CompTIA A+ Exam 220-901 Practice Test Part 4

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A Microsoft-proprietary protocol providing a user with a graphical interface for connecting to another computer over a network is known as: A. RDP B. IPP C. RIP D. WAP

A

A portion of the available Radio Frequency (RF) band allocated for wireless communication is known as: A. Scope B. Channel C. Service set D. Layer

B

Which of the following answers lists a CIDR notation for 255.255.128.0 subnet mask? A. /16 B. /17 C. /18 D. /19

B

Which of the following wireless encryption schemes offers the highest level of protection? A. WEP B. WPA2 C. WAP D. WPA

B

Port number 23 is assigned to: A. Secure Shell (SSH) B. File Transfer Protocol (FTP) C. Telnet D. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP)

C

The File Transfer Protocol (FTP) Control Connection for administering a session is established through port number: A. 20 B. 22 C. 21 D. 25

C

The File Transfer Protocol (FTP) Data Connection for sending file data is established through port number: A. 23 B. 25 C. 20 D. 21

C

Which of the following Internet access types takes advantage of the traditional PSTN lines? A. Fiber-optic B. Mobile broadband C. Dial-up D. WiMAX

C

Which of the following enables broadband Internet access based on the cable television infrastructure? A. SONET B. GBIC C. DOCSIS D. SCADA

C

Which of the following actions can be taken by an IDS? (Select 2 answers) A. Firewall reconfiguration B. Closing down connection C. Logging D. Terminating process E. Sending an alert

C, E

Which of the following port numbers are reserved for NetBIOS services? (Select all that apply) A. 136 B. 161 C. 137 D. 162 E. 138 F. 139

C, E, F

The Internet is an example of a large public WAN. T or F

True

The term "Airplane mode" refers to a functionality that allows to disable wireless transmission capability on a device that comes equipped with this feature. T or F

True

A router configuration feature that allows for opening an inbound port temporarily based on the outbound requests made by hosts placed inside a private network is called: A. Port triggering B. Port bonding C. Port forwarding D. Port mirroring

A

A type of limited-range computer network used for data transmission among various types of personal devices centered around a single workstation is called: A. PAN B. LAN C. SAN D. MAN

A

A type of limited-range computer network used for data transmission among various types of personal devices centered around a single workstation is known as: A. PAN B. LAN C. SAN D. MAN

A

A wireless network Access Point (AP) or site offering public wireless Internet access is commonly referred to as: A. Hotspot B. Proxy C. Hub D. Gateway

A

Port number 80 is used by: A. Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) B. Hypertext Transfer Protocol over TLS/SSL (HTTPS) C. Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP) D. Telnet

A

Post Office Protocol v3 (POP3) runs on port: A. 110 B. 143 C. 123 D. 443

A

The use of cable modems within a standard cable television infrastructure for Internet access is commonly referred to as: A. Broadband cable B. Frame relay C. Metro-Ethernet D. Dial-up

A

What is the binary representation of 255.255.128.0 subnet mask? A. 11111111.11111111.10000000.00000000 B. 11111111.11111111.11000000.00000000 C. 11111111.11111111.11100000.00000000 D. 11111111.11111111.11110000.00000000

A

What is the function of a SMTP server? A. Email handling B. Serving of web pages C. Name resolution D. File storage & sharing

A

Which of the Internet connection types listed below types is the slowest? A. Dial-up B. Cable C. Satellite D. DSL E. Fiber

A

Which of the answers listed below refers to a CIDR notation for 255.255.224.0 subnet mask? A. /19 B. /20 C. /21 D. /22

A

Which of the solutions listed below was designed to alleviate cellular network coverage problems? A. Wi-Fi Calling B. Voice over IP (VoIP) C. Route aggregation D. Quality of Service (QoS)

A

Which of the answers listed below refer(s) to the characteristic feature(s) of the IEEE 802.11a wireless standard amendment? (Select all that apply) A. Maximum data signaling rate of 54 Mbps B. 5.0 GHz frequency band C. Carrier Sense Multiple Access / Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA) network access method D. 2.4 GHz frequency band E. Maximum data signaling rate of 11 Mbps F. Carrier Sense Multiple Access / Collision G. Detection (CSMA/CD) network access method

A, B, C

Information required for manual configuration of network adapter settings in MS Windows includes: (Select all that apply) A. IP address B. Subnet mask C. Default gateway D. MAC address E. DNS server address F. SSID (aka network name)

A, B, C, E

Examples of technologies that are not recommended and should be disabled due to their known vulnerabilities or other security risks they might pose include: (Select 3 answers) A. WPS B. WAP C. UPnP D. WEP E. TKIP

A, C, D

The characteristic features of the IEEE 802.11n wireless standard amendment include: (Select all that apply) A. Multiple Input / Multiple Output (MIMO) B. Maximum data signaling rate of 54 Mbps C. 2.4 GHz frequency band D. Carrier Sense Multiple Access / Collision Detection (CSMA/CD) network access method E. 5.0 GHz frequency band F. Multi-User Multiple Input / Multiple Output (MU-MIMO) G. Maximum data signaling rate of 600 Mbps H. Carrier Sense Multiple Access / Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA) network access method

A, C, E, G, H

Which of the marketplaces listed below offer(s) apps for Android-based devices? (Select all that apply) A. App Store B. Google Play C. Windows Marketplace for Mobile D. Amazon Appstore

A, D

A network connecting computers within a small geographical area such as a building or group of buildings is commonly referred to as a: A. PAN B. LAN C. MAN D. WAN

B

A package file format used by Android OS for distribution and installation of mobile apps is called: A. XAP B. APK C. IPA D. EXE

B

A security protocol introduced in order to strengthen existing WEP implementations without requiring the replacement of legacy hardware is known as: A. PEAP B. TKIP C. CCMP D. WPA2

B

A situation in which multiple channels share the frequency band causing interference and performance degradation for devices operating on channels that are too close to each other is known as: A. Cross-talk B. Channel overlapping C. Collision D. Channel bonding

B

A type of architecture that simplifies networking by allowing devices to dynamically join a network, autoconfigure, and learn about the presence and capabilities of other devices is known as: A. DHCP B. UPnP C. S.M.A.R.T D. UEFI

B

A type of mobile user interface presenting the main view of the device with a group of shortcut icons to apps is known as: A. Title screen B. Launcher C. Virtual assistant D. Desktop

B

AES-based encryption mode is a characteristic feature of: A. WEP B. WPA2 C. PAP D. WPA

B

Mobile apps for iOS are available for purchase and download through which of the following online marketplaces? A. Amazon Appstore B. App Store C. Windows Marketplace for Mobile D. Google Play

B

Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) operates with the use of port: A. 110 B. 25 C. 143 D. 23

B

What is the function of POP3? A. Sending email messages B. Retrieving email messages from a mail server C. Translating domain names into IP addresses D. File exchange

B

What is the most common type of a DSL Internet access? A. VDSL B. ADSL C. SDSL D. UDSL

B

What is the port number for Service Location Protocol (SLP)? A. 143 B. 427 C. 548 D. 443

B

Which of the answers listed below refers to a technology that enables carrying out mobile payment transactions with the use of the physical phone device? A. WAP B. NFC C. IR D. RFC

B

Which of the answers listed below refers to zero-configuration networking? A. WAP B. UPnP C. TKIP D. PnP

B

Which of the following answers refers to a cryptographic network protocol for secure data communication, remote command-line login, remote command execution, and other secure network services between two networked computers? A. Telnet B. SSH C. Bcrypt D. TFTP

B

Which of the following technologies simplifies configuration of new wireless networks by providing non-technical users with a capability to easily configure network security settings and add new devices to an existing network? A. WPA B. WPS C. UPnP D. WAP

B

Which of the following would be in use when a WINS server tries to resolve a host name into an IP address on a Windows-based LAN? A. TCP/IP B. NetBIOS C. Telnet D. DNS

B

Which of the port numbers listed below is used by Hypertext Transfer Protocol over TLS/SSL (HTTPS)? A. 80 B. 443 C. 53 D. 143

B

Port 445 is used by: (Select 2 answers) A. Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) B. Server Message Block (SMB) C. Common Internet File System (CIFS) D. Hypertext Transfer Protocol over TLS/SSL (HTTPS) E. Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP)

B, C

Which of the following statements describe(s) the characteristic features of open-source applications? (Select all that apply) A. Proprietary software B. Permission to modify and redistribute the application C. Free access to the application code D. Permission to use the application only under certain conditions E. Lack of free access to the application code

B, C

What are the characteristics of the IEEE 802.11g wireless standard amendment? (Select all that apply) A. Carrier Sense Multiple Access / Collision Detection (CSMA/CD) network access method B. Maximum data signaling rate of 54 Mbps C. Carrier Sense Multiple Access / Collision D. Avoidance (CSMA/CA) network access method E. 2.4 GHz frequency range F. Maximum data signaling rate of 11 Mbps G. 5.0 GHz frequency range

B, C, D

Which of the following answers refer(s) to file sharing network protocol(s)? (Select all that apply) A. RIP B. FTP C. NNTP D. AFP E. SNMP

B, D

A secure version of the HTTP protocol offering traffic encryption is known as: (Select all that apply) A. HSPA B. HTTP over SSL C. HSRP D. HTTP over TLS E. HTTPS

B, D, E

What are the characteristic features of satellite Internet connections? (Select all that apply) A. Lack of signal interference B. Signal latency C. High connection speed D. Interference (weather dependent) E. Relatively low connection speed F. High connection speed

B, D, E

Which of the following answers refers(s) to the feature(s) of the IEEE 802.11ac wireless standard amendment? (Select all that apply) A. Data signaling rate of up to 600 Mbps B. 5.0 GHz frequency band C. Carrier Sense Multiple Access / Collision Detection (CSMA/CD) network access method D. Carrier Sense Multiple Access / Collision E. Avoidance (CSMA/CA) network access method F. Multi-User Multiple Input / Multiple Output (MU-MIMO) G. 2.4 GHz frequency band

B, D, E

Examples of secure network protocols offering traffic encryption include: (Select 3 answers) A. FTP B. HTTPS C. Telnet D. HTTP E. IPsec F. SSH

B, E, F

A computer network connecting multiple LANs over an area of a city or campus is called: A. PAN B. LAN C. MAN D. WAN

C

A network technician uses a Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) client on their Windows OS in order to remotely troubleshoot a problem on another Windows machine. Which of the following ports needs to be opened for the built-in Windows RDP server to allow this type of network connection? A. 1701 B. 139 C. 3389 D. 548

C

A procedure of identifying someone's physical location by obtaining GPS data from their mobile device or other GPS-enabled devices is known as: A. Geotagging B. Wireless survey C. Geotracking D. Tethering

C

A protocol used in network management systems for monitoring network-attached devices is known as: A. SMTP B. ICMP C. SNMP D. IPsec

C

A server with private IP address has been set up to handle requests from an outside (public) network. Which of the solutions listed below would enable its function? A. Port triggering B. Port bonding C. Port forwarding D. Port mirroring

C

A solution that alleviates the problem of depleting IPv4 address space by allowing multiple hosts on the same private LAN to share a single public IP address is known as: A. DNS B. APIPA C. NAT D. DHCP

C

IMAP4 is used for: A. Serving web pages B. Translating domain names into IP addresses C. Retrieving email messages from a mail server D. Sending email messages

C

LDAP is an example of: A. Authentication protocol B. Address resolution protocol C. Directory access protocol D. File exchange protocol

C

Modern mobile devices have the capability to present landscape or portrait views of the device's screen based on the way the device is being held. Which of the following built-in functionalities allows for determining screen orientation in those devices? A. Hypervisor B. Geotracking C. Accelerometer D. Gyroscope

C

Port 143 is assigned to: A. Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) B. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) C. Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP) D. Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP

C

Which of the following built-in functionalities available in modern mobile devices supplements the function of an accelerometer by offering more accurate recognition of movement within a 3D space? A. Direct3D B. Multitouch C. Gyroscope D. Hypervisor

C

Which of the following port numbers is used by Domain Name System (DNS)? A. 25 B. 23 C. 53 D. 67

C

Which of the following solutions allows for simultaneous digital transmission of voice, video, data, and other network services over a PSTN? A. WiMAX B. PoE C. ISDN D. HSPA+

C

Which of the following solutions is used to hide the internal IP addresses by modifying IP address information in IP packet headers while in transit across a traffic routing device? A. NAC B. ACL C. NAT D. DMZ

C

Which of the following terms refers a mobile device's capability to share its Internet connection with other devices? A. Pairing B. Clustering C. Tethering D. Bonding

C

Which of the server types listed below is used for the purpose of verification of the identity of a person or process? A. Proxy server B. DNS server C. Authentication server D. Web server

C

A computer network connecting multiple smaller networks over very large geographical areas is known as: A. PAN B. LAN C. MAN D. WAN

D

A lightly protected subnet consisting of publicly available servers placed on the outside of the company's firewall is commonly referred to as: A. VPN B. Bridge C. VLAN D. DMZ

D

A network protocol providing an alternative solution to the manual assignment of IP addresses is called: A. DNS B. SNMP C. NAT D. DHCP

D

A software embedded into a hardware chip is commonly referred to as: A. Adware B. Shareware C. Malware D. Firmware

D

The Secure Shell (SSH) protocol uses: A. Port 23 B. Port 25 C. Port 21 D. Port 22

D

The process of establishing connection between Bluetooth devices (for example between a Bluetooth enabled headset and a Bluetooth enabled phone) is commonly referred to as: A. Linking B. Three-way handshake C. Crosstalk D. Pairing

D

Which of the answers listed below illustrates the difference between passive and active security breach response? A. HIPS vs. NIPS B. UTM vs. Firewall C. CSMA/CD vs. CSMA/CA D. IDS vs. IPS

D

Which of the following acronyms refers to a set of tools used for developing applications for a specific platform? A. GUI B. SDLC C. API D. SDK

D

Which of the following solutions allows network administrators to prioritize certain types of network traffic? A. NAC B. UAC C. NAT D. QoS

D

Which of the port numbers listed below is used by an Apple-proprietary file sharing protocol? A. 427 B. 443 C. 445 D. 548

D

Which of the protocols listed below is used for automated discovery of networked services on Local Area Networks (LANs)? A, SMB B.. AFP C. CIFS D. SLP

D

Which of the protocols listed below was designed as a secure replacement for Telnet? A. CHAP B. FTP C. SNMP D. SSH

D

Which of the wireless security standards listed below has been deprecated in favor of newer standards due to known vulnerabilities resulting from implementation flaws? A. AES B. WPA2 C. PEAP D. WEP E. CCMP

D

Which of the following answers list(s) the feature(s) of the IEEE 802.11b wireless standard amendment? (Select all that apply) A. Maximum data signaling rate of 54 Mbps B. 5.0 GHz frequency range C. Carrier Sense Multiple Access / Collision Detection (CSMA/CD) network access method D. 2.4 GHz frequency range E. Maximum data signaling rate of 11 Mbps F. Carrier Sense Multiple Access / Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA) network access method

D, E, F

Which of the following is an example of a valid subnet mask? A. 255.255.225.0 B. 255.255.191.0 C. 255.255.127.0 D. 255.255.64.0 E. None of the above is a valid subnet mask

E

Capacitive touchscreen displays are composed of two flexible sheets coated with a resistive material and separated by an air gap or microdots. Pressure applied to the surface of the display by a finger or stylus causes the layers to touch, which completes electrical circuits and tells the device where the user is touching. As such, capacitive touchscreens require much more pressure to activate than resistive touchscreens as well as periodic screen calibration in order to be able to register the exact touch location. T or F

False

Dynamic Network Address Translation (DNAT) provides a permanent mapping between a private IP address and a public IP address on a one-to-one basis. T or F

False

Resistive touchscreen displays rely on the electrical properties of the human body to detect when and where on a display the user is touching. Because of this, resistive displays can be controlled with very light touches of a finger and generally cannot be used with a mechanical stylus or a gloved hand. Another characteristic feature of resistive touchscreens is that they do not require screen calibration. T or F

False

Static Network Address Translation (SNAT) provides a mapping between private IP address and any of the IP addresses belonging to the available public IP address pool. T or F

False

Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) is an example of a connectionless protocol. TCP doesn't support three-way handshake (thus it is also referred to as unreliable or best-effort protocol). T or F

False

User Datagram Protocol (UDP) is a connection-oriented protocol that requires a set of initial steps in order to establish connection (three-way handshake), supports retransmission of lost packets, flow control (managing the amount of data that is being sent), and sequencing (rearranging packets that arrived out of order). T or F

False

Windows Phone, iOS, and Android are all examples of closed-source operating systems. T or F

False

A common example of channel overlapping in wireless networking would be the 2.4 GHz band used in 802.11, 802.11b, 802.11g, and 802.11n networks, where the 2.401 - 2.473 GHz frequency range is used for allocating 11 channels, each taking up a 22-MHz portion of the available spectrum. Setting up a wireless network to operate on a non-overlapping channel (1, 6, and 11 in this case) allows multiple networks to coexist in the same area without causing interference. T or F

True

Server Message Block (SMB) and Common Internet File System (CIFS) are examples of network protocols used for providing shared access to files, directories, and devices. T or F

True

The function of the NetBT protocol is to allow NetBIOS services to be used over TCP/IP networks. T or F

True

The term "Intrusion Detection System" (IDS) refers to a device or software application designed to detect malicious activities and violations of security policies on a network and/or computer host. An IDS designed to monitor networks is known as Network Intrusion Detection System (NIDS), an IDS installed on a particular host monitoring only that host is called Host Intrusion Detection System (HIDS). IDSs do not take any active steps to prevent or stop the intrusion relying only on passive response which may include sending an alert to a management console or saving information about the event in logs. T or F

True

The term "Unified Threat Management" (UTM) refers to a network security solution (commonly in the form of a dedicated device called UTM appliance) which combines the functionality of a firewall with additional safeguards such as for example URL filtering, spam filtering, gateway antivirus protection, intrusion detection or prevention, content inspection, or malware inspection. T or F

True

Which of the following choices refers to an Internet connection type that offers the highest data signaling rate? A. DSL B. Dial-up C. Cable D. Satellite E. Fiber

E


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