococcus C) Corynebacterium D) Micrococcus E) Mycobacterium
A) Escherichia (p.390-391)
Cystitis is most often caused by A) Escherichia coli. B) Leptospira interrogans. C) Candida albicans. D) Neisseria gonorrhoeae. E) Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
A) Escherichia coli.
Compare and contrast exotoxins and endotoxins with regard to their: A) chemical nature, B) source, C) effects on human body cells and resulting symptoms, and D) examples.
A) Exotoxins have small protein & endotoxins have lipopolysaccharide of cell wall B) Exotoxins have a few gram-positive and gram-negative & endotoxins have all gram-negative bacteria C) Exotoxins are specific to a cell type (blood, liver, nerve) - does not usually stimulate fever & endotoxins are systemic: fever, inflammation, weakness, shock - fever stimulation D) Exotoxins examples are tetanus, diphtheria, cholera, anthrax & endotoxins are meningitis, endotoxic shock, salmonellosis. * see Table 13.9 (p. 403)
Cytoplasmic inclusions were observed in a fetus that died in utero after 6 monthsʹ gestation. The probable cause of the fetusʹs death was A) Fifth disease. B) Herpes simplex. C) Measles. D) Staphylococcus aureus. E) Streptococcus pyogenes.
A) Fifth disease.
Scabies is transmitted by A) Fomites. B) Food. C) Water. D) Soil. E) None of the above.
A) Fomites.
Which of the following is the most difficult to treat with chemotherapeutic agents? A) Genital herpes B) Gonorrhea C) Syphilis D) Trichomoniasis E) Leptospirosis
A) Genital herpes
Which of the following is not a characteristic of P. aeruginosa? A) Gram-positive rods B) Oxidative metabolism C) Oxidase positive D) Produce pyocyanin E) None of the above
A) Gram-positive rods
Joseph Lister's concept of asepsis in the medical setting consisted primarily of what technique? A) Handwashing B) Sterilization of bandages C) Destroying endospores D) The use of antibiotics E) Disinfection of surgical instruments
A) Handwashing
The etiologic agent of fever blisters. A) Herpes simplex B) Herpes zoster C) HHV-6 D) Parvovirus E) Poxvirus
A) Herpes simplex
The surgeon who advocated using disinfectants on hands and in the air prior to surgery was: A) Joseph Lister B) Ignaz Semmelweis C) Robert Koch D) Louis Pasteur E) Antonie van Leeuwenhoek
A) Joseph Lister
Which genus is resident flora of the mouth, large intestine, and, from puberty to menopause, the vagina? A) Lactobacillus B) Streptococcus C) Haemophilus D) Escherichia E) Mycobacterium
A) Lactobacillus (p.391-393)
Normal microbiota of the adult vagina consist primarily of A) Lactobacillus. B) Streptococcus. C) Mycobacterium. D) Neisseria. E) Candida.
A) Lactobacillus.
The white-foot mouse, deer, and deer ticks are important to maintaining the enzootic transmission cycle associated with: A) Lyme disease B) leptospirosis C) chlamydiosis D) Rocky Mountain spotted fever E) tertiary syphilis
A) Lyme disease
Infants born to asymptomatic mothers with recurrent genital herpes are less likely to acquire herpes virus at birth than infants born to newly infected mothers because A) Maternal antibodies offer protection. B) The disease cannot be transmitted to newborns. C) The disease is not communicable. D) Prophylactic antibiotics are administered to the newborn. E) The virus isn't growing.
A) Maternal antibodies offer protection.
A patient is experiencing profuse greenish yellow, foul-smelling discharge from her vagina. She is complaining of itching and irritation. What is the most likely treatment? A) Metronidazole B) Cephalosporins C) Acyclovir D) Miconazole E) No treatment is available.
A) Metronidazole
The etiologic agent of warts is A) Papovavirus. B) Poxvirus. C) Herpesvirus. D) Parvovirus E) None of the above.
A) Papovavirus.
What is the primary aim of the scientific method? A) To formulate a hypothesis B) To introduce new variables into an experiment C) To include control groups in an experiment D) To modify an experiment E) To discard the results if they do not support the hypothesis
A) To formulate a hypothesis
Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) Trichomoniasis - fungus B) Gonorrhea - gram-negative cocci C) Chancroid - gram-negative rod D) Gardnerella - clue cells E) Syphilis - gram
A) Trichomoniasis - fungus
Bacteria that lose their cell walls due to penicillin or lysozyme and result in persistent wall-deficient bacteria are called L forms. A) True B) False
A) True
Chlamydia trachomatis is commonly transmitted by direct sexual activity. A) True B) False
A) True
Chlamydiosis can lead to endometritis, salpingitis and pelvic inflammatory disease. A) True B) False
A) True
In severe cases of Rocky Mountain spotted fever, the enlarged lesions of the rash can become necrotic and predispose the paitent to gangrene of toes and fingertips. A) True B) False
A) True
Louse-borne relapsing fever is more common where there are crowded, stressful living conditions. A) True B) False
A) True
Syphilitic tumors called gummas develop in the liver, skin, bone, and cartilage during the tertiary stage of syphilis. A) True B) False
A) True
The spirochete of relapsing fever changes cell surface antigens many times in order to avoid destruction by the immune response. A) True B) False
A) True
Under certain circumstances, a person's resident flora can be opportunistic pathogens. A) True B) False
A) True (p. 389)
Sentinel animals are monitored for specific diseases in order to determine the potential for human exposure to a disease. A) True B) False
A) True (p. 410-411)
The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention assigns the most virulent microbes known to cause human disease to biosafety level 4. A) True B) False
A) True (p. 416)
Genetic differences among species, and within a species, can convey genetic immunity to certain diseases. A) True B) False
A) True (p. 427)
Monocytes and lymphocytes are agranular leukocytes. A) True B) False
A) True (p. 432)
Endotoxin is an exogenous pyrogen. A) True B) False
A) True (p. 441)
Certain complement components stimulate inflammation and phagocytosis. A) True B) False
A) True (p. 446)
A fetus can get an infection when a pathogen in the mother's blood is capable of crossing the placenta to the fetal circulation and tissues. A) True B) False
A) True (p.398)
Fomites, food, and air serve as indirect transmission routes of pathogens. A) True B) False
A) True (p.412)
In patients with diabetes or liver disease ingestion of raw oysters contaminated with this organism can lead to death: A) Vibrio vulnificus B) Vibrio parahaemolyticus C) Vibrio cholerae D) Campylobacter jejuni E) Helicobacter pylori
A) Vibrio vulnificus
All of the following are processes that define life except: A) ability to invade host cells B) growth C) reproduction and heredity D) metabolism E) movement and/or irritability
A) ability to invade host cells
Nosocomial infections involve all the following except A) are only transmitted by medical personnel B) often involve the patient's urinary tract and surgical incisions C) the patient's resident flora can be the infectious agent D) Escherichia coli and staphylococci are common infectious agents E) medical and surgical asepsis help lower their occurrence
A) are only transmitted by medical personnel (p. 413)
The least numerous of all white blood cells, that release histamine during inflammation and allergic reactions are A) basophils B) eosinophils C) neutrophils D) monocytes E) lymphocytes
A) basophils (p. 432)
Which of the following is not a process in the scientific method? A) belief in a preconceived idea B) formulate a hypothesis C) systematic observation D) laboratory experimentation E) development of a theory
A) belief in a preconceived idea
All of the following pertain to platelets except A) contain hemoglobin to transport oxygen and carbon dioxide B) also called thrombocytes C) originate from giant multinucleate cells called megakaryocytes D) function in blood clotting and inflammation E) they are not whole cells but are pieces of cells
A) contain hemoglobin to transport oxygen and carbon dioxide (p. 433)
The microorganisms that recycle nutrients by by breaking down dead matter and wastes are called: A) decomposers B) procaryotes C) pathogens D) eucaryotes E) fermenters
A) decomposers
A laboratory technologist splashed a blood specimen onto his face, eyes, nose, and mouth. This specimen was from an HIV positive patient. If this blood exposure leads to HIV infection in the technologist, the transmission route is A) direct B) fomite C) vehicle D) droplet nuclei E) aerosols
A) direct (p.412)
The subatomic particles that surround the nucleus are the: A) electrons B) protons C) neutrons D) protons and neutrons E) protons and electrons
A) electrons
Arboviruses cause ________ and are transmitted by ________. A) encephalitis; mosquitoes B) meningitis; exposure to certain trees C) encephalitis; exposure to certain trees D) meningitis; mosquitoes E) both meningitis and encephalitis; mosquitoes
A) encephalitis; mosquitoes
Due to the way the lymph drains from lymph nodes, cell and products of immunity continually A) enter the regular circulatory system. B) enter the liver C) enter gastrointestinal tract. D) enter the gall bladder. E) enter the thymus gland.
A) enter the regular circulatory system. (p. 433-435 Figure 14.9d)
An inanimate object that harbors and transmits a pathogen is a A) fomite B) carrier C) vector D) reservoir E) source
A) fomite (p. 412)
Some disease can be vertically transmitted. This is understood to mean the disease is transmitted A) from parent to offspring via milk, ovum, sperm, or placenta. B) from parent to offspring via respiratory route. C) by contact between siblings. D) between people living or working in the same building. E) between higher and lower animals.
A) from parent to offspring via milk, ovum, sperm, or placenta. (p. 411)
Which is INCORRECT about Mycoplasma pneumoniae: A) has birds as a reservoir B) common cause of primary atypical pneumonia C) initially causes fever, malaise, sore throat, headache D) after 2 or 3 weeks develops into an unproductive cough and earache E) is a bacterial cell without a cell wall
A) has birds as a reservoir
These structures are found along lymphatic vessels but are heavily clustered in the armpit, groin, and neck A) lymph nodes B) thymus C) spleen D) GALT E) tonsils
A) lymph nodes (p. 435)
All the following are events of early inflammation except A) macrophages appear first and begin phagocytosis B) chemical mediators and cytokines are released C) brief vasoconstriction is followed by vasodilation D) exudate and pus can accumulate E) capillaries become more permeable resulting in edema
A) macrophages appear first and begin phagocytosis (p. 437-438)
The orderly division of chromosomes during eucaryotic cell division is called: A) mitosis B) motility C) metabolism D) cell transport E) reproduction
A) mitosis
Which of the following is not considered a microorganism? A) mosquito B) protozoa C) bacteria D) viruses E) fungi
A) mosquito
The key phagocytic cells of the body are the A) neutrophils and macrophages B) basophils and neutrophils. C) eosinophils and macrophages. D) macrophages and monocytes. E) natural killer cells.
A) neutrophils and macrophages (p. 430-432)
Which is not terminology used for resident flora A) pathogenic flora B) normal flora C) indigenous flora D) normal microflora E) all of the choices are correct
A) pathogenic flora (p.387)
The initial, brief period of early, general symptoms such as fatigue and muscle aches, is the A) prodromal stage B) convalescent stage C) incubation period D) period of invasion E) all of the choices are correct
A) prodromal stage (p.405)
Exotoxins are A) proteins B) only released after a cell is damaged or lysed C) antiphagocytic factors D) secretions that always target nervous tissue E) lipopolysaccharides
A) proteins (p.402)
Maria was scratched on her arm by her cat and the site is experiencing rubor. This means A) redness. B) pain. C) loss of function. D) warmth. E) swelling.
A) redness. (p. 437)
Which is mismatched? A) secondary infection - infection spreads to several tissue sites B) mixed infection - several agents established at infection site C) acute infection - rapid onset of severe, short-lived symptoms D) local infection - pathogen remains at or near entry site E) toxemia - pathogen's toxins carried by the blood to target tissues
A) secondary infection - infection spreads to several tissue sites (p. 406)
All of the following can be recognized by toll-like receptors except A) single-stranded viral RNA. B) flagellin. C) lipoteichoic acid. D) lipoteichoic acid. E) lipopolysaccharide.
A) single-stranded viral RNA. (p. 428)
This body region is protected by fatty acids, acidic pH, lactic acid, and a tough cell barrier with its own normal flora A) skin B) respiratory tract C) digestive tract D) urinary tract E) eyes
A) skin (p. 426)
All of the following sites in the gastrointestinal tract harbor appreciable permanent flora except A) small intestine. B) large intestine. C) oral cavity. D) rectum. E) None of the choices; they all have flora.
A) small intestine. (p.391)
Lymphogranuloma venereum is caused by: A) specific strains of Chlamydia trachomatis B) Ureaplasma urealyticum C) Mycoplasma hominis D) Chlamydia psittaci E) Chlamydia pneumoniae
A) specific strains of Chlamydia trachomatis
When a disease occurs occasionally at irregular intervals and random locales, it is referred to as A) sporadic. B) pandemic. C) endemic. D) epidemic. E) chronic.
A) sporadic. (p.416)
Histamine, serotonin, and bradykinin are all A) vasoactive mediators B) mediators of B cell activity C) mediators of T cell activity D) mediators that increase chemotaxis E) fever inducers
A) vasoactive mediators (p. 440)
The most immediate and important treatment needed to prevent death in Cholera victims is: A) water and electrolyte replacement B) antimicrobics C) antitoxin D) surgery E) none of the choices are correct
A) water and electrolyte replacement
Which of the following is a hemorrhagic fever? A)Yellow fever B)Cat scratch fever C)Trench fever D)Q fever E)Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever
A)Yellow fever
Spirochetes are able to move due to: A. A periplasmic flagellum B. A membrane bound flagellum C. Cilia serving as walking feet D. Pseudopods
A. A periplasmic flagellum
A secondary acquired immunodeficiency is A. AIDS. B. adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency. C. DiGeorge syndrome. D. agammaglobulinemia. E. SCID.
A. AIDS.
The _____ stain is used to stain and differentiate Mycobacterium and Nocardia from other bacteria. A. Acid fast B. Methylene blue C. Gram D. Negative E. Basic
A. Acid fast
Which of the following is a special binding substance that enhances immugenicity and prolongs antigen retention at the injection site? A. Adjuvant B. Booster C. Antibodies to toxin D. Gamma globulin E. "Trojan horse" recombinant vaccine
A. Adjuvant
The term that refers to flagella at both poles is A. Amphitrichous B. Atrichous C. Lophotrichous D. Monotrichous E. Peritrichous
A. Amphitrichous
Exotoxins A. Are secreted by pathogenic organisms B. Are bound to the membrane of pathogenic organisms C. Are bound to the cell wall of pathogenic organisms D. Cause more damage than endotoxins E. Are host specific
A. Are secreted by pathogenic organisms
Basic dyes are A. Attracted to the acidic substances of bacterial cells B. Anionic C. Used in negative staining D. Repelled by cells E. Dyes such as India ink and nigrosin
A. Attracted to the acidic substances of baceterial cells
A common medium used for growing fastidious bacteria is A. Blood agar B. Trypticase soy agar C. Mannitol salt agar D. MacConkey medium E. A reducing medium
A. Blood agar
Which type of microscope is the most widely used and shows cells against a bright background? A. Bright-field B. Dark-field C. Phase-contrast D. Fluorescence E. Electron
A. Bright-field
All of the following are dimorphic, true fungal pathogens except A. Candida. B. Histoplasma. C. Blastomyces. D. Coccidioides. E. Paracoccidioides.
A. Candida
Viruses A. Cannot be seen in a light microscope B. Are prokaryotic C. Contain 70S ribosomes D. Undergo binary fission E. All of the choices are correct
A. Cannot be seen in a light microscope
Peptidoglycan is a unique macromolecule found in bacterial A. Cell walls B. Cell membranes C. Capsules D. Slime layers E. Inclusions
A. Cell walls
Production of a neurotoxin that prevents acetylcholine release from motor neurons at neuromuscular junctions is a characteristic of A. Clostridium botulinum B. Clostridium perfringens C. Clostridium difficile D. Clostridium tetani E. All of the choices are correct.
A. Clostridium botulinum
A nutrient medium that contains at least one ingredient that is NOT chemically definable would be termed A. Complex B. Reducing C. Enriched D. Synthetic E. None of the choices are correct
A. Complex
Which enzyme fills in the spaces between the Okazaki fragments with the correct nucleotides? Which enzyme fills in the spaces between the Okazaki fragments with the correct nucleotides? A. DNA ligases B. DNA polymerases C. DNA helicases D. DNA gyrases E. primases
A. DNA ligases
Which type of medium is able to distinguish different species or types of microorganisms based on an observable change in the colonies or in the medium? A. Differential B. Selective C. Enumeration D. Enriched E. Reducing
A. Differential
In humans, helminthes generally infect the A. Digestive tract B. Urinary tract C. Nervous system D. Muscular system E. Skin
A. Digestive tract
Fungi that grow as yeast at one temperature but will grow as mold at another temperature are called A. Dimorphic B. Saprobes C. Pseudohyphae D. Spores E. Parasites
A. Dimorphic
Which of the following is not associated with every virus? A. Envelope B. Capsomeres C. Capsid D. Nucleic acid E. Genome
A. Envelope
Amoebic dysentery is most commonly contracted through the A. Fecal oral route from contaminated food or water B. Direct transmission from one host to another C. Puncture wounds D. Insect bites E. None of the choices are correct
A. Fecal oral route from contaminated food or water
Alternative names for Blastomyces dermatitidis include A. Gilchrist's disease. B. Valley fever. C. Rose Gardener's disease. D. Teapicker's lung. E. Farmer's lung.
A. Gilchrist's disease
Lipopolysaccharide is an important cell wall component of A. Gram negative bacteria B. Gram positive bacteria C. Acid fast bacteria D. Mycoplasmas E. Protoplasts
A. Gram negative bacteria
Most electron carriers are: A. coenzymes. B. enzymes. C. hydrogens. D. inorganic phosphate. E. All of the choices are correct
A. coenzymes.
Viruses attach to their hosts via A. Host glycoproteins B. Host phospholipids C. Viral phospholipids D. Viral flagella E. All of the choices are correct
A. Host glycoproteins
The immunoglobulin class that has a dimer form found in mucus, saliva, colostrum, and other body secretions is A. IgA. B. IgD. C. IgE. D. IgG. E. IgM.
A. IgA.
Which of the following does not pertain to helminths? A. In kingdom Protista B. Parasitic worms C. Eggs and sperm used for reproduction D. Often alternate hosts in complex life cycles E. Have various organ systems
A. In kingdom Protista
All of the following structures contribute to the ability of pathogenic bacteria to cause disease except the A. Inclusions B. Fimbriae C. Capsule D. Slime layer E. Outer membrane of gram negative cell walls
A. Inclusions
Which of the following is incorrect about Sporotrichosis? A. It is also known as Valley fever. B. Humans and other mammals are susceptible. C. Heat packs applied to skin lesions can resolve some infections. D. A prick of a thorn is the classic mode of infection. E. The sporotrichin skin test can be used to determine prior infection.
A. It is also known as Valley fever
Viruses that cause infection resulting in alternating periods of activity with symptoms and inactivity without symptoms are called A. Latent B. Oncogenic C. Prions D. Viroids E. Delta agents
A. Latent
New, nonenveloped virus release occurs by A. Lysis B. Budding C. Exocytosis D. Both lysis and budding E. Both budding and exocytosis
A. Lysis
Human blood types involve all the following except A. MHC genes. B. ABO antigen markers. C. inheritance of two of three possible alleles. D. genetically determined glycoprotein markers. E. genes that code for an enzyme that adds a terminal carbohydrate to RBC receptors.
A. MHC genes
Which organelle contains cristae where enzymes and electron carriers for aerobic respiration are found? A. Mitochondria B. Lysosomes C. Golgi apparatus D. Chloroplasts E. Endoplasmic reticulum
A. Mitochondria
Cells grown in culture form a(n) A. Monolayer B. Bilayer C. Aggregate D. Plaque E. None of the choices are correct
A. Monolayer
The difference in cell wall structure of Mycobacterium and Nocardia compared to the typical gram positive bacterial cell wall structure is A. More peptidoglycan B. Predominance of unique, waxy, lipids C. Easily decolorized D. Presence of lipopolysaccharide E. All of the choices are correct
A. More peptidoglycan
The eukaryotic cell's glycocalyx is A. Mostly polysaccharide B. The site where many metabolic reactions occur C. Also called the cell wall D. Composed of many diverse proteins E. Protection against osmotic lysis
A. Mostly polysaccharide
A bacterial genus that has waxy mycolic acid in the cell walls is A. Mycobacterium B. Mycoplasma C. Streptococcus D. Corynebacterium E. Salmonella
A. Mycobacterium
Prophylactic rifampin is indicated for individuals in close contact with patients infected by A. Neisseria menigitidis. B. Listeria monocytogenes. C. Cryptococcus neoformans. D. Coccidiodes immitis. E. Streptococcus agalactiae.
A. Neisseria menigitidis.
Which process involves antibodies covering surface receptors on a virus or toxin molecule thereby disrupting their activity? A. Neutralization B. Opsonization C. Complement fixation D. Agglutination E. Anamnestic response
A. Neutralization
In general, most DNA viruses multiply in the host cell's _____, while most RNA viruses multiply in the host cell's _____. A. Nucleus, cytoplasm B. Cytoplasm, cell membrane C. Cell membrane, cytoplasm D. Cytoplasm, nucleus E. Nucleus, endoplasmic reticulum
A. Nucleus, cytoplasm
All bacterial cells have A. One or more chromosomes B. One or more fimbriae C. The ability to produce endospores D. Capsules E. Flagella
A. One or more chromosomes
A pure culture contains A. Only one species of microorganism B. Only bacteria C. A variety of microbes from one source D. A variety of species from the same genus E. None of the choices are correct
A. Only one species of microorganism
Which of the following is not an inoculating tool? A. Petri dish B. Loop C. Needle D. Pipette E. Swab
A. Petri dish
Viruses with _____ sense RNA contain the correct message for translation, while viruses with _____ sense RNA must first be converted into a correct message. A. Positive, negative B. Negative, positive C. Primary, secondary D. Secondary, primary E. None of the choices are correct
A. Positive, negative
The fragile cell produced when gram positive bacteria are exposed to lysozyme or penicillin is a/an A. Protoplast B. Mycoplasma C. Spheroplast D. Glycocalyx E. Glycan
A. Protoplast
Cell walls are not found on typical cells of A. Protozoa B. Algae C. Fungi D. Bacteria E. All of the choices are correct
A. Protozoa
Cilia are found in certain A. Protozoa B. Algae C. Fungi D. Bacteria E. All of the choices are correct
A. Protozoa
When buds remain attached, they form a chain of yeast cells called A. Pseudohyphae B. Septa C. Molds D. Dimorphic E. Mycelium
A. Pseudohyphae
Which of the following is not a phenotypic trait of bacteria? A. RRNA sequencing B. Shape C. Culture behavior D. Biochemical reaction E. All of these are phenotypic traits
A. RRNA sequencing
Which of the following characteristics refers to the microscope's ability to show two separate entities as separate and distinct? A. Resolving power B. Magnification C. Refraction D. All of the choices are correct E. None of the choices are correct
A. Resolving power
Most fungi obtain nutrients from dead plants and animals. These fungi are called A. Saprobes B. Parasites C. Substrates D. Nonseptate E. Dimorphic
A. Saprobes
The group of protozoa that use pseudopodia to move are the A. Sarcodina B. Ciliophora C. Mastigophora D. Apicomplexa E. None of the choices are correct
A. Sarcodina
Reliable vaccines exist for all of the following diseases except A. malaria. B. botulism. C. cholera. D. yellow fever. E. rabies.
A. malaria.
Serological analysis for bacterial identification typically involves using A. Specific antibodies to the bacterial cell antigens B. Methods to identify cell enzymes C. Analysis of the appearance of colonies D. A microscope to determine cell morphology E. Determination of guanine + cytosine base concentration
A. Specific antibodies to the bacterial cell antigens
Bacterial endospores are not produced by A. Staphylococcus B. Sporosarcina C. Bacillus D. Clostridium E. All of the choices are correct
A. Staphylococcus
A chain of rod-shaped cells would be called a/an A. Streptobacillus B. Staphylobacillus C. Streptococcus D. Staphylococcus E. Palisades
A. Streptobacillus
The organism responsible for the majority of neonatal meningitis is A. Streptococcus agalactiae. B. Escherichia coli K1. C. Listeria monocytogenes. D. Haemophilus influenzae. E. Neisseria meningitidis.
A. Streptococcus agalactiae.
Biologists have found evidence that eukaryotic cells evolved from prokaryotic organisms by a process of intracellular A. Symbiosis B. Parasitisim C. Communalism D. None of the choices are correct
A. Symbiosis
Which cells direct involvement are required for cell-mediated immunities? A. T-cells B. B-cells C. Bacterial cells D. Viral components
A. T-cells
Which kind of T cell synthesizes perforins and granzymes to destroy bacteria, viral infected cells, and cancer cells? A. TC B. TH C. CD4 D. MHC
A. TC
Which of the following is not a typical capsid shape? A. Tetrahedral B. Complex C. Helical D. Icosahedron E. All of the choices are capsid shapes
A. Tetrahedral
Chloroplasts are composed of membranous sacs called _____ that carry chlorophyll. Surrounding these sacs is a ground substance called _____. A. Thylakoids, stroma B. Granna, stroma C. Cristae, stroma D. Cristae, matrix E. Thylakoid, matrix
A. Thylakoids, stroma
Which is mismatched? A. Tinea capitis - ringworm of the beard B. Tinea pedis - ringworm of the foot C. Tinea cruis - ringworm of the groin D. Tinea corporis - ringworm of the body E. Tinea unguium - ringworm of the nails
A. Tinea capitis - ringworm of the beard
Which type of media would be the best choice when shipping a sample of bacteria to a laboratory to be tested from a satellite office site. A. Transport B. EMB C. Blood D. thioglycollate
A. Transport
The motile, feeding stage of protozoa is called the A. Trophozoite B. Cyst C. Sporozoite D. Oocyst E. Food vacuole
A. Trophozoite
A confocal scanning optical microscope A. Uses a laser beam of light to form a specimen image B. Shows only the surface of the specimen C. Produces specimen images on electron micrographs D. Uses dyes that emit visible light when bombarded by ultraviolet rays E. Requires specimens to be stained
A. Uses a laser beam of light to form a sepcimen image
All of the following pertain to the fluorescence microscope except A. Uses electrons to produce a specimen image B. Type of compound microscope C. Requires the use of dyes like acridine and fluoresce in D. Commonly used to diagnose certain infections E. Requires an ultraviolet radiation source
A. Uses electrons to produce a specimen image
Infectious naked strands of RNA that affect plants are called A. Viroids B. Phages C. Prions D. Oncogenic viruses E. Spikes
A. Viroids
Mycetoma is A. a subcutaneous infection that looks like a tumor. B. also called athlete's foot. C. caused by dermatophytes. D. only seen in the Midwest. E. All of the choices are correct.
A. a subcutaneous infection that looks like a tumor.
15. Which PCR step synthesizes complementary DNA strands? A. add DNA polymerase and nucleotides at 72 degreesC B. cool DNA to between 50deg C and 72deg C C. add primers D. heat target DNA to 94deg C E. repeat the cycle of heating and cooling
A. add DNA polymerase and nucleotides at 72C
Once a mother has been sensitized to the Rh factor A. all other Rh+ fetuses are at risk. B. she can be given RhoGAM in future pregnancies to prevent hemolytic disease of the newborn. C. she can never again have a low risk pregnancy. D. only future Rh- fetuses are at risk. E. None of the choices is correct.
A. all other Rh+ fetuses are at risk.
4. Formation of peptide bonds between amino acids to build a polypeptide would be called: A. anabolism. B. phosphorylation. C. fermentation. D. exergonic. E. glycolysis
A. anabolism.
Which is incorrect about pyrimidines? A. are only found in DNA, not in RNA B. they are always paired with a specific purine C. they include cytosine and thymine D. they are found within nucleotides E. they are nitrogenous bases
A. are only found in DNA, not in RNA
What organism is the main reservoir and host for Toxoplasma gondii? A. cat B. dog C. mouse D. mosquito E. raccoon
A. cat
Blastomyces dermatitidis A. causes Gilchrist disease and Chicago disease. B. is transmitted by skin contact with fomites. C. is a dermatophyte. D. usually enters through the gastrointestinal tract E. All of the choices are correct.
A. causes Gilchrist disease and Chicago disease
In bacterial cells, the electron transport system is located in the: A. cell membrane. B. mitochondria. C. chloroplasts. D. ribosomes. E. cytoplasm
A. cell membrane.
Cryptococcus neoformans has the following characteristics, except A. commonly found in the human mouth, intestines, and genitalia B. a capsulated yeast C. in high numbers in soil containing pigeon droppings D. usually enters body by inhalation E. primarily infects patients with AIDS, cancer, and diabetes
A. commonly found in the human mouth, intestines, and genitalia
Antitoxins A. contain antibodies to neutralize specific toxin. B. use Vaccinia virus with genetic material of bacterial toxins. C. contain purified, chemically denatured bacterial exotoxin. D. include capsule material against the pneumococcus and meningococcus.
A. contain antibodies to neutralize specific toxin.
The following pertain to ribosomes during protein synthesis, except they: A. contain codons within their rRNA molecules B participate only in translation C. bind to the 5' end of mRNA by their small subunit. D use their large subunit to supply enzymes E. shift to the right along the mRNA strand from one codon to the next.
A. contain codons within their rRNA molecules.
Toxoids A. contain modified bacterial exotoxin molecules. B. are always genetically engineered. C. contain select antigenic components of a pathogen rather than whole cells or viruses. D. confer passive immunity. E. All of the choices are correct.
A. contain modified bacterial exotoxin molecules.
Which event is the process of releasing chemical mediators? A. degranulation B. bonding of allergen to adjacent IgE binding sites on mast cells and basophils C. binding of IgE by the Fc region to mast cells and basophils D. histamine acts on smooth muscle E. prostaglandins cause vasodilation and increased vascular permeability
A. degranulation
Allergic patients receiving small, controlled injections of specific allergens are undergoing A. desensitization. B. sensitization. C. tissue matching. D. degranulation. E. None of the choices are correct.
A. desensitization.
The process of clonal deletion is designed to A. destroy clones of lymphocytes able to react to self molecules. B. slow down the primary immune response to an antigen. C. slow down the secondary immune response to an antigen. D. limit the number of lymphocyte clones an individual has in order to make the system more efficient. E. slow down the immune system in the elderly.
A. destroy clones of lymphocytes able to react to self molecules.
Variolation involved using A. dried, ground smallpox scabs. B. a recombinant carrier with genetic material of the smallpox virus. C. preparations of human cowpox lesions. D. antibodies to the smallpox virus. E. None of the choices are correct.
A. dried, ground smallpox scabs.
During which of the phases of cellular respiration is the majority of ATP formed? A. electron transport B. Krebs cycle C. glycolysis D. processing of pyruvic acid for the Krebs cycle E. All phases produce the same number of ATP molecules
A. electron transport
The molecular fragment on an antigen molecule that a lymphocyte recognizes and responds to is called a/an A. epitope. B. hapten. C. antigen binding site. D. variable region. E. None of the choices are correct.
A. epitope.
The movement of molecules from higher to lower concentration across a semi-permeable membrane that must have a specific protein carrier and but no energy expenditure is called: A. facilitated diffusion B. diffusion C. active transport D. osmosis E. endocytosis
A. facilitated diffusion
The various techniques by which scientists manipulate DNA in the lab are called A. genetic engineering B. biotechnology C. recombinant DNA D. gel electrophoresis E. gene probes
A. genetic engineering.
When amino acids are deaminated, they can be used as a source of: A. glucose. B. fat. C. vitamins. D. minerals. E. carbon
A. glucose.
Characteristics of Histoplasma capsulatum include: A. grows in moist soil, rich in nitrogen from bird and bat guano B. is a yeast with a capsule C. is a dermatophyte D. grows in dry, arid soil E. none of the choices are correct
A. grows in moist soil, rich in nitrogen from bird and bat guano
The preferred preventative measure for polio in the United States is A. inactive vaccine developed by Jonas Salk B. oral, active vaccine developed by Jonas Salk C. inactive vaccine developed by Albert Sabin D. oral, active vaccine developed by Albert Sabin.
A. inactive vaccine developed by Jonas Salk
Histamine causes all of the following except A. increased sensitivity to pain. B. constriction of smooth muscle of bronchi and the intestine. C. relaxes vascular smooth muscle. D. wheal and flare reaction in skin. E. pruritis and headache.
A. increased sensitivity to pain.
Corticosteroids will A. inhibit the activity of lymphocytes. B. bind to histamine receptors on target organs. C. block synthesis of leukotrienes. D. relieve inflammatory symptoms. E. reverse spasms of respiratory smooth muscles.
A. inhibit the activity of lymphocytes.
An important mineral ion of the cytochrome pigments of cellular respiration is: A. iron B. zinc C. calcium D. magnesium E. potassium
A. iron
Chromoblastomycosis A. is caused by saprobes with dark-pigmented mycelia and spores. B. is caused by dimorphic fungi. C. is a systemic infection. D. is a serious respiratory tract infection. E. has a peak incidence in Alaska.
A. is caused by saprobes with dark-pigmented mycelia and spores.
The phase of the bacterial growth curve in which newly inoculated cells are adjusting to their new environment, metabolizing but not growing is the: A. lag phase B. log phase C. stationary phase D. death phase E. All of the choices are correct
A. lag phase
Patients with Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease live A. less than one year post diagnosis. B. 1 to 5 years post diagnosis. C. 5 to 10 years post diagnosis. D. 10 to 20 years post diagnosis. E. greater than 25 years post diagnosis.
A. less than one year post diagnosis.
All of the following pertain to transcription, except it: A. occurs on a ribosome in the cytoplasm. B. occurs before tranlation. C. requires a template DNA strand D. requires a template DNA strand E. is part of the process of protein synthesis
A. occurs on a ribosome in the cytoplasm.
Which is incorrect about purines? A only found in DNA, not in RNA B. are nitrogenous bases C. always paired with a specific pyrimidine D. include adenine and guanine E. found within nucleotides
A. only found in DNA, not in RNA
The majority of organisms live or grow in habits between: A. pH6 and 8 B. pH3 and 4 C. pH5 and 6 D. pH7 and 9 E. pH8 and 10
A. pH6 and 8
9. Sequences of DNA that are identical when read from the 5' to 3' direction on one strand and the 3' to 5' direction on the other strand are A palindromes B reverse transcriptase C restriction endonucleases D Ligases E DNA polymerases
A. palindromes.
Individuals with xeroderma pigmentosa lack a functioning A. photolyase B. DNA polymerase III C. DNA ligase D. Ribozyme E. RNA polymerase
A. photolyase.
12. Amplification of DNA is accomplished by A. polymerase chain reaction B. DNA sequencing C. gene probes D. Southern blot. E. all
A. polymerase chain reaction.
22. The non-transcribed region of DNA to which RNA polymerase binds to initiate transcription is called the A. promoter B. operator C. operon D. exon E. intron
A. promoter.
All of the following could find a location in or on body tissues suitable for growth, except: A. psychrophiles B. anaerobes C. facultative anaerobe D. mesophiles E. capnophiles
A. psychrophiles
Organisms that feed on dead organisms for nutrients are called: A. saprobes B. parasites C. autotrophs D. lithoautotrophs E. phototrophs
A. saprobes
Plasma cells A. secrete antibodies. B. function in allergic reactions. C. directly destroy target cells. D. suppress immune reactions. E. activate B cells and other T cells.
A. secrete antibodies.
The initial encounter with an allergen is called the A. sensitizing dose. B. provocative dose. C. allergic dose. D. hypersensitivity dose. E. desensitizing dose.
A. sensitizing dose.
High titers of specific antibodies are components of A. specific immune globulin (SIG). B. gamma globulin. C. immune serum globulin (ISG). D. attenuated vaccines. E. toxoids.
A. specific immune globulin (SIG)
All of the following pertain to poliomyelitis except A. summer outbreaks in the U.S. have been recently increasing. B. transmitted primarily by fecal-contaminated water. C. can be asymptomatic or mild with headache, sore throat, fever, and nausea. D. if virus enters the central nervous system motor, neurons can be infected and destroyed. E. caused by enterovirus.
A. summer outbreaks in the U.S. have been recently increasing
20. The primers in PCR are A. synthetic DNA oligonucleotides B. bacterial enzymes C. short RNA strands D. DNA polymerases E. reverse transcriptases
A. synthetic DNA oligonucleotides.
All of the following pertain to coccidioidomycosis, except A. the pathogen grows best in soil with bird and bat guano. B. fungomas occur in the lungs of those infected C. it is transmitted by inhalation of arthrospores. D. it often has symptoms of fever, chest pain, cough, headache, malaise. E. it is also called Valley Fever.
A. the pathogen grows best in soil with bird and bat guano.
Aspergillosis includes all the following, except A. there are no effective drugs to treat the infection. B. noninvasive infections of the eyelids, sinuses, conjunctiva, and ear canals. C. a pneumonia that disseminates to the brain. D. most cases are due to A. fumigatus. E. life-threatening infections in AIDS, leukemia, and transplant patients.
A. there are no effective drugs to treat the infection
All of the following are true about mutations, except: A. they are always detrimental to the organism they occur in. B. they occur in the DNA. C. if not repaired, they become part of the gene pool. D. they may lead to an incorrect protein being made. E. they can create variants in a population.
A. they are always detrimental to the organism they occur in.
All of the following are advantages of attenuated vaccines over inactivated vaccines except A. they confer longer lasting protection. B. they produce infection but not disease. C. they can mutate back to a virulent strain. D. they require fewer boosters. E. they require smaller doses.
A. they confer longer lasting protection.
Which is incorrect about inducible operons? A. they have genes turned off by a buildup of end product B. They are often for catabolic pathways C. they are normally turned off D. they are turned on by the substrate of the enzyme E. they include the lac operon
A. they have genes turned off by a buildup of end product.
Atopy and anaphylaxis are hypersensitivities in the category A. type I only. B. type I and type IV. C. type IV only. D. type I, type II, and type III. E. type I, type II, type III, and type IV.
A. type I only.
Contractile vacuoles are: A. used to expel excess water from cells B. found in bacterial cells C. important to certain organisms in hypertonic environments D. protein carriers in cell membranes E. None of the choices are correct
A. used to expel excess water from cells
The term autotroph refers to an organism that: A. uses C02 for its carbon source. B. must obtain organic compounds for its carbon needs. C. gets energy from sunlight. D. gets energy by oxidizing chemical compounds. E. does not need a carbon source.
A. uses C02 for its carbon source.
The region of each antibody molecule where amino acid composition is very different from one clone of B lymphocytes to another is the A. variable region. B. joining region. C. constant region. D. light region. E. hinge region.
A. variable region.
7. Important components of coenzymes are: A. vitamins. B. metallic ions. C. active sites. D. substrates. E. ribozymes.
A. vitamins.
ADDITIONAL STUDY GUIDE
ADDITIONAL STUDY GUIDE
Which PCR step synthesizes complimentary DNA strands? a. Add DNA polymerase and nucleotides at 72° C b. Repeat the cycle of heating and cooling c. Add primers d. Cool DNA to between 50° C and 65° C e. Heat target DNA to 94° C
Add DNA polymerase and nucleotides at 72° C
Which of the following activities/processes depends upon the activities of microbes? A. composting B. wastewater treatment C. bioremediation D. biodegradation E. All of the above are correct.
All of the above are correct.
Which of the following may be removed by tertiary water treatment? A. ammonia B. nitrate C. phosphate D. pathogenic microorganisms E. All of the above are correct.
All of the above are correct.
Genetically modified organisms include: a. Nonhuman animals b. Plants c. Bacteria d. Viruses e. All of the above have been genetically modified
All of the above have been genetically modified
Analysis of DNA fragments in gel electrophoresis involves: a. An electric current through the gel causes DNA fragments to migrate b. All of the choices are correct c. Larger fragments move slowly and remain closer to the wells d. DNA fragments are stained to see them e. DNA has an overall negative charge and moves to the positive pole
All of the choices are correct
Common vectors used to transfer a piece of DNA into a cloning host are: a. All of the choices are correct b. Plasmids c. Viruses d. Artificial chromosomes e. Bacteriophages
All of the choices are correct
Gene probes can be labeled for detection with reporter molecules such as: a. Enzymes b. Radioisotopes c. All of the choices are correct d. Fluorescent dyes e. None of the choices are correct
All of the choices are correct
Indicator bacteria are A. coliforms. B. enterococci. C. evidence of fecal contamination. D. used in water quality tests. E. All of the choices are correct.
All of the choices are correct.
The most prominent Water-borne pathogens of recent times include all except A. Giardia. B. Cryptosporidium. C. Campylobacter. D. Salmonella. E. All of the choices are correct.
All of the choices are correct.
Which of the following factors contributed to the emergence and spread of Lyme disease? A. increase in deer and mouse populations B. increase in deer tick populations C. increase in new home developments in wooded areas D. climate change E. All of these factors are correct.
All of these factors are correct
Which is not a characteristic of spirochetes? a. all pathogenic b. always motile c. Gram negative d. have a cell wall e. helical shape
All pathogenic
Antigens that elicit allergic reactions are called _____.
Allergans
Groups of three consecutive bases along the DNA of a gene have the code for one: a. None of the choices are correct b. Nucleotide c. Purine d. Protein e. Amino acid
Amino acid
Which of the following has not been an effective treatment for syphilis? a. ampicillin b. arsenic c. iodine d. mercury e. penicillin G
Ampicillin
Semi conservative replication refers to" a. A purine always bonding to a pyrimidine b. One helix strand that runs from the 5' to 3' direction and the other strand runs from the 3' to 5' direction c. An original parent DNA strand and one newly synthesized DNA strand comprising a new DNA molecule d. Each base bonding at the 1' position of the sugar e. None of the choices are correct
An original parent DNA strand and one newly synthesized DNA strand comprising a new DNA molecule
Matching. 1.) 1 Km A.) 10-2 cm 2.) 1 mm B.) 100 mm 3.) 10 cm C.) 10-6 m 4.) 1 m D.) 1000 m
Ans:1. D 2. A 3. B 4. C
55. Compare and contrast antisepsis, disinfection, sanitization, and sterilization with regard to techniques used and level of microbial control achieved.
Answers may vary.
56. Discuss the purpose and level of control achieved by pasteurization. Compare the flash and batch methods.
Answers may vary.
57. Explain why boiling water is considered a disinfection, not a sterilization method. List 3 materials commonly disinfected by boiling water.
Answers may vary.
58. Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of irradiating food. Include examples of foods that are irradiated.
Answers may vary.
59. Discuss the technique of filtration as a microbial control method, why it's utilized, and specific materials that are filtered.
Answers may vary.
60. For each item listed below, select a sterilant that you feel is the most suitable and effective for that item. Discuss why you selected each sterilant. a. plastic Petri dishes to be used for nutrient media b. glass tubes of bacterial cultures to be discarded c. sterile milk d. dozens of reusable glass pipets e. bone tissue for grafting f. room air g. hospital mattresses h. biopsy tissue for histology analysis i. plastic respiratory therapy equipment and arthroscopes j. vaccines
Answers may vary.
Certain body sites contain sequestered molecules, called _____ that escaped assessment during development of immune tolerance and are mistaken as foreign.
Autoantigens
In agglutination reactions, the antigen is a _______; in precipitation reactions, it is _____. a. soluble molecule, whole cell b. whole cell, soluble molecule c. bacterium, virus d. protein, carbohydrate
B
River blindness is: A. caused by Wuchereria bancrofti B. a disease in which worms can invade the eyes C. caused by a blood fluke D. transmitted by mosquito vector E. all of the choices are correct
B
Serological testing relies upon A. the specificity of the Fc region of antibodies B. the specificity of the variable regions of antibodies C. a patient who is not immunocompromised D. very high viral or bacterial load in the patient E. none of the choices are correct
B
Syphilis can be diagnosed by the A. Weil-Felix reaction B. rapid plasma reagin test C. Widal test D. latex agglutination test E. none of the choices are correct
B
Koch's postulates are criteria used to establish that: A) microbes are found on dust particles B) a specific microbe is the cause of a specific disease C) life forms can only arise from preexisting life forms D) a specific microbe should be classified in a specific kingdom E) microbes can be used to clean up toxic spills
B) a specific microbe is the cause of specific disease
Organisms called parasites are: A) always classified in the kingdom Monera B) always harmful to their host C) the decomposers in ecosystems D) always a virus E) free-living
B) always harmful to their host
Someone who inconspicuously harbors a pathogen and spreads it to others is a A) fomite B) carrier C) vector D) reservoir E) source
B) carrier (p. 409)
The human body typically begins to be colonized by its normal flora: A) before birth, in utero B) during, and immediately after birth C) when a child first goes to school D) when an infant gets its first infectious disease E) during puberty
B) during, and immediately after birth (p.389)
A disease that has a steady frequency over time in a population is A) epidemic B) endemic C) pandemic D) sporadic E) chronic
B) endemic (p.416)
The blood cells that function in allergic reactions and inflammation, contain peroxidase and lysozyme, and particularly target parasitic worms and fungi are A) basophils B) eosinophils C) neutrophils D) monocytes E) lymphocytes
B) eosinophils (p. 432)
These white blood cells are particularly attracted to sites of parasitic infections A) monocytes B) eosinphils C) basophils D) neutrophils E) lymphocytes
B) eosinphils (p. 432)
When humans manipulate the genes of microorganisms the process is called: A) bioremediation B) genetic engineering C) epidemiology D) immunology E) taxonomy
B) genetic engineering
The contribution of B cells is mainly in A) inflammation. B) humoral immunity. C) complement activity. D) cell mediated immunity. E) phagocytosis.
B) humoral immunity. (p. 432)
Local edema, swollen lymph nodes, fever, soreness, and abscesses are indications of A) toxemia B) inflammation C) sequelae D) a syndrome E) latency
B) inflammation (p.406)
All of the following are types of granulocytes because they have prominent cytoplasmic granules when stained except A) eosinophils. B) monocytes. C) neutrophils. D) basophils. E) They are all granulocytes.
B) monocytes. (p. 432)
Which is incorrect about complement? A) composed of at least 26 blood proteins B) only appear in the blood during a response to a pathogen C) act in a cascade reaction D) involves a classical pathway E) involves an alternate pathway
B) only appear in the blood during a response to a pathogen (p. 446)
Joe cut his finger on a sharp twig and now is experiencing dolor. This means A) redness. B) pain. C) loss of function. D) warmth. E) swelling.
B) pain. (p. 437)
The microorganisms that do not have a nucleus in their cells are called; A) decomposers B) procaryotes C) pathogens D) eucaryotes E) fermenters
B) procaryotes
Which is NOT a characteristic of Helicobacter pylori: A) gram negative B) produces enteroxin that causes diarrhea C) curved rods D) lives in the stomach E) produces urease that buffers stomach acidity
B) produces enteroxin that causes diarrhea
Which is incorrect about inflammation A) can last hours to years B) pyrogens cause vasodilation and increased capillary permeability C) serotonin causes smooth muscle contraction D) fever could be beneficial to inhibiting the pathogen E) basophils and mast cells release histamine
B) pyrogens cause vasodilation and increased capillary permeability (p. 441)
The body region where a ciliary escalator helps to sweep microbes trapped in mucus away from that body site is the A) skin B) respiratory tract C) digestive tract D) urinary tract E) eyes
B) respiratory tract (p. 426)
Virulence factors include all the following except A) capsules B) ribosomes C) exoenzymes D) endotoxin E) exotoxin
B) ribosomes (p.400-402)
During which stage of syphilis does fever, lymphadenopathy and a red to brown rash occur? A) primary B) secondary C) tertiary D) latent E) all of the choices are correct
B) secondary
The smallest and most significant taxon is: A) genus B) species C) kingdom D) family E) phylum
B) species
All of the following are lipids except: A) cholesterol B) starch C) phospholipd D) wax E) triglyceride
B) starch
The subjective evidence of disease sensed by the patient is termed A) syndrome B) symptom C) sign D) pathology E) inflammation
B) symptom (p.406)
Joe contracted hepatitis A by eating contaminated doughnuts from a local bakery. The source of the disease is ______ and the reservoir is _______. A) Joe, the doughnut B) the doughnut, humans C) humans, flour D) flour, Joe E) humans, Joe
B) the doughnut, humans (p.409)
Endogenous infectious agents arise from microbes that are A) in food B) the patient's own normal flora C) on fomites D) in the air E) transmitted form one person to another
B) the patient's own normal flora (p. 397)
This gland shrinks in size during adulthood, and has hormones that function in maturation of T-lymphocytes A) lymph nodes B) thymus C) spleen D) GALT E) tonsils
B) thymus (p. 434)
_____ lymphocytes function in humoral immunity, while _____ lymphocytes function in cell-mediated immunity.
B, T (p. 432)
Each NADH that enters the electron transport system gives rise to _____ ATP. A. 2 B. 3 C. 24 D. 36 E. 38
B. 3
Oral thrush is caused by A. Cryptococcus neoformans. B. Candida albicans. C. Malassezia furfur. D. Pneumocystis (carinii) jiroveci. E. None of the choices are correct.
B. Candida albicans.
A _____ is the protein shell around the nucleic acid core of a virus. A. Capsomere B. Capsid C. Spike D. Envelope E. Monolayer
B. Capsid
A common method for cultivating viruses in the lab is to use in vitro systems called _____ cultures. A. Embryo B. Cell C. Plaque D. Bacteriophage E. Egg
B. Cell
If bacteria living in salty seawater were displaced to a freshwater environment, the cell structure that would prevent the cells from rupturing is the A. Endospore B. Cell wall C. Cell membrane D. Capsule E. Slime layer
B. Cell wall
Bacterial cells could have any of the following appendages except A. Flagella B. Cilia C. Fimbriae D. Periplasmic flagella (axial filaments) E. Sex pili
B. Cilia
A prokaryotic cell wall that has primarily peptidoglycan with small amounts of teichoic acid and lipoteichoic acid is A. Gram negative B. Gram positive C. Archaea D. Spheroplast E. Acid fast
B. Gram positive
Agricultural workers and field archaeologists are exposed to this organism which, although entering via the respiratory tract, can cause meningitis. A. Haemophilus influenzae B. Coccidioides immitis C. Cryptococcus neoformans D. Streptococcus pneumoniae E. Neisseria meningitidis
B. Coccidioides immitis
A nutrient binds to receptors near the basal body. This will result in A. Clockwise rotation of flagella B. Counter clockwise rotation of flagella C. Inhibition of flagella rotation D. Numerous tumbles E. None of the choices are correct
B. Counter clockwise rotation of flagella
The presence of thylakoids, phycocyanin, gas inclusions and cysts would be associated with A. Green sulfur bacteria B. Cyanobacteria C. Purple sulfur bacteria D. Archaea E. Spirochetes
B. Cyanobacteria
During unfavorable growth conditions, many protozoa can convert to a resistant, dormant stage called a/an A. Endospore B. Cyst C. Seed D. Trophozoite E. Sporozoa
B. Cyst
The enzymes that can proofread replicating DNA, detect incorrect bases, excise them, and correctly replace them are A DNA ligases B DNA polymerase C. DNA helicases D DNA gyrases E primases
B. DNA polymerases.
The type of microscope in which you would see brightly illuminated specimens against a black background is A. Bright-field B. Dark-field C. Phase-contrast D. Fluorescence E. Electron
B. Dark-field
Which of the following is not a characteristic of a transformed cell? A. Viral nucleic acid integrated into host DNA B. Decreased growth rate C. Alterations in chromosomes D. Changes in cell surface molecules E. Capacity to divide indefinitely
B. Decreased growth rate
Lysozyme is most effective against A. Gram negative organisms B. Gram positive organisms C. Mycoplasmas D. Cyanobacteria E. Archea
B. Gram positive organisms
Satellite viruses are A. Also called viroids B. Dependent on other viruses for replication C. The cause of spongiform encephalopathies D. Significant pathogens of plants E. All of the choices are correct
B. Dependent on other viruses for replication
The Gram staining procedure is best described as a __staining technique. A. Acid fast or Ziehl-Neelson B. Differential C. Capsule D. Schaefer-Fulton
B. Differential
The cell _____ can be composed of three layers: the membrane, the cell wall and the outer membrane. A. Glycocalyx B. Envelope C. Pathogenic package D. Slime coat E. None of the choices are correct
B. Envelope
The prokaryotic flagellum has three parts in the order from cytoplasm to external environment A. Filament, hook, basal body B. Filament, basal body, hook C. Basal body, hook, filament D. Hook, basal body, filament E. Basal body, filament, hook
B. Filament, basal body, hook
Two major structures that allow bacteria to adhere to surfaces are ___ and ___. A. Pili, ribosomes B. Fimbrae, capsules C. Lipopolysaccharides, techoic acids D. Actin filaments, phospholipid membrane(s)
B. Fimbrae, capsules
Which of the following represents a virus family name? A. Herpes simplex virus B. Herpesviridae C. Picornavirus D. Enterovirus E. Hepatitis B virus
B. Herpesviridae
In the theory for allergic desensitization, which immunoglobulin blocks the allergen from binding with IgE? A. IgE B. IgG C. IgA D. IgD E. IgM
B. IgG
In transduction, the viral genome A. Initiates lysis of the host B. Includes DNA from the previous host C. Is replicated in the cytoplasm D. Is replicated in the nucleus E. None of the choices are correct
B. Includes DNA from the previous host
T-even phages A. Include the poxviruses B. Infect Escherichia coli cells C. Enter host cells by engulfment D. Have helical capsids E. All of the choices are correct
B. Infect Esherichia coli cells
The event that occurs in bacteriophage multiplication that does not occur in animal virus replication is A. Adsorption to the host cells B. Injection of only the viral nucleic acid into the host cell C. Host cell synthesis of viral enzymes and capsid proteins D. Assembly of nucleocapsids E. Replication of viral nucleic acid
B. Injection of only the viral nucleic acid into the host cell
The term that refers to the purposeful addition of microorganisms into a laboratory nutrient medium is A. Isolation B. Inoculation C. Immunization D. Infection E. Contamination
B. Inoculation
The correct microbiological term for the tiny sample of specimen that is put ino a nutrient medium in order to produce a culture is the A. Colony B. Inoculum C. Streak D. Loop E. None of the choices are correct
B. Inoculum
Which is incorrect about the Fc region of an immunoglobulin? A. It determines the antibody's distribution in the body. B. It forms the antigen binding sites. C. It contains an effector molecule that can bind to cells such as macrophages and mast cells. D. It contains an effector molecule that can fix complement. E. It determines the class to which the immunoglobulin belongs.
B. It forms the antigen binding sites.
Mammalian viruses capable of starting tumors are A. Chronic latent viruses B. Oncoviruses C. Syncytia D. Inclusion bodies E. Cytiopathic
B. Oncoviruses
Which is incorrect about tinea versicolor? A. It is a superficial mycosis. B. It is often transmitted by fomites. C. It is caused by the yeast Malassezia furfur. D. It causes disruption of skin pigmentation resulting in a mottled appearance. E. It occasionally causes systemic infections in compromised patients.
B. It is often transmitted by fomites.
In which pathway is the most NADH generated? A. electron transport system B. Krebs cycle C. glycolysis D. alcoholic fermentation E. mixed acid fermentation
B. Krebs cycle
When a bacterium acquires a trait from its temperate phage, it is called A. Transformation B. Lysogenic conversion C. Viral persistence D. Transcription E. Translation
B. Lysogenic conversion
A _____ originates from the golgi apparatus as one type of vesicle that contains a variety of enzymes for intracellular digestion. A. Perixosome B. Lysosome C. Magneto some D. Inclusion E. Ribosome
B. Lysosome
The enzyme _____, that is found in tears and saliva, can hydrolyze the bonds in the glycan chains of certain bacterial cell walls. A. Penicillinase B. Lysozyme C. Peptidase D. All of the choices are correct E. None of the choices are correct
B. Lysozyme
Oncogenic viruses include all the following except A. Hepatitis B virus B. Measles virus C. Papillomavirus D. HTLVI and HTLVII viruses E. Epstein-Barr virus
B. Measles virus
Viruses have all the following except A. Definite shape B. Metabolism C. Genes D. Ability to infect host cells E. Ultramicroscopic size
B. Metabolism
There are nine peripheral pairs and one central pair of _____ found inside eukaryotic flagella and cilia. A. Filaments B. Microtubules C. Flagella D. Cilia E. None of the choices are correct
B. Microtubules
Protozoan endoplasm contains A. Ectoplasm B. Mitochondria C. Flagella D. Oral groves E. None of the choices are correct
B. Mitochondria
Chemo taxis refers to the ability to A. Move in response to light B. Move in response to a chemical C. Not move in response to a chemical D. Transport desired molecules into cell E. None of the choices are correct
B. Move in response to a chemical
During the Gram stain, gram _____ cells decolorize when the alcohol is applied. A. Positive B. Negative C. Both positive and negative D. Neither positive nor negative
B. Negative
The site for ribosomal RNA synthesis is the A. Ribosome B. Nucleolus C. Nucleus D. Golgi apparatus E. Lysosome
B. Nucleolus
Which of the following magnifies the specimen to produce the real image of the specimen? A. Condenser B. Objective lens C. Ocular lens D. Body E. Nosepiece
B. Objective lens
Which of the following magnifies the specimen to produce the virtual image of the specimen? A. Objective lens B. Ocular lens C. Condenser D. Body E. Iris diaphragm
B. Ocular lens
Which is not a characteristic of fungi? A. Cells have cell walls B. Photosynthetic C. Include single-celled and filamentous forms D. Heterotrophic nutrition E. Can use a wide variety of nutrients
B. Photosynthetic
Freshly isolated animal tissue that is placed in a growth medium and allowed to produce a cell monolayer is referred to as a _____ cell culture. A. Initial B. Primary C. Secondary D. Continuous E. Positive
B. Primary
The most immediate result of destruction of a cell's ribosomes would be A. Material would not be able to cross the cell membrane B. Protein synthesis would stop C. Destruction of the cell's DNA D. Formation of glycogen inclusions E. Loss of capsule
B. Protein syntesis would stop
Which enzyme is mismatched with its function in DNA replication? A. gyrase-supercoiling DNA B. RNA polymerase - synthesizes RNA primers C. ligase - final sealing of DNA nicks in DNA D. DNA polymerase I - removes primer E. DNA polymerase III - adding bases to the new DNA chain
B. RNA polymerase - synthesizes RNA primers
The wavelength of light used and the numerical aperture governs A. Illumination B. Resolution C. Magnification D. Size of the field E. All of the choices are correct
B. Resolution
Virulence factors include all the following except A. Exotoxin B. Ribosomes C. Capsules D. Exoenzymes E. Endotoxin
B. Ribosomes
Which of the following is not a division of Kingdom Prokaryote according to Bergey's Manual of Determinative Bacteriology? A. Gracilicutes B. Scotobacteria C. Firmicutes D. Tenericutes E. Mendosicutes
B. Scotobacteria
Larval development of helminths occurs in which host? A. Primary host B. Secondary host C. Definitive host D. Transport host E. Mating takes place in all hosts
B. Secondary host
A confocal scanning optical microscope A. Uses ultraviolet light to form a specimen image B. Shows three-dimensional cell images from the cell surface to the middle of the cell C. Produces specimen images on electron micrographs D. Uses dyes that emit visible light when bombarded by ultraviolet rays E. Requires specimens to be stained
B. Shows three-dimensional cell images from the cell surface to the middle of the cell
The three physical forms of laboratory media are A. Solid, liquid, gas B. Solid, semisolid, liquid C. Streak plate, pour plate, broth D. Aerobic, anaerobic, micro aerobic E. None of the choices are correct
B. Solid, semisolid, liquid
What structures are used by bacteriophages to attach to host cell receptors? A. Sheath B. Tail fibers C. Nucleic acid D. Capsid head E. None of the choices are correct
B. Tail fibers
Which term is not used to describe bacterial cell shapes? A. Coccus B. Tetrad C. Vibrio D. Rod E. Spirochete
B. Tetrad
A microbiologist inoculates Staphylococcus aureus into a culture medium. Following incubation, both Staphylococcus aureus and Staphylococcus epidermidis are determined to be growing in this culture. What is the most likely explanation? A. The microbiologist used too much inoculum B. The culture is contaminated C. The incubation temperature was incorrect D. The culture medium must be selective E. The culture medium must be differential
B. The culture is contaminated
Protists with contractile vacuoles A. Are algae B. Use them to expel excess water from the cell C. Typically live in salty seawater D. Use them for motility E. All of the choices are correct
B. Use them to expel excess water from the cell
Which of the following is not a viral order in the classification system? A. Caudovirales B. Vaccinia virus C. Nidovirales D. Mononegavirales E. All of the choices are viral orders
B. Vaccinia virus
Bacterial conjugation involves A. bacteriophage carrying donor DNA to the recipient cell B. a donor cell with a plasmid and a pilus C. nake DNA fragments from a lysed donor cell are taken up by a recipient cell D. new progeny cells with genes from two parent bacterial cells E. none of the choices
B. a donor cell with a plasmid and a pilus.
The major histocompatability complex is A. a group of blood vessels that protects the nervous system. B. a set of genes that code for MHC cell receptors. C. also known as the complement system. D. located in the thymus gland. E. all of the choices are correct.
B. a set of genes that code for MHC cell receptors.
You inoculate a culture into a test tube containing broth and take it out of the incubator the next day. You see the culture is growing at the bottom of the tube. You conclude the culture must be: A. aerobic B. anaerobic C. facultative anaerobe D. microaerophilic E. aerotolerant
B. anaerobic
Tissue transplanted from one body site on a patient to a different body site on that patient is called a/an A. isograft. B. autograft. C. allograft. D. xenograft. E. hypograft.
B. autograft.
An antihistamine will A. inhibit the activity of lymphocytes. B. bind to histamine receptors on target organs. C. block synthesis of leukotrienes. D. relieve inflammatory symptoms. E. reverse spasms of respiratory smooth muscles.
B. bind to histamine receptors on target organs.
The use of an organism's biochemical processes to create a product is A. genetic engineering B. biotechnology C. recombinant DNA D. gel electrophoresis E. gene probes
B. biotechnology.
The bone marrow is where A. immune responses to antigen occur. B. blood stem cells give rise to immature lymphocytes. C. antigen is filtered from the blood. D. antigen is filtered from tissue fluid. E. T lymphocytes complete maturation.
B. blood stem cells give rise to immature lymphocytes.
What brain defense restricts substances from entering the brain by the vascular system? A. meninges B. blood-brain barrier C. macrophages D. microglia E. cranium
B. blood-brain barrier
The terms used for the four levels of fungal infection include the following, except A. cutaneous. B. bloodborne. C. systemic. D. subcutaneous. E. superficial.
B. bloodborne
What will be the immediate action of an allergen when it enters that body for a second time? A. degranulation B. bonding of allergen to adjacent IgE binding sites on mast cells and basophils C. binding of IgE by the Fc region to mast cells and basophils D. histamine acts on smooth muscle E. prostaglandins cause vasodilation and increased vascular permeability
B. bonding of allergen to adjacent IgE binding sites on mast cells and basophils
2. The breakdown of peptidoglycan to N-acetylmuramic acid, N-acetylglucosamine and peptides is an example of: A. anabolism. B. catabolism. C. phosphorylation. D. fermentation. E. biosynthesis.
B. catabolism
An example of artificial active immunity would be A. chickenpox infection is followed by lifelong immunity. B. chickenpox vaccine triggers extended immunity to chickenpox. C. giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease. D. a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta. E. None of the choices are correct.
B. chickenpox vaccine triggers extended immunity to chickenpox.
22. Which step involves transformation? A target DNA removed from cells and isolated B cloning host takes up a plasmid C target DNA and plasmid treated with the same restriction endonuclease D. desired protein is produced by cloning host E gene is amplified by multiplication of cloning host
B. cloning host takes up a plasmid
Neisseria meningitidis is transmitted by A. casual contact. B. close contact. C. intimate contact. D. indirect contact. E. fomites.
B. close contact.
Encephalitis caused by arboviruses involves A. fever, headache, and rash. B. coma, convulsions, and paralysis in severe cases. C. myalgia and orbital pain. D. muscle aches and joint stiffness. E. All of the choices are correct.
B. coma, convulsions, and paralysis in severe cases.
Which type of mutation leads to a frameshift mutation? A. missense B. deletion C. nonsense D. Base substitution E. All
B. deletion
Place the following in order from skull to brain: 1) subarachnoid space 2) arachnoid mater 3) dura mater 4) pia mater. A. subarachnoid space, arachnoid mater, dura mater, pia mater B. dura mater, arachnoid mater, subarachnoid space, pia mater C. dura mater, arachnoid mater, pia mater, subarachnoid space D. arachnoid mater, subarachnoid space, dura mater, pia mater E. pia mater, arachnoid mater, subarachnoid space, dura mater
B. dura mater, arachnoid mater, subarachnoid space, pia mater
Paracoccidioides is A. a superficial mycosis. B. endemic to regions of Central and South America. C. only seen in immunocompromised patients. D. also known as Valley Fever. E. All of the choices are correct.
B. endemic to regions of Central and South America.
Each of the following is true for Listeria monocytogenes except A. resistant to cold. B. fastidious. C. resistant to heat. D. resistant to salt. E. can result in septicemia.
B. fastidious.
The potential for hemolytic disease of the newborn occurs when A. maternal Rh+ cells enter an Rh- fetus. B. fetal Rh+ cells enter an Rh- mother. C. maternal Rh- cells enter an Rh+ fetus. D. fetal Rh- cells enter an Rh+ mother. E. fetal Rh+ cells enter an Rh+ mother.
B. fetal Rh+ cells enter an Rh- mother.
27. When patient tissues are transfected with viruses carrying a needed, normal human gene, the technique is called A. cloning B. gene therapy C. antisense therapeutic D. DNA fingerprinting E. none of choices
B. gene therapy.
What could result when grafted tissue such as bone marrow contains passenger lymphocytes? A. host rejection of graft B. graft versus host disease C. formation of autoantibodies D. hypogammaglobulinemia E. None of the choices is correct.
B. graft versus host disease
All of the following pertain to nitrogenous bases, except: A. they form pairs by hydrogen bonding. B. guanine pairs with uracil. C. adenine pairs with thymine. D. cytosine and thymine are pyrimidines. E. allows variation from one nucleotide to another which creates the encoded information.
B. guanine pairs with uracil
Small foreign molecules that are too small by themselves to elicit an immune response are termed A. antigenic determinant. B. hapten. C. antigen binding site. D. variable region. E. None of the choices are correct.
B. hapten.
The concept of "immunologically privileged" explains why the CNS A. has a greater immune response than the rest of the body. B. has a reduced immune response compared to the rest of the body. C. has a completely different set of immune responses. D. has more MHC markers than other tissues. E. All of the choices are correct.
B. has a reduced immune response compared to the rest of the body.
30. All of the following are desirable features in a microbial cloning host, except it A. can be grown in large quantities B. has a slow growth rate C. is capable of accepting plasmid vectors D. will secret a high yield of proteins from expressed foreign genes E. has a genome that is well delineated
B. has a slow growth rate.
Live, attenuated vaccines A. include the Sabin polio vaccine. B. include the measles, mumps, rubella vaccine (MMR). C. contain viable microbes that can multiply in the person. D. require smaller doses and fewer boosters compared to inactivated vaccines. E. All of the choices are correct.
B. include the measles, mumps, rubella vaccine (MMR).
Fungal spores and animal dander are considered to be which type of allergen? A. ingestant B. inhalant C. injectant D. contactant E. None of the choices is correct.
B. inhalant
Which of the following is not true of type III hypersensitivity? A. antigen-antibody complexes are deposited in the basement membrane of epithelial tissues B. involves production of IgG and IgE antibodies C. involves an immune complex reaction D. the Arthus reaction is a local response E. serum sickness is a systemic response
B. involves production of IgG and IgE antibodies
All of the following are characteristics of an effective vaccine except A. it should have a relatively long shelf life. B. it should stimulate only the antibody (B-cell) response. C. it should protect against wild forms of the pathogen. D. it should not require numerous boosters. E. it should be easy to administer.
B. it should stimulate only the antibody (B-cell) response.
The stage in a normal growth curve when cells reach the maximum rate of cell division is the: A. lag phase B. log phase C. stationary phase D. death phase E. fast phase
B. log phase
Microorganisms require large quantities of this nutrient for use in cell structure and metabolism: A. element B. macronutrient C. water D. growth factor E. trace element
B. macronutrient
Class I MHC genes code for A. certain secreted complement components. B. markers that display unique characteristics of self. C. all HLA antigens. D. receptors located primarily on macrophages and B cells. E. all of the choices are correct.
B. markers that display unique characteristics of self.
This molecule is transcribed from the DNA template strand and later translated. A. ribosomal RNA B. messenger RNA C. transfer RNA D. primer RNA E. protein
B. messenger RNA
The term heterotroph refers to an organism that: A. uses C02 for its carbon source. B. must obtain organic compounds for its carbon needs. C. gets energy from sunlight. D. gets energy by oxidizing chemical compounds. E. does not need a carbon source.
B. must obtain organic compounds for its carbon needs.
A microorganism that does not have a catalase or superoxide dismutase would find it difficult to live in an environment with: A. carbon dioxide B. oxygen C. high salt D. temperatures above 37 degrees C E. high acidity
B. oxygen
During aerobic cellular respiration, the final electron acceptor is: A. pyruvic acid. B. oxygen. C. nitrate. D. cytochrome c. E. FAD
B. oxygen.
In anaerobic respiration, all of the following can serve as the final electron acceptor, except: A. nitrate. B. oxygen. C. sulfate. D. nitrite. E. None of the choices are correct
B. oxygen.
1. Which of the following is involved in the in vitro diagnostic testing of serum? A. mycology B. hematology C. serology D. histology E. virology
C
Which of the following is incorrect about animal viruses? A. viral mRNA is translated on host cell ribosomes B. replication of viral RNA occurs in the host nucleus C. host tRNA's are used in viral translation D. host DNA polymerase often participates in viral DNA replication E. oncogenic viruses integrate their DNA into host DNA and can initiate cancer
B. replication of viral RNA occurs in the host nucleus
The duplication of a cell's DNA is called A. mitosis B. replication C. transcription D. translation E. mutation
B. replication. 259
7. Geneticists can make complimentary DNA copies of messenger, transfer, and ribosomal RNA by using A. palindromes B. reverse transcriptase C. restriction endonucleases D. ligases E. DNA polymerases
B. reverse transcriptase.
Epinephrine A. is an antihistamine. B. reverses constriction of airways. C. causes desensitization. D. inhibits the activity of lymphocytes. E. All of the choices are correct.
B. reverses constriction of airways.
Menthol and camphor (VicksTM) are effective treatments against A. chromoblastomycosis. B. ringworm. C. Histoplasmosis. D. tinea versicolor. E. blastomycosis.
B. ringworm
Transcription and translation occur ___ in prokaryotes. A. in different organelles B. simultaneously C. in the nucleus D. only on the ribosomes
B. simultaneously
19. Thermococcus litoralis and Thermus aquaticus are thermophilic bacteria that are A. used as cloning vectors. B. sources of heat stable DNA polymerases. C. genetically engineered bacteria D. principal sources of retriction endonucleases E. None
B. sources of heat stable DNA polymerases.
Synthesis of an inducible enzyme requires A. repressor alone bound to operator B. substrate bound to repressor C. substrate bound to promoter D. corepressor and repressor binding to the operator E. none
B. substrate bound to repressor.
DNA polymerase III A. is needed for adding nucleotides during mRNA synthesis. B. synthesizes new DNA only in the 5' to 3' direction C. cannot add nucleotides to the lagging strand D. synthesizes an RNA primer E. all are correct
B. synthesizes new DNA only in the 5' to 3' direction.
Fatty acids can be metabolized by entering: A. glycolysis. B. the TCA cycle. C. the electron transport chain. D. the phosphogluconate pathway. E. lactic acid fermentation.
B. the TCA cycle.
An organism with a temperature growth range of 45 degrees C to 60 degrees C would be called a/an: A. extremophile B. thermophile C. psychrophile D. facultative psychrophile E. thermoduric
B. thermophile
Which is incorrect about chromoblastomycosis? A. it is characterized by highly visible verrucous lesions B. treatment is with pentamidine C. its etiological agent are soil saprobes with dark-pigmented mycelia and spores. D. sclerotic cells are produced E. it is frequently confused with yaws, cancer, and syphilis.
B. treatment is with pentamidine
The best defense against arborviruses is A. prophylactic rifampin. B. vector control. C. vaccination. D. prompt treatment with acyclovir. E. All of the choices are correct.
B. vector control.
Which of the following methods of enumerating cells is the only one to detect live cells? A. direct microscopic count B. viable plate count C. turbidity D. coulter count E. flow cytometer
B. viable plate count
15. Which of the following is a scientific name?
Bacillus subtilis
_____ are various bacterial enzymes that dissolve fibrin clots.
Bacterial kinases (Streptokinase, Staphylokinase) (p. 402)
The greatest single cause of blindness in the world is A) Neonatal gonorrheal ophthalmia. B) Keratoconjunctivitis. C) Trachoma. D) Inclusion conjunctivitis. E) Pinkeye.
C) Trachoma.
26. Iodophors include: A) chloramines B) Betadine C) tincture of iodine D) alcohols E) chlorhexidine
Betadine
42. Cyanide is a chemical used to dissolve gold and is harmful to the environment and organisms living there. A couple of biochemists came up with the idea of using the bacteria Pseudomonas to break down the cyanide used by a Gold mining company. This use of bacteria is a good example of ____.
Bioremediation
The use of an organism's biochemical processes to create a product is: a. Gel electrophoresis b. Gene probes c. Biotechnology d. Genetic engineering e. Recombinant DNA
Biotechnology
Pelvic inflammatory disease results from infection of a. fallopian tubes. b. ovaries. c. vagina. d. both fallopian tubes and ovaries. e. both vagina and fallopian tubes.
Both Fallopian tubes and ovaries
How do the majority of microorganisms exist in nature? A) As parasites B) As mutualists (as in the stomach of cattle) C) As free-living and harmless organisms D) Derive nutritional support from other organisms E) As single, solitary organisms
C) As free-living and harmless organisms
The causative agent of Lyme disease is: A) Ixodes scapularis B) Borrelia hermsii C) Borrelia burgdorferi D) Ixodes pacificus E) Leptospira interrogans
C) Borrelia burgdorferi
Thrush and vaginitis are caused by A) Herpesvirus. B) Chlamydia trachomatis. C) Candida albicans. D) Staphylococcus aureus. E) Streptococcus pyogenes.
C) Candida albicans.
Itching and cheesy discharge are symptoms of A) Gardnerella vaginosis. B) Genital herpes. C) Candidiasis. D) Trichomoniasis. E) Lymphogranuloma venereum.
C) Candidiasis
Which of the following is caused by an opportunistic pathogen? A) Trichomoniasis B) Genital herpes C) Candidiasis D) Gonorrhea E) Chancroid
C) Candidiasis
A patient has pus-filled vesicles and scabs on her face, throat, and lower back. She most likely has A) Measles. B) Mumps. C) Chickenpox. D) Rubella. E) Smallpox.
C) Chickenpox.
A normal urine sample collected by urinating into a sterile collection cup A) Is sterile. B) Contains fewer than 100 pathogens/ml. C) Contains fewer than 10,000 pathogens/ml. D) Contains more than 100,000 pathogens/ml. E) Has leukocyte esterase.
C) Contains fewer than 10,000 pathogens/ml.
Which of the following can be treated with topical chemotherapeutic agents? A) Herpes gladiatorium B) Sporotrichosis C) Dermatomycosis D) Rubella E) None of the above
C) Dermatomycosis
The reservoir for leptospirosis is A) Humans. B) Water. C) Domestic dogs. D) Domestic cats. E) Hospitals.
C) Domestic dogs.
Pyelonephritis usually is caused by A) Pseudomonas aeruginosa. B) Proteus spp. C) Escherichia coli. D) Enterobacter aerogenes. E) Streptococcus pyogenes.
C) Escherichia coli.
What is the branch of microbiology that involves DNA manipulation in order to create new products and genetically modified organisms? A) Public health B) Biotechnology C) Genetic engineering D) Immunology E) Food Microbiology
C) Genetic engineering
Which of the following recurs at the initial site of infection? A) Gonorrhea B) Syphilis C) Genital herpes D) Chancroid E) LGV
C) Genital herpes
The pH of the adult vagina is acidic due to the conversion of ________ to ________ by bacteria. A) Glucose; ethanol B) Protein; acetic acid C) Glycogen; lactic acid D) Mucosal cells; lactic acid E) Urine; lactic acid
C) Glycogen; lactic acid
The most common reportable disease in the United States is A) Cystitis. B) Lymphogranuloma venereum. C) Gonorrhea. D) Syphilis. E) Candidiasis.
C) Gonorrhea.
The etiologic agent of roseola. A) Herpes simplex B) Herpes zoster C) HHV-6 D) Parvovirus E) Poxvirus
C) HHV-6
Which one of the following statements about genital warts is false? A) It is transmitted by direct contact. B) It is caused by papillomaviruses. C) It is always precancerous. D) It is treated by removing them. E) All of the above.
C) It is always precancerous.
Which of the following is treated with cephalosporins because the organism is resistant to penicillin and fluoroquinolones? A) Mycoplasma hominis B) Haemophilus ducreyi C) Neisseria gonorrhoeae D) Treponema pallidum E) Gardnerella vaginalis
C) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Which one of the following does NOT cause nongonococcal urethritis? A) Chlamydia. B) Mycoplasma. C) Neisseria. D) Ureaplasma. E) All of the above cause NGU.
C) Neisseria.
A 17-year-old male has pus-filled cysts on his face and upper back. Microscopic examination reveals gram-positive rods. This infection is caused by A) Acanthamoeba. B) Herpes simplex virus. C) Propionibacterium acnes. D) Staphylococcus aureus. E) Streptococcus pyogenes.
C) Propionibacterium acnes.
Early scientists explained natural phenomena using several methods. Which of the following is not one of the methods they used? A) Argument B) Superstition C) Scientific method D) Religious teachings E) Commonly held beliefs
C) Scientific method
A 25-year-old man presented with fever, malaise, and a rash on his chest, arms, and feet. Diagnosis was based on serological testing. The patient then reported that he had an ulcer on his penis 2 months earlier. What stage of disease is the patient in? A) NGU B) Primary C) Secondary D) Tertiary
C) Secondary
A 25-year-old man presented with fever, malaise, and a rash on his chest, arms, and feet. Which of the following will be most useful for a rapid diagnosis? A) Bacterial culture B) Microscopic examination of blood C) Serological test for antibodies D) Serological test for antigen E) Viral culture
C) Serological test for antibodies
What is the most effective method for preventing the acquisition of malaria worldwide? A) The use of pesticides to kill all mosquitoes B) Antibiotics to kill the protozoa following a bite with an infected mosquito C) Sleep under a bed net D) Eradicate the protozoa entirely E) Anti-malaria medication
C) Sleep under a bed net
Which of the following leads to all the others? A) Toxemia B) Scalded skin syndrome C) Staphylococcal infection D) TSST-1 E) Sudden drop in blood pressure
C) Staphylococcal infection
Which of the following is diagnosed by detection of antibodies against the causative agent? A) Nongonococcal urethritis B) Gonorrhea C) Syphilis D) Lymphogranuloma venereum E) Candidiasis
C) Syphilis
The pathogen Syphilis enters the blood during the A) Primary stage of syphilis B) Secondary stage of syphilis C) Tertiary stage of syphilis D) latent stage of syphilis E) none of the choices are correct
C) Tertiary stage of syphilis
Which of the following is not a cause of ringworm? A) Microsporum B) Trichophyton C) Tinea capitis D) Epidermophyton E) None of the above
C) Tinea capitis
The membrane attack stage of the complement cascade involves A) initiation of the cascade B) production of inflammatory cytokines C) a ring-shaped protein digests holes in bacterial cell membranes and virus envelopes D) cleaving of C3 to yield C3a and C3b E) C1q binds to surface receptors on a membrane
C) a ring-shaped protein digests holes in bacterial cell membranes and virus envelopes (p. 446)
All infectious diseases A) are contagious B) only occur in humans C) are caused by microorganisms or their products D) are caused by vectors E) involve viruses as the pathogen
C) are caused by microorganisms or their products (p.387)
Which is mismatched? A) fimbriae - adherence to substrate B) capsules - antiphagocytic factor C) coagulase - dissolve fibrin clots D) leukocidins - damage white blood cells E) hemolysins - damage red blood cells
C) coagulase - dissolve fibrin clots (p.402)
Which pertains to DNA but not RNA: A) contains ribose B) contains adenine C) contains thymine D) contains uracil E) contains nucleotides
C) contains thymine
When would Koch's Postulates be utilized A) determination of the cause of a patient's illness in a hospital microbiology lab B) development of a new antibiotic in a pharmaceutical lab C) determination of the cause of a new disease in a microbiology research lab D) formulation of a vaccine against a new pathogen in a genetic engineering lab E) whenever the scientific method is used to investigate a microbiological problem
C) determination of the cause of a new disease in a microbiology research lab (p. 419)
Pasteur used swan-neck flasks in his experiments to prove that: A) air had "vital forces" capable of spontaneous generation B) microbial fermentation could be used to make wine C) dust in air was a source of living microorganisms D) microorganisms could cause disease E) microorganisms could be grown in laboratory infusions
C) dust in air was a source of living microorganisms
A solution of pH 7 compared to a solution of pH 9: A) is more basic B) has no OH(-) ions C) has more H(+) ions D) has a higher pH E) all of the choices are correct
C) has more H(+) ions
Which activity is an example of biotechnology? A) bacteria in the soil secreting an antibiotic to kill competitors B) a microbiologist using the microscope to study bacteria C) humans using yeast to make beer and wine D) Mycobacteria tuberculosis in the lungs causing tuberculosis E) public health officials monitoring diseases in a community
C) humans using yeast to make beer and wine
The number of new cases of a disease in a population over a specific period of time compared with the healthy population is the A) mortality rate B) morbidity rate C) incidence rate D) prevalence rate E) epidemic rate
C) incidence rate (p. 416)
Which is incorrect about blood cells? A) after birth produced in red bone marrow sites B) develop from undifferentiated stem cells C) include mast cells D) include leukocytes that are either granulocytes or agranulocytes E) include erythrocytes that, when mature, lose their nuclei
C) include mast cells (p. 432)
The time from when pathogen first enters the body and begins to multiply, until symptoms first appear is the A) prodromal stage B) convalescent stage C) incubation period D) period of invasion E) all of the choices are correct
C) incubation period (p. 404)
All of the follwoing are characteristics of Campylobacter jejuni EXCEPT: A) transmitted through ingestion of contaminated chicken, meat, milk, and water B) causes fever and a watery to bloody diarrhea C) infects the stomach D) produces an enterotoxin that stimulates diarrhea E) gram negative curved rods with darting motility
C) infects the stomach
Which of the following is a taxon that contains all the other taxa listed? A) species B) phylum C) kingdom D) genus E) family
C) kingdom
The body site with resident flora that produces beneficial body products, including vitamin K and several other vitamins is the A) skin B) mouth C) large intestine D) vagina E) nasal passages
C) large intestine (p.392)
The chemical found in tears and saliva that hydrolyzes the peptidoglycan in certain bacterial cell walls is A) lactic acid B) hydrochloric acid C) lysozyme D) histamine E) bile
C) lysozyme (p. 426)
Anything that occupies space and has mass is called: A) an electron B) living C) matter D) energy E) space
C) matter
The most numerous WBC's, that have multilobed nuclei and are very phagocytic are A) basophils B) eosinophils C) neutrophils D) monocytes E) lymphocytes
C) neutrophils (p. 430)
Disease-causing microorganisms are called: A) decomposers B) procaryotes C) pathogens D) eucaryotes E) fermenters
C) pathogens
Which of the following is not classified as an emerging disease? A) tuberculosis B) cholera C) polio D) hepatitis B E) malaria
C) polio
Hemopoiesis is the A) loss of blood due to hemorrhaging B) production of only red blood cells C) production of white blood cells, red blood cells, and platelets D) plugging of broken vessels to stop bleeding E) migration of white blood cells from the blood out to the tissues
C) production of white blood cells, red blood cells, and platelets (p. 430)
A scientists studying the sequence of nucleotides in the rRNA of a bacterial species is working on: A) determining evolutionary relatedness B) bioremediation C) recombinant DNA D) nomenclature E) determing if that species is the cause of a new disease
C) recombinant DNA
Which portal of entry is the most commonly used by pathogens? A) urogenital B) gastrointestinal C) respiratory D) skin E) They are all equally used as portals.
C) respiratory (p.397)
23. The objective, measurable evidence of disease evaluated by an observer is termed A) syndrome B) symptom C) sign D) pathology E) inflammation
C) sign (p.406)
Which of the following lymphoid organs and tissues has the immunological function of filtering pathogens from the blood? A) lymph nodes B) thymus C) spleen D) GALT E) tonsils
C) spleen (p. 436)
Marion is going to the hospital for a triple bypass operation. She will have general anesthesia, intravenous catheter. Which nosocomial infection is she at greatest risk for contracting? A) respiratory B) septicemia C) urinary tract D) surgical site E) meningitis
C) urinary tract (p. 413-414)
Infected animals shed Leptospira interrogans in their: A) feces B) blood C) urine D) respiratory secretions E) saliva
C) urine
An animal, such as an arthropod, that transmits a pathogen from one host to another is a A) fomite B) carrier C) vector D) reservoir E) source
C) vector (p. 409)
All of the following are diameters of cells that would be resolved in a microscope with a limit of resolution of 0.2µm except A. 0.2 µm B. 0.2 mm C. 0.1 µm D. 0.3 µm E. 2.0 µm
C. 0.1 um
If a culture starts out with 1 cell and after 4 hours there are 64 cells, how many generations have occurred? A. 4 B. 5 C. 6 D. 12 E. impossible to determine
C. 6
Which of the following will result when 1% to 5% agar is added to nutrient broth, boiled and cooled? A. A pure culture B. A mixed culture C. A solid medium D. A liquid medium E. A contaminated medium
C. A solid medium
The correct sequence of events in viral multiplication is A. Penetration, uncoating, synthesis, adsorption, assembly, release B. Uncoating, penetration, synthesis, assembly, absorption, release C. Adsorption, penetration, uncoating, synthesis, assembly, release D. Assembly, synthesis, uncoating, release, penetration, adsorption E. Adsorption, release, synthesis, uncoating, assembly, penetration
C. Adsorption, penetration, uncoating, synthesis, assembly, release
Agar is an important component of media because A. Bacteria require agar to grow B. Agar inhibits mold growth C. Agar provides a solid surface for bacterial growth D. Agar prevents contamination E. All of the choices are correct
C. Agar provides a solid surface for bacterial growth
The periplasmic space is A. Larger in gram positive bacteria B. Made up of lipopolysaccharides and phospholipids C. An important reaction site for substances entering and leaving the cell D. Where peptidoglycan is located E. Absent in gram negative bacteria
C. An important reaction site for substances entering and leaving the cell
A microbiologist decides to use a nutrient medium that contains thioglycollic acid. What type of microbe is she attempting to culture? A. Fastidious B. Gram postitive C. Anaerobic D. Gram negative E. Aerobic
C. Anaerobic
A reducing media is used to culture A. Fastidious organisms B. Aerobic organisms C. Anaerobic organisms D. Any pathogenic organisms E. None of the choices are correct
C. Anaerobic organisms
Which of the following is not a bacterial class involved in causing human and animal diseases? A. Scotobacteria B. Firmibacteria C. Archaebacteria D. Thallobacteria E. Mollicutes
C. Archaebacteria
Protozoan cysts A. Are part of all protozoan life cycles B. Are necessary for transmission to a new host C. Are analogous to bacterial endospores D. Are the primary form of replication E. All of the choices are correct
C. Are analogous to bacterial endospores
Viruses that infect bacteria are specifically called A. Viroids B. Prions C. Bacteriophages D. Satellite viruses E. All of the choices infect bacteria
C. Bacteriophages
_____ Manual of Systematic Bacteriology is a manual of bacterial descriptions and classifications. A. Pasteur's B. Lister's C. Bergey's D. Leeuwenhoek's E. Koch's
C. Bergey's
A microbiologist must culture a patient's feces for intestinal pathogens. Which of the following would likely be present in selective media for analyzing this fecal specimen? A. NaCl B. Sheep red blood cells C. Bile salts D. Thioglycollic acid E. Peptone
C. Bile salts
Virus capsids are made from subunits called A. Envelopes B. Spikes C. Capsomeres D. Prophages E. Peplomers
C. Capsomeres
The outcome of the Gram stain is based on differences in the cell's A. Ribosomes B. Inclusions C. Cell wall D. Cell membrane E. Flagella
C. Cell wall
Movement of a cell toward a chemical stimulus is termed A. Photo taxis B. Taxis C. Chemotaxis D. Tumble E. None of the choices are correct
C. Chemotaxis
Which of the following is not a method of adhesion? A. Fimbriae B. Adhesive slime or capsules C. Cilia D. Specialized receptors E. Surface proteins
C. Cilia
Which order below reflects the correct procedure for Gram staining? A. Alcohol/acetone-Crystal violet-Safranin-Iodine B. Crystal violet-Alcohol/acetone-Iodine-Safranin C. Crystal violet-Iodine-Alcohol/acetone-Safranin D. Iodine-Safranin-Crystal violet-Alcohol/acetone E. Alcohol/acetone-Safranin-Crystal violet-Iodine
C. Crystal violet-Iodine-Alcohol/acetone-Safranin
Which of the following is mismatched? A. Chlamydias - lack ability to independently complete growth and metabolism B. Green sulfur bacteria - photosynthetic anaerobes that use sulfur in metabolism C. Cyanobacteria - filamentous, gliding, extremophilic, photosynthetic bacteria D. Rickettsias - gram negative, pathogen, blood-sucking arthropod host E. None of the choices are correct
C. Cyanobacteria - filamentous, gliding, extremophilic, photosynthetic bacteria
In eukaryotic cells, ribosomes have two locations: scattered in the _____ and on the surface of _____. A. Cytoplasm, golgi apparatus B. Nucleus, golgi apparatus C. Cytoplasm, endoplasmic reticulum D. Cytoplasm, golgi apparatus E. Nucleus, endoplasmic reticulum
C. Cytoplasm, endoplasmic reticulum
41. The enzyme___ adds three nucleotides of DNA in the ___direction when DNA is being semi-conservatively replicated A. DNA polymerase III, 3'->5' B. DNA polymerase I, 3'->5' C. DNA polymerase III, 5'->3' D. DNA polymerase I, 5'->3'
C. DNA polymerase III, 5' ->3'
All of the following are products of transcription, except: rRNA. mRNA. DNA. tRNA. All of the choices are products of transcription
C. DNA.
The highest incidence of histoplasmosis in the United States occurs in the A. Southeast. B. Southwest. C. East and Midwest. D. Northeast. E. Rocky Mountains.
C. East and Midwest
In which stage of the multiplication cycle of T-even phages are the phages developing and are not yet infectious? A. Virion B. Induction C. Eclipse D. Conversion E. None of the choices are correct
C. Eclipse
Bacteria that require special growth factors and complex nutrients are termed A. Aerobic B. Anaerobic C. Fastidious D. Microaerophilic E. Autotrophic
C. Fastidious
The short, numerous appendages used by some bacterial cells for adhering to surfaces are called A. Flagella B. Cilia C. Fimbriae D. Periplasmic flagella (axial filaments) E. Sex pili
C. Fimbriae
Chitin is a chemical component of the cell walls of A. Protozoa B. Algae C. Fungi D. Bacteria E. All of the choices are correct
C. Fungi
An organelle that is a stack of flattened, membranous sacs and functions to receive, modify and package proteins for cell secretion is the A. Mitochondria B. Lysosomes C. Golgi apparatus D. Chloroplasts E. Endoplasmic reticulum
C. Golgi apparatus
Larvae and eggs are developmental forms of A. Protozoa B. Algae C. Helminthes D. Fungi E. None of the choices are correct
C. Helminthes
The long, thread-like branching cells of molds are called A. Conidiophores B. Pseudohyphae C. Hyphae D. Septate E. Ascus
C. Hyphae
One of the principal capsid shapes is a 20-sided figure with 12 evenly spaced corners referred to as a(n) _____ capsid. A. Spiked B. Complex C. Icosahedral D. Helical E. Buckeyball
C. Icosahedral
The immunoglobulin/s found on the surface of B cells is/are A. IgM only. B. IgG only. C. IgD only. D. IgM and IgG. E. IgE and IgA.
C. IgD only.
All of the following are involved in type 2 hypersensitivity except A. IgM. B. IgG. C. IgE. D. complement. E. foreign cells.
C. IgE.
The immunoglobulin class that has an Fc region that binds to receptors on basophils and mast cells is A. IgA. B. IgD. C. IgE. D. IgG E. IgM.
C. IgE.
In the secondary response to an antigen, the predominant antibody is A. IgD. B. IgE. C. IgG. D. IgM. E. IgA.
C. IgG.
Newly inoculated cultures must be _____ at a specific temperature and time to encourage growth. A. Streaked B. Poured C. Incubated D. All of the choices are correct
C. Incubated
The Five I's of studying microorganisms include all of the following except A. Inoculation B. Incubation C. Infection D. Isolation E. Identification
C. Infection
Which type of microscope shows cells against a bright background and also shows intracellular structures of unstained cells based on their varying densities? A. Bright-field B. Dark-field C. Phase-contrast D. Differential interference E. Electron
C. Phase-contrast
Eating undercooked meat can lead to food poisoning and helminthic infection. What is the common host for Taenia solium? A. Geese B. Ducks C. Pigs D. Cows
C. Pigs
The bacterial chromosome A. Is located in the cell membrane B. Contains all the cell's plasmids C. Is part of the nucleoid D. Forms a single linear strand of DNA E. All of the choices are correct
C. Is part of the nucleoid
Much of what was previously thought to be "junk" DNA has been found to have which purpose? A. It codes for antibiotic resistance proteins. B. It codes for repressor proteins. C. It codes for RNA regulatory molecules. D. It codes for repair enzymes to fix mutations. E. None of the choices are correct., substrate bound to repressor.
C. It codes for RNA regulatory molecules.
The term that refers to the presence of a tuft of flagella emerging from the same site is A. Amphitrichous B. Atrichous C. Lophotrichous D. Monotrichous E. Peritrichous
C. Lophotrichous
Which sequence of events is correct for a specific immune response? A. Lymphocyte development, presentation of antigens, antibody production, challenge of B cells. B. Lymphocyte development, challenge of B cells, antibody production, presentation of antigens. C. Lymphocyte development, presentation of antigens, B cell challenge, antibody production. D. Antibody production, lymphocyte production, B cell challenge, presentation of antigens.
C. Lymphocyte development, presentation of antigens, B cell challenge, antibody production.
The group of protozoa that have flagella are the A. Sarcodina B. Ciliophora C. Mastigophora D. Apicomplexa E. None of the choices are correct
C. Mastigophora
Visible, clear, well-defined patches in a monolayer of virus-infected cells in a culture are called A. Lysogeny B. Budding C. Plaques D. Cytopathic effects E. Pocks
C. Plaques
The eukaryotic cell organelle that most resembles a bacterial cell is the A. Nucleus B. Golgi apparatus C. Mitochondria D. Lysosome E. Ribosome
C. Mitochondria
In the eukaryote, the respiratory chain is located in the ___, whereas the majority of ATP is produced by the respiratory chain in the _______ of a prokaryote. A. Lysosome, flagella B. Golgi body, mitochondria C. Mitochondria, outer membrane space D. Mitochondria, ribosome E. SER, nucleus
C. Mitochondria, outer membrane space
Filamentous fungi are called A. Pseudohyphae B. Septa C. Molds D. Dimorphic E. Mycelium
C. Molds
Which of the following is not a function of the eukaryote glycocalyx? A. Protection B. Adherence C. Movement D. Reception of chemical signals E. All of the choices are functions
C. Movement
The reactions of fermentation function to produce _____ molecules for use in glycolysis. A. pyruvic acid B. ATP C. NAD D. NADH E. glucose
C. NAD
A naked virus only has a(n) A. Capsid B. Capsomere C. Nucleocapsid D. Envelope E. Antigenic surface
C. Nucleocapsid
Magnification is achieved in a compound microscope through the initial magnification of the specimen by the _____ lens. This image is then projected to the _____ lens that will further magnify the specimen to form a virtual image received by the eye. A. Ocular, objective B. Scanning, objective C. Objective, ocular D. Ocular, oil E. None of the choices are correct
C. Objective, ocular
What two categories of fungi cause human diseases? A. Primary and secondary B. Primary and vegetative C. Opportunistic and primary D. Secondary and opportunistic E. Vegetative and reproductive
C. Opportunistic and primary
What do the Gram stain, acid-fast stain and endospore stain have in common? A. Used on a wet mount of the specimen B. Use heat to force the dye into cell structures C. Outcome based on cell wall differences D. Use a negative stain technique E. Are differential stains
C. Outcome based on cell wall differences
Who developed a rabies vaccine by separating bacteria from virus using a filter? A. Leewonhoek B. Koch C. Pasteur D. Cohn
C. Pasteur
_____ is a macromolecule containing alternating N-acetylglucosamine and N-acetylmuramic acid cross-linked by short peptide fragments. A. My colic acid B. Outer membrane protein C. Peptidoglycan D. Lysozyme E. None of the choices are correct
C. Peptidoglycan
Which of the following is mismatched? A. Ribosomes - protein synthesis B. Inclusions - excess cell nutrients and materials C. Plasmids - genes essential for growth and metabolism D. Nucleoid - hereditary material E. Cytoplasm - dense, gelatinous solution
C. Plasmids- genes essential for growth and metabolism
After returning from a trip to Africa, Tom begins to feel very tired and weak. He has severe anemia. A blood smear reveals a protozoan is present in his blood. The health care provider tells Tom he has malaria. Which of the following could be the causative agent of his disease? A. HIV B. T. solium C. Plasmodium malariae D. Trichophyton
C. Plasmodium malariae
Serious mycoses treated with amphotericin B include all the following, except A. zygomycosis. B. invasive aspergillosis. C. Pneumocystis pneumonia. D. coccidioidomycosis. E. histoplasmosis.
C. Pneumocystis pneumonia.
The passageways in the nuclear envelope for movement of substances to and from the nucleus and cytoplasm are called nuclear A. His tones B. Chromatin C. Pores D. Endoplasmic reticulum E. Inclusions
C. Pores
Which method often results in colonies developing down throughout the agar along with some colonies on the surface? A. Streak plate B. Spread plate C. Pour plate D. All of the choices are correct E. None of the choices are correct
C. Pour plate
28. Both DNA sequencing and polymerase chain reactions require special __________ to initiate synthesis of a new DNA molecule. A. RNA promoters B. fluorescent nucleotides C. primers D. thermophilic polymerases E. endonucleases
C. Primers
Infectious protein particles are called A. Viroids B. Phages C. Prions D. Oncogenic viruses E. Spikes
C. Prions
The function of bacterial endospores is A. Convert gaseous nitrogen to a usable form for plants B. Reproduction and growth C. Protection of genetic material during harsh conditions D. Storage of excess cell materials E. Sites for photosynthesis
C. Protection of genetic material during harsh conditions
The chemical components of ribosomes are proteins and A. MRNA B. TRNA C. RRNA D. All of the choices are correct E. None of the choices are correct
C. RRNA
40. When determining the sequence of nucleotides in an unknown sample of DNA, which method is used to sequence the DNA? A. PCR B. Cloning C. Sanger D. Southern blot hybridization
C. Sanger
Which type of microscope bombards a whole, metal-coated specimen with electrons moving back and forth over it? A. Fluorescence B. Differential interference contrast C. Scanning electron D. Transmission electron E. Phase-contrast
C. Scanning electron
A microbiologist makes a fixed smear of bacterial cells and stains them with Loeffler's methylene blue. All the cells appear blue under the oil lens. This is an example of A. Negative staining B. Using an acidic dye C. Simple staining D. Using the acid-fast stain E. Capsule staining
C. Simple staining
The endosymbiotic theory says that precursor eukaryotic cells acquired flagella by endosymbiosis with a _____ ancestor and others gained photosynthetic ability from endosymbiosis with a _____ ancestor. A. Protozoan, algae B. Archaea, cyanobacteria C. Spirochete, cyanobacteria D. Helminth, algae E. None of the choices are correct
C. Spirochete, cyanobacteria
An irregular cluster of spherical cells would be called a/an A. Palisades B. Sarcina C. Staphylococcus D. Streptococcus E. Spirilla
C. Staphylococcus
A negative RNA virus must first A. Synthesize a DNA copy of its genome B. Synthesize a negative RNA copy of its genome C. Synthesize a positive RNA copy of its genome D. Transcribe reverse transcriptase E. Transcribe RNA polymerase
C. Synthesize a positive RNA copy of its genome.
42. If you have the sequence of mRNA that is AUAUGC, then the DNA antisense strand is ____. A. AUAUGC B. UAUACG C. TATACG D. CGUAUA
C. TATACG
What type of phage enters an inactive prophage stage? A. Primary B. Secondary C. Temperate D. Temporary E. Transformed
C. Temperate
Which of the following is mismatched? A. Gracilicutes - gram negative cell walls B. Firmicutes - gram positive cell walls C. Tenericutes - waxy acid fast cell walls D. Mendosicutes - archaea cell walls E. None of the choices are correct
C. Tenericutes- waxy acid fast cell walls
Why is cyanide harmless to some bacteria? A. They break down the cyanide before it enters the electron transport chain. B. They shut off the TCA cycle until the cyanide is diluted out of the cell. C. They lack cytochrome c oxidase. D. They don't allow cyanide to cross their cell wall. E. Cyanide is deadly for all bacteria.
C. They lack cytochrome c oxidase.
All of the following pertain to Candida albicans, except A. opportunistic yeast. B. low numbers found in the mouth, intestines, genitalia, and skin. C. has a large capsule. D. infections often arise from an endogenous source. E. persistent moist skin influences infection.
C. has a large capsule
Syphillis is caused by a spirochete called: A. Proteus vulgaris B. Chlamydia trachomatis C. Treponema pallidum D. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Treponema pallidum
All of the following are helminths except A. Pinworms B. Flukes C. Trypanosomes D. Roundworms E. Tapeworms
C. Trypanosomes
Host range is limited by A. Type of nucleic acid in the virus B. Age of the host cell C. Type of host cell receptors on cell membrane D. Size of the host cell E. All of the choices are correct
C. Type of host cell receptors on cell membrane
The process of dissolving the envelope and capsid to release the viral nucleic acid is A. Adsorption B. Penetration C. Uncoating D. Synthesis E. Assembly
C. Uncoating
Myasthenia gravis disease arises from the production of autoantibodies against A. myelin sheath cells of the nervous system. B. acetylcholine receptors on smooth muscle. C. acetylcholine receptors on skeletal muscle. D. sodium pump proteins in the cell membrane. E. cells in thyroid follicles.
C. acetylcholine receptors on skeletal muscle.
The movement of substances from lower to higher concentration across a semi-permeable membrane that must have a specific protein carrier and use energy is called: A. facilitated diffusion B. diffusion C. active transport D. osmosis E. endocytosis
C. active transport
The process of alcoholic fermentation produces: A. alcohol only. B. alcohol and oxygen. C. alcohol and carbon dioxide. D. carbon dioxide and yeast. E. yeast and oxygen
C. alcohol and carbon dioxide.
A seasonal reaction to inhaled allergens is A. atopic dermatitis. B. eczema. C. allergic rhinitis. D. asthma. E. anaphylaxis.
C. allergic rhinitis.
Groups of three consecutive bases along the DNA of a gene have the code for one A. protein B. nucleotide C. amino acid D. purine E. none
C. amino acid.
In paralytic polio, what structures are damaged? A. peripheral nerves B. diaphragm C. anterior horn cells D. sensory nerves E. brain stem.
C. anterior horn cells
Amphotericin B, nystatin, and the imidazoles are all A. mycotoxins. B. fungal enzymes. C. antifungal drugs. D. culture media supplements for fungi. E. None of the choices are correct.
C. antifungal drugs
A chronic, local allergy such as hay fever is considered A. delayed. B. T-cell-mediated. C. atopic. D. antibody-mediated. E. systemic anaphylactic.
C. atopic.
Autoimmunity is typically due to A. transfusion reaction. B. IgE and mast cells. C. autoantibodies and T cells. D. graft rejection. E. a deficiency in T-cell development.
C. autoantibodies and T cells.
Superantigens are A. body tissues that the immune system mistakes as foreign. B. cell markers found in some member of a species but not in other members. C. bacterial toxins that activate T cells at a 100 times greater rate than other antigens. D. those that evoke allergic reactions. E. None of the choices are correct.
C. bacterial toxins that activate T cells at a 100 times greater rate than other antigens.
Which event occurs with the sensitizing dose of allergen? A. degranulation B. bonding of allergen to adjacent IgE binding sites on mast cells and basophils C. binding of IgE by the Fc region to mast cells and basophils D. histamine acts on smooth muscle E. prostaglandins cause vasodilation and increased vascular permeability
C. binding of IgE by the Fc region to mast cells and basophils
Facultative anaerobes usually possess: A. catalase only B. superoxide dismutase only C. both catalase and superoxide dismutase D. neither catalase or superoxide dismutase E. alternative mechanisms for dealing with oxygen
C. both catalase and superoxide dismutase
The foodborne disease that involves neurotoxin is A. gastrointestinal anthrax B. bacillus cereus intoxication C. botulism D. clostridium perfringens gastroenteritis E. All of the choices are correct.
C. botulism
Which of the following is not a major organ that can be a target of immune complex deposition? A. blood vessels and skin B. heart and lungs C. brain D. joints E. kidneys
C. brain
Herceptin is an example of a monoclonal antibody-based drug for A. asthma. B. Chron's disease. C. breast cancer. D. respiratory syncytial virus. E. All of the choices are correct.
C. breast cancer.
Which of the following is not true of meningoencephalitis? A. causative organisms are Naegleria fowleri and Acanthamoeba B. infections of both the brain and meninges C. causative organisms are viruses D. modes of transmission are direct contact and swimming in warm fresh water E. treatment for primary amoebic meningoencephalitis is mostly ineffective
C. causative organisms are viruses
In the viable plate count method, a measured sample of a culture is evenly spread across an agar surface and incubated. Each ___ represents one___ from the sample. A. cell, cell B. cell, colony C. colony, cell D. species, colony E. generation, cell
C. colony, cell
The DiGeorge syndrome is the result of A. autoantibodies. B. delayed hypersensitivity. C. congenital absence or immaturity of the thymus gland. D. failure of B cell development and maturity. E. a genetic defect in the development of both T cells and B cells.
C. congenital absence or immaturity of the thymus gland.
Enzymes that are regularly found in a cell are termed: A. exoenzymes. B. endoenzymes. C. constitutive enzymes. D. induced enzymes. E. conjugated enzymes
C. constitutive enzymes.
Acellular vaccines and subunit vaccines A. contain modified bacterial exotoxin molecules. B. are always genetically engineered. C. contain select antigenic components of a pathogen rather than whole cells or viruses. D. confer passive immunity. E. All of the choices are correct.
C. contain select antigenic components of a pathogen rather than whole cells or viruses.
5. An apoenzyme: A. is part of a simple enzyme. B. is also called a coenzyme. C. contains the active site. D. is often an inorganic metal ion. E. is an RNA molecule
C. contains the active site.
The most significant cells in graft rejection are A. helper T cells. B. suppressor T cells. C. cytotoxic T cells. D. B cells. E. natural killer (NK) cells.
C. cytotoxic T cells.
The ability of a fungus to grow as a yeast or a mold depending on its environmental temperature is called A. fungal virulence. B. parasitism. C. dimorphism. D. dermatophytes. E. opportunistic fungi.
C. dimorphism
Which of the following require the cell to use ATP? A. facilitated diffusion B. diffusion C. endocytosis D. osmosis E. None of the choices are correct
C. endocytosis
Cultures of a bacterial species were incubated out on the incubator shelf, in a anaerobic jar an in a candle jar. After incubation, there was no moderate growth of cultures in the candle and anaerobic jars, but heavy growth on the culture on the incubator shelf. This species is a/an: A. aerobe B. anaerobe C. facultative anaerobe D. microaerophile E. capnophile
C. facultative anaerobe
You inoculate a culture into a test tube containing broth and take it out of the incubator the next day. You see the culture is growing equally throughout the broth. you conclude the culture must be: A. aerobic B. anaerobic C. facultative anaerobe D. microaerophilic E. aerotolerant
C. facultative anaerobe
The time interval from parent cell to two new daughter cells is called the: A. binary fission B. growth curve C. generation time D. death phase E. culture time
C. generation time
The term phototroph refers to an organism that: A. uses C02 for its carbon source. B. must obtain organic compounds for its carbon needs. C. gets energy from sunlight. D. gets energy by oxidizing chemical compounds. E. does not need a carbon source.
C. gets energy from sunlight.
An example of artificial passive immunity would be A. chickenpox infection is followed by lifelong immunity. B. chickenpox vaccine triggers extended immunity to chickenpox. C. giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease. D. a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta. E. None of the choices are correct.
C. giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease.
23. Which of the following is a serious concern when performing PCR? A. high temperture B. restriction enzymes are difficult to obtain in adequate quantities C. introduction and amplification of contaminating DNA D. exposure to radiation by the lab personnel E. it is a very time consuming process
C. introduction and amplification of contaminating DNA
A female who is Rh- A. inherited two dominant genes. B. is in the majority of the population with regard to Rh status. C. is at risk for a pregnancy resulting in hemolytic disease of the newborn. D. can never have an Rh+ baby. E. All of the choices are correct.
C. is at risk for a pregnancy resulting in hemolytic disease of the newborn.
39. All of the following are correct about DNA fingerprinting, except A. it displays the unique pattern of an individuals DNA fragments B. it can be used to analyze evidence when only minute amounts of DNA are found C. it cannot be used on specimens older than 5 years D. it is routine to use it as trial evidence in the US E. it can be used on hair and saliva
C. it cannot be used on specimens older than five years.
The chemical mediator that causes prolonged bronchospasm, vascular permeability, and mucus secretion of asthmatic patients is A. prostaglandin. B. histamine. C. leukotriene. D. serotonin. E. platelet-activating factor.
C. leukotriene.
Meningococci initially colonize the A. lacrimal ducts. B. oral mucosa. C. nasopharynx. D. eustachian tube. E. All of the choices are correct.
C. nasopharynx.
The DNA of microorganisms is made up of subunits called A. histones B. amino acids C. nucleotides D. mRNA E. polymerase
C. nucleotides.
Exergonic reactions: A. include synthesis of large carbohydrates. B. only occur in heterotrophs. C. occur during aerobic cellular respiration. D. do not occur in anaerobic cellular respiration. E. occur when ADP binds to inorganic phosphate to form ATP
C. occur during aerobic cellular respiration.
All of the following pertain to glycolysis, except it: A. occurs without oxygen. B. ends with formation of pyruvic acid. C. occurs during fermentation. D. degrades glucose to CO2 and H2O. E. involves reduction of NAD.
C. occurs during fermentation.
The type of photosynthesis that does not produce oxygen: A. occurs in cyanobacteria B. does not require CO2 as a reactant C. occurs in certain bacteria D. does not require sunlight E. occurs in algae and plants
C. occurs in certain bacteria
The antiparallel arrangement within DNA molecules refers to A. each base bonding at the 1' position of the sugar B. a purine always bonding to a pyrimidine C. one helix strand that runs from the 5' to 3' direction and the other strand runs from the 3' to 5' direction D. an original parent DNA strand and one newly synthesized DNA stran comprising a new DNA molecule E. none
C. one helix strand that runs from the 5' to 3' direction and the other strand runs from the 3' to 5' direction.
Polio virus initially multiplies in the A. liver. B. CNS. C. oropharynx. D. nasal mucosa. E. None of the choices is correct.
C. oropharynx.
Treatment for Neisseria meningitidis consists of A. vancomycin. B. penicillin G orally. C. penicillin G intravenously. D. rifampin. E. tetracycline.
C. penicillin G intravenously.
Mixed acid fermentation: A. produces butyric acid. B. occurs in all bacteria. C. produces acids plus CO2 and H2 gases. D. is seen in Streptococcus and Lactobacillus. E. also produces ethanol
C. produces acids plus CO2 and H2 gases.
17. The Western Blot technique detects A. DNA B. RNA C. proteins D. recombinant DNA E. specific genetic marker sequence on genes
C. proteins.
The deliberate removal of genetic material from one organism and combining it with the genetic material of another organism is a specific technique called A. genetic engineering B. biotechnology C. recombinant DNA technology D. gel electrophoresis E. gene probes
C. recombinant DNA technology.
The operon segment composed of the gene that codes for a protein repressor is called the A. operator. B. structural locus. C. regulator. D. promoter. E. None of the choices are correct.
C. regulator.
Microsporum, Trichophyton, and Epidermophyton A. produce tissue-damaging mycotoxins. B. all cause athlete's foot. C. reservoirs are humans, animals, and soils. D. frequently cause septicemia. E. are dimorphic fungi.
C. reservoirs are humans, animals, and soils
6. DNA strands can be clipped crosswise at selected positions by using enzymes called A palindromes B reverse transcriptase C restriction endonucleases D ligases E DNA polymerase
C. restriction endonucleases.
8. EcoRI and HindIII are A. palindromes B. reverse transcriptase C. restriction endonucleases D. ligases E. DNA polymerase
C. restriction endonucleases. .
Cytotoxic T cells A. stimulate B cell proliferation. B. lack specificity for a target cell. C. secrete granzymes and perforins that damage target cells. D. secrete interleukin-2 to stimulate B and T cells. E. All of the choices are correct
C. secrete granzymes and perforins that damage target cells.
Arthrospores of Coccidioides immitis develop into _____ that will release endospores into the lungs. A. hyphae B. capsules C. spherules D. capsids E. buds
C. spherules
The phase of the bacterial growth curve in which the rate of multiplication equals the rate of cell death is the: A. lag phase B. log phase C. stationary phase D. death phase E. All of the choices are correct
C. stationary phase
Cerebrospinal fluid is found in the A. pia mater. B. dura mater. C. subarachnoid space. D. arachnoid mater. E. All of the choices are correct.
C. subarachnoid space.
21. In order to ensure compatibility between the target DNA and the plasmid DNA, A. target DNA is removed from cells and isolated. B. cloning host is treated with calcium chloride and receives plasmid. C. target DNA and plasmid are treated with the same restriction endonuclease. D. desired protein is produced by cloning host. E. gene is amplified by multiplication of cloning host.
C. target DNA and plasmid are treated with the same restriction endonuclease
Which of the following is incorrect about termination codons? A. they are also called nonsense codons B. where the bond between the final tRNA and the polymerase is broken C. they include AUG D. They include UAA, UAG, UGA E. they do not have corresponding tRNA
C. the include AUG
The primary portal of entry for fungal infections is A. the urinary tract. B. through skin. C. the respiratory tract. D. the nervous system. E. the digestive system.
C. the respiratory tract.
The RNA molecules that carry amino acids to the ribosomes during protein synthesis are called A. ribosomal RNA. B. messenger RNA. C. transfer RNA. D. primer RNA. E. ribozymes.
C. transfer RNA.
In Griffith's experiments with Streptococcus pneumonia rough non-encapsulated Streptococci were converted into to smooth encapsulated Streptococci in the presence of the heat killed smooth encapsulated Streptococci. What is the term that describes this process? A. transduction B. conjugation C. transformation D. cloning
C. transformation
Individuals with xeroderma pigmentosa cannot repair mutations caused by A. nutrous acid B. acridine dyes C. ultraviolet light D. ethidium bromide E. bisulfite
C. ultraviolet light.
Encephalitis is most commonly caused by a A. bacteria. B. protozoan. C. virus. D. helminth. E. All of the choices are correct.
C. virus
If a codon for alanine is GCA, then the anticodon is: a. CGU b. UGC c. GCA d. CGT e. ACG
CGU
The rash of secondary syphilis a. can last for months. b. causes severe itching. c. does not impair function. d. is intensely painful. e. only lasts a few days.
Can last for months
Janey has been taking antibiotics for 10 days to counter a urinary tract infection caused by E. coli. Her UTI is eliminated but two weeks later she has an infection. What is the likely infectious agent? a. Candida albicans b. Lactobacillus acidophilus c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa d. Staphylococcus aureus
Candida albicans
The most common cause of vaginitis is a. Candida albicans. b. Escherichia coli. c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa. d. Staphylococcus aureus. e. Streptococcus pyogenes.
Candida albicans
29. The scientist/s that proposed assigning organisms to one of three domains is/are
Carl Woese and George Fox.
Structural genes code for: a. Cellular proteins b. Gene expression elements c. All of the choices are correct d. Transfer RNA molecules e. Ribosomal RNA molecules
Cellular proteins
You have been a carrier of HSV-2 for many years, with sporadic outbreaks perhaps once a year. You are pregnant and about to deliver your baby. What does your doctor suggest now that you have an outbreak of herpes lesions? a. cesarean section b. deliver the baby and put it on high dose antivirals c. give you high dose antibiotics, such as penicillin d. have an abortion
Cesarean section
The leading cause of pelvic inflammatory disease is a. Chlamydia. b. genital herpes. c. gonorrhea. d. HIV. e. syphilis.
Chlamydia
The most commonly reported STI in the United States is a. Chlamydia. b. genital herpes. c. gonorrhea. d. HIV. e. syphilis.
Chlamydia
53. _____ is a halogen used in gaseous and liquid form for large scale disinfection of drinking water and sewage.
Chlorine
Which of the following is sensitive to penicillin? A) Chlamydia B) Herpesvirus C) Candida D) Streptococcus E) Pseudomonas
D) Streptococcus
_____ carriers are shedding and transmitting pathogen while they are recovering from an infectious disease.
Convalescent (p. 409)
A 25-year-old male presented with fever, malaise, and a rash on his chest, arms, and feet. Diagnosis was based on serological testing. The patient then reported that he had an ulcer on his penis 2 months earlier. This disease can be treated with A) Acyclovir. B) Metronidazole. C) Miconazole. D) Penicillin. E) Surgery.
D) Penicillin.
What term refers to the degree of evolutionary relatedness between living organisms? A) Morphology B) Physiology C) Hierarchy D) Phylogeny E) Taxonomy
D) Phylogeny
Which of the following is the smallest in size? A) Escherichia coli B) Ameba C) Louse D) Poliovirus E) Mycoplasma bacteria
D) Poliovirus
A positive LE text and 10,000 CFU/ml in urine indicates A) Cystitis. B) Gonorrhea. C) Urethritis. D) Pyelonephritis. E) Genital herpes.
D) Pyelonephritis.
When looking for life on other planets, scientists first look for signs of microbial inhabitation. Which of the following is not a reason why? A) Microbes are ubiquitous B) Microbes are involved in the evolution of other life forms C) Microbes have extensively shaped the earth's habitats D) Microbes prevent the recycling of elements E) Microbes are involved in the flow of energy and food
D) Microbes prevent the recycling of elements
Bacteriophages do not undergo adsorption to specific host cell receptors prior to penetration. True or False
False
Boiling water (100°C) can normally destroy endospores. True or False.
False
Botulism is often referred to as lockjaw. A) True B) False
False
Which of the following is not a causative agent of conjunctivitis? A) Chlamydia trachomatis B) Herpes simplex C) Adenovirus D) Neisseria gonorrhoeae E) Hemophilus aegyptii
D) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
All of the following result from N. gonorrhoeae infection. Which one leads to the others? A) Antibody production is stopped B) CD4+ T lymphocytes don't reproduce C) Increased risk of other STIs D) Opa attaches to CD4+ T lymphocytes E) Reinfection by N. gonorrhoeae
D) Opa attaches to CD4+ T lymphocytes
Describe the criteria that make up Koch's Postulates and discuss their importance in modern epidemiology.
Criteria that makes up Koch's Postulates are: 1. find evidence of a particular microbe in every case of a disease 2. isolate that microbe from an infected subject and cultivate it artificially in the laboratory 3. inoculate a susceptible healthy subject with the laboratory isolate and observe the same resultant disease 4. re-isolate the agent from this subject. Their importance in modern epidemiology is to develop a standard for determining the precise etiologic, or causative, agent. (p. 419)
The etiologic agent of fifth disease. A) Herpes simplex B) Herpes zoster C) HHV-6 D) Parvovirus E) Poxvirus
D) Parvovirus
Which of the following is treated with penicillin? A) Lymphogranuloma venereum B) Genital warts C) Candidiasis D) Syphilis E) Trichomoniasis
D) Syphilis
Which of the following is not transmitted by the respiratory route? A) Smallpox B) Chickenpox C) German measles D) Cold sore E) None of the above
D) Cold sore
Many non-infectious diseases have been shown to be associated with chronic infections with certain microorganisms. Which of the following is one of these diseases? A) Stroke B) Alzheimer's disease C) Depression D) Coronary artery disease E) Narcolepsy
D) Coronary artery disease
Used to treat candidiasis. A) Penicillin B) Sulfonamide C) Trifluridine D) Fungicide E) None of the above
D) Fungicide
Used to treat sporotrichosis. A) Penicillin B) Sulfonamide C) Trifluridine D) Fungicide E) None of the above
D) Fungicide
The lymphoid tissues of the intestinal tract are collectively referred to as A) lymph nodes B) thymus C) spleen D) GALT E) tonsils
D) GALT (p. 436)
All of the following statements about congenital rubella syndrome are true except A) It is contracted in utero. B) It may be fatal. C) It may result in deafness, blindness, and mental retardation. D) It doesnʹt occur with subclinical infections. E) All of the above are true.
D) It doesnʹt occur with subclinical infections.
Cancer cells can literally not displace normal blood cells and bone marrow. True False
False
Erythema migrans a bull's-eye rash at the portal of entry is associated with: A) syphilis B) Rocky Mountain spotted fever C) relapsing fever D) Lyme disease E) leptospirosis
D) Lyme disease
Chickenpox is caused by a poxvirus. T/F
False
Complement fixation is an example of an in vivo serological test. T/F
False
The patient has vesicles and scabs over her forehead. Microscopic examination of skin scrapings shows gram-positive cocci in clusters. A) Candida B) Microsporum C) P. aeruginosa D) S. aureus E) Scabies
D) S. aureus
ELISA tests use a fluorescent dye as a label to trace antigen-antibody reactions. T/F
False
Which of these is not caused by herpesvirus? A) Chickenpox B) Shingles C) Keratoconjunctivitis D) Smallpox E) None of the above
D) Smallpox
Infection of the urinary bladder is called a. cystitis. b. PID. c. pyelonephritis. d. urethritis. e. vaginitis.
Cystitis
Each of the following are phenotypic methods of identification except: A. morphology B. Gram stain reaction C. acid-fast reaction D. G+C composition E. endospores
D
Each of the following can be used for specimen collection except A. saliva B. skin C. spinal fluid D. hair E. throat
D
Oral lesions called Koplik's spots are seen in patients with: A. croup B. mumps C. influenza D. measles (rubeola) E. rubella
D
People at greatest risk for pneumococcal infections include all the following except: A. elderly B. those with underlying lung disease and viral infections C. patients without a spleen D. adolescents and young adults E. young infants
D
Phage typing is useful in identifying A. Treponema pallidum B. Mycobacterium leprae C. Streptococcus D. Salmonella E. Clostridium
D
The Western Blot test can be used to identify: a. unknown antibodies b. unknown antigens c. specific DNA d. both A & B
D
The primary advantage of genotypic methods of identification is A. it is easier than any other method B. it is less expensive than other methods C. it is widely available D. culturing of the organism is not required E. all of the choices are correct
D
The property of a test to detect only a certain antibody or antigen, and not to react with any others, is: A. cross-reactions B. agglutination C. precipitation D. specificity E. sensitivity
D
The toxin of Staphylococcus aureus strains that causes blisters and desquamation of skin in scalded skin syndrome is: A. enterotoxin B. hemolysin C. toxic shock syndrome toxin D. exfoliative toxin E. erythrogenic toxin
D
This test uses radioactive isotopes to label antibodies or antigens in order to detect minute amounts of corresponding antigen or antibody: A. Ouchterlony double diffusion B. Western blot C. immunelectrophoresis D. radioimmunoassay (RIA) E. the Quellung test
D
Transmission of the pathogen of leishmaniasis is by the: A. reduviid, "kissing", bug B. tsetse fly C. Anopheles mosquito D. phlebotomine (sand) fly E. hard bodied tick
D
Which is incorrect about warts: A. caused by human papillomaviruses (HPV) B. are transmitted by direct contact or fomites C. include deep plantar warts of soles of the feet D. are frequently cancerous E. freezing and laser surgery can be used for removal
D
_____ is a chronic progressive disease of the skin and nerves caused by Mycobacterium leprae. A. Scalded skin syndrome B. Rye's syndrome C. Erysipelas D. Hansen's disease E. Leishmaniasis
D
The group of protozoa that are not mobile are the A. Sarcodina B. Ciliophora C. Mastigophora D. Apicomplexa E. None of the choices are correct
D Apicomplexa
Which of the following is a scientific name? A) bacteria B) Protista C) species D) Bacillus subtilis E) bacilli
D) Bacillus subtilis
Juan has influenza and has aches, pains and a fever. His mother, a physician, tells him to take an antipyretic. What is she telling him to take? A) an antibiotic, like erythromycin B) an antiviral drub, like Tamiflu C) an antihistamine D) acetaminophen, like Tylenol E) herbal tea with honey
D) acetaminophen, like Tylenol (p. 442)
Gingivitis is: A) primarily caused by oral flora anaerobes B) erosion of tooth enamel causing a lesion C) caused by Streptococcus mutans D) also called ANUG E) none of the choices are correct
D) also called ANUG
All microorganisms are best defined as organisms that: A) cause human disease B) lack a cell nucleus C) are infectious particles D) are too small to be seen with the unaided eye E) can only be found growing in laboratories
D) are too small to be seen with the unaided eye
Pasteurization of milk helps to prevent: A) tularemia B) pertussis C) Legionellosis D) brucellosis E) shigellosis
D) brucellosis
The chance of syphilis: A) occurs due to small hemorrhaging of capillaries B) is very painful C) occurs during the tertiary stage D) develops into a lesion with firm margins and an ulcerated central crater E) all of the choices are correct
D) develops into a lesion with firm margins and an ulcerated central crater
The dried residues of fine droplets from mucus or saliva that harbor and transmit pathogen are A) fomites B) aerosols C) mechanical vectors D) droplet nuclei E) biological vectors
D) droplet nuclei (p. 413)
The virulence of Vibrio cholerae is due to its: A) capsule B) neurotoxin C) invasive enzymes D) enterotoxin E) all of the choices are correct
D) enterotoxin
Which of the following chemicals is a powerful stimulant of pain and inflammation? A) gamma interferon B) interleukin 5 C) prostaglandins D) histamine E) platelet-activating factor
D) histamine (p. 440)
Treponena pallidum subspecies pallidum: A) has humnas as the reservoir B) can cross the placenta C) has a hooked tip to attach to epithelium D) is transmitted by direct sexual contact E) all of the choices are correct
D) is transmitted by direct sexual contact
Comprise 3-7% of circulating WBC's, are phagocytic, and can migrate out into body tissues to differentiate into macrophages A) basophils B) eosinophils C) neutrophils D) monocytes E) lymphocytes
D) monocytes (p. 432)
Which term does not belong in this list? A) lactic acid B) vinegar C) hydrogen ion donor D) pH 8 E) acidic
D) pH 8
Helminths are: A) bacteria B) protozoa C) molds D) parasitic worms E) infectious particles
D) parasitic worms
Infection occurs when A) contaminants are present on the skin B) a person swallows microbes in/on food C) a person inhales microbes in the air D) pathogens enter and multiply in body tissues E) all of the choices are correct
D) pathogens enter and multiply in body tissues (p.387)
The stage of an infectious disease when specific signs and symptoms are seen and the pathogen is at peak activity is A) prodromal stage B) convalescent stage C) incubation period D) period of invasion E) all of the choices are correct
D) period of invasion (p.405)
Plasma cells A) function in cell-mediated immunity B) are derived from T-lymphocytes C) function in blood clotting D) produce and secrete antibodies E) all of the choices are correct
D) produce and secrete antibodies (p. 432)
Which is mismatched A) interferon alpha and beta - inhibits viral replication B) interleukin-2 - stimulate T cell mitosis and B cell antibody production C) serotonin - causes smooth muscle contraction D) prostaglandins - activate eosinophils and B cells E) tumor necrosis factor - increases chemotaxis and phagocytosis
D) prostaglandins - activate eosinophils and B cells (p. 440)
The circulating substances that affect the hypothalamus and initiate fever are A) complement B) interferons C) leukotrines D) pyrogens E) lysozymes
D) pyrogens (p. 441)
The primary, natural habitat of a pathogen where it continues to exist is called the A) fomite B) carrier C) vector D) reservoir E) source
D) reservoir (p.409)
Treponema, Borrelia, and Leptospira are all: A) obligate parasites requiring host cells B) curved rods C) transmitted by arthropod vectors D) spirochetes E) bacteria without cell walls
D) spirochetes
ATP is best described as: A) an enzyme B) a double helix C) an electron carrier D) the energy molecule of cells E) all of the choices are correct
D) the energy molecule of cells
Edward Jenner's work involved A. inoculation of dried pus from smallpox pustules into a person to stimulate immunity. B. development of passive immunotherapy. C. development of an immunization to protect people against cowpox. D. immunization using a related, less pathogenic organism to give protection against a more pathogenic one. E. All of the choices are correct.
D. immunization using a related, less pathogenic organism to give protection against a more pathogenic one.
Degranulation of mast cells leads to A. airway obstruction. B. headache. C. dilated blood vessels. D. All of the choices are correct
D. All of the choices are correct
11. Gene probes can be labeled for detection with A. enzymes B. fluorescent dyes C. radioisotopes D. all choices E. none of choices
D. All of the choices are correct. ; enzymes. ; fluorescent dyes. ; radioisotopes.
The eukaryote cell membrane is composed of A. Sterols B. Proteins C. Phospholipids D. All of these E. Only sterols and phospholipids
D. All of these
The primary purposes of viral cultivation are: A. to isolate and identify viruses in clinical specimens B. to prepare viruses for vaccines C. to do detailed research on viral structure, lifestyle, genetics and effects on host cells D. All of these
D. All of these
Why does the flora of the reproductive tract change as the female ages, from childhood to adulthood to old age? a. Her estrogen and progesterone levels change over time. b. The flora in the vagina change the environment, which can affect the populations of microorganisms living there. c. The pH of the vagina will change over her lifetime. d. all of these statements are true
D. All of these statements are true
Cody is 4 months old and is given an MMR injection by his pediatrician as part of the routine immunization schedule. What type of immunity is this? A. Natural active immunity B. Artificial passive immunity C. Natural passive immunity D. Artificial active immunity E. None of the choices will protect him.
D. Artificial active immunity
Classification of viruses into families involves determining all the following characteristics except A. Type of nucleic acid B. Type of capsid C. Presence of an envelope D. Biochemical reactions E. Number of strands in the nucleic acid
D. Biochemical reactions
21. If a codon for alanine is GCA, then the anticodon is A. GCA B. CGT C. ACG D. CGU E. UGC
D. CGU.
Helical and icosahedral are terms used to describe the shapes of a virus A. Spike B. Capsomere C. Envelope D. Capsid E. Core
D. Capsid
Which structure protects bacteria from being phagocytized? A. Slime layer B. Fimbriae C. Cell membrane D. Capsule E. All of the choices are correct
D. Capsule
Which of the following is incorrect about prophages? A. Present when the virus is in lysogeny B. Formed when viral DNA enters the bacterial chromosome C. Replicated with host DNA and passed on to progeny D. Cause lysis of host cells E. Occur when temperate phages enter host cells
D. Cause lysis of host cells
Which organelle is found in algae but not found in protozoa or fungi? A. Mitochondria B. Lysosomes C. Golgi apparatus D. Chloroplasts E. Endoplasmic reticulum
D. Chloroplasts
Production of a neurotoxin that binds to target sites on spinal cord neurons responsible for inhibiting skeletal muscle contraction is a characteristic of A. Clostridium botulinum B. Clostridium perfringens C. Clostridium difficile D. Clostridium tetani E. All of the choices are correct.
D. Clostridium tetani
Magnetosomes are A. Infoldings of the cell membrane B. Termed met achromatic granules C. Responsible for the heat resistance of endospores D. Composed of magnetic iron oxide particles E. Found in all bacteria
D. Composed of magnetic iron oxide particles
Which of the following will converge light rays to a single focal point on the specimen? A. Ocular lens B. Objective lens C. Iris diaphragm D. Condenser E. Nosepiece
D. Condenser
Which organism is a common cause of meningitis in AIDS patients and can be found in bird droppings? A. Listeria monocytogenes B. Haemophilus influenzae C. Neisseria meningitidis D. Cryptococcus neoformans E. Streptococcus agalactiae
D. Cryptococcus neoformans
29. This is often used in forensic science to distinguish one sequence of DNA from another by comparing the sequence of the strands at specific loci: A. cloning B. gene therapy C. antisense therapeutic D. DNA fingerprinting E. none
D. DNA fingerprinting
The enzymes that help pack DNA into the cell by coiling the DNA into a tight bundle are The enzymes that help pack DNA into the cell by coiling the DNA into a tight bundle are A. DNA ligases B. DNA polymerases C. DNA helicases D. DNA gyrases E. primases
D. DNA gyrases
Adulthood and mating of helminths occur in which host? A. Primary host B. Secondary host C. Definitive host D. Transport host E. Mating takes place in all hosts
D. Definitive host
Which of the following has the highest mortality rate? A. Western equine encephalitis B. St. Louis encephalitis C. California encephalitis D. Eastern equine encephalitis E. West Nile encephalitis
D. Eastern equine encephalitis
Which of the following is not true of the outer membrane? A. The upper most layer is made of lipopolysaccharides B. The inner most layer is a phospholipid bilayer C. The porin proteins create channels through the outer membrane D. Gram positive bacteria have an outer membrane E. The lipid portion of the lipopolysaccharide layer is an endotoxin
D. Gram positive bacteria have an outer membrane
During lysogeny, an inactive prophage state occurs when the viral DNA is inserted into the A. Host cytoplasm B. Host nucleus C. Host nucleolus D. Host DNA E. Host cell membrane
D. Host DNA
The immunoglobulin class that is the only one capable of crossing the placenta is A. IgA. B. IgD. C. IgE. D. IgG. E. IgM.
D. IgG.
In the primary response to an antigen, the first class of antibody to be secreted is A. IgD. B. IgE. C. IgG. D. IgM. E. IgA.
D. IgM
Which immunoglobulin class/es can fix complement? A. IgM only B. IgG only C. IgD only D. IgM and IgG E. IgE and IgA
D. IgM and IgG
_____ has the same optical qualities as glass and thus prevents refractive loss of light as it passes from the slide to the objective lens. A. The scanning objective B. The oil objective C. The slide D. Immersion oil E. The ocular
D. Immersion oil
The activation of a prophage is called A. Activation B. Lysogeny C. Transformation D. Induction E. Adsorption
D. Induction
The envelope of enveloped viruses is A. Identical to the host plasma membrane B. Only compose of host endomembrane C. Always includes spikes D. Is obtained by viral budding or exocytosis E. None of the choices are correct
D. Is obtained by viral budding or exocytosis
Which of the following choice is true in case of a micoaerophile? A. It grows best in an anaerobic jar B. It grows with or without oxygen C. It needs normal atmospheric levels of oxygen D. It requires a small amount of oxygen but won't grow at normal atmospheric levels. E. None of the choices are correct
D. It requires a small amount of oxygen but won't grow at normal atmospheric levels.
When bacteria that are living in a freshwater stream moved to seawater, then what would happen? A. It would be in a hypotonic solution B. It would gain water C. It would be in a isotonic solution D. It would shrivel E. None of the choices mentioned above are correct
D. It would shrivel
Which of the following is not a characteristic of a prokaryote? A. It's DNA is not encased in a membrane B. It has a cell wall made of peptidoglycans or other distinct chemicals C. It does not have membrane-bound organelles D. Its DNA is wrapped around his tones E. All of these are characteristics of prokaryotes
D. Its DNA is wrapped around his tones
Who invented the first crude microscope by grinding glass? A. Redi B. Lister C. Schultz & Schwann D. Leeuwenhoek
D. Leeuwenhoek
33. Which technique will hopefully be used to identify and devise treatments for diseases based on the genetic profile of the disease? A. PCR B. genetic engineering C. antisense technology D. microarray analysis E. DNA sequencing
D. Microarray analysis
A client has a serious case of the flu. A random sample of sputum was taken from the patient coughing up blood. The lab tech said they had isolated a bacterium that did not have any peptidoglycan. You hypothesize that the identity of this microbe could possibly be: A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis B. Borrelia burghdorferi C. Streptococcus pneumoniae D. Mycoplasma pnuemoniae
D. Mycoplasma pnuemoniae
An important indicator of evolutionary relatedness is to determine A. Size of the periplasmic space B. Similarities of cell membrane proteins C. Size of the bacterial chromosome D. Nitrogen base sequence of rRNA E. Size of the ribosomes
D. Nitrogen base sequence of rRNA
In eukaryotic cells, which of the following contains DNA? A. Nucleus, mitochondria, Golgi apparatus B. Nucleus, endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi apparatus C. Nucleus, nucleolus, Golgi apparatus D. Nucleus, chloroplast, mitochondria E. Nucleus, chloroplast, peroxisome
D. Nucleus, chloroplast, mitochondria
Spirochetes have a twisting and flexing locomotion due to appendages called A. Flagella B. Cilia C. Fimbriae D. Periplasmic flagella (axial filaments) E. Sex pili
D. Periplasmic flagella (axial filaments)
All of the following are examples of different types of microbiological media except A. Broth B. Enriched C. Agar D. Petri dish E. Gel
D. Petri dish
Which is mismatched? A. Giardia-transmitted by feces in drinking water B. Histoplasma-causes Ohio Valley fever C. Trichomonas-sexually transmitted D. Plasmodium-causes Chagas disease E. Trypanosomes -causes African sleeping sickness
D. Plasmodium-causes Chagas disease
Each virus is assigned to genus status based on its host, target tissue and type of disease it causes. True or False
False
This opportunist is the most frequent cause of life-threatening pneumonia in AIDS patients: A. Cryptococcus neoformans B. Candida albicans C. Malassezia furfur D. Pneumocystis (carinii) jiroveci E. None of the choices are correct.
D. Pneumocystis (carinii) jiroveci
Histones are A. Found in polyribosomes B. Enzymes found in lysosomes C. Proteins of the cytoskeleton D. Proteins associated with DNA in the nucleus E. On the surface of rough endoplasmic reticulum
D. Proteins associated with DNA in the nucleus
24. The commercial product Frostban contains a genetically engineered strain of A. Escherichia coli B. Saccharomyces cerevisiae C. Thermus aquaticus D. Pseudomonas syringae E. Pseudomonas fluorescens
D. Pseudomonas syringae.
In order for a retrovirus to insert itself into the host's DNA, it must do which of the following? A. DNA ->DNA B. DNA ->RNA C. RNA ->RNA D. RNA ->DNA E. RNA ->protein
D. RNA ->DNA
The vector for the trypanosome of Chagas disease is the A. Mosquito B. Deer tick C. Tse-tse fly D. Reduviid bug E. Nematode
D. Reduviid bug
Viruses acquire envelopes around their nucleocapsids during A. Replication B. Assembly C. Adsorption D. Release E. Penetration
D. Release
Which of the following is essential for development of discrete, isolated colonies? A. Broth medium B. Differential medium C. Selective medium D. Solid medium E. Assay medium
D. Solid medium
For which bacterial genus is mannitol salt agar selective? A. Salmonella B. Streptococcus C. Neisseria D. Staphylococcus E. Escherichia
D. Staphylococcus
What involves determination of donor HLA antigens compared to those of the recipient's tissue? A. skin graft B. blood transfusion C. organ transplantation D. both skin graft and organ transplantation E. All of the choices are correct.
D. both skin graft and organ transplantation
The virulence of Haemophilus influenzae serotype b is associated with its A. fimbriae. B. neurotoxin. C. enterotoxin. D. capsule. E. None of the choices is correct.
D. capsule.
Which is incorrect about Sporothrix schenckii? A. is dimorphic B. lives in the soil C. often transmitted by soil-contaminated thorns D. causes superficial cutaneous infection E. causes nodules along regional lymphatic channels
D. causes superficial cutaneous infection
Immune sera is produced in horses for all the following except A. diphtheria. B. botulism. C. snake bites. D. chickenpox. E. spider bites.
D. chickenpox.
6. A holoenzyme is a combination of a protein and one or more substances called: A. substrates. B. apoenzymes. C. catalysts. D. cofactors. E. None of the choices are correct.
D. cofactors.
All of the following pertain to glycolysis, except it: A. occurs without oxygen. B. ends with formation of pyruvic acid. C. occurs during fermentation. D. degrades glucose to CO2 and H2O. E. involves reduction of NAD.
D. degrades glucose to CO2 and H2O
Under extreme conditions some bacilli go into a dormant, non-vegetative state called__ formation. A. ciliated B. cytoplasmic streaming C. ameobiod D. endospore
D. endospore
Although many viruses can cause meningitis, the most common viral cause is A. measles. B. cytomegalovirus. C. arbovirus. D. enterovirus. E. arenavirus.
D. enterovirus.
Neonatal meningitis is most commonly transmitted by A. breast feeding. B. hospital personnel. C. transplacental infection. D. exposure in birth canal. E. exposure from other infants.
D. exposure in birth canal
An organism that grows slowly in the cold but has an optimum growth temperature of 32 degrees C is called a/an: A. extremophile B. thermophile C. psychrophile D. facultative psychrophile E. thermoduric
D. facultative psychrophile
The monomer subunit of immunoglobulin molecules has all the following, except A. two identical heavy polypeptide chains. B. two identical light polypeptide chains. C. disulfide bonds between polypeptide chains. D. four antigen binding sites. E. a variable and constant region on each polypeptide chain.
D. four antigen binding sites.
Cryptococcus neoformans is a A. virus. B. bacteria. C. prion. D. fungus. E. helminth.
D. fungus.
5. A technique that separates a readable pattern of DNA fragments is A. genetic engineering B. biotechnology C. recombinant DNA D. gel electrophoresis E. gene probes
D. gel electrophoresis.
The term chemotroph refers to an organism that: A. uses C02 for its carbon source. B. must obtain organic compounds for its carbon needs. C. gets energy from sunlight. D. gets energy by oxidizing chemical compounds. E. does not need a carbon source.
D. gets energy by oxidizing chemical compounds.
An organic nutrient that cannot be synthesized by the organism and must be provided is called a/an: A. element B. macronutrient C. water D. growth factor E. trace element
D. growth factor
Each of the following is true for Toxoplasma gondii except A. it is a flagellated parasite. B. it is often fatal for AIDS patients. C. can cause stillbirth. D. has a narrow host range. E. All of the choices are true.
D. has a narrow host range
14. Which PCR step causes the denaturation of double-stranded DNA? A add DNA polymerase and nucleotides at 72degC B. cool DNA to between 50degC and 65degC C. add primers D. heat target DNA to 94degC E. repeat the cycle of heating and cooling
D. heat target DNA to 94C
In addition to electrons, which of the following is also involved in electron transfer? A. ADP B. glucose C. carbon D. hydrogen protons E. carbon dioxide
D. hydrogen protons
What can be a consequence of a genetic deficiency in B cell survival and maturity? A. host rejection of graft B. graft versus host disease C. formation of autoantibodies D. hypogammaglobulinemia E. None of the choices is correct.
D. hypogammaglobulinemia
Allergic reactions to penicillins are considered a/an _____ hypersensitivity. A. T-cell-mediated B. antibody-mediated C. immune complex-mediated D. immediate E. both T-cell-mediated and antibody-mediated
D. immediate
The study of diseases associated with excesses and deficiencies of the immune system is A. humoralpathology. B. hemopathology. C. epidemiology. D. immunopathology. E. histopathology.
D. immunopathology.
In eukaryotes, the Krebs cycle takes place: A. in the nucleus. B. in the endoplasmic reticulum. C. in the cell membrane. D. in the mitochondria. E. in the cytoplasm
D. in the mitochondria
16. The function of the dideoxy (dd) nucleotides that are used in the Sanger method of DNA sequencing is to A. denature DNA into single strands B serve as primers C be a fluorescent tag D. incorporate into newly replicated DNA strands and stop elongation. E. none
D. incorporate into newly replicated DNA strands and stop elongation.
9. Enzymes that are produced only when substrate is present are termed: A. exoenzymes. B. endoenzymes. C. constitutive enzymes. D. induced enzymes. E. conjugated enzymes.
D. induced enzymes.
Ergotism is caused by A. ingesting Amanita phalloides, the death-angel mushroom. B. ingesting aflatoxin. C. inhaling Stachybotrys spores and toxins. D. ingesting alkaloids from Claviceps purpurea on rye plants. E. inhaling Rhizopus spores.
D. ingesting alkaloids from Claviceps purpurea on rye plants.
The major categories of hypersensitivities that typically involve a B-cell immunoglobulin response is/are A. type I only. B. type I and type IV. C. type IV only. D. type I, type II, and type III. E. type I, type II, type III, and type IV.
D. type I, type II, and type III.
All of the following characterize the secondary response to an antigen except A. a higher titer of antibody is produced than the primary response. B. a longer persistence of antibody than with the primary response. C. a quicker rate of antibody synthesis than the primary response. D. it is mostly IgM antibodies that are produced. E. it is also known as the anamnestic response.
D. it is mostly IgM antibodies that are produced.
Properties of effective antigens include all the following, except A. foreign to the immune system. B. molecular complexity. C. large molecules with a minimum molecular weight of 1,000. D. large polymers made up of repeating subunits. E. cells or large, complex molecules.
D. large polymers made up of repeating subunits.
An important mineral ion that is a component of chloroplasts and stabilizer of membranes and ribosomes is: A. iron B. zinc C. calcium D. magnesium E. potassium
D. magnesium
1. All of the chemical reactions of the cell are called: A. catabolism. B. redox reactions. C. phosphorylation. D. metabolism. E. cellular respiration.
D. metabolism.
Each of the following is an autoimmune disease except A. systemic lupus erythematosus. B. Graves' disease. C. type I diabetes. D. metastatic cancer. E. rheumatic fever.
D. metastatic cancer.
Which type of neuroglia has phagocytic capabilities in the CNS? A. astrocytes B. schwann cells C. macrophages D. microglial cells E. neurons
D. microglial cells
Tetanus differs from botulism in that A. tetanus results in flaccid paralysis while botulism paralysis is rigid B. tetanus results from an exotoxin botulism from an endotoxin C. there is a vaccine for tetanus, not for botulism D. muscles cannot relax in tetanus muscles cannot contract in botulism E. All of the choices are correct.
D. muscles cannot relax in tetanus muscles cannot contract in botulism
The E. coli that normally live in the human large intestines and produce vitamin K that the body uses would be best termed a ____ relationship. A. parasitic B. saprobic C. commensal D. mutualistic E. None of the choices are correct
D. mutualistic
All of the following pertain to RNA virus replication, except: A. positive-sense viruses first replicate a negative stran as a template B. retrovirus synthesize DNA from their RNA genome C. retroviruses carry reverse transcriptase into the host cell D. negative-sense viruses directly undergo translation E. all choices
D. negative-sense viruses directly undergo translation.
Diffusion of water through a semi-permeable membrane is called: A. facilitated diffusion B. diffusion C. active transport D. osmosis E. endocytosis
D. osmosis
The progeny cells of a B-cell clone are called A. antibodies. B. sensitized T cells. C. activated macrophages. D. plasma cells. E. Bursa cells.
D. plasma cells.
Cultures of a bacterial species were incubated on the shelf of a refrigerator, out on a lab benchtop, on the shelf of a 37 degrees C incubator and on the shelf of a 50 degrees C incubator. After incubation, there was no growth at 37 degrees C and 50 degrees C, slight growth out on the benchtop, and abundant growth at refrigeration. What term could be used for this species? A. halophile B. mesophile C. anaerobe D. psychrophile E. capnophile
D. psychrophile
Class II MHC genes code for A. certain secreted complement components. B. self receptors recognized by natural killer cells. C. all HLA antigens. D. receptors located primarily on macrophages, dendritic cells, and B cells. E. all of the choices are correct.
D. receptors located primarily on macrophages, dendritic cells, and B cells.
Allergies run in families because A. immunoglobulins pass from mother to fetus. B. immunoglobulins pass through breast milk. C. the variable region of antibodies is genetically determined. D. relative production of IgE is inherited. E. All of the choices are correct.
D. relative production of IgE is inherited.
The routes of entry for most fungi into the body are A. urinary and reproductive. B. digestive and respiratory. C. blood and wounds. D. respiratory and cutaneous. E. None of the choices are correct.
D. respiratory and cutaneous
The development of virulent, toxin-producing bacterial strains due to the presence of a temperate phage can occur in A. bacterial conjugation. B. transformation. C. generalized transduction. D. specialized transduction. E. All of the choices are correct.
D. specialized transduction.
Which of the following is not a prion disease? A. scrapie B. Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease C. bovine spongiform encephalopathy D. subacute sclerosing panencephalitis E. All of the choices are prion diseases.
D. subacute sclerosing panencephalitis
Plant roots provide various growth factors for soil bacteria, and the bacteria help fertilize the plant by supplying it with minerals. This is an example of: A. antagonism B. commensalism C. parasitism D. synergism E. mutalism
D. synergism
38. When DNA is heated to just below boiling (90oC - 95oC), A. the sugar phosphate is backbone of the DNA strand breaks B. the sugar, phosphate, and base come apart in each nucleotide C. the helix unwinds but hydrogen bonds between the bases remain intact. D. the two DNA strands separate completely E. nothing happens until the boiling point is reached (100degC)
D. the two DNA strands separate completely.
All of the following are advantages of attenuated vaccines over inactivated vaccines except A. they require smaller doses. B. they require fewer boosters. C. they confer longer lasting protection. D. they can be transmitted to other people. E. they produce infection but not disease.
D. they can be transmitted to other people.
All of the following are fungal allergies, except A. bark stripper's disease. B. farmer's lung. C. teapicker's lung. D. thrush.
D. thrush
Autoantibodies cause tissue injury in all of the following diseases except A. rheumatoid arthritis. B. myasthenia gravis. C. Graves' disease. D. tuberculin reaction. E. multiple sclerosis.
D. tuberculin reaction.
Eczema is an autoimmune disorder. True False
False
Split genes A. are common in prokaryotes and eukaryotes B. only have exons initially transcribed to mRNA C. have introns located only at the beginning and end of a coding region. D. use spliceosomes to excise introns and then join exons. E. all are correct
D. use spliceosomes to excise introns and then join exons.
Anaerobic cellular respiration: A. is also called fermentation. B. only involves glycolysis. C. does not generate ATP. D. utilizes an electron transport system. E. uses the same final electron acceptors as aerobic respiration
D. utilizes an electron transport system
The enzymes that help pack DNA into the cell by coiling the DNA into a tight bundle are: a. DNA ligases b. DNA helicases c. Primases d. DNA polymerases e. DNA gyrases
DNA gyrases
In recombinant DNA technique, what enzyme is needed to seal the sticky ends of genes into plasmids or chromosomes? a. DNA helicase b. DNA ligase c. DNA polymerase II d. DNA polymerase I e. Primase
DNA ligase
Okazaki fragments are attached to the growing end of the lagging strand by: a. DNA helicases b. DNA ligases c. DNA gyrases d. DNA polymerases e. Primases
DNA ligases
The Southern blot method analyzes: a. DNA to DNA b. RNA to RNA c. mRNA to proteins d. RNA to DNA e. DNA to RNA
DNA to DNA
The best way to directly observe spirochetes is through ____ microscopy. a. bright-field b. dark-field c. electron scanning d. fluorescent e. phase contrast
Dark-field
Antisense therapy leads to: a. Increased translation of the target gene b. Decreased translation of the target gene c. Decreased transcription of the target gene d. None of the choices are correct e. Increased transcription of the target gene
Decreased translation of the target gene
A frame shift is caused by ______ mutations? a. Insertion and nonsense b. Deletion and insertion c. Missense and insertion d. Missense and nonsense e. Nonsense and deletion
Deletion and insertion
51. Some microbial control agents are able to _____ cell proteins by breaking bonds that maintain the native state, three-dimensional configuration of the proteins.
Denature
All of the following are signs and symptoms of urinary tract infections except a. diarrhea. b. nausea. c. painful urination. d. red blood cells in urine. e. white blood cells in urine.
Diarrhea
Nonspecific chemical defenses include A) lysozyme B) lactic acid and electrolytes of sweat C) skin's acidic pH and fatty acids D) stomach hydrochloric acid E) all of the choices are correct
E) all of the choices are correct (p. 426)
All the following pertain to Streptococcus pyogenes except: A. often from an endogenous source B. secrete streptokinase C. causes impetigo D. coats itself with host proteins E. causes toxic shock syndrome
E
Chickenpox: A. is transmitted by inhalation of respiratory secretions B. is transmitted by skin lesion contact or airborne spread of lesion material C. has an incubation of 10 to 20 days D. has fever, and vesicular rash that occurs in successive crops E. all of the choices are correct
E
Diseases caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae include: A. otitis media B. meningitis C. lobar pneumonia D. bronchial pneumonia E. all of the choices are correct
E
Fifth disease: A. is caused by Parvovirus B19 B. is a childhood febrile disease with a bright red rash on the cheeks C. involves pathogen capable of crossing the placenta D. in immunodeficient children, destroys red blood cell stem cells E. all of the choices are correct
E
Normal flora of the upper respiratory tract include A. Corynebacterium B. Candida albicans C. Haemophilus influenzae D. Staphlococcus aureus E. all of the choices are correct
E
Respiratory syncytial virus (Pneumovirus): A. causes serious disease in infants 6 months old or younger B. uses the nasopharynx as its main replication site C. can be treated with the antiviral aerosol Ribavirin D. RSV immunoglobulin help reduce complications and hospitalization E. all of the choices are correct
E
Serotyping of the pneumococcus based on capsular polysaccharide is performed in: A. Ouchterlony double diffusion B. Western blot C. immunelectrophoresis D. radioimmunoassay (RIA) E. the Quellung test
E
Systemic tuberculosis is more common in A. infants B. elderly C. organ transplant patients D. AIDS patients E. all of the choices are correct
E
The dyes fluorescein and rhodamine: A. can be used to label antibodies in immunofluorescence tests B. emit visible light in response to ultraviolet radiation C. are observed in the fluorescent microscope D. are used to identify pathogens of chlamydiosis, Legionnaires' disease, and others E. all of the choices are correct
E
The integument includes all of the following except A. skin B. hair C. nails D. sweat glands E. surface capillaries
E
The property of a test to detect even small amounts of antibodies or antigens that are test targets is: A. cross-reactions B. agglutination C. precipitation D. specificity E. sensitivity
E
This febrile disease with a rash has a pathogen that can cross the placenta and cause serious fetal damage: A. croup B. mumps C. influenza D. measles (rubeola) E. rubella
E
Transmission of tineas include: A. human to human B. animal to human C. soil to human D. fomites to human E. all of the choices are correct
E
Urine and fecal specimens require A. sterile collection conditions B. incubation in differential media C. incubation in selective media D. both sterile collection conditions and incubation in differential media E. both incubation in differential media and incubation in selective media
E
Varicella-zoster virus: A. uses the respiratory epithelium as its portal of entry B. becomes latent in dorsal root ganglia that serve specific dermatomes C. has humans as its reservoir D. causes chickenpox and shingles E. all of the choices are correct
E
When the centers of tubercles break down into _____ lesions, they gradually heal by calcification that replaces normal lung tissue. A. primary B. caseous C. necrotic D. both primary and caseous E. both caseous and necrotic
E
Which infection is caused by S. aureus? A) Pimples B) Sty C) Furuncle D) Carbuncle E) All of the above
E) All of the above
Which of the following is NOT a complication of gonorrhea? A) Arthritis B) Pelvic inflammatory disease C) Endocarditis D) Meningitis E) All of the above are potential complications of gonorrhea.
E) All of the above are potential complications of gonorrhea.
Which of the following is NOT a predisposing factors to cystitis in females? A) The proximity of the anus to the urethra B) The length of the urethra C) Sexual intercourse D) Poor personal hygiene E) All of the above are predisposing factors.
E) All of the above are predisposing factors.
Pyelonephritis may result from A) Urethritis. B) Cystitis. C) Ureteritis. D) Systemic infections. E) All of the above.
E) All of the above.
Newbornsʹ eyes are treated with an antibiotic when A) N. gonorrhoeae is isolated from the eyes. B) The mother is blind. C) The mother has genital herpes. D) The mother has gonorrhea. E) Always.
E) Always.
Robert Koch used what microorganism (and disease it causes) to formulate Koch's postulates? A) HIV/AIDS B) Corynebacterium diphtheriae/Diphtheria C) Coronavirus/SARS D) Mycobacterium tuberculosis/Tuberculosis E) Bacillus anthracis/Anthrax
E) Bacillus anthracis/Anthrax
In which of the following respects is measles similar to German measles? A) Rash B) Etiologic agent C) Encephalitis as a complication D) Congenital complications E) In name only
E) In name only
In the latter part of the twentieth century, scientists became increasingly concerned about the threat of infectious diseases. Which of the following is not a reason why the incidence of infectious diseases has risen? A) Advances in medicine B) Mobile populations C) Emerging microbes/diseases D) Microbial adaptations E) Ineffective diagnoses of diseases
E) Ineffective diagnoses of diseases
Which of the following statements about pelvic inflammatory disease is false? A) It can cause sterility and chronic pain. B) It can be caused by N. gonorrhoeae. C) It can be transmitted sexually. D) It can be caused by C. trachomatis. E) It affects men and women equally.
E) It affects men and women equally.
Which of the following is caused by Chlamydia? A) Gardnerella vaginosis B) Genital herpes C) Candidiasis D) Trichomoniasis E) Lymphogranuloma venereum
E) Lymphogranuloma venereum
All of the following can cause congenital infections or infections of the newborn EXCEPT A) Syphilis. B) Gonorrhea. C) Nongonococcal urethritis. D) Genital herpes. E) Lymphogranuloma venereum.
E) Lymphogranuloma venereum.
Nongonococcal urethritis can be caused by all of the following EXCEPT A) Mycoplasma homini. B) Candida albicans. C) Trichomonas vaginalis. D) Streptococci. E) Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
E) Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
Used to treat smallpox. A) Penicillin B) Sulfonamide C) Trifluridine D) Fungicide E) None of the above
E) None of the above
Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) S. aureus impetigo B) S. pyogenes erysipelas C) P. acnes acne D) P. aeruginosa otitis externa E) None of the above
E) None of the above
Vaccination for rubella is A) Not necessary because the disease is mild. B) Not necessary if a person has had an infection. C) Recommended only for pregnant women. D) Recommended for newborns to prevent congenital disease. E) None of the above.
E) None of the above.
The patient has a papular rash. Microscopic examination of skin scrapings reveals small 8-legged animals. A) Candida B) Microsporum C) P. aeruginosa D) S. aureus E) Scabies
E) Scabies
Proponents of spontaneous generation believed what? A) Living things arose only from others of the same kind B) The theory of biogenesis C) Louis Pasteur's experiments with the swan-necked tubes D) Maggots were the offspring of flies E) The theory of abiogenesis
E) The theory of abiogenesis
Which of the following is NOT primarily a sexually transmitted infection (STI)? A) Lymphogranuloma venereum B) Genital herpes C) Gonorrhea D) Chancroid E) Trichomoniasis
E) Trichomoniasis
A 45-year-old male has pus-filled vesicles distributed over his back in the upper right quadrant, over his right shoulder, and upper right quadrant of his chest. His symptoms are most likely due to A) Candida albicans. B) Herpes simplex virus. C) Staphylococcus aureus. D) Streptococcus pyogenes. E) Varicella-zoster virus.
E) Varicella-zoster virus.
Which of the following is an example of vertical transmission? A) drinking contaminated water B) a sneeze transmitting a cold C) oral-fecal transmission involving a diaper D) a mosquito bite E) a mother transmitting syphilis to her fetus
E) a mother transmitting syphilis to her fetus (p. 411)
Characteristics of rickettsias include: A) oligate parasites requiring host cells for growth B) arthropods serve as life cycle hosts and vectors C) gram negative coccobacilli D) infect the endothelial lining of blood vessels E) all of the choices are correct
E) all of the choices are correct
Cholera symptoms are: A) copious watery diarrhea B) loss of blood volume C) acidosis, sunken, eyes, thirst D) hypotension, tachycardia, shock E) all of the choices are correct
E) all of the choices are correct
Helicobacter pylori CAUSES: A) gastritis B) duodenal ulcers C) stomach ulcers D) increased risk for stomach cancer E) all of the choices are correct
E) all of the choices are correct
Lyme disease involves: A) early symptoms of fever, headache, stiff neck B) crippling polyarthritis and cardiovascular and neurological problems C) people having contact with wooded or forested areas D) treatment with antimicrobics E) all of the choices are correct
E) all of the choices are correct
Oral flora bacteria on the tooth surface: A) develop a biofilm B) use fimbriae and slime layers to adhere C) include streptococci that metabolize sucrose, produce sticky glucans, and form plaque D) lactobacilli ferment carbohydrates and produce acids that cause caries E) all of the choices are correct
E) all of the choices are correct
Which is mismatched: A) Bartonella henselae- cat scratch disease B) Coxiella burnetii- Q fever C) Bartonella quintana- trench fever D) Rickettsia typhi- endemic (murine) typhus E) all of the choices are correct
E) all of the choices are correct
The reticuloendothelial system A) is a support network of connective tissue fibers B) originates in the cellular basal lamina C) provides a passageway within and between tissues and organs D) is heavily populated with macrophages E) all of the choices are correct
E) all of the choices are correct (p. 429)
Plasma A) is the liquid portion of blood in which blood cells are suspended B) is mostly water C) contains albumin and globulins D) contains fibrinogen E) all of the choices are correct
E) all of the choices are correct (p. 430)
Resident flora are found in/on the A) skin B) mouth C) nasal passages D) large intestine E) all of the choices are correct
E) all of the choices are correct (p.390-392)
Enterotoxins are A) virulence factors B) toxins that target the intestines C) proteins D) exotoxins E) all of the choices are correct
E) all of the choices are correct (p.399-402)
Reservoirs include A) humans B) animals C) soil D) water E) all of the choices are correct
E) all of the choices are correct (p.409)
The building blocks of an enzyme are: A) nucleotides B) glycerol and fatty acids C) monosaccharides D) phosphate, glycerol, fatty acids E) amino acids
E) amino acids
All of the following are types of agranulocytes because they do not have prominent granules in their cytoplasm when stained except A) T cells. B) B cells. C) monocytes. D) lymphocytes. E) basophils.
E) basophils. (p. 432)
Animals that participate in the life cycles of pathogens and transmit pathogens from host to host are A) fomites B) aerosols C) mechanical vectors D) droplet nuclei E) biological vectors
E) biological vectors (p.409)
The four classic signs and symptoms of inflammation include all the following except A) redness B) warmth C) swelling D) pain E) chills
E) chills (p. 437)
The study of the frequency and distribution of a disease in a defined population is A) pathology B) clinical microbiology C) medicine D) immunology E) epidemiology
E) epidemiology (p. 415)
Microbial hyaluronidase, coagulase, and streptokinase are examples of A) adhesive factors B) exotoxins C) hemolysins D) antiphagocytic factors E) exoenzymes
E) exoenzymes (p.402)
A person with which occupation is most at risk for a zoonotic disease? A) accountant B) teacher C) nurse D) dental hygienist E) forest ranger
E) forest ranger (p. 410)
Which is not true about enzymes: A) found in all cells B) are catalysts C) participate in the cell's chemical reactions D) can be denaturated by heat and other agents E) have high-energy bonds between phosphates
E) have high-energy bonds between phosphates
Which is mismatched: A) epidemic typhus- louse feces, rash & low urine output B) murine typhus- flea feces, inoculated through the skin or inhalation C) rickettsial pox- mite bite, lesion can become necrotic with black, crusty scab D) Rocky Mountain spotted fever- thick bite, include fever headache and rash E) human ehrlichiosis- flea bite, vomiting
E) human ehrlichiosis- flea bite, vomiting
All of the following pertain to interferon except A) protein B) produced by certain white blood cells and tissue cells C) includes alpha, beta, and gamma types D) inhibit viruses, tumors, and cancer gene expression E) increase capillary permeability and vasodilation
E) increase capillary permeability and vasodilation (p. 445-446)
STORCH is an acronym that represents the most common A) genera of resident flora B) sexually transmitted diseases C) portals of entry D) vectors E) infections of the fetus and neonate
E) infections of the fetus and neonate (p.399)
All of the following are correct about lymph except A) it's composition is similar to plasma. B) it travels in vessels similar to blood vessels. C) it is made mostly of water. D) it transports numerous white blood cells. E) it is transported through the body by the same pump as blood, i.e., the heart.
E) it is transported through the body by the same pump as blood, i.e., the heart. (p. 433)
Which of the following is a unique characteristic of viruses that distinguishes them from the other major groups of microorganisms? A) cause human disease B) lack a nucleus C) cannot be seen without a microscope D) contain genetic material E) lack cell structure
E) lack cell structure
Spontaneous generation is the belief that: A) germs cause infectious diseases B) microbes are diverse and ubiquitous C) microbes placed in an infusion can grow in it D) aseptic techniques reduce microbes in medical settings E) living things arise from nonliving matter
E) living things arise from nonliving matter
Comprise 20% to 35% of the circulating WBC's, and are the cells that function in the body's immune system A) basophils B) eosinophils C) neutrophils D) monocytes E) lymphocytes
E) lymphocytes (p. 432)
Diapedesis is the A) loss of blood due to hemorrhaging B) production of only red blood cells C) production of white blood cells, red blood cells, and platelets D) plugging of broken vessels to stop bleeding E) migration of intact white blood cells from between endothelial cells of a blood vessel such as a venule out to the tissues
E) migration of intact white blood cells from between endothelial cells of a blood vessel such as a venule out to the tissues (p. 438-441)
Two or more atoms bonded together are called a/an: A) ion B) isotope C) element D) electrolyte E) molecule
E) molecule
All of the following are signs of infectious diseases except A) fever B) leucopenia. C) swollen lymph nodes. D) antibodies in serum. E) nausea.
E) nausea. (p. 406-407)
Components of the first line of defense include all the following except A) the tough cell sheet of the upper epidermis of the skin B) nasal hairs C) flushing action of tears and blinking D) flushing action of urine E) phagocytic white blood cells
E) phagocytic white blood cells (p. 425-426)
The analysis of what component has led to the classification of organisms into three domains? A) Nucleus B) Size C) Protein content D) Weight E) rRNA
E) rRNA
Hepatitis B virus a. has many chronic carriers. b. is principally transmitted by blood. c. is transmitted to the newborn from chronic carrier mothers. d. transmission risks include shared needles, anal intercourse and heterosexual intercourse. e. all of the choices are correct
E. All of the choices are correct
Herpes simplex-2 (HSV-2) causes a. genital lesions. b. infection in neonates that have contact with lesions in the birth canal. c. intensely sensitive vesicles on or near the genitals. d. symptoms that include urethritis, cervicitis and itching. e. all of the choices are correct
E. All of the choices are correct
Host cells of viruses include A. Human and other animals B. Plants and fungi C. Bacteria D. Protozoa and algae E. All of the choices are correct
E. All of the choices are correct
Killed or inactivated vaccines are prepared by A. removal of virulence genes from the microbe. B. treatment with formalin, heat, or radiation. C. passage of the pathogen through unnatural hosts or tissue culture. D. long-term subculturing of the microbe. E. All of the choices are correct
E. All of the choices are correct
Pneumocystis (carinii) jiroveci A. has protozoan and fungal characteristics. B. lacks ergosterol in its plasma membrane. C. is an obligate parasite. D. causes serious infection in elderly, premature infants, and AIDS patients. E. All of the choices are correct.
E. All of the choices are correct
Resident biota are found in/on the A. Skin B. Mouth C. Nasal passages D. Large intestine E. All of the choices are correct
E. All of the choices are correct
The cytoskeleton A. Anchors organelles B. Provides support C. Functions in movements of the cytoplasm D. Helps maintain cell shape E. All of the choices are correct
E. All of the choices are correct
Uncoating of viral nucleic acid A. Does not occur in bacteriophage multiplication B. Involves enzymatic destruction of the capsid C. Occurs during penetration in the multiplication cycle D. Occurs before replication E. All of the choices are correct
E. All of the choices are correct
Viral nucleic acids include which of the following A. Double stranded DNA B. Single stranded DNA C. Double stranded RNA D. Single stranded RNA E. All of the choices are correct
E. All of the choices are correct
Which of the following is a type of cytopathic effect? A. Inclusions in the nucleus B. Multinucleated giant cells C. Inclusions in the cytoplasm D. Cells round up E. All of the choices are correct
E. All of the choices are correct
Which of the following is found in eukaryotic cells but not in prokaryotic cells? A. Nucleus B. Mitochondria C. Endoplasmic reticulum D. Lysosomes E. All of the choices are correct
E. All of the choices are correct
31. Which of the following drugs is/are produced by genetic engineering and approved for human use? A human growth hormone B Factor VIII C. insulin D. tissue plasminogen activator E all
E. All of the choices are correct.
Antigen presenting cells A. include dendritic cells. B. include macrophages. C. engulf and modify antigen to be more immunogenic. D. hold and present processed antigen on their cell membrane surface. E. All of the choices are correct.
E. All of the choices are correct.
Candidiasis includes A. intertriginous infection of skin sites. B. vulvovaginal infection. C. oral cavity and esophageal infections. D. skin and nail infections. E. All of the choices are correct.
E. All of the choices are correct.
Contact dermatitis involves A. a sensitizing and provocative dose. B. an allergen entering the skin. C. T lymphocytes secreting inflammatory cytokines. D. itchy papules and blisters. E. All of the choices are correct.
E. All of the choices are correct.
Cryptococcosis can include A. pulmonary infection. B. septicemia. C. meningitis. D. bone infection. E. All of the choices are correct.
E. All of the choices are correct.
Dermatophytoses are A. fungal infections of the skin, hair, and nails. B. also called ringworm. C. also called tineas. D. often time-consuming to eradicate completely. E. All of the choices are correct.
E. All of the choices are correct.
Immunotherapy is the A. use of antitoxins. B. use of immune serum globulin. C. conferring of passive immunity. D. administering of preformed antibodies. E. All of the choices are correct.
E. All of the choices are correct.
Large quantities of antibodies that react to the second entry of antigen and lead to formation of antigen-antibody complexes occurs in A. serum sickness. B. delayed hypersensitivity. C. anaphylaxis. D. hemolytic disease of the newborn. E. All of the choices are correct.
E. All of the choices are correct.
Meningococcemia is A. best treated with penicillin G. B. associated with vascular collapse, hemorrhage, and petechiae. C. started from a nasopharyngeal infection. D. caused by a gram-negative diplococcus. E. All of the choices are correct.
E. All of the choices are correct.
Monoclonal antibodies A. originate from a single B cell clone. B. have a single specificity for antigen. C. are secreted by hybridomas. D. are used in immunology lab tests and cancer therapy. E. All of the choices are correct.
E. All of the choices are correct.
RNA molecules differ from DNA molecules because only RNA A. has ribose B. has uracil C. is typically one strand of nucleotides D. does not have thymine E.all
E. All of the choices are correct.
Spongiform encephalopathies are A. associated with abnormal, transmissible protein in the brain. B. chronic, fatal infections of the nervous system. C. caused by prions. D. Creutzfeld-Jacob disease, kuru and Gertsmann-Straussler-Scheinker syndrome. E. All of the choices are correct.
E. All of the choices are correct.
T cell response to T-cell-dependent antigens requires A. typically a protein antigen. B. binding of T cell to a Class II MHC receptor on an antigen-presenting cell. C. binding of T cell to a site on the antigen. D. interleukin-1 activating the T helper cell. E. All of the choices are correct.
E. All of the choices are correct.
Which of the following does not pertain to endotoxins? A. Are specific bacterial cell wall lipids B. Can stimulate fever in the human body C. Can cause septic shock in the human body D. Involved in typhoid fever and some meningitis cases E. Found in acid fast bacterial cell walls
E. Found in acid fast bacterial cell walls
Which antibody confers the most important specific local immunity to enteric, respiratory, and genitourinary pathogens? A. IgD B. IgE C. IgG D. IgM E. IgA
E. IgA
When antiserum is subjected to electrophoresis, the gamma globulin band contains mostly A. IgM. B. IgA. C. IgD. D. IgE. E. IgG.
E. IgG.
Which of the following controls the amount of light entering the specimen? A. Objective lens B. Ocular lens C. Condenser D. Body E. Iris diaphragm
E. Iris diaphragm
Which of the following is not a benefit of agar as a solid medium? A. Flexibility B. Holds moisture C. Can be inoculated and poured at a temperature that is not harmful D. Solid at room temperature E. Is digested by most microbes
E. Is digested by most microbes
All of the following pertain to virus envelopes except A. Gained as a virus leaves the host cell membrane B. Gained as a virus leaves the nuclear membrane C. Contain special virus proteins D. Help the virus particle attach to host cells E. Located between the capsid and nucleic acid
E. Located between the capsid and nucleic acid
Which of the following is not true of the cytoskeleton? A. Structural framework for the cell B. Anchor points for organelles C. Made up of microfilaments D. Made up of microtubules E. Made up of cilia
E. Made up of cilia
The woven, intertwining mass of hyphae that makes up the body of a mold is a/an A. Septum B. Rhizoid C. Spore D. Bud E. Mycelium
E. Mycellum
Reverse transcriptase synthesizes A. The positive RNA strand from a negative RNA strand B. A negative RNA strand from a positive RNA strand C. Viral RNA from DNA D. Viral DNA from RNA E. None of the choices are correct
E. None of the choices are correct
Which of the following conditions have been conclusively proven to be linked to childhood vaccinations? A. Autism B. Diabetes C. Asthma D. All of the choices are correct. E. None of the choices are correct.
E. None of the choices are correct.
Herpes simplex-1 a. confers immunity to herpes simplex-2. b. is cleared by acyclovir. c. is exclusive to genitourinary tract. d. is exclusive to oral mucosa. e. none of the choices is correct
E. None of the choices is correct
37. The polymerase chain reaction (PCR) has been used in all of the following fields, except A. forensics. B. evolutionary studies. C. gene mapping. D. medicine. E. None of the choices; it is useful for all these fields.
E. None of the choices; it is useful for all these fields.
The _____ of the microscope holds and allows selection of the objective lenses. A. Stage B. Condenser C. Objective D. Ocular E. Nosepiece
E. Nosepiece
Which of the following occurs during assembly? A. Nucleocapsid is formed B. New viral nucleic acid is formed C. Viral spikes insert in host cell membrane D. All of the choices occur E. Only choices A and C occur
E. Only choices A and C occur
Cells form a _____ arrangement when cells in a chain snap back upon each other forming a row of cells oriented side by side. A. Tetrad B. Strep C. Staph D. Sarcina E. Palisade
E. Palisade
The term that refers to the presence of flagella all over the cell surface is A. Amphitrichous B. Atrichous C. Lophotrichous D. Monotrichous E. Peritrichous
E. Peritrichous
Viral growth in bird embryos can cause discrete, opaque spots in the embryonic membranes called A. Lysogeny B. Budding C. Plaques D. Cytopathic effects E. Pocks
E. Pocks
Two noncellular agents, smaller than viruses, are the infectious proteins called _____ and the infectious RNA strands called _____. A. Prions, capsomeres B. Virions, prions C. Viroids, phages D. Prions, phages E. Prions, viroids
E. Prions, viroids
25. Recombinant strains of this organism are released to colonize plant roots to produce an insecticide to destroy invading insects: A. Escherichia coli B. Saccharomyces cerevisiae C. Thermus aquaticus D. Pseudmonas syringae E. Pseudomonas fluorescens
E. Pseudomonas fluorescens
Parasitic worms have a highly developed ______ system. A. Digestive B. Nervous C. Respiratory D. Muscular E. Reproductive
E. Reproductive
The transfer of genes during bacterial conjugation involves rigid, tubular appendages called A. Flagella B. Cilia C. Fimbriae D. Periplasmic flagella (axial filaments) E. Sex pili
E. Sex pili
The normal biota of the CNS consists of A. Neisseria meningitidis. B. herpes simplex I. C. herpes simplex II. D. Streptococcus agalactiae. E. The CNS has no normal biota.
E. The CNS has no normal biota.
Which of the following is mismatched? A. Methanogens - convert CO2 and H2 gases into methane B. Extreme halophiles - adapted to salty habitats C. Psychrophiles - adapted to very low temperatures D. Hyperthermophiles - adapted to high temperatures E. Thermo plasmas - adapted to frozen environments
E. Thermo plasmas- adapted to frozen environments
Severe combined immunodeficiencies (SCIDs) are due to A. autoantibodies. B. delayed hypersensitivity. C. congenital absence or immaturity of the thymus gland. D. failure of B cell development and maturity. E. a genetic defect in the development of both T cells and B cells.
E. a genetic defect in the development of both T cells and B cells
Helper T cells A. secrete antibodies. B. function in allergic reactions. C. directly destroy target cells. D. suppress immune reactions. E. activate B cells and other T cells.
E. activate B cells and other T cells.
Cell surface markers involved in immune reactions A. are the result of genetic expression. B. function in recognition of self molecules. C. receive and transmit chemical messages among other cells of the system. D. aid in cellular development. E. all of the choices are correct.
E. all of the choices are correct
Lymphocyte maturation involves A. hormonal signals that initiate development. B. B cells maturing in bone marrow sites. C. T cells maturing in the thymus. D. release of mature lymphocytes to begin migration to various lymphoid organs. E. all of the choices are correct.
E. all of the choices are correct.
Lymphocytes A. possess MHC antigens for recognizing self. A. possess MHC antigens for recognizing self. B. have membrane receptors that recognize foreign antigens. C. gain tolerance to self by destruction of lymphocytes that could react against self. D. develop into clones of B and T cells with extreme variations of specificity. E. all of the choices are correct.
E. all of the choices are correct.
The methanogens, producers of methane gas, require environments that: A. have sunlight B. are very acidic C. have abundant oxygen and CO2 D. are extremely cold E. are anaerobic with hydrogen gas and CO2
E. are anaerobic with hydrogen gas and CO2
Which type/s of hypersensitivities is IgG involved with? A. anaphylaxis B. antibody-mediated C. immune complex-mediated D. both anaphylaxis and antibody-mediated E. both antibody-mediated and immune complex-mediated
E. both antibody-mediated and immune complex-mediated
Which is the exotoxin of botulism? A. hemolysin B. tetanospasm C. peroxidases D. factor V E. botulinum.
E. botulinum
An organism that grows best at a higher CO2 tension than is normally present in the atmosphere is a(n): A. facultative anaerobe B. aerobe C. anaerobe D. aerotolerant anaerobe E. capnophile
E. capnophile
All of the following areas are subject to intertriginous infections, except A. between folds of the groin. B. under breasts. C. in the armpit. D. behind the knees. E. chest.
E. chest
Which of the following bacteria would be most indicative of fecal contamination? A. Staphyloccus aureus B. Streptococcus pyogenes C. E. coli D. Enterobacter aerogenes
E. coli
All of the following pertain to Neisseria meningitidis except A. virulent factors include a capsule, pili, endotoxin, and IgA protease. B. causes a serious meningitis. C. reservoir is the nasopharynx of human carriers. D. more easily transmitted in day care facilities, dorms, and military barracks. E. common cause of bacterial pneumonia.
E. common cause of bacterial pneumonia.
Which of the following is not a possible symptom of type I hypersensitivity? A. rhinitis B. rashes C. sneezing D. diarrhea E. contact dermatitis
E. contact dermatitis
The Ames test is designed to A. determine the rate of DNA replication in various bacterial species. B. detect the presence of a prophage in a cell. C. detect if a cell is infected by a virus. D. determine if a cell is resistant to an antibiotic. E. detect chemicals with carcinogenic potential
E. detect chemicals with carcinogenic potential
The Ames test is designed to A. determine the rate of DNA replication in various bacterial species B. detect the presence of a prophage in a cell C. detect if a cell is infected by a virus D. determine if a cell is resistant to an antibiotic E. detect chemicals with carcinogenic potential
E. detect chemicals with carcinogenic potential.
The use of energy by a cell to enclose a substance in its membrane by forming a vacuole and engulfing it is called: A. facilitated diffusion B. diffusion C. active transport D. osmosis E. endocytosis
E. endocytosis
8. Enzymes that can function at boiling water temperatures or other harsh conditions would be termed: A. denatured. B. ribozymes. C. abzymes. D. exoenzymes. E. extremozymes.
E. extremozymes.
4. Labeled, known, short stretches of DNA used to detect a specific sequence of nucleotides in a mixture are A. genetic engineering B. biotechnology C. recombinant DNA D. gel electrophoresis E. gene probes
E. gene probes.
Which antifungal drug inhibits cell division of the fungus? A. ketoconazole (Nizoral) B. fluconazole C. terbinafine (Lamisil) D. amphotericin B E. griseofulvin
E. griseofulvin
Which is mismatched? A. food allergy - type I hypersensitivity B. poison ivy dermatitis - type IV hypersensitivity C. serum sickness - type III hypersensitivity D. transfusion reaction - type II hypersensitivity E. hay fever - type IV hypersensitivity
E. hay fever - type IV hypersensitivity
In eukaryotes, glycolysis takes place: A. in the mitochondria. B. in the endoplasmic reticulum. C. in the cell membrane. D. in the nucleus. E. in the cytoplasm
E. in the cytoplasm
A sequence of bases on a gene that does not code for protein is called a/an A. promoter B. operator C. operon D. exon E. intron
E. intron.
All of the following are characteristics of IgM, except A. it has 10 antigen binding sites. B. it contains a central J chain. C. it is the first class synthesized by a plasma cell. D. it can fix complement. E. it is a dimer.
E. it is a dimer.
Which are the first to attack cancer cells and virus-infected cells? A. helper T cells B. suppressor T cells C. cytotoxic T cells D. delayed hypersensitivity T cells E. natural killer (NK) cells
E. natural killer (NK) cells
Which is incorrect about histoplasmosis? A. pathogen grows inside macrophages B. transmitted by inhalation of spores C. respiratory infections range from mild to severe D. chronic cases have symptoms similar to tuberculosis E. never spreads to sites outside the respiratory tract
E. never spreads to sites outside the respiratory tract
A mutation that changes a normal codon to a stop codon is called a A. point mutation B. silent mutation C. back mutation D. missense mutation E. nonsense mutation
E. nonsense mutation.
The most likely place where an exoenzyme participates in a chemical reaction is: A. mitochondria. B. within the cell membrane. C. lysosomes. D. cytoplasm. E. outside of the cell
E. outside of the cell
An occasional serious complication of herpes simplex-1 infection is a. encephalitis. b. kidney failure. c. myocarditis. d. paralysis. e. shingles.
Encephalitis
Which of the following is NOT involved in the step that occurs between glycolysis and the TCA cycle? A. reduction of NAD B. decarboxylation of pyruvic acid C. coenzyme A attaches to an acetyl group D. dehydrogenation of pyruvic acid E. pyruvic acid accepts electrons from NADH
E. pyruvic acid accepts electrons from NADH
The site where the old DNA strands separate and new DNA strands will be synthesized is called the A. primer B. Okazaki fragment C. template D rolling circle E. replication fork
E. replication fork.
Which of the following is not true of Streptococcus pneumoniae? A. most frequent cause of community acquired meningitis B. has a polysaccharide capsule that resists phagocytosis C. produces alpha-hemolysin and hydrogen peroxide D. small gram-positive flattened coccus E. responds well to penicillin
E. responds well to penicillin
A halophile would grow best in: A. acid pools B. fresh water ponds C. hot geyser springs D. arid, desert soil E. salt lakes
E. salt lakes
18. The fluorescent in situ hybridization (FISH) probes are applied to intact cells and observed microscopically for the presence and location of A. DNA B. RNA C. proteins D. recombinant DNA E. specific genetic marker sequence on genes.
E. specific genetic marker sequence on genes.
35. The Southern Blot technique detects A. DNA B. RNA C. proteins D. recombinant DNA E. specific genetic marker sequence on genes
E. specific genetic marker sequence on genes.
A systemic, sometimes fatal reaction with airway obstruction and circulatory collapse is A. delayed. B. T-cell-mediated. C. atopic. D. antibody-mediated. E. systemic anaphylactic.
E. systemic anaphylactic.
All of the following are associated with IgE and mast cell-mediated allergy except A. drug allergy. B. eczema. C. anaphylaxis. D. allergic asthma. E. systemic lupus erythematosus.
E. systemic lupus erythematosus.
The decline in growth rate during the death phase is due to all of the following, except: A. the depletion of nutrients B. the depletion of oxygen C. the excretion of biochemical pollutants D. the excretion of organic acids E. the decrease in temperature of the culture
E. the decrease in temperature of the culture
Which of the following is incorrect about transfer RNA? A. it has a bottom hairpin loop with an anticodon. B. an anticodon is complementary to a codon. C. it contains a binding site for an amino acid. D. the initiator tRNA that binds to the P site has the anticodon UAC. E. the initiator tRNA in bacteria carries tryptophan.
E. the initiator tRNA in bacteria carries tryptophan
A microorganism that has an optimum growth temperature of 37 degrees C but can survive short exposure to high temperatures is called a/an: A. extremophile B. thermophile C. psychrophile D. facultative psychrophile E. thermoduric
E. thermoduric
36. All of the following are characteristics that make plasmids good cloning vectors, except A. they are small B. they are well characterized C. they can be transferred into appropriate host cells D. they can carry genetic markers, such as antibiotic resistance genes E. they can accept a relatively large amount of foreign DNA
E. they can accept a relatively large amount of foreign DNA.
Microorganisms require small quantities of this nutrient for enzyme function and maintenance of protein structure: A. element B. macronutrient C. water D. growth factor E. trace element
E. trace element
Which of the following pertains to both tetanus and foodborne botulism? A. occurs when spore-contaminated soil enters deep wounds B. caused by enterotoxins of the pathogen C. exotoxin blocks acetylcholine release D. nausea and diarrhea are symptoms E. treatment involves antitoxin therapy.
E. treatment involves antitoxin therapy
All fungi cause some kind of disease in plants and animals. True or False.
False
All fungi have hyphae. True or False.
False
1. Which is mismatched: A) Fleming - penicillin B) Domagk - sulfonamide C) Ehrlich - tetracycline D) Florey and Chain - penicillin E) none of the choices are correct
Ehrlich - tetracycline
The following are characteristics of Chlamydia except a. elementary bodies are the infectious form. b. elementary bodies lack enzyme systems for making ATP. c. gram negative. d. obligate parasites that need host cells for growth. e. reticulate bodies differentiate into elementary bodies.
Elementary bodies are the infectious form
All microbiota interactions with humans are harmful.
False
The most common mode of disease transmission in UTIs is a. aerosol. b. endogenous transfer. c. fomites. d. indirect contact. e. opportunism.
Endogenous transfer
_____ are toxins that are the lipopolysaccharide of the outer membrane of gram negative cell walls.
Endotoxin (p.403)
Normal biota of the urethra include all of the following except a. Corynebacterium. b. Escherichia coli. c. Lactobacillus. d. nonhemolytic Streptococcus. e. Staphylococcus.
Escherichia coli
The most common causative agent of urinary tract infections is a. Escherichia coli. b. Escherichia coli O157:H7. c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa. d. Staphylococcus aureus. e. Streptococcus pyogenes.
Escherichia coli
All microorganisms that grow from a clinical sample should be considered significant. T/F
False
A person who is Rh- will have anti-Rh antibodies in their serum from early infancy.
FALSE
Allergic rhinitis is also known as asthma.
FALSE
Cryptococcal meningitis is highly communicable among humans.
FALSE
Eczema is an autoimmune disorder.
FALSE
No cases of attenuated polio virus reverting to a neurovirulent strain have been documented.
FALSE
Pneumovax is a vaccine for prevention of disease caused by strains of Neisseria meningitidis.
FALSE
Prions can be destroyed by autoclaving.
FALSE
Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis is caused by a prion.
FALSE
TRUE OR FALSE After secreting antibodies during an immune response, plasma cells then differentiate into memory cells.
FALSE
TRUE OR FALSE Antibody molecules can act as enzyme to directly destroy an antigen.
FALSE
TRUE OR FALSE Human B lymphocytes mature in an intestinal region called the bursa.
FALSE
TRUE OR FALSE The albumin fraction of serum separated by electrophoresis will contain most of the antibodies.
FALSE
The oral and inactivated polio vaccines are made from plant cell cultures.
FALSE
The tuberculin reaction develops within 30 minutes of the skin test in people with prior sensitization due to tuberculosis infection.
FALSE
Viral meningitis normally requires aggressive antiviral treatment.
FALSE
86. Each _____ fragment of an antibody molecule contains the variable regions of a heavy and light chain that folds into a groove for one antigenic determinant.
Fab
35. All microbicidal agents are sterilants. A) True B) False
False
36. Bacteriostatic agents kill bacterial cells. A) True B) False
False
39. A microorganism that is not motile and has stopped metabolizing could be considered dead. A) True B) False
False
39. When a patient's immune system reacts adversely to a drug, this serious side effect is called a superinfection. A) True B) False
False
40. Most microbial contaminants of food are killed at freezing temperatures. A) True B) False
False
42. Chlorine compounds remain stable and effective in the presence of excess organic matter. A) True B) False
False
45. Drugs that are hepatotoxic cause damage to a patient's kidneys. A) True B) False
False
45. Isopropyl alcohol wiped across a skin site can sterilize it. A) True B) False
False
47. Members of the kingdom Fungi are photosynthetic. True False
False
48. A scientist studying helminths is working with bacteria. True False
False
50. It has been over 25 years since a new infectious disease has emerged in the world. True False
False
52. All microorganisms are parasites. True False
False
53. During a scientific experiment, the control group is used to directly test or measure the consequences of a variable in the study. True False
False
55. Once an organism is assigned to a particular taxonomic hierarchy, it is permanent and cannot be revised. True False
False
57. The names of the three proposed Domains are: Bacteria, Protista, Eukarya. True False
False
A black eschar develops on the hand or arm of a patient with erysipeloid. A) True B) False
False
A person who is Rh negative will have anti-Rh antibodies in their serum from early infancy. True False
False
A specific animal virus has the ability to attach to and enter almost any animal host cell. True or False
False
After binary fission, daughter cells will differ genetically.
False
Algae are classified into Divisions based principally on their type of motility. True or False.
False
Which scientist discovered heat resistant bacterial spores?
Ferdinand Cohn
52. _____ is a control method that removes microorganisms rather than inhibiting or killing them.
Filtration
The primary virulence factor of Neisseria gonorrheae is a. endotoxin. b. exotoxin. c. fimbriae. d. kinase.
Fimbriae
Making new uses for old genomes is called: a. Bioengineering b. Genetic engineering c. Recombinant DNA d. Synthetic biology e. Cloning
Genetic engineering
The various techniques by which scientists manipulate DNA in the lab are called: a. Biotechnology b. Genetic engineering c. Gel electrophoresis d. Gene probes e. Recombinant DNA
Genetic engineering
Candida albicans is a a. bacterium. b. fungus. c. helminth. d. protozoan.
Fungus
Labeled, known, short stretches of DNA used to detect a specific sequence of nucleotides in a mixture are known as: a. Gene probes b. Biotechnolog c. Recombinant DNA d. Genetic engineering e. Gel electrophoresis
Gene probes
When patient tissues are transfected with viruses carrying a needed, normal human gene, the technique is called: a. Cloning b. Antisense therapeutic c. Gene therapy d. None of the choices are correct e. DNA fingerprinting
Gene therapy
A bacteriophage transfers a random fragment of DNA of the previous host to the current host. This is an example of: a. Creation of an Hfr cell b. None of the choices are correct c. Generalized transduction d. Conjugation e. Specialized transduction
Generalized transduction
Transgenic animals are _____ modified organisms. a. None of the choices are correct b. Naturally c. Genetically d. Chemically e. Physically
Genetically
Inflammation of the liver with necrosis of the hepatocytes and swelling due to a mononuclear response is a disease called a. hepatitis. b. jaundice. c. liver cancer. d. mononucleosis. e. none of the choices are correct
Hepatitis
Which of the following viruses can be readily transmitted by contaminated food and water? A. Hepatitis B virus B. Hepatitis A virus C. Hepatitis C virus D. Herpes simplex virus E. Varicella zoster virus
Hepatitis A virus
Which is mismatched? a. hepatitis A virus - nonenveloped, single-stranded RNA enterovirus b. hepatitis B virus - enveloped DNA virus c. hepatitis C virus - RNA virus d. hepatitis D virus - defective RNA virus that coinfects with HAV e. hepatitis E virus - self-limiting RNA virus
Hepatitis D virus - defective RNA virus that co infects with HAV
Which cell can transfer the most DNA? a. F+ cells b. B cells c. R cells d. Hfr cells e. F- cells
Hfr cells
The vaccine for immunity to Haemophilus influenzae serotype b is: A) DTaP B) Pneumovax C) MMR D) Hib E) none of the choices are correct
Hib
The first genetically engineered protein approved for human use was: a. Hemophilia factor VIII b. Human growth hormone c. Human adrenaline d. Human testosterone e. Human Insulin
Human insulin
Two different nucleic acids can _____ by uniting at their complementary sites. a. None of the choices are correct b. Covalently bond c. Hybridize d. Ligate e. Form a peptide bond
Hybridize
Which of the following is not a defense of the genitourinary tract? a. flushing action of urine b. IgA c. IgG d. lysozyme e. mucous secretions
IgG
_____ is the most abundant class of antibodies in serum.
IgG
DNA polymerases used in PCR: a. All of the choices are correct b. Are labeled with fluorescent dyes c. Use an RNA template to make complementary DNA d. Must remain active at very cold temperatures e. Include Taq polymerases and Vent polymerase
Include Taq polymerases and Vent polymerase
Hepatitis B infection a. can be transmitted by the fecal-oral route. b. has an incubation period of 2-7 weeks. c. increases the risk for hepatocellular cancer. d. is responsible for most cases of post-transfusion hepatitis.
Increases the risk for hepatocellular cancer
Pelvic inflammatory disease often leads to a. cervical cancer. b. infertility. c. kidney cancer. d. ovarian cancer. e. uterine cancer.
Infertility
A sequence of bases on a gene that does not code for protein is called a/an: a. Intron b. Exon c. Operator d. Operon e. Promotor
Intron
The secondary stage of syphilis a. has no symptoms. b. is a time when the pathogen enters and multiplies in the blood. c. is when gummas develop in tissues. d. is when the patient is no longer infectious to others. e. occurs within 10 days of the primary stage.
Is a time when the pathogen enters and multiplies in the blood
The lactose repressor: a. Requires lactose for its transcription b. Is transcribed with the structural lac genes c. Is inactivated by binding lactose d. None of the choices are correct e. Is activated by binding lactose
Is inactivated by binding lactose
All of the following are true for HSV-2 (genital herpes) except the virus a. becomes latent in sacral ganglion. b. can infect oral mucosa. c. is only shed from active lesions. d. is reactivated by bacterial infections.
Is only shed from active lesions
Which of the statements about the emergence of HIV/AIDS is incorrect? A. It is likely that HIV/AIDS began as a zoonotic disease, evolving from SIV, the simian immunodeficiency virus. B. HIV spread throughout sub-Saharan Africa via colonization and urbanization. C. It is believed that HIV was spread to the United States from Southeast Asia during the Vietnam War. D. The first cases of AIDS in the United States were seen in 1980.
It is believed that HIV was spread to the United States from Southeast Asia during the Vietnam War.
Which individual successfully traced the source of a cholera outbreak in London to a particular contaminated well? A. Louis Pasteur B. John Snow C. Robert Koch D.Joseph Lister
John Snow
25. The surgeon who advocated using disinfectants on hands and in the air prior to surgery was
Joseph Lister.
_____ are a set of criteria used to identify and link a specific microorganism as the etiologic agent of a new infectious disease.
Koch's Postulates (p.419)
16. Taxonomy does not involve
Koch's postulates.
The predominant microorganism in the female reproductive tract during childbearing years is a. Candida albicans. b. Corynebacterium. c. Escherichia coli. d. Lactobacillus. e. Staphylococcus.
Lactobacillus
Genomic _____ are collections of isolated genes maintained in a cloning host. a. Books b. Digests c. Libraries d. DNA e. Clones
Libraries
48. Vials of microorganisms that undergo the freeze-drying process called _____ will remain preserved and viable for years.
Lyophilization
37. A clinical microbiologist makes serial dilutions of several antimicrobics in broth, then incubates each drug dilution series with a standard amount of a patient's isolated pathogen. What is this microbiologist setting up? A) Kirby-Bauer B) antibiogram C) E-test D) MIC E) therapeutic index (TI)
MIC
29. Which is mismatched: A) sodium hypochlorite - chlorine B) iodophor - iodine C) benzalkonium chloride - quaternary ammonium compound D) Merthiolate - silver E) formalin - formaldehyde
Merthiolate - silver
The study of genomes of a particular community is called: a. Genomology b. Proteomics c. Metabolomics d. Genomics e. Metagenomics
Metagenomics
Of the following choices, which could be used in the treatment of a patient in order to determine their cancer subtype? a. PCR b. DNA fingerprinting c. Microarray analysis d. Oryza sativa
Microarray analysis
If the wild type DNA sequence reads THE CAT ATE THE BIG RAT, what type of mutation would change the sequence to THE CAT ATE THE BAG RAT? a. Insertion b. Missense c. Nonsense d. Deletion e. Silent
Missense
Even after a positive test for a microbial cause, prostatitis is unresponsive to antibiotic therapy. Why? a. induced drug side effects are too great b. it is a viral disease c. mixed biofilms are hard to eliminate with antibiotics d. the infection is sporadic
Mixed biofilms are hard to eliminate with antibiotics
47. _____ heat is more rapidly effective and efficient compared to _____heat.
Moist, Dry
31. Which kingdom does not contain any eukaryotes?
Monera
The common soil mycobacteria that frequently cause systemic infection and death in AIDS patients is: A) Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC) B) Mycobacterium kansasii C) Mycobacterium scrofulaceum D) Mycobacterium fortuitum complex E) Mycobacterium marinum
Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC)
Causes a non-communicable pulmonary infection that resembles tuberculosis: A) Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC) B) Mycobacterium kansasii C) Mycobacterium scrofulaceum D) Mycobacterium fortuitum complex E) Mycobacterium marinum
Mycobacterium kansasii
Swimming pool granuloma is caused by: A) Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC) B) Mycobacterium kansasii C) Mycobacterium scrofulaceum D) Mycobacterium fortuitum complex E) Mycobacterium marinum
Mycobacterium marinum
Which of the following is classified as the causative agent of a discharge disease? a. herpes simplex virus 2 b. Leptospira interrogans c. Neisseria gonorrhoeae d. Schistosoma haematobium e. Treponema pallidum
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Which group is at greatest risk for Group B Streptococcus infection a. neonates. b. pregnant women. c. the elderly. d. 21 year old females. e. 21 year old males.
Neonates
Warts are caused by a. bacteria. b. enveloped DNA viruses. c. enveloped RNA viruses. d. non-enveloped DNA viruses. e. non-enveloped RNA viruses.
Non-enveloped DNA viruses
50. _____ radiation excites atoms to a higher energy state within molecules such as DNA that then leads to the formation of pyrimidine dimers.
Nonionizing
If the wild type DNA sequence reads THE CAT ATE THE BIG RAT, what type of mutation would change the sequence to THE CAT ATE (stop)? a. Silent b. Missense c. Nonsense d. Point e. Deletion
Nonsense
A mutation that changes a normal codon to a stop codon is called a: a. Missense mutation b. Point mutation c. Silent mutation d. nonsense mutation e. back mutation
Nonsense mutation
Discuss 5 specific contributing factors in the occurrence of nosocomial infections, and then discuss 3 actions that can help decrease their rate at health-care facilities.
Nosocomial infections are acquired in a hospital directly or indirectly from fomites, surgical procedures, medical equipment, other patients, medical personnel, visitors, exposure to drug-resistant microorganisms, air and water. Medical asepsis includes practices that lower the microbial load in patients, caregivers, and hospital environment which include proper hand washing, disinfection, sanitization, and patient isolation. Surgical asepsis ensures that all surgical procedures are conducted under sterile condition. Using universal precaution (UPs) and body substance isolation (BSI) techniques. (p. 413-414)
The DNA of microorganisms is made up of subunits called: a. Nucleotides b. mRNA c. Polymerase d. Histones e. Amino acids
Nucleotides
The antiparallel arrangement within DNA molecules refers to: a. A purine always bonding to a pyrimidine b. An original parent DNA strand and one newly synthesized DNA strand comprising a new DNA molecule c. None of the choices are correct d. One helix strand that runs from the 5' to 3' direction and the other strand runs from the 3' to 5' direction e. Each base bonding at the 1' position of the sugar
One helix strand that runs from the 5' to 3' direction and the other strand runs from the 3' to 5' direction
Each nucleotide is composed of: a. Two phosphates, one nitrogenous base, two sugars b. One phosphate, one nitrogenous base, one sugar c. One phosphate, two nitrogenous bases, one sugar d. One phosphate, one nitrogenous base, two sugars e. Two phosphates, one nitrogenous base, one sugar
One phosphate, one nitrogenous base, one sugar
Sequences of DNA that are identical when read from the 5' to 3' direction on one strand and the 3' to 5' direction on the other strand are: a. Restriction endonucleases b. Ligases c. DNA polymerases d. Reverse transcriptase e. Palindromes
Palindromes
Restriction endonucleases recognize and clip at DNA base sequences called: a. Exons b. Palindromes c. Introns d. Codons e. Genes
Palindrones
The gram negative bacillus associated with abscesses from dog and cat bites or scratches is: A) Salmonella typhimurium B) Yersinia enterocolitica C) Pasteurella multocida D) Brucella suis E) Francisella tularensis
Pasteurella multocida
The expression of genetic traits is the: a. Proteotype b. Phenotype c. Proteome d. Genotype e. Genome
Phenotype
DNA fragments can be separated in gel electrophoresis because: a. Phosphate groups have a net negative charge b. None of the choices are correct c. Nitrogenous bases have a net positive charge d. Nitrogenous bases have a net negative charge e. Phosphate groups have a net positive charge
Phosphate groups have a net negative charge
What type of DNA map gives locations and sizes of DNA sections? a. Physical b. Sequence c. Geographical d. Chromosomal e. Linkage
Physical
Amplification of DNA is accomplished by: a. Gene probes b. DNA sequencing c. Southern blot d. Polymerase chain reaction e. Western blot
Polymerase chain reaction
Which is incorrect about hepatitis A infection? a. has flu-like symptoms with discomfort near the liver and darkened urine b. HAVRAX is an inactivated vaccine for prevention c. immune globulin therapy helps decrease the severity d. predisposes a person for liver cancer e. transmitted by the oral-fecal route
Predisposes a person for liver cancer
DNA Polymerase III: a. Proofreads new DNA b. Joins Okasaki fragments c. Synthesizes primer d. Unzips the DNA helix e. Removes primer
Proofreads new DNA
The Western Blot technique detects: a. DNA b. Proteins c. Specific genetic marker sequence on genes d. Recombinant DNA e. RNA
Proteins
Which of the following organisms causes urinary tract infections? a. Gardnerella vaginalis. b. group B Streptococcus. c. Proteus mirabilis. d. Schistosoma haematobium. e. Treponema pallidum.
Proteus mirabilis
20. A scientist discovers a new microbial species. It is a single-celled eucaryote without cell walls. In which kingdom will it likely be classified?
Protista
30. In Whittaker's system, the protozoa and algae are classified in the kingdom
Protista.
Trichomonas vaginalis is a a. bacterium. b. fungus. c. helminth. d. protozoan.
Protozoan
Ch. 1 (The Main Themes of Microbiology): QUIZ QUESTIONS
QUIZ QUESTIONS/STUDY GUIDE
Ch. 1 (The Main Themes of Microbiology): QUIZ QUESTIONS (REDUX)
QUIZ QUESTIONS/STUDY GUIDE
Ch. 2 (The Chemistry of Biology): QUIZ QUESTIONS
QUIZ QUESTIONS/STUDY GUIDE
Ch. 2 (The Chemistry of Biology): QUIZ QUESTIONS (REDUX)
QUIZ QUESTIONS/STUDY GUIDE
The deliberate removal of genetic material from one organism and combining it with the genetic material of another organism is a specific technique called: a. Gene probes b. Recombinant DNA c. Genetic engineering d. Biotechnology e. Gel electrophoresis
Recombinant DNA
The duplication of a cell's DNA is called: a. Translation b. Replication c. Mutation d. Transcription e. Mitosis
Replication
48. _____ are plasmids that contain genes for resistance to a drug.
Resistance Plasmids (R-Plasmids)
EcoRI and HindIII are: a. Palindromes b. DNA polymerases c. Reverse transcriptase d. Ligases e. Restriction endonucleases
Restriction endonucleases
26. Which scientist showed that anthrax was caused by the bacterium, Bacillus anthracis?
Robert Koch
44. Bacteria and fungi are important in bioremediation. These decomposers are also called ___.
Saprobes
The primary phase of wastewater treatment is. A. Removes harmful microorganisms. B. Separates solid from liquid wastes. C. Increases the biological oxygen demand. D. Often uses ultraviolet radiation.
Separates solid from liquid wastes.
What type of DNA map is most detailed? a. Sequence b. Geographical c. Physical d. Linkage e. Chromosomal
Sequence
54. _____ solution was introduced in the late nineteenth century for preventing gonococcal infections in a newborn's eyes after exposure to the mother's infected birth canal.
Silver Nitrate
Your wife is pregnant and has just had a whole set of tests run. Her results came back positive for an infection that would likely be damaging for the newborn, so her doctor wants to give her an antibiotic. What organism is the culprit? a. herpes simplex 2 b. Leptospira c. Streptococcus group B d. Trichomonas
Streptococcus group B
Repressible operons require that _____ bind to the repressor protein before it can bind to the operator. a. The substrate b. The reactant c. A cofactor d. A coenzyme e. The product
The product
The secondary phase of wastewater treatment is largely A. physical. B. biological. C. chemical. D. irradiation.
biological
A viral infection can cause type I diabetes mellitus.
TRUE
A xenograft is graft tissue from a donor of one species transplanted to a recipient of another species.
TRUE
AIDS is a secondary immunodeficiency disease that affects several types of immune cells.
TRUE
During graft rejection, cytotoxic T cells of the recipient recognize and respond to foreign class I MHC receptors on the grafted cells.
TRUE
Food allergies include gastrointestinal symptoms and often hives.
TRUE
In rabies, spasms of muscles for swallowing leads to a fear of water.
TRUE
Some cases of CJD may be caused by a mutation of the PrP gene.
TRUE
Systemic anaphylaxis can quickly result in airway blockage, shock, and death.
TRUE
TRUE OR FALSE A disadvantage of using a live microbe in a vaccine is it can conceivably mutate back to a virulent strain.
TRUE
TRUE OR FALSE Activation of B cells occurs when antigen bonds to B cell surface immunoglobulin receptors.
TRUE
TRUE OR FALSE Alloantigens are the basis for an individual's blood group and MHC profile.
TRUE
TRUE OR FALSE Autoantigens are types of antigens that cause damage to host tissue as a consequence of the immune response.
TRUE
TRUE OR FALSE Gamma globulin can be given as immunotherapy to confer artificial passive immunity.
TRUE
TRUE OR FALSE Scientists are currently developing bananas that synthesize proteins from pathogens, as a delivery system to vaccinate populations that otherwise would not have access to them.
TRUE
TRUE OR FALSE The differences in the classes of immunoglobulins are due primarily to variations in the Fc fragment.
TRUE
True or false Antibody molecules circulate in lymph, blood, and tissue fluids.
TRUE
Up to 50% of persons who survived polio as children will suffer from post-polio syndrome later in life.
TRUE
The development of virulent, toxin-producing bacterial strains due to the presence of a temperate phage can occur in: a. Bacterial conjugation b. Generalized transduction c. Transformation d. All of the choices are correct e. Specialized transduction
Specialized transduction
The fluorescent in situ hybridization (FISH) probes are applied to intact cells and observed microscopically for the presence and location of: a. Specific genetic marker sequence on genes b. RNA c. DNA d. Recombinant DNA e. Proteins
Specific genetic marker sequence on genes
5. Antibiotics are derived from all the following except: A) Penicillium B) Bacillus C) Staphylococcus D) Streptomyces E) Cephalosporium
Staphylococcus
38. Which of the following is the correct way to type the scientific name of this bacterium?
Staphylococcus aureus
Synthesis of an inducible enzyme requires: a. Co repressor and repressor binding to operator b. Substrate bound to promoter c. None of the choices are correct d. Repressor alone bound to operator e. Substrate bound to repressor
Substrate bound to repressor
DNA polymerase III: a. All of the choices are correct b. Cannot add nucleotides to the lagging strand c. Is needed for adding nucleotides during mRNA synthesis d. Synthesizes new DNA only in the 5' to 3' direction e. Synthesizes an RNA primer
Synthesizes new DNA only in the 5' to 3' direction
The primers in PCR are: a. Reverse transcriptases b. Synthetic DNA oligonucleotides c. Bacterial enzymes d. Short RNA strands e. DNA polymerase
Synthetic DNA oligonucleotides
The Tuskegee Study gathered information on a. Chlamydia. b. genital herpes. c. gonorrhea. d. HIV. e. syphilis.
Syphilis
59. The scientific field called _____ is involved in the identification, classification, and naming of organisms.
Taxonomy
The key characteristics of the herpes family of viruses is a. its ability to cause organ death. b. its propensity to destroy bone marrow. c. the ability to stay in host cells without producing symptoms. d. their ability to transform normal cells into cancer cells.
The ability to stay in host cells without producing symptoms
Which of the following is not true of prostatitis? a. accompanied by pain and frequent, difficult urination b. can be chronic or acute c. caused by GI tract biota d. patients may be very ill with the acute form e. the specific agent is easy to determine
The specific agent is easy to determine
Which statement is true regarding the male urethral flora? a. There are no resident flora in the urethra. b. The urethral flora in the male is exactly the same flora as in the female urethra. c. The urethral flora is the same as the anal flora. d. The urethral flora varies with sexual activity of the male.
The urethral flora varies with sexual activity of the male
All of the following pertain to genital warts except a. certain strains strongly predispose a person to cancer of the cervix or penis. b. they are not common in the United States. c. they are sexually transmitted. d. they include large cauliflower-like masses called condylomata acuminate. e. they often occur on the penis, vagina, and cervix.
They are not common in the United States
The jumping of a gene from one location to another is done by: a. Transformation b. Transposons c. Conjugation d. Transduction e. Transmission
Transposons
37. The presence of organic matter such as saliva and pus can interfere with the actions of disinfectants. A) True B) False
True
38. When a control agent targets the metabolic processes of microbial cells, active younger cells typically die more rapidly than older cells. A) True B) False
True
41. Sonication dislodges debris and saliva from instruments but will not reliably achieve disinfection or sterilization. A) True B) False
True
41. Species of Bacillus produce bacitracin and the polymyxins. A) True B) False
True
42. Ciprofloxacin is used to treat viral respiratory infections. A) True B) False
True
43. Analine dyes like crystal violet have antimicrobial activity particularly against gram positive bacteria and some fungi. A) True B) False
True
43. Resistance factor plasmids are transferred to other bacterial cells during transformation, transduction, and conjugation. A) True B) False
True
44. Alcohols are more effective at inactivating enveloped viruses than naked viruses. A) True B) False
True
44. The MIC is the smallest concentration of an antimicrobic required to inhibit the growth of the microbe. A) True B) False
True
45. Members of the same species share many more characteristics compared to those shared by members of the same kingdom. True False
True
49. A method for sterilizing milk, called _____ temperature treatment, uses 134 C for 1 to 2 seconds.
Ultrahigh
DNA helicase: a. Unwinds DNA b. Unwinds RNA c. Winds RNA d. Super coils DNA e. None of the choices are correct
Unwinds DNA
A woman is much more likely than a man to have a UTI. Which activity would lower her chances of getting a UTI? a. do not wear tight fitting clothes b. take daily antibiotics c. using birth control pills d. using toilet paper in a front-to-back direction
Using toilet paper in a front-to-back direction
Which of the following is not a characteristic of the normal biota of the female reproductive tract during childbearing years? a. Candida albicans is present in small amounts b. estrogen causes glycogen release c. lactobacilli convert sugars to acid d. secretory IgA provides protection e. vaginal pH is neutral
Vaginal pH is neutral
Which microorganism has caused seven pandemics since the 1800s? A. E. coli B. Hepatitis A virus C. Vibrio cholera D. Salmonella enteritidis E. Crytosporidium spp.
Vibrio cholera
Using microbes to break down or remove toxic wastes in water and soil is called A. decomposition. B. synergism. C. mineralization. D. bioremediation. E. recycling.
bioremediation
13. Koch's postulates are criteria used to establish that
a specific microbe is the cause of a specific disease.
A secondary acquired immunodeficiency is a. AIDS b. adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency c. DiGeorge syndrome d. agammaglobulinemia e. Type I diabetes
a. AIDS
____ are toxins that are the lipopolysaccharide of the outer membrane of Gramnegative cell walls. a. Endotoxins b. Enterotoxins c. Exotoxins d. Hemolysins e. Leukocidins
a. Endotoxins
Human blood types involve all the following, except a. MHC genes b. ABO antigen markers c. inheritance of two of three possible alleles d. genetically determined glycoprotein markers. e. genes that code for an enzyme that adds a terminal carbohydrate to RBC receptors.
a. MHC genes
Trypanosoma brucei is transmitted by a. Tsetse flies b. Body lice c. Houseflies d. Head lice
a. Tsetse flies
Atophy and anaphylaxis are hypersensitivities in the category a. Type 1 only. b. Type 1 and Type 4. c. Type 4 only d. Type 1, Type 2, Type 3 e. Type 1, Type 2, Type 3, and Type 4.
a. Type 1 only.
Jose needs a kidney due to his diabetes. His sister is a close match and is willing to give him one of hers. What type of transplant is this? a. allograft b. xenograft c. autograft d. heterograft e. None of the choices are correct
a. allograft
All infectious diseases a. are caused by microorganisms or their products. b. are caused by vectors. c. are contagious. d. involve viruses as the pathogen. e. only occur in humans.
a. are caused by microorganisms or their products.
Infections that go unnoticed because there are no symptoms are called a. asymptomatic. b. inflammation. c. malaise. d. secondary infection. e. syndromes.
a. asymptomatic.
A _____ is the presence of small numbers of bacteria in the blood. a. bacteremia b. septicemia c. viremia d. none of the choices are correct
a. bacteremia (p. 407)
Someone who inconspicuously harbors a pathogen and spreads it to others is a a. carrier. b. fomes. c. reservoir. d. source. e. vector.
a. carrier.
Which event is the process of releasing chemical mediators? a. degranulation b. binding of allergen to adjacent IgE binding sites on mast cells and basophils c. binding of IgE by the Fc region to mast cells and basophils d. histamine acts on smooth muscle e. prostaglandins cause vasodilation and increase vascular pereability
a. degranulation
Allergic patients receiving small, controlled injections of specific allergens are undergoing a. desensitization b. sensitization c. tissue matching d. degranulation e. none of the choices are correct
a. desensitization
Histamine causes all the following, except a. increased sensitivity to light b. constriction of smooth muscle of bronchi and the intestine c. relaxes vascular smooth muscle. d. wheal and flare reaction in skin e. pruritis and headache
a. increased sensitivity to light
Erthyoblastosis fetalis can be prevented by a. injecting the mother with antibodies against th Rh factor late in the pregnancy and after giving birth. b. treating the fetus with immune globulin c. birth by cesarean section d. treating the mother with RhoGAM early in the pregnancy e. None of the choices are correct
a. injecting the mother with antibodies against th Rh factor late in the pregnancy and after giving birth.
The initial encounter with an allergen is called the a. sensitizing dose b. provactive dose c. allergic dose d. hypersensitivity dose e. desensitizing dose
a. sensitizing dose
40. When microbes are introduced into the environment to restore stability, the process is called
bioremediation.
Large quantities of antibodies that react to the second entry of antigen and lead to formation of antigen-antibody complexes that deposit in basement membranes occur in a. serum sickness b. delayed hypersensitivity c. anaphylaxis d. hemolytic disease of the newborn e. all of the choices are correct
a. serum sickness
The heart of baboon transplanted to a human would be a a. xenograft b. autograft c. allograft d. heterograft e. homograft
a. xenograft
Backyard composting in either a pile or bin is generally an _____________ process. A. aerobic B. anaerobic
aerobic
19. HEPA filters are used to remove microbes from: A) air B) liquids C) human tissues D) medical instruments E) all of the choices are correct
air
Carbon dioxide (CO2) is A. removed from the atmosphere during photosynthesis. B. a source of carbon. C. returned to the atmosphere during respiration and fermentation. D. used by marine organisms to make limestone for their hard shells. E. All of the choices are correct.
all of the above
Which of the following is NOT a major role of microbes in ecosystems? A. primary producers B. consumers C. decomposers D. cycling agents in biogeochemical cycles E. all of the above are major roles of microbes in ecosystems.
all of the above are major roles of microbes in ecosystems
13. Endospores can be killed by: A) dry heat at 170 C for 2 hours B) incineration C) glutaldehyde for 3 or more hours D) ethylene oxide for 3 or more hours E) all of the choices are correct
all of the choices are correct
18. Which of the following items are typically irradiated in order to kill microbes? A) ground beef and other meat and poultry B) human tissues such as heart valves and skin C) operating room air D) surgical gloves E) all of the choices are correct
all of the choices are correct
28. Alcohols: A) denature proteins when in a 50 - 95% alcohol-water solution B) disinfect items soaked in alcohol C) are skin degerming agents D) at 50% or higher concentrations dissolve cell membrane lipids E) all of the choices are correct
all of the choices are correct
32. The cellular basis for bacterial resistance to antimicrobics include: A) bacterial chromosomal mutations B) synthesis of enzymes that alter drug structure C) prevention of drug entry into the cell D) alteration of drug receptors on cell targets E) all of the choices are correct
all of the choices are correct
6. Important characteristics of antimicrobic drugs include: A) low toxicity for human tissues B) high toxicity against microbial cells C) do not cause serious side effects in humans D) stable and soluble in body tissues and fluids E) all of the choices are correct
all of the choices are correct
A diagnosis of tuberculosis involves: A) chest X-ray B) acid fast stain of sputum C) sputum culture D) tuberculin skin test E) all of the choices are correct
all of the choices are correct
Brucellosis is: A) a zoonosis B) seen in the patient as a fluctuating fever, with headache, muscle pain and weakness C) associated with pathogen in the blood D) an occupational illness of people that work with animals E) all of the choices are correct
all of the choices are correct
Characteristics of chancroid include: A) sexually transmitted B) occurs mostly in the tropics and subtropics C) lesion develops at portal of entry D) buboes develop in inguinal nodes E) all of the choices are correct
all of the choices are correct
Escherichia coli infections: A) are often transmitted by fecal contaminated water and food B) include urinary tract infections from normal flora strains C) involve enterotoxin in traveler's diarrhea D) include neonatal meningitis E) all of the choices are correct
all of the choices are correct
Indictor bacteria are A. coliforms. B. gram-negative rods. C. evidence of fecal contamination. D. used in water quality tests. E. All of the choices are correct.
all of the choices are correct
Preservation of food to limit microbial survival and growth includes A. high temperature and pressure. B. pasteurization. C. refrigeration and freezing. D. irradiation. E. All of the choices are correct.
all of the choices are correct
Pseudomonas aeruginosa is: A) found in soil and water B) an opportunist that produces many diverse enzymes C) highly chemical resistant D) motile E) all of the choices are correct
all of the choices are correct
Salmonella typhi: A) multiplies within phagocytes B) is not a coliform C) can be treated with antimicrobics D) causes invasive infection of the small intestine E) all of the choices are correct
all of the choices are correct
Samonelloses are: A) caused by Salmonella typhi B) associated with undercooked poultry and eggs, and reptile and rodent feces C) gastroenteritis with vomiting and diarrhea D) enteric fevers that often include septicemia E) all of the choices are correct
all of the choices are correct
Treatment and control of anthrax includes: A) use of antimicrobics such as tetracyclines for active cases B) vaccination of livestock C) toxoid for military and those with occupational exposure D) proper disposal of animals that have died from anthrax E) all of the choices are correct
all of the choices are correct
Tuberculin skin testing: A) injects PPD intradermally B) uses a purified protein filtrate of Mycobacterium tuberculosis C) will be positive if person has had previous exposure D) will be positive in active TB E) all of the choices are correct
all of the choices are correct
Which is mismatched: A) H antigen - fimbriae think it true B) K antigen - capsule C) O antigen - cell wall, somatic D) all of the choices are correct E) none of the choices are correct
all of the choices are correct
Which is not correct about Mycobacterium species? A) all species are human pathogens B) cell walls have waxy lipids C) acid fast D) usually have a slow growth rate E) long, slender rods
all species are human pathogens
24. Organisms called parasites are
always harmful to their host.
15. Gram negative rods are often treated with: A) penicillin G B) vancomycin C) aminoglycosides D) synercid E) isoniazid
aminoglycosides
23. The antifungal drug that can be used to treat serious systemic fungal infections is: A) nystatin B) griseofulvin C) amphotericin B D) sulfa drugs E) metronidazole
amphotericin B
Erysipeloid is transmitted by: A) inhalation of spores from hides and wool of animals B) ingestion of improperly cooked hot dogs C) an abrasion on skin coming in contact with infected swine or other animals D) contaminated soil entering deep puncture wounds E) respiratory secretions
an abrasion on skin coming in contact with infected swine or other animals
All of the following are abiotic factors except A. atmospheric gases. B. an animal carcass. C. minerals. D. water. E. light.
an animal carcass
The reservoirs of West Nile virus are __________ and the vectors are __________. A. birds; mosquitoes B. birds; humans C. humans; birds D. mosquitoes; birds
birds; mosquitoes
Characteristics of Bacillus anthracis include all the following except: A) capsule and exotoxins are virulence factors B) anaerobic C) reservoir includes infected grazing animals and contaminated soil D) gram positive bacillus E) sporeformer
anaerobic
The decomposition that occurs in a sanitary landfill is largely _________________. A. aerobic B. anaerobic
anaerobic
Which wastewater treatment process can generate methane which to be used as a fuel? A. primary treatment B.trickling filters C. activated sludge process D. anaerobic digestors
anaerobic digestors
3. Substances that are naturally produced by certain microorganisms that can inhibit or destroy other microorganisms are called: A) antibiotics B) narrow-spectrum drugs C) semisynthetic drugs D) synthetic drugs E) broad-spectrum drugs
antibiotics
The term _____ is given to any foreign matter/protein/substance that stimulates a specific immune system response.
antigen
All of the following pertain to tuberculosis except: A) live bacilli can remain dormant in the lungs and reactivate later in life B) symptoms of active TB include low-grade fever, coughing, fatigue, weight loss and night sweats C) lung infection can disseminate to many other organs in extrapulmonary TB D) the BCG vaccine is used in other countries E) antimicrobics cannot treat and cure tuberculosis
antimicrobics cannot treat and cure tuberculosis
7. The use of chemical agents directly on exposed body surfaces to destroy or inhibit vegetative pathogens is: A) disinfection B) sterilization C) antisepsis D) sanitization E) degermation
antisepsis
25. Which of the following is not used as an antiseptic? A) iodophor B) chlorhexidine C) 3% hydrogen peroxide D) Merthiolate E) aqueous glutaraldehyde
aqueous glutaraldehyde
Monitoring of drinking water and recreational water is done by testing for indicator bacteria. Indicator bacteria A. are bacteria typically found in the mammalian mouth, nose, and throat. B. are bacteria typically found in the mammalian gastrointestinal tract. C. are bacteria known to proliferate in aquatic environments and fish. D. are bacteria known to cause human disease.
are bacteria typically found in the mammalian gastrointestinal tract.
Actinomyces israelii: A) can be transmitted by respiratory droplets B) can cause pneumonia with symptoms similar to tuberculosis C) are filamentous rods that grow in clusters called sulfur granules in infected tissue D) lives in the soil E) causes most cases in the immunocompromised
are filamentous rods that grow in clusters called sulfur granules in infected tissue
Which is not a characteristic of Nocardia: A) can be transmitted by respiratory droplets B) can cause pneumonia with symptoms similar to tuberculosis C) are filamentous rods that grow in clusters called sulfur granules in infected tissue D) lives in the soil E) causes most cases in the immunocompromised
are filamentous rods that grow in clusters called sulfur granules in infected tissue
9. Sulfonamides: A) interfere with elongation of peptidoglycan B) are metabolic analogs of PABA and block folic acid synthesis C) attach to the 30S ribosomal subunit and disrupt protein synthesis D) damage cell membranes E) block peptidases that cross-link glycan molecules
are metabolic analogs of PABA and block folic acid synthesis
19. All of the following pertain to fluoroquinolones except: A) broad spectrum B) include ciprofloxacin and levofloxacin C) are nephrotoxic D) used to treat respiratory, urinary, and sexually transmitted infections E) readily absorbed from intestines
are nephrotoxic
27. There are fewer antifungal, antiprotozoan, and antihelminth drugs compared to antibacterial drugs because fungi, protozoa, and helminths: A) do not cause many human infections B) are not affected by antimicrobics C) are so similar to human cells that drug selective toxicity is difficult D) are parasites found inside human cells E) because their cells have fewer target sites compared to bacteria
are so similar to human cells that drug selective toxicity is difficult
13. All of the following pertain to cephalosporins except: A) have a beta-lactam ring B) greater resistance to beta-lactamases C) newer generations have activity against gram negatives D) many administered by injection not orally E) are synthetic drugs
are synthetic drugs
6. All microorganisms are best defined as organisms that
are too small to be seen with the unaided eye.
The breakdown of man-made compounds by decomposers is called A. mineralization. B. biodegradation. C. decomposition. D. parasitism. E. saprobism.
biodegradation
Enteritis salmonellosis or food poisoning is: MARK ALL THAT APPLY A) not caused by Salmonella typhi B) associated with undercooked poultry and eggs, and reptile and rodent feces C) gastroenteritis with vomiting and diarrhea D) enteric fevers that often include septicemia E) all of the choices are correct
associated with undercooked poultry and eggs, and reptile and rodent feces gastroenteritis with vomiting and diarrhea enteric fevers that often include septicemia
10. Aminoglycosides: A) interfere with elongation of peptidoglycan B) are metabolic analogs of PABA and block folic acid synthesis C) attach to the 30S ribosomal subunit and disrupt protein synthesis D) damage cell membranes E) block peptidases that cross-link glycan molecules
attach to the 30S ribosomal subunit and disrupt protein synthesis
All of the following operate in surveillance and destruction of tumor cells, except a. macrophages b. B cells c. natural killer cells d. cytotoxic T cells
b. B cells
____ carriers are shedding and transmitting pathogen a long time after they have recovered from an infectious disease. a. Asymptomatic b. Chronic c. Convalescent d. Incubation e. Passive
b. Chronic
When grafted tissue such as bone marrow contains passenger lymphocytes, what could result? a. host rejection of graft b. Graft versus host disease c. formation of autoantibodies d. Hypogammaglobulinemia e. None of the choices are correct
b. Graft versus host disease
Chagas' disease is caused by a. Toxoplasma gondii b. Trypanosoma cruzi c. Plasmodium vivax d. Leishmania donovani
b. Trypanosoma cruzi
Which of the following is not an anti-phagocytic factor? a. ability to survive intracellularly b. adhering to the host c. production of leukocidins d. secretion of a capsule e. secretion of slime
b. adhering to the host
What is the Arthus reaction? a. an automimmone disorder. b. an acute response to a second injection of vaccines at the same site. c. a positive tuberculosis skin test d. the lysis of RBC due to complement during an incorrect blood transfusion. e. The name given to skin wheals that occur during an allergy skin test
b. an acute response to a second injection of vaccines at the same site.
Animals that participate in the life cycles of pathogens and transmit pathogens from host to host are a. aerosols. b. biological vectors. c. droplet nuclei. d. fomites. e. mechanical vectors.
b. biological vectors.
What will be the immediate action of allergen when it enters the body for a second time? a. degranulation b. bonding of allergen to adjacent IgE binding sites on mast cells and basophils c. binding of IgE by the Fc region to mast cells and basophils d. histamine acts on smooth muscle e. prostaglandins cause vasodilation and increase vascular pereability
b. bonding of allergen to adjacent IgE binding sites on mast cells and basophils
Opportunistic pathogens a. are always pathogens. b. cause disease in compromised individuals. c. cause disease in every individual. d. have well developed virulence factors. e. none of the choices are correct
b. cause disease in compromised individuals.
Which is mismatched? a. capsules - anti-phagocytic factor b. coagulase - dissolve fibrin clots c. fimbriae - adherence to substrate d. hemolysins - damage red blood cells e. leukocidins - damage white blood cells
b. coagulase - dissolve fibrin clots
A/an _____ is defined as a collection of populations sharing a given habitat a. biosphere b. community c. biome d. ecosystem
b. community
An example of a primary consumer would be a. dog b. cow c. tiger d. mushroom e. none of these
b. cow
The quantity of available nutrients _____ from the lower levels of the energy pyramid to the higher ones a. increases b. decreases c. remains stable d. cycles
b. decreases
The potential of hemolytic disease of the newborn occurs when a. maternal Rh+ cells enter an Rh- fetus b. fetal Rh+ cells enter an Rh- mother c. maternal Rh- cells enter an Rh+ fetus d. fetal Rh- cells enter and Rh+ mother e. fetal Rh+ ce;;s enter and Rh+ mother
b. fetal Rh+ cells enter an Rh- mother
The physical location in the environment to which an organism has adapted is called a. niche b. habitat c. population d. community e. biome
b. habitat
An oligotrophic ecosystem would be most likely to exist in a/an a. ocean b. high mountain lake c. tropical pond d. polluted river
b. high mountain lake
Mold spores and animal dander are considered to be which type of allergen? a. ingestant b. inhalant c. injectant d. Contactant e. none of the choices are correct
b. inhalant
Which of the following is mismatched? a. Ingestant- nuts b. inhalant- bee c. injectant- vaccine d. contactant- rubber e. ingestant- food additive
b. inhalant- bee
A person with O type blood a. lacks antibodies to A and B blood types b. lacks A and B antigens c. Could not have the Rh factor d. is called a universal recipient e. all of the choices are correct
b. lacks A and B antigens
The conversion of gaseous nitrogen (N2) to the ammonium ion (NH4) occurs during a. ammonification b. nitrogen fixation c. photosynthesis d. nitrification
b. nitrogen fixation
Treatment for agammaglobullnemia is a. frequent transfusions of Rh+ blood b. passive immunotherapy and continuous antibiotic therapy c. bone marrow transplant. d. allografts of skin e. continuous immunosuppressive therapy.
b. passive immunotherapy and continuous antibiotic therapy
All of the following are correct about Type O blood, except a. persons with this type of blood are considered universal donors b. persons with this type of blood carry an O antigen on their RBC c. A persons with this type of blood have Anti-A and anti-B antibodies in their plasma d. this is the most blood type among all rracist groups in the U.S.
b. persons with this type of blood carry an O antigen on their RBC
Epinephrine a. is an antihistamine b. reverses constriction of airways c. causes desensitization d. inhibits the activity of lymphoctyes e. all of the choices are correct
b. reverses constriction of airways
34. Which of the following methods determines which genes are actively transcribed in a cell under a variety of conditions? A. DNA fingerprinting B. microarray analysis C. gene mapping D. Western blot E. antisense therapy
b.Microarray analysis
32. Which of the following are the main decomposers of the earth?
bacteria and fungi
11. Which of the following is not a process in the scientific method?
belief in a preconceived idea
The sediment in a lake, composed of organic debris and mud, is termed the A. photic zone. B. benthic zone. C. profundal zone. D. littoral zone. E. limnetic zone.
benthic zone
8. Penicillins and cephalosporins: A) interfere with elongation of peptidoglycan B) are metabolic analogs of PABA and block folic acid synthesis C) attach to the 30S ribosomal subunit and disrupt protein synthesis D) damage cell membranes E) block peptidases that cross-link glycan molecules
block peptidases that cross-link glycan molecules
Which color pigment is produced by Pseudomonas aeruginosa? A) lemon yellow B) red-orange C) golden D) blue-green E) pale orange
blue-green.
28. Which of the following is not a mode of action of antivirals? A) block penetration B) block transcription and translation C) inhibit DNA synthesis D) block maturation E) bond to ergosterol in the cell membrane
bond to ergosterol in the cell membrane
28. When assigning a scientific name to an organism,
both genus and species names are italicized or underlined.
The transmission of which diseases are dependent on maintenance of the mosquito vector? A. malaria B. Lyme disease C. Cholera D. West Nile virus - encephalitis E. both malaria and West Nile virus encephalitis
both malaria and West Nile virus encephalitis
4. Antimicrobics effective against a wide variety of microbial types are termed: A) antibiotics B) narrow-spectrum drugs C) semisynthetic drugs D) synthetic drugs E) broad-spectrum drugs
broad-spectrum drugs
Tuberculoid leprosy: A) causes symmetrical, shallow skin lesions with loss of pain sensation B) is the most disfiguring C) pathogen grows extensively in cooler body areas such as nose, ears, testes D) complications include secondary infections, kidney or respiratory failure E) includes all of these choices
causes symmetrical, shallow skin lesions with loss of pain sensation
A person will typically experience the sensation of _____ when fever is starting to occur in the body.
chills (p. 442)
21. All of the following are phenols or phenolics except: A) Lysol B) hexachlorophene C) triclosan D) cresols E) chloramines
chloramines
21. The drug that can cause aplastic anemic, and is used to treat typhoid fever and brain abscesses is: A) chloramphenicol B) clindamycin C) ciprofloxacin D) bacitracin E) gentamicin
chloramphenicol
27. The compound that is an organic base containing chlorine and two phenolic rings, and is used increasingly for wound degerming, neonatal washs, handscrubbing, and prepping surgical skin sites is: A) carbolic acid B) chlorhexidine C) triclosan D) formalin E) quarternary ammonium compounds
chlorhexidine
The final step of sewage treatment before release into the environment is A. sludge digesting. B. skimming. C. filtration. D. chlorination. E. aeration.
chlorination.
What chemical is used in both water purification and sewage treatment to give long-term disinfection? A. fluorine B. activated charcoal C. copper sulfate D. chlorine E. All of the choices are correct.
chlorine
12. A chemical that inhibits beta-lactamase enzymes is: A) synercid B) penicillinase C) aztreonam D) clavulanic acid E) imipenem
clavulanic acid
22. The drug used against intestinal anaerobic bacteria, that can also alter normal flora causing antibiotic-associated colitis is: A) chloramphenicol B) clindamycin C) ciprofloxacin D) bacitracin E) gentamicin
clindamycin
In the ecological association between organisms known as _________, one organism benefits but the other organism is neither benefited nor harmed. A. mutualism B. commensalism C. parasitism D. synergism
commensalism
The _____ system of blood proteins act to lyse foreign cells and viruses.
complement (p. 446)
The _____ region of a lymph node has germinal centers packed with T and B lymphocytes.
cortex
A person who anti-A and anti-B serum antibodies will have blood type a. A. b. B. c. AB d. O. e. Rh
d. O.
The major categories of hypersensitivities that typically involve a B-cell immunoglobulin response is/are a. Type 1 only. b. Type 1 and Type 4. c. Type 4 only d. Type 1, Type 2, Type 3 e. Type 1, Type 2, Type 3, and Type 4.
d. Type 1, Type 2, Type 3
Which of the following is/are considered a greenhouse gas? a. CO2 b. CH4 c. N2O d. all of these
d. all of these
The serum of a person with blood type A, Rh will have which of the following? a. anti A, anti Rh b. anti B, anti Rh c. anti A d. anti B e. anti A, anti B, anti Rh
d. anti B
A xenograft is a tissue exchange a. between identical twins b. between siblings. c. from one site on the body to another d. between individuals of different species
d. between individuals of different species
Which of the following does not belong with transformed cancer cells? a. oncogenic viruses b. increased rate of growth c. chromosomal alterations d. capacity for limited division e. changed surface molecules
d. capacity for limited division
An infectious agent already existing on or in the body is called a. an enterotoxin. b. an exotoxin. c. axenic. d. endogenous. e. exogenous.
d. endogenous.
This can be a consequence of a genetic deficiency in B cell survival and maturity a. host rejection of graft b. graft versus host disease c. formation of autoantibodies d. hypogammaglobulinemia e. None of the choices are correct
d. hypogammaglobulinemia
Which cells play the greatest role in allergic symptoms? a. T cells b. monocytes c. plasma cells d. mast cells e. eosinophils
d. mast cells
The term infection refers to a. contact with microorganisms. b. contact with pathogens. c. microorganisms colonizing the body. d. pathogens penetrating host defenses. e. none of the choices are correct
d. pathogens penetrating host defenses.
Which elements has/have an inorganic reservoir that exists primarily in sedimentary deposits? a. nitrogen b. phosphorus c. sulfur d. both b and c
d. phosphours and sulfur
The floating assemblage of microbes and animals that drifts on or near the surface of large bodies of water is the _____ community a. abyssal b. benthic c. littoral d. plankton
d. plankton
All of the following cells particpate in immune surveillance, except a. macrophages. b. natural killer cells c. cytotoxic T cells d. plasma cells e. all of the chocies particpate
d. plasma cells
Which of the following does not vary predictably with the depth of the aquatic environment? a. dissolved oxygen b. temperature c. penetration by sunlight d. salinity
d. salinity
The intermediary object or individual from which the infectious agent is actually acquired is termed the a. carrier. b. fomes. c. reservoir. d. source. e. vector.
d. source.
Which is incorrect about DiGeorge syndrome? a. it is a severe deficiency of T cells. b. Sometimes, it is associated with a deletion in chromosome 22. c. common childhood diseases can be fatal in affected children. d. the major therapy is a bone marrow transplant e. symptoms include reduced growth and unusual facial characteristcs
d. the major therapy is a bone marrow transplant
Which of the following is inccorrect about the role of mast cells and basophils in allergies? a. They degranulate when triggered by a specific allergen through the IgE bound to them b. they carry high numbers of cell receptors that bind to IgE antibodies c. They cytoplasmic secretory vesicles contain physiologically active cytokines d. they are found mainly in the lymph nodes e. none of the above is incorrect
d. they are found mainly in the lymph nodes
Autoantibodies cause tissue injury in all the following diseases, except a. rheumatoid arthritis b. myasthenia gravis c. Graves' disease. d. tuberculin reaction e. multiple sclerosis
d. tuberculin reaction
A ____ is an infection indigenous to animals that can, on occasion, be transmitted to humans. a. nosocomial infection b. secondary infection c. sequelae d. zoonosis e. none of the choices are correct
d. zoonosis
2. The microorganisms that recycle nutrients by breaking down dead matter and wastes are called
decomposers.
One of the goals of wastewater treatment is to _____________ the biological oxygen demand (BOD). A. increase B. decrease C. neutralize
decrease
Leukopenia is the _____ in the level of white blood cells in a patient.
decrease (p. 407)
35. A superinfection results from: A) build up of a drug to toxic levels in the patient B) the wrong drug administered to the patient C) an immune system reaction to the drug D) decrease in most normal flora with overgrowth of an unaffected species E) all of the choices are correct
decrease in most normal flora with overgrowth of an unaffected species
8. Scrubbing or immersing the skin in chemicals to reduce the numbers of microbes on the skin is: A) disinfection B) sterilization C) antisepsis D) sanitization E) degermation
degermation
36. Drug susceptibility testing: A) determines the patient's response to various antimicrobics B) determines the pathogen's response to various antimicrobics C) determines if normal flora will be affected by antimicrobics D) determines if the drug is increasing to toxic levels in a patient E) none of the choices are correct
determines the pathogen's response to various antimicrobics
19. A scientist studying the sequence of nucleotides in the rRNA of a bacterial species is working on
determining evolutionary relatedness
34. Side effects that occur in patient tissues while they are on antimicrobic drugs include all the following except: A) development of resistance to the drug B) hepatotoxicity C) nephrotoxicity D) diarrhea E) deafness
development of resistance to the drug
Pseudomonas aeruginosa causes all the following except: A) severe nosocomial infection in burn patients B) skin rashes from contaminated hot tubs and bath sponges C) diarrheal illness D) external ear infection E) serious infection in lung tissue of cystic fibrosis patients
diarrheal illness
Formation of a pseudomembrane in the back of the throat is seen in: A) diphtheria B) listeriosis C) tuberculosis D) erysipeloid E) botulism
diphtheria
Plague includes: A) septicemic form - called black death B) bubonic form - buboes develop C) pneumonic form - sputum highly contagious D) disease control - control of rodent population E) all of the choices are correct
disease control - control of rodent population
6. The use of a physical or chemical process to destroy vegetative pathogens is: A) disinfection B) sterilization C) antisepsis D) sanitization E) degermation
disinfection
12. Dry heat: A) is less efficient than moist heat B) cannot sterilize C) includes tyndallization D) is used in devices called autoclaves E) will sterilize at 121 C for 15 minutes
dry heat at 170 C for 2 hours
What two strategies are used in the United States to ensure potable drinking water? A. filtration and chlorination B. chlorination and gamma radiation C. ultraviolet disinfection and filtration D. pasteurization and chlorination E. filtration and pasteurization
filtration and chlorination
All of the following pertain to Clostridium difficile infection except: A) due to ingestion of contaminated, improperly stored, cooked meats and gravies B) is a colitis that is a superinfection C) often has en endogenous source D) associated with disruption of normal flora due to broad spectrum antimicrobics E) major cause of diarrhea in hospitals
due to ingestion of contaminated, improperly stored, cooked meats and gravies
10. Pasteur used swan-neck flasks in his experiments to prove that
dust in the air was a source of living microorganisms
A female who is Rh+ a. inherited two recessive genes. b. is in the majority of the population with regard to Rh status c. is at risk for a pregnancy resulting in hemolytic disease of the newborn d. can only have the Rh positive baby. e. All of the chocies are correct
e. All of the chocies are correct
Contact dermatitis involves a. a sensitizing and provactive dose b. allergen entering the skin c. T lymphocytes secrete inflammatory cytokines d. itchy papules and blisters e. All of the choices are correct
e. All of the choices are correct
Transfusion of the wrong blood type can cause a. reciepent antibody activating the complement cascade to attack the RBC's b. fever and anemia c. systemic shock and kidney failure. d. massive hemolysis of the donor RBC's e. All of the choices are correct
e. All of the choices are correct
Which of the following can cause secondary acquired immunodeficiencies in T cells and B cells? a. Radiation b. Chemotherapy c. Organic disease d. Infection e. All of the choices are correct
e. All of the choices are correct
All ofo the following are examples of autoimmune diseases, except a. multiple sclerosis b. Graves disease c. Hashimoto thyroiditis d. myasthenia gravis e. Woslptt-Aldrich syndrome
e. Woslptt-Aldrich syndrome
Severe combined immunodeficiencies (SCIDS) are due to a. autoantibodies b. delayed hypersensitivity c. congential absence or immaturity of the thymus gland d. failure of B cell development and maturity e. a genetic defect in the development of both T cells and B cells
e. a genetic defect in the development of both T cells and B cells
Each of the following are inoculation of normal flora to a newborn except a. bottle feeding. b. breast feeding. c. contact with hospital staff. d. the birth process through the birth canal. e. all of the choices are correct
e. all of the choices are correct
Normal flora are found in/on the a. large intestine. b. mouth. c. nasal passages. d. skin. e. all of the choices are correct
e. all of the choices are correct
Normal flora includes each of the following except a. bacteria. b. fungi. c. protozoans. d. viruses. e. all of the choices are correct
e. all of the choices are correct
Bacteria can function in all the following roles in an ecosystem, except as a a. primary producer b. consumer c. decomposer d. parasite e. bacteria can function in all the roles listed
e. bacteria can function in all the roles listed
Which of the following is not a possible symptom of Type I hypersensitivity? a. rhinitis b. rashes c. sneezing d. diarrhea e. contact dermatitis
e. contact dermatitis
An infectious agent that originates from outside the body is called a. an enterotoxin. b. an exotoxin. c. axenic. d. endogenous. e. exogenous.
e. exogenous.
Which is mismatched? a. food allergy- type I hypersensitivity b. Poison Ivy dermatitis- type 4 hypersensitivity c. Serum sickness- type 3 hypersensitivity d. Transfusion reaction- type 2 hypersensitivity e. hay fever- type 4 hypersensitivity
e. hay fever- type 4 hypersensitivity
Which of the following is not a factor that weakens host defenses against infections? a. chemotherapy b. genetic defects in immunity c. old age d. physical and mental stress e. strong, healthy body
e. strong, healthy body
All of the following are associated with IgE- and mast cell-mediated allergy, except a. drug allergy b. eczema c. anaphylaxis d. allergic asthma e. systemic lupus erthematosus
e. systemic lupus erthematosus
Pathogenic microbes that cause disease in healthy people are called a. indigenous biota. b. micropathogens. c. normal flora. d. opportunistic pathogens. e. true pathogens.
e. true pathogens.
An animal, such as an arthropod, that transmits a pathogen from one host to another is a a. carrier. b. fomes. c. reservoir. d. source. e. vector.
e. vector.
All of the following pertain to listeriosis except: A) causes symptoms of fever, diarrhea and sore throat B) causes a serious septicemia and meningitis in the elderly, immunocompromised and infants C) intrauterine infection usually results in fetal death D) adequate pasteurization and thorough cooking of food can improve prevention E) enterotoxin of the organism causes symptoms
enterotoxin of the organism causes symptoms
21. A scientist collects grass clippings to find the source of an outbreak of tularemia is an example of working in the field of
epidemiology.
31. The sterilizing gas used in chemiclaves is: A) ethylene oxide B) iodophor C) glutaraldehyde D) formaldehyde E) chlorine dioxide
ethylene oxide
60. _____ is the area of biology that states that living things undergo gradual structural and functional changes over long periods of time.
evolution
The major virulence factor of Corynebacterium diphtheriae that causes serious systemic effects is: A) capsule B) metachromatic granules C) exotoxin D) endospores E) endotoxin
exotoxin
The primary role of producers is the recycling of nutrients in an ecosystem.
false
27. Select the correct descending taxonomic hierarchy (left to right):
family, genus, species
Characteristics of all the members of the family Enterobacteriaceae include: A) ferment lactose B) are normal flora of human intestines C) produce enterotoxins D) ferment glucose E) all of the choices are correct
ferment glucose
In which step of water purification does water move through sand beds and activated charcoal? A. chlorination B. aeration and settling C. sedimentation D. storage E. filtration
filtration
24. All of the following pertain to hypochlorites except: A) release hypochlorous acid in solution B) cause denaturation of enzymes C) found in iodophors D) used to disinfect dairy, restaurant, and medical equipment E) found in common household bleach
found in iodophors
The most serious type of mutation is a: a. Frame shift mutation b. Point mutation c. Back mutation d. Silent mutation e. All choices are equally serious
frame shift mutation
Which is incorrect about shigellosis? A) outbreaks have occurred in day care centers B) watery diarrhea with bloody, mucoid stools, and abdominal cramps C) frequently involve septicemia D) human carriers cause fecal transmission E) also called bacillary dysentery
frequently involve septicemia
26. Ketoconazole, fluconazole, clotrimazole, and miconazole are broad-spectrum azoles used to treat _____ infections. A) bacterial B) fungal C) protozoan D) helminthic E) virus
fungal
17. Electrons are ejected from atoms in cells when organisms are exposed to: A) dessication B) ultraviolet light C) ethyl alcohol D) hydrogen peroxide E) gamma rays and X rays
gamma rays and X rays
41. Which of the following diseases probably involves microbial infection?
gastric ulcers female infertility coronary artery disease cervical cancer
Each _____ is a specific segment of the DNA with the code for production of one functional product. a. Triplet b. Intron c. Gene d. Operator e. Exon
gene
4. When humans manipulate, the genes of microorganisms the process is called
genetic engineering.
The _____ is all of the genetic material of a cell: a. Genome b. Proteome c. Plasmid d. Prophase e. Chromosome
genome
14. Which antimicrobic does not inhibit cell wall synthesis? A) gentamicin B) vancomycin C) cephalosporins D) penicillins E) clavamox
gentamicin
Neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils are called _____ because they have prominent cytoplasmic granules that, in a stained blood smear, appear with identifying, characteristic colors.
granulocytes (p. 430-432)
Mycobacterium tuberculosis: A) produces several virulence factor enzymes and an exotoxin B) has a cord factor that can prevent destruction by lysosomes and macrophages C) can be transmitted by contaminated raw milk D) has a capsule E) lives in the soil
has a cord factor that can prevent destruction by lysosomes and macrophages
25. Mebendazole, niclosamide, and ivermectin are drugs used to treat _____ infections. A) bacterial B) fungal C) protozoan D) helminthic E) virus
helminthic
31. Acyclovir is used to treat: A) influenza A virus B) HIV C) herpes zoster virus D) respiratory syncytial virus E) hepatitis C virus
herpes zoster virus? *****im guessing on this
The greater the amount of organic matter in wastewater, the _____________ its biological oxygen demand. A. higher B. lower
higher
A nucleosome is a linear chromosome wound around the: a. Nucleolus b. rRNA c. Histone d. mRNA e. Nuclear membrane
histone
7. Which activity is an example of biotechnology?
humans using yeast to make beer and wine
2. Physical agents for controlling microbial growth include all the following except: A) ultraviolet radiation B) boiling water C) HEPA filters D) pasteurization E) hydrogen peroxide
hydrogen peroxide
3. Which of the following microbial forms have the highest resistance to physical and chemical controls? A) naked viruses B) protozoan cysts C) fungal spores D) hydrogen peroxide E) yeast
hydrogen peroxide
32. The chemical agent that produces highly reactive hydroxyl-free radicals and also decomposes to O2 gas is: A) Cidex B) cationic detergents C) hydrogen peroxide D) chlorhexidine E) iodophors
hydrogen peroxide
33. All the following act as surfactants except: A) detergents B) soaps C) quats D) alcohols E) hypochlorites
hypochlorites
8. Which of the following is a unique characteristic of viruses that distinguishes them from the other major groups of microorganisms?
lack cell structure
39. Where are you most likely to find bacteria belonging to the domain Archaea?
in a hot spring
20. Antimicrobics that are macrolides: A) disrupt cell membrane function B) include tetracyclines C) include azithromycin, clarithromcyin, and erythromycin D) are very narrow-spectrum drugs E) are hepatotoxic
include azithromycin, clarithromcyin, and erythromycin
Which of the following is not caused by Haemophilus influenzae? A) bacterial meningitis B) influenza (flu) C) otitis media D) bronchitis E) epiglottitis
influenza (flu)
10. Which is correct regarding the rate of microbial death? A) cells die at increasingly greater rates B) only older cells die in a culture C) involves the permanent termination of an organisms vital processes D) upon contact with the control agent, all cells die at one time E) cells become metabolically inactive but are never killed
involves the permanent termination of an organisms vital processes
30. All of the following are alkylating control agents except: A) ethylene oxide B) iodophor C) glutaraldehyde D) formaldehyde E) chlorine dioxide
iodophor
Process of losing ions is called: A) ionization B) reduction C) ionization D) decomposition E) dissolution
ionization
Yersinia pestis: A) was virulent in the Middle Ages but is no longer virulent B) has humans as an endemic reservoir C) does not respond to antimicrobic drugs D) is usually transmitted by a flea vector E) all of the choices are correct
is usually transmitted by a flea vector
16. This drug is used to treat cases of tuberculosis: A) penicillin G B) vancomycin C) aminoglycosides D) synercid E) isoniazid
isoniazid
23. All of the following pertain to photosynthesis, except
it occurs only in members of the kingdom Plantae.
14. Which of the following is a taxon that contains all the other taxa listed?
kingdom
Which of the following has been chemically modified to make it biodegradable? A. glass B. aluminum foil C. styrofoam D. laundry detergent
laundry detergent
Regarding an energy pyramid or trophic pyramid, the higher trophic levels have: A. more energy and more organisms. B. more energy and fewer organisms. C. less energy and fewer organisms. D. less energy and more organisms. E. None of the choices are correct.
less energy and fewer organisms
12. Spontaneous generation is the belief that
living things arise from nonliving matter.
When monocytes migrate from the blood out to the tissues they are transformed by inflammatory mediators to develop into _____.
macrophages (p. 432)
34. Which of the following diseases is transmitted by mosquitoes?
malaria
The incidence of which disease is most likely to be impacted as a result of increased rainfall? A. malaria B. Lyme disease C. Salmonella gastroenteritis D. hepatitis A
malaria
Which diseases are predicted to increase as a result of global climate change? A. malaria and cholera B. malaria and bacterial meningitis C. bacterial meningitis and cholera D. MRSA infections and bacterial meningitis E. Campylobacter infections and E. coli infections
malaria and cholera
This molecule is synthesized as a copy of a gene on the DNA template strand: a. Primer RNA b. Ribosomal RNA c. Ribozymes d. Messenger RNA e. Transfer RNA
messenger RNA
24. The drug used for several protozoan infections is: A) nystatin B) griseofulvin C) amphotericin B D) sulfa drugs E) metronidazole
metronidazole
61. Living things ordinarily too small to be seen with the unaided eye are termed _____.
microorganisms
Which of the following is not a type of bacterial DNA recombination? a. Transformation b. Transduction c. Mitosis d. Conjugation
mitosis
The total number of deaths in a population due to a disease is the _____ rate.
mortality (p. 416)
5. Which of the following is not considered a microorganism?
mosquito
Salmonella are: A) coliforms B) motile C) gram positive rods D) lactose fermenters E) all of the choices are correct
motile
The overall role that a species serves in a community is its A. niche. B. habitat. C. population. D. community. E. biome.
niche
All of the following pertain to infant botulism except: A) symptoms include "floppy baby" appearance B) neurotoxin is not involved in the disease process C) ingested spores can germinate in the higher pH and immature state of the infant's intestines D) symptoms include flaccid paralysis and respiratory complications E) only seen in young infants
neurotoxin is not involved in the disease process
Shigella species have the following characteristics except: A) not motile B) reservoir is human carriers C) belong to Enterobacteriaceae D) infect the small intestine E) produce enterotoxin
not motile
E. coli 0157:H7 characteristics include all the following except: A) only causes occupational illness in people who work with animals B) transmitted by ingestion of contaminated, undercooked food, especially hamburger C) causes a bloody diarrhea D) reservoir is cattle intestines E) some cases go on to hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS) with possible kidney failure
only causes occupational illness in people who work with animals
Botulin, the toxin of botulism is: A) not as virulent as tetanospasmin B) detected and diagnosed by analyzing a patient's blood C) the cause of rigid paralysis D) only produced under anaerobic conditions E) produced when spores germinate in the intestines of adults after ingesting contaminated food
only produced under anaerobic conditions
22. Helminths are
parasitic worms.
Which is mismatched? A. parasitism - one organism benefits and the other receives no benefit B. competition - one organism gives off substances that inhibit or kill other organisms C. predator - seeks out and ingests live prey D. scavengers - feed on live to dead cells and wastes E. omnivores - feed on plants and flesh
parasitism - one organism benefits and the other receives no benefit
16. Disinfection of beverages such as apple juice, milk, and wine, is optimally achieved by: A) pasteurization B) chlorination C) moist heat autoclave D) filtration E) boiling water
pasteurization
1. Disease-causing microorganisms are called
pathogens.
The energy of photons is converted into chemical energy during A. ammonification. B. nitrogen fixation. C. photosynthesis. D. nitrification. E. denitrification.
photosynthesis
18. The study of evolutionary relationships among organisms is called
phylogeny.
The primary phase of wastewater treatment is largely. A. physical. B. biological. C. chemical. D. irradiation.
physical
Which of the following pertains to diphtheria? A) results in meningitis B) symptoms include vomiting and diarrhea C) can be transmitted from mother's birthcanal to neonate D) prevented by the DTaP immunization E) all of the choices are correct
prevented by the DTaP immunization
33. The multidrug resistant pumps in many bacterial cell membranes cause: A) bacterial chromosomal mutations B) synthesis of enzymes that alter drug structure C) prevention of drug entry into the cell D) alteration of drug receptors on cell targets E) all of the choices are correct
prevention of drug entry into the cell
Which is incorrect about Yersinia pestis? A) exhibit bipolar staining B) gram negative rod C) produces coagulase D) has a capsule E) produces enterotoxin
produces enterotoxin
3. The microorganisms that do not have a nucleus in their cells are called
prokaryotes.
RNA polymerase binds to the: a. Termination sequence b. Regulation sequence c. Promoter sequence d. Start codon e. None of the choices are correct
promoter sequence
All coliforms are: A) enteric pathogens B) rapid lactose fermenters C) oxidase positive D) fastidious E) strains of E. coli
rapid lactose fermenters
Which term would be used to describe a compound totally resistant to microbial attack? A. inert B. recalcitrant C. antibacterial D. bioaccumulative
recalcitrant
Chagas disease involves transmission of the pathogen by the A. reduviid, "kissing," bug. B. tsetse fly. C. Anopheles mosquito. D. phlebotomine (sand) fly. E. hard-bodied tick.
reduviid, "kissing," bug.
The site where the old DNA strands separate and new DNA strands will be synthesized is called the: a. Template b. Primer c. Replication fork d. Rolling circle e. Okazaki fragments
replication fork
5. The process of using a cleansing technique to mechanically remove and reduce microorganisms and debris to safe levels is: A) disinfection B) sterilization C) antisepsis D) sanitization E) degermation
sanitization
Which of the following is least likely to transmit cholera? A. human fecal contamination of drinking water supplies B. run-off from large dairy and beef farms into water sources C. human fecal contamination of water used to irrigate fruits and vegetable crops D. human fecal contamination in water from which shellfish are harvested
run-off from large dairy and beef farms into water sources
Potable water is A. contaminated. B. polluted. C. safe to drink. D. foul testing. E. None of the choices are correct.
safe to drink
63. A scientist that constructs a hypothesis and then tests its validity by outlining predicted events of the hypothesis followed by experiments to test for those events is using the _____ approach.
scientific method
Use of a trickling filter that sprays wastewater over rocks coated with bioflms which aerobically degrade organic matter is an example of. A. primary phase of wastewater treatment. B. secondary phase of wastewater treatment. C. tertiary phase of wastewater treatment.
secondary phase of wastewater treatment
Which is the first step in water purification? A. chlorination B. aeration and settling C. sedimentation D. storage E. filtration
sedimentation
Primary sewage treatment includes A.sludge digesting. B. skimming. C. filtration. D. chlorination. E. aeration.
skimming
17. The smallest and most significant taxon is
species.
All of the following pertain to Listeria monocytogenes except: A) gram positive B) sporeformer C) contaminant of dairy products, meats, poultry D) causes foodborne listeriosis E) cold enrichment improves recovery in the lab
sporeformer
34. Ethylene oxide is: A) sporicidal B) only effective with high heat C) the active agent in household bleach D) used as an antiseptic against anaerobes E) a halogen
sporicidal
9. Which of the following types of control agents would be used to achieve sterility? A) virucide B) bactericide C) germicide D) sporicide E) fungicide
sporicide
Typhoid fever has the following characteristics except: A) spread by ingestion of food contaminated with animal feces B) transmitted by ingesting fecal contaminated food and water C) chronic carriers have pathogen in their gallbladder D) infect the small intestine with fever, diarrhea, and abdominal pain E) becomes a septicemia, spreads to lymph nodes and spleen, and causes liver abscesses
spread by ingestion of food contaminated with animal feces
11. Sterilization is achieved by: A) flash pasteurization B) hot water C) boiling water D) steam autoclave E) all of the choices are correct
steam autoclave
4. The process that destroys or removes all microorganisms and microbial forms including bacterial endospores is: A) disinfection B) sterilization C) antisepsis D) sanitization E) degermation
sterilization
Which trophic level forms the base of a food chain? A. primary consumers B. quarternary consumers C. secondary consumers D. primary producers E. tertiary consumers
tertiary consumers
The activated sludge step in wastewater treatment is an example of the A. primary phase of wastewater treatment. B. secondary phase of wastewater treatment. C. tertiary phase of wastewater treatment.
tertiary phase of wastewater treatment
Agricultural water run-off, rich in nitrates, ammonia, and phosphates, may be treated to remove these chemicals so that the treated water does not support algal blooms. Such treatment is an example of A. primary treatment. B. secondary treatment. C. tertiary treatment.
tertiary treament
36. All of the following contribute to the rise of emerging diseases, except
the decrease in drug resistant bacteria.
38. A ratio of the dose of the drug that is toxic to humans versus the minimum effective dose for that pathogen is assessed to predict the potential for toxic drug reactions. This is called the: A) Kirby-Bauer B) antibiogram C) E-test D) MIC E) therapeutic index (TI)
therapeutic index (TI)
15. The shortest time required to kill all the microbes in a sample at a specified temperature is called the: A) thermal death point (TDP) B) thermal death time (TDT) C) sporicidal time D) death phase point E) none of the choices are correct
thermal death time (TDT)
35. All of the following are correct about prokaryotes, except
they have organelles.
20. Which of the following is not a heavy metal? A) tincture of iodine B) Merthiolate C) silver nitrate solutions D) zinc E) Mercurochrome
tincture of iodine
All of the following are associated with bubonic plague except: A) transmitted by human feces B) caused by Yersinia pestis C) patient often has enlarged inguinal lymph nodes D) patient has fever, headache, nausea, weakness E) can progress to a septicemia
transmitted by human feces
17. Which antimicrobic does not interfere with protein synthesis? A) aminoglycosides B) tetracyclines C) erythromycin D) trimethroprim E) chloramphenicol
trimethroprim
46. The Kirby-Bauer test uses an agar surface, seeded with the test bacterium, to which small discs containing a specific concentration of several drugs are placed on the surface. A) True B) False
true
The combustion of fossil fuels, such as coal, oil, and gas, have contributed to the steady increase in atmosphere CO2 gas over the last 25 years
true
The main decomposers are the fungi and bacteria.
true
47. An antimicrobic with a low therapeutic index is a safer choice compared to a drug with a high therapeutic index. A) True? B) False
true?
Rabbits and rodents are the reservoirs of the causative agent of: A) tularemia B) pertussis C) Legionellosis D) brucellosis E) shigellosis
tularemia
23. Which control method would not be a suitable choice for killing mycobacteria in a capped culture tube? A) ultraviolet (germicidal) light B) gamma rays C) 121 C at 15 psi for 15 minutes D) 160 C for 2 hours E) all of the choices are correct
ultraviolet (germicidal) light
1. Microbiological contaminants are best described as: A) unwanted microbes present on or in a substance B) any and all microbes present on or in a substance C) pathogenic microbes present on or in a substance D) vegetative microbes present on or in a substance E) none of the choices are correct
unwanted microbes present on or in a substance
2. Salvarsan was: A) discovered in the mid-1900's B) used to treat syphillis C) formulated from the red dye prontosil D) first discovered as a product of Penicillium notatum E) discovered by Robert Koch
used to treat syphillis
The reduction in the number of human deaths due to rabies in the United States is attributed to A. routine vaccination of humans for rabies. B. decreased incidence of rabies in the wild animal population. C. vaccination of dogs. D. effective antiviral treatment of individuals exposed to rabies.
vaccination of dogs
22. The easiest microbial forms to kill or inhibit are: A) naked viruses B) vegetative bacteria and fungi C) endospores D) protozoan cysts E) mycobacteria and staphylococci
vegetative bacteria and fungi
62. _____ are the group of microorganisms composed only of hereditary material wrapped in a protein covering.
viruses
Which term is used to describe a novel, chemically synthesized compound that does not occur naturally? A. antibiotic B. probiotic C. autobiotic D. xenobiotic E. pseudobiotic
xenobiotic
A _____ is an infection indigenous to animals that can, on occasion, be transmitted to humans.
zoonosis (p.409)
An infectious disease typically seen among animals that may be acquired by humans is referred to as A. zoophilic. B. zoonotic. C. nosocomial. D. agronotic.
zoonotic