ComptiaA+ Core 1

You are considering replacing the hard drive in your laptop. You know that the laptop is using a 2.5" drive, but you want to research available drive heights as well. Which of the below is NOT a valid 2.5" hard drive height?

12mm WHAT YOU NEED TO KNOW 12 mm is not a valid 2.5" hard drive height. There is also a 1.8" hard drive, but it is not widely used. The valid 2.5" hard drive heights are 15 mm, 9.5 mm, 7 mm, and 5 mm. 15 mm is a valid 2.5" hard drive height. There is also a 1.8" hard drive, but it is not widely used. The valid 2.5" hard drive heights are 15 mm, 9.5 mm, 7 mm, and 5 mm. 9.5 mm is a valid 2.5" hard drive height. There is also a 1.8" hard drive, but it is not widely used. The valid 2.5" hard drive heights are 15 mm, 9.5 mm, 7 mm, and 5 mm. 7 mm is a valid hard drive height. There is also a 1.8" hard drive, but it is not widely used. The valid 2.5" hard drive heights are 15 mm, 9.5 mm, 7 mm, and 5 mm.

Which of these is a cause of a computer problem?

A computer has a faulty hard drive WHAT YOU NEED TO KNOW If a computer system has a fault in the hard disk drive, then that is a cause of a problem. If, because the disk drive is faulty, the computer is displaying a "blue screen", then that is a symptom to a problem. If, because of the fault, the user cannot do any work, then that is a consequence of a problem. Often, resolving the consequence of the problem is more important than solving the original cause. For example, the most effective solution might be to provide the user with another workstation, then get the drive replaced.

At which of the following frequencies does a Bluetooth connected mobile device communicate?

2.4 GHz WHAT YOU NEED TO KNOW 2.4 GHz (Gigahertz) is the frequency in which Bluetooth operates. Many devices actually use the 2.4 GHz frequency including WiFi devices and Access Points (AP), cordless telephones, wireless video, baby monitors, and more. To prevent interference with each other, many devices allow the ability to change the channel being used within the 2.4 GHz frequency. 5 GHz (Gigahertz) is a frequency used by WiFi. Many devices actually use the 5 GHz frequency including cordless telephones, wireless video, baby monitors, and more. To prevent interference with each other, many devices allow the ability to change the channel being used within the 5 GHz frequency. 2133 MHz ( Megahertz) is a popular speed of which RAM (Random Access Memory) operates, and is not a frequency used by Bluetooth. 1333 MHz ( Megahertz) is a popular speed of which RAM (Random Access Memory) operates, and is not a frequency used by Bluetooth.

What speed does Thunderbolt 3 support?

40 Gbps WHAT YOU NEED TO KNOW Thunderbolt 3 doubles the speed of the prior version 2 by supporting speeds of up to 40 Gbps over a short high-quality cable (up to 0.5 m / 1.6 ft). Thunderbolt 3 uses a USB-C connector. Thunderbolt 2 has a maximum throughput speed of 20 Gbps and uses a MiniDP connector. Thunderbolt 1 and 2 devices can be connected to a Thunderbolt 3 port by using an adapter cable. USB 3.1 ports are capable of up to 10 Gbps speed. USB 3.0 ports are capable of up to 1 Gbps speed.

Which of these can NOT cause slow wired LAN transfer speeds?

A weak RF signal The RF (Radio Frequency) signal from radio-based devices weakens considerably as the distance between the devices increases. Wired LANs do not use wireless radio frequencies to transfer data. If you are experiencing slow transfer speeds, there may be congestion at a switch or router. This might be caused by a fault or by user behavior, such as transferring a very large amount of data. When troubleshooting slow transfer speeds, check the configuration of the network adapter driver (via Device Manager) and the setting for the switch port (via the switch's management software). The network cabling could be affected by interference. This could be from an external source. Also check the ends of cable for excessive untwisting of the wire pairs.

What network issues can you troubleshoot with the ipconfig tool?

Adapter configurations in Windows WHAT YOU NEED TO KNOW In Windows, you can use ipconfig to determine whether the adapter has been correctly configured. ipconfig displays the IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway (router) for all network adapters to which TCP/IP is bound. Linux hosts provide the ifconfig command, which provides similar output to Windows' ipconfig program. Note there are some differences between the Windows and Linux commands. The ping utility is a command-line diagnostic tool used to test whether a host can communicate with another host on the same network or on a remote network. The tracert command-line utility is used to trace the route a packet of information takes to get to its target.

Which one of these notable corporate features of Windows Pro, Enterprise, Ultimate, and Education editions encrypt all the data on a drive?

Bit Locker WHAT YOU NEED TO KNOW BitLocker enables the user to encrypt all the information on a disk drive. Encryption means that data on the device is protected even if someone steals it (so long as they cannot crack the user password). Encrypting File System (EFS) can be used to apply file- or folder-level encryption, where BitLocker encrypts an entire drive. The principal distinguishing feature of the Professional/Pro, Enterprise, Ultimate, and Education editions (regardless of version) is the ability to join a domain network. BranchCache allows remote computers to share access to a single cache of data from shared folders and files or document portals such as SharePoint sites.

Which of the following communication technologies does a smartwatch use to communicate with a smartphone?

Bluetooth WHAT YOU NEED TO KNOW A smartwatch communicates with a smartphone by using a Bluetooth connection. This means that the devices must be within a distance of roughly 30 feet to be able to communicate with each other. This would include any exercise data and notification items such as phone calls, media, and text messages. WiFi is a communications protocol for data and voice network connections. The power consumption required for WiFi would be too demanding for a smartwatch. NFC (Near Field Communication) requires devices to be within a couple inches of each other. NFC is typically used to share mobile contacts or in commerce solutions such as Apple Pay. Infrared is a line of sight type of communication. This means that the devices would need to point directly at each other in some fashion in order to communicate. An example of an infrared device is a television remote control.

Which of the following methods would be used to connect a fitness tracking device to a smartphone?

Bluetooth WHAT YOU NEED TO KNOW Bluetooth is a short-range protocol used to connect a variety of devices to each other that are usually in close proximity to one another. Fitness tracking watches, audio speakers, and game controllers are examples of such devices. 802.11ac is a wireless standard for WiFi. WiFi is a long-range communication method that is suitable for data such as network connections. WiFi is a long-range communication method that is suitable for data such as network connections. Cellular is a wide area communication method provided by service providers for voice and data communications. Many mobile devices support Cellular communication via an internal or external WWAN adapter.

Which of these is part of a fiber optic strand?

Buffer WHAT YOU NEED TO KNOW The protective coating around the cladding is called the buffer. This prevents light from entering the fiber cable and helps to bounce the light signal back into the core. A mesh conductor is part of a coaxial (coax) cable that serves both as shielding from Electromagnetic Interference (EMI) and as a ground. It is not found in fiber optic cables. A BNC (Barrel Nut Connector) coupler is used only on coaxial cables. The technician would need a crimper for an Ethernet cable. T568A and T568B are two methods for terminating RJ-45 connectors defined by the ANSI/TIA/EIA. T568A is mandated for US government premises and by the residential cabling standard (TIA 570).

What are most persistent CD writing problems associated with?

Buffer underruns WHAT YOU NEED TO KNOW Most disk writing problems are connected to buffer underruns. On older devices, once the writing process starts, it cannot be paused. Therefore, if the OS does not supply data to the burner's buffer quickly enough, errors will be introduced into the disc's layout. Some writable media are not manufactured to the highest possible standards, so errors during CD or DVD write operations can be quite common, but most problems are connected to buffer underruns. For disk writing problems, check that you are using the write speed recommended for the brand of discs you have purchased. If the error is persistent however, it is not down to the media. Where Windows does not support a recordable or rewritable format directly, third-party software is required.

You have a laptop with a rotatable screen and you want to set the view on your laptop to portrait instead of landscape. How would you do this?

By using the screen orientation function key A laptop with a rotatable screen will allow you to switch between portrait and landscape modes. The screen orientation function key will allow you to choose whether to lock the screen in one orientation. The screen brightness function key simply allows you to dim or brighten the built-in display but does not affect an external one. The display function key allows you to toggle the video feed between the built-in laptop display, the built-in display and an external monitor (dual display), and an external monitor only. Toggling the touchpad function key allows you to disable the touchpad if it interferes with typing and prevents the cursor from jumping around if you accidentally touch it.

Which port is typically known as a serial port? ❍ A. DVI ❍ B. COM1 ❍ C. LPT1 ❍ D. SCSI

COM1 COM1 (communications port 1) is a serial port; it sends or receives one bit at a time, up to 115,200 Kilobits Per Second (Kbps). A typical example is the 9-pin male D-shell (DB-9). Digital Visual Interface (DVI) is a video port. Most DVI ports support both analog and digital displays. There are five types of DVI, supporting different configurations for bandwidth and analog/digital signaling. LPT (line print terminal) is the usual designation for a parallel port connection to a printer or other device on a personal computer. Most PCs come with one or two LPT connections designated as LPT1 and LPT2. Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) is a parallel port used by hard drives and tape drives.

What is the first thing you should do if you are experiencing battery problems with your laptop?

Check if the battery is correctly inserted. WHAT YOU NEED TO KNOW If working from the battery, first check that it is inserted correctly and seated properly in its compartment. If the battery is properly inserted and still does not work, it is most likely completely discharged. If the battery will not hold a charge, it could be at the end of its useful life. You can test this by using a ""known good"" battery. If after testing with ""known good"" battery doesn't work, then there is something wrong with the power circuitry on the motherboard. Using an incorrect battery charging cable or exposing a battery to harsh environmental conditions, such as extreme heat, can result in an explosion.

How can you find out when upgrades were carried out recently on your Windows 10 computer?

Check the job logs WHAT YOU NEED TO KNOW Remember to ask, ""What has changed?"" You can check the job logs to find out whether any maintenance or upgrades were carried out recently. In Windows 10, The Startup Configuration utility (msconfig) does not work and you need to enable verbose boot messages via the registry. The service documentation only explains how to disassemble the chassis and remove tricky items, such as plastic bezels, without damaging them. Always check the vendor documentation before obtaining parts for upgrade or replacement. You can use the Disk Cleanup program to free up space but the user may have to take manual steps, such as moving or deleting files, uninstalling unnecessary applications, and so on.

What is the first thing you should do when troubleshooting a non-responsive touchscreen of a laptop in a mechanic's workshop?

Check the screen if it's clean WHAT YOU NEED TO KNOW If a touchscreen is non-responsive, first check that the screen is clean. When troubleshooting a touchscreen, first clean the screen, then look for evidence that the laptop might have been dropped or severely damaged. After cleaning the screen and looking for damage, try using the device in a different location, in case some source of electromagnetic interference (EMI) is affecting the operation of the touchscreen. Removing a faulty digitizer from an existing display can be tricky and should be a last resort. It might be cheaper to replace the whole unit, depending on the cost of parts.

You have a single user who cannot connect to the Internet, but the user can connect to all internal servers, printers, and internal web servers. What should you check as the probable cause?

Check the user's browser's proxy settings. WHAT YOU NEED TO KNOW This problem likely resides with the browser's proxy settings configuration. The internet service provider most likely won't block individual computers on your network. Your network security settings should prohibit anything that would lead to this situation. General users don't have credentials to log into the routers. The user is authenticated on the network and able to access other network resources; they should also be able to reach the Internet. Having both a Wi-Fi and wired connection enabled won't affect normal web browsing, but could affect two-way traffic, such as a Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP), since there are multiple routes back to the computer.

What is the last thing you should always do before considering an incident closed?

Confirm with the customer the problem has been fixed. WHAT YOU NEED TO KNOW Before you can consider a problem closed, you should get the customer's acceptance that it has been fixed. Restate what the problem was and how it was resolved then confirm with the customer that the incident log can be closed. If you take the user through initial troubleshooting steps, and you cannot solve the problem, you can then escalate the problem to deskside support or a senior technician. To fully solve a problem, you should try to eliminate any factors that could cause the problem to reoccur, but this is not necessary to close the ticket to an incident. You should plan to resolve the problem before you implement the solution, then you can confirm with the customer that the problem was resolved.

What is the first thing you should do when troubleshooting the built-in display on a laptop?

Connect the laptop to an external monitor. WHAT YOU NEED TO KNOW When troubleshooting the built-in display, first check that the video card is good by using an external monitor. Toggle the appropriate Fn key. After using an external monitor to test that the video card is good, check that power management settings are not set to an energy saving mode that disables or dims the backlight. You should check that a cutoff switch (a small plastic pin near the hinge connecting the LCD to the rest of the chassis) is not stuck after you ensure energy saving mode is not enabled. You will probably need to book the laptop in for repair or use it with an external monitor only once you have tried all other ways of troubleshooting the built-in display.

Which of the following Intel CPUs are laptop only chips?

Core Duo WHAT YOU NEED TO KNOW Core Duo is an Intel brand of mobile CPU that is found only in laptops. This chip's predecessor the Core Solo is also a laptop only chip. The Core 2 brand of chip is used in both laptops and desktops. The Core 2 brand of chip is used in both laptops and desktops. This chip arrived on the market after the Core Solo and Core Duo, which are only found in laptops. Core i3 is a modern chip and is also available as a Core i5, and Core i7. These chips are found in both laptops and desktops. Celeron is Intel's CPU budget line that can be found in both laptops and desktops.

Which type of server can be used to dynamically assign Internet Protocol (IP) addresses and subnet masks?

DHCP server WHAT YOU NEED TO KNOW Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) assigns IP address information to hosts automatically when they connect to the network. Domain Name System (DNS) servers allow users to access resources using host names and Fully Qualified Domain Names (FQDN) by resolving those names to IP addresses. It uses a distributed database that contains information on domains and hosts within those domains. A mail server manages sending email messages for users using SMTP or SMTPS. It also manages the transfer of messages to the users' inboxes using POP3, POP3s, IMAP, or IMAPS. An authentication server is one that consolidates authentication services across multiple access devices, such as switches, routers, and access points.

Which DVI (Digital Visual Interface) configuration has a bandwidth of 7.4 Gbps (Gigabits per second)?

DVI-D dual link WHAT YOU NEED TO KNOW DVI-D (Digital Visual Interface - Digital) dual link has a bandwidth of 7.4 Gbps (Gigabits per second) and can transmit HDTV (High Definition Television) at 85 fps (frames per second) but supports digital equipment only, as noted by the -D in the name of the configuration. DVI-D single link supports digital equipment only and has a bandwidth of 3.7 Gbps, which only supports HD resolution. DVI-A is the original form of DVI and is single link supporting only analog equipment, noted by the -A in the name of the configuration. DVI-I single link supports both analog and digital equipment but has a bandwidth of 3.7 Gbps for HD resolution of 60 fps.

Which of the following is NOT a feature that is controlled by a laptop's Fn special function keys?

Display resolution WHAT YOU NEED TO KNOW A laptop's display resolution is a setting that is controlled within the operation system installed on the laptop. A special function key is a key on the keyboard used in combination with the Fn key. Special function screen options typically include screen brightness and toggling between multiple displays. A laptop's keyboard back-light can be controlled with a special function key. A special function key is a key on the keyboard used in combination with the Fn key. It is important to note that not all laptops have a keyboard back-light feature. A laptop's screen brightness can be controlled with special function keys. A special function key is a key on the keyboard used in combination with the Fn key. There are typically two separate special function keys for screen brightness. One for dimming the screen and another brightening the screen. A laptop's speaker volume can be controlled with special function keys. A special function key is a key on the keyboard used in combination with the Fn key. There are typically three separate special function keys for volume. One for lowering the volume, one for raising the volume, and one for muting the volume.

After the boot sector code loads the OS files into system memory, what can the error messages you receive on your Windows 10 computer be attributed to?

Driver Problems WHAT YOU NEED TO KNOW Error messages received after the boot sector code loads the OS files into system memory can usually be attributed to software (or driver) problems. Error messages you receive after the boot sector code loads the OS files into system memory are most likely not attributed with hardware devices, but rather with software drivers. The Startup Configuration utility (msconfig) shows boot messages, but, in Windows 10, this setting does not work and you need to enable verbose boot messages via the registry. You can only use the "dmesg | less" command on a Linux machine. In Windows, boot messages are written to the C:\Windows\ntbtlog.txt file. You should also use Event Viewer to analyze the System and Application logs for any errors.

What should you do if you cannot solve a problem?

Escalate the ticket WHAT YOU NEED TO KNOW If you cannot solve a problem yourself, it is better to escalate it than to waste a lot of time trying to come up with an answer. It is better to escalate the problem than wasting a lot of time trying to figure it out on your own. Consider consulting colleagues, Internet discussion groups, or manufacturers' help lines. You must balance the need to resolve a problem in a timely fashion with what might be additional costs and the burdens/priorities that senior staff are already coping with. You should troubleshoot the problem until it is resolved. If troubleshooting doesn't work, you should escalate the problem. After confirming the problem has been fixed, and updating the ticket accordingly, only then should you close the ticket.

Which of these cabling media types is NOT common to Local Area Networks (LANs) environments?

F-connector WHAT YOU NEED TO KNOW Coax installations use screw-down F-connectors. They are an inexpensive, gendered, threaded, compression connector for radio frequency signals. A broadband cable service, for example, is likely to use the F-connector for drop cables. Twisted pair cabling for Ethernet is terminated using module RJ-45 connectors. RJ-45 connectors are also referred to as 8P8C, standing for 8-position/8-contact. A straight tip connector (ST connector) is a connector used in fiber-optic cables that utilizes a bayonet-style plug and socket; used mostly for multi-mode networks. SC connector is a fiber-optic cable connector that uses a push-pull latching mechanism like common audio and video cables. For bi-directional transmission, two fiber cables and two SC connectors (Dual SCs) are used.

You are looking to purchase a laptop for business use. As the information you will work on is sensitive, you've decided to purchase a laptop with a biometric hardware device built into the palm rest. Which biometric device are you purchasing?

Fingerprint reader WHAT YOU NEED TO KNOW A fingerprint reader is a common biometric device that is built into many laptops. Located on the palm rest, the reader can be used by swiping a finger to gain access to the operating system or certain applications. When swiping, the fingerprint is matched with a fingerprint saved by the reader during initial setup. A retina scanner is a biometric device that scans the user's pupil with a camera. This technology can be expensive and would not be located on a laptop palm rest. Voice recognition is a technology that uses a microphone to record, identify, or interpret a user's voice. This technology can be used for security purposes, dictation, and more. This technology would not be built into a laptop palm rest. Face recognition is a technology that uses a camera to record, identify, or interpret a user's face. This technology can be used for security purposes and would not be built into a laptop palm rest.

You have several Android devices and you need to be sure that they all have access to the same online data and the same applications from the app store. Which online account would achieve this quickly?

Google Account WHAT YOU NEED TO KNOW A Google account is required to setup an Android mobile device and to use the Google Play app store. By using the same Google account, data can be shared via Google Drive and any paid apps from the store would be available to all devices. DropBox is a cloud based services that allows access and synchronization to files and data via an application installed on a mobile device. While access to files is possible, access to the same apps via the app store is not. iCloud is an online cloud storage and synchronization service for Apple devices, not Android. It is common for users to save something as an attachment in Email for later retrieval. This isn't the best use of email, and a cloud storage solution would be best. Email would also not solve making applications from the play store available.

Which of the following connectors can have audio and video pass through it?

High Definition Multimedia Interface (HDMI) WHAT YOU NEED TO KNOW The High Definition Multimedia Interface (HDMI) is the most widely used graphic device interface. HDMI supports both video and audio digital streams, plus remote control and digital content protection. The distinctive blue, 15-pin Video Graphics Array (VGA) port was the standard analog video interface for PC devices for a very long time. However, today the most widely used connector is HDMI. The RGB (Red, Green, and Blue) connection is an old standard used by workstation video monitors. It uses the same signals as VGA, both of which are being phased out over newer technologies such as HDMI. Digital Visual Interface (DVI) is a video cable type designed for flat panel display equipment. DVI is now being phased out in favor of better-established technologies, such as HDMI.

Which of the following Hypervisors is included with Windows 10 Professional?

Hyper-V WHAT YOU NEED TO KNOW Hyper-V is a type-1 hypervisor that is included with Windows 10 Professional. A type-1 hypervisor has direct communication with the system's physical hardware. ESX is a server hypervisor from VMWare. It is a type-1 hypervisor that does not require an underlying operating system and has direct access to the host system hardware. VirtualBox is a virtualization hypervisor that is maintained by Oracle Corporation. It is an open source type-2 hypervisor. A type-2 hypervisor requires an underlying operating system and does not have direct access to the host system's hardware. KVM is a virtualization hypervisor that is included with Linux distributions. It is an open source type-2 hypervisor. A type-2 hypervisor requires an underlying operating system and does not have direct access to the host system's hardware.

What service uses port 80?

HyperText Transfer Protocol (HTTP) WHAT YOU NEED TO KNOW The HyperText Transfer Protocol (HTTP) uses port 80. HTTP enables clients (typically web browsers) to request resources from an HTTP server. The Post Office Protocol 3 (POP3) uses port 110. POP3 is an Internal mail protocol for retrieving emails. The Domain Name System (DNS) uses port 53. DNS resolves names to IP addresses using a distributed database that contains information on domains and hosts within those domains. Secure Shell (SSH) over TCP port 22 is used to securely connect to a remote host (typically via a terminal emulator) and was designed to replace programs such as Telnet and FTP.

You work for a small commercial design firm where you need to build out a powerful 3D art department computer to substantially reduce current rendering times. What will be the most important CPU feature needed on this new computer?

Hyperthreading WHAT YOU NEED TO KNOW Hyperthreading makes multitasking on your system much easier, allowing two or more processes to run using the same resources. It is good for tasks like video editing, 3D rendering, and heavy multi-tasking. Overclocking simply means that the CPU is running at a speed greater than the rate at which it was built to run. Without cooling, it increases the risk of thermal damage. Multicore technology is where a single physical processor contains the core logic of two or more processors. It runs on lower frequency as compared to the single processing unit, which reduces the power dissipation or temperature. Virtualization enables a CPU to act as if you have several independent computers, to enable several operating systems to run at the same time on the same machine.

What type of software is used to run virtual machines?

Hypervisor WHAT YOU NEED TO KNOW A hypervisor is a piece of software that is able to manage the hosting of guest virtual machines. There are two types of hypervisors. Type-1 is known as a bare-metal hypervisor. This type of hypervisor does not require an operating system and has direct access to the host system's hardware. A type-2 hypervisor requires a host operating system to be installed first and does not have direct access to the host system's hardware. A VM is a virtual machine. In relation to virtualization, a guest operating system installed on a hypervisor is a virtual machine (VM). A guest OS (operating system) would be installed within a guest VM (virtual machine). NFC is a communications method used by mobile devices for a variety of purposes included e-commerce solutions such as Apple Pay.

Which of the following is the addressing scheme that uses a 32-bit number for each address?

IPv4 WHAT YOU NEED TO KNOW An IPv4 address is a 32-bit number. It consists of 4 octets displayed in dotted decimal notation. An IPv6 address is a 128-bit number using hexadecimal notation. IPv6 includes new efficiency features, such as simplified address headers, hierarchical addressing, support for time-sensitive network traffic, and a new structure for unicast addressing. There is no such thing as IPv5 as the version field protocol ID "5" was assigned to another protocol (the Internet Stream Protocol) in the 1970s. A subnet mask (or netmask) is used to distinguish two components within a single IP address. It is used to "mask" the host ID portion of the IP address and thereby reveal the network ID portion.

Which of the following cloud services offers an online data center infrastructure without having the associated costs of purchasing and managing the hardware?

IaaS WHAT YOU NEED TO KNOW IaaS (Infrastructure as a service) is a cloud based offering that provides the ability for the creation of a data center in the cloud. Examples of components in an IaaS environment would include virtual servers, switches, gateways, address pools, and more. PaaS (Platform as a Service) is a cloud based offering that provides a platform for developers to create web based applications and deploy them. Examples of PaaS components would be web servers, application engines and their functionality. SaaS (Software as a Service) is a cloud based offering that provides application access to users via the Internet. Examples of popular SaaS applications are Office 365, Google Suite, SalesForce, and Zoho Office. Virtual is a method of computing. It can refer to the method of service that is being provided as well as the type of technology being used to deliver the service.

When do you need to establish a lengthier procedure when diagnosing a cause?

If a new theory does not suggest itself WHAT YOU NEED TO KNOW If a new theory of probable cause does not suggest itself from what you have discovered so far, there may be more lengthy procedures you can use to diagnose a cause. If your theory is proven by the tests you make, you do not need to establish a new theory of probable cause, nor a lengthier procedure. If your theory is proven by the research you undertake, you do not need to establish a new theory of probable cause, nor a lengthier procedure. If the problem is easy to fix, you do not need to establish a lengthier procedure. However, if a problem is particularly intractable, you can take the system down to its base configuration, which is very time consuming.

What causes most paper jams?

Improper media and creases in paper WHAT YOU NEED TO KNOW Most paper jams arise because the media (paper or labels) is not suitable for the printer or because a sheet is creased, folded, or not loaded properly in the tray. There could be a problem with a roller. Most jams are caused by improper media. If you can discount a media problem, try changing the pickup rollers. Faded or faint print defects occur if a toner cartridge needs replacing, or if the user chooses an option for low density (draft output). The fuser needs replacing if the print output smudges easily. If the jam occurs within the drum assembly but before the image is fused, the cause could be a faulty Static Eliminator Strip.

You are troubleshooting printer connectivity to the network. Where can you look for multiple failed print jobs?

In the printer server logs WHAT YOU NEED TO KNOW When troubleshooting printer connectivity to the network, you should check for multiple failed jobs in the print server's log, look up error codes, or look through the logs from the device itself. A backed-up print queue means that there are lots of jobs pending but not printing. You would need to restart the Print Spooler service if you cannot delete a job or if the print queue is backed up or stalled. You would need to add the user to the relevant security group (or add the relevant security group or user object to the printer), if a user receives an "Access Denied" message.

What do you need to do if you are upgrading a touchpad?

Install a new driver. If you are upgrading the keyboard or touchpad (rather than replacing the same part), you may need to install a new driver and configure settings via the Mouse and Keyboard applets. When replacing components like the keyboard and touchpad, you will almost always need to use the same parts. Touchpads connect to the motherboard via a data cable, typically a flat ribbon type. Accessing the parts for removal and replacement might require complete disassembly or might be relatively straightforward. Any time you disassemble a laptop, you should disconnect peripheral devices and eject discs from drives, as well as disconnect the AC power and battery.

You need to setup a few virtual workstations for a network test lab. You have a computer to use as the host machine, however, it does not have an operating system installed. What is the easiest and quickest solution to configure the host system?

Install a type-1 hypervisor on the host machine and then install the guest operating systems. WHAT YOU NEED TO KNOW Installing a type-1 hypervisor would be the quickest and easiest solution. A type-1 hypervisor does not need an operating system to run, and it can be installed directly on the system. Because of this capability, type-1 hypervisors are known as bare-metal hypervisors. Installing a type-2 hypervisor would not be the quickest and easiest solution. Type-2 hypervisors require a host operating system. To install a type-2 hypervisor, an operating system would first need to be installed on the host. Installing the same operating system twice, once as a host and once as a guest, would not be the easiest and quickest solution. It is also not possible to have a single installation act as a dual-use host and guest. Microsoft Virtual PC is a free type-2 hypervisor. Type-2 hypervisors require an operating system to be running on the host first. This would not be the quickest and easiest solution.

A support ticket has been assigned to you stating that the Engineers are complaining that their Computer Aided Design (CAD) application is displaying poorly. What do you do to upgrade these PCs and solve this problem?

Install higher-end video cards. WHAT YOU NEED TO KNOW Low-end graphics adapters are likely to be included with the motherboard chipset or as part of the CPU itself. If a computer is to be used for Computer Aided Design (CAD), a better-quality adapter is required. This can be installed as an add-on card via a PCIe slot. Solid State Drives (SSDs) are significantly faster than magnetic hard drives. Installing a SSD would improve load time of the application. The best choice for improve the display of the application in a higher-end video card. Installing more RAM would help process the application faster. But, installing a high-end video card would help display the application better. A faster CPU would help process the application faster but would not affect the quality of the display. This is an issue that a higher-end video card would resolve.

You need to do some application testing. You have a Windows 10 desktop and decide to use Hyper-V to create virtual environments to test the applications in. You do not want the guest virtual machines to be able to communicate with any other physical system on the network: however, communication between the guests and the hosts is allowed. Which type of virtual switch should you create in Hyper-V?

Internal WHAT YOU NEED TO KNOW An internal switch created with Microsoft Hyper-V is a switch that is usable by the guest virtual machines and the host. For example, with this type of switch a Linux guest and a Windows guest could communicate with each other and with the host, but not any other physical machines on the network. A private switch created with Microsoft Hyper-V is a switch that is only usable by the guest virtual machines. For example, with this type of switch a Linux guest and a Windows guest could communicate with each other but not with the host or any other physical machines on the network. An external switch created with Microsoft Hyper-V is a switch that is usable by the guest virtual machines and the host. For example, with this type of switch a Linux guest and a Windows guest could communicate with each other, the host, and any other physical machines on the network. A Virtual LAN (VLAN) is a method of creating a virtual group of networked devices on a network. While Hyper-V does have a VLAN ID setting that can be configured on a virtual switch, it does not apply to the question.

What is the drawback of only testing connections to servers by trying to use them?

It cannot conclude whether a problem is with an application or if it is a network fault. WHAT YOU NEED TO KNOW One drawback of connections to servers simply by trying to use them is that there could be some sort of application fault rather than a network fault. It is useful to have a low-level test of basic connectivity, such as ping, that is only dependent on a working link and IP configuration. Ping uses the Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) to request status messages from hosts. The millisecond measures of Round Trip Time (RTT) is used by the ping command, and can be used to diagnose latency problems on a link.

Which of the following describes a feature of an eBook reader versus a tablet?

It has an E Ink screen. WHAT YOU NEED TO KNOW An eBook reader has an E Ink screen which is designed to mimic the look of ink on paper. eBook readers provide a more eye-friendly reading experience and it is easily readable in direct sunlight and under bright light. Where eBook readers have an E Ink screen, tablets have a backlit LCD screen that emits light. eBook readers are designed specifically for reading eBooks. They are sometimes capable of other tasks, such as web browsing, note taking, and playing music and some games, but the primary function is reading. An eBook reader with a frontlight, where light is directed at the screen instead of being emitted outward, can last several weeks on a single charge when reading every day, whereas most tablets top out at about 10 hours of total use.

What is the defining quality of a network-based printer?

It is managed by a network computer called a print server. The defining aspect of a network-based printer is that it is managed by a network computer called a print server. The print server holds the print queue, not the networked printer. A local printer is one which is directly connected to a specific computer via USB cable. It is a printer that is only accessible from that workstation and therefore, can only service one computer at a time. A network printer does not have to have a physical connection to the network. Instead, it can also be connected wirelessly but it does not normally manage its own print queue. A networked computer may also use wireless Bluetooth technology to connect to other computers. With a Bluetooth network, it's possible to send print jobs from multiple devices to the same printer.

Which one of these is NOT an accurate statement about DisplayPort?

It is replacing Thunderbolt and USB-C. WHAT YOU NEED TO KNOW Historically, computer video used dedicated cable types such as HDMI or DisplayPort. Modern computer displays are quickly adopting the USB-C connector interface with Thunderbolt 3 signaling for video support. Unlike other video and audio standards, it transmits packetized data, in the same sort of way as PCI Express. Like PCI Express, bandwidth can be allocated in bonded lanes (up to 4). DisplayPort is a royalty-free standard intended to "complement" High Definition Multimedia Interface (HDMI). HDMI was principally developed by consumer electronics companies and requires royalty to use. DisplayPort supports both copper and fiber-optic cabling. DisplayPort-certified copper cable must be capable of supporting 2560x1600 (WQXGA resolution) over 2m.

Which generation of cellular digital communications standards typically delivers around 20 Mbps in practice?

LTE WHAT YOU NEED TO KNOW Long Term Evolution (LTE) is a converged 4G standard supported by all network providers. LTE has a maximum downlink of 150 Mbps in theory, but around 20 Mbps is typical of real-word performance. 5G is supposed to deliver a minimum of 100 Mbps for access from a fast-moving vehicle and 1 Gbps for stationary users. Speeds of up to 70 Gbps have been achieved under test conditions. LTE Advanced (LTE-A) is intended to provide a 300 Mbps downlink, but this aspiration is not matched by real-world performance. Current typical performance for LTE-A is around 40 Mbps. CDMA2000/Evolution Data Optimized (EV-DO) are the main 3G standards deployed by CDMA network providers. EV-DO supports a 3.1 Mbps downlink and 1.8 Mbps uplink.

Which of the following open source operating systems is not widely used on desktops but is very widely used on servers?

Linux WHAT YOU NEED TO KNOW As a desktop operating system (OS) Linux tends to be used in schools and universities more than in business or in the home. As a server OS, it dominates the market for web servers. It is also used very widely as the OS for "smart" appliances and Internet of Things (IoT) devices. Chrome OS is proprietary and was derived from Linux. Chrome OS is developed by Google to run on specific laptop (Chromebook) and PC (Chromebox) hardware. iOS is the operating system for Apple's iPhone smartphone and iPad tablet. While also derived from UNIX, iOS is a closed source operating system. Android is a smartphone/tablet OS developed by the Open Handset Alliance, primarily driven by Google. It is an open-source OS, based on Linux.

Which term does NOT refer to a variant of the full-size Secure Digital (SD) memory card?

Micro SD WHAT YOU NEED TO KNOW Micro-SD (Micro-Secure Digital) is the smallest version of the SD card but has the same capacity and speed designations as the SD. Secure Digital (SD) card is a full-size type of memory card, used extensively in consumer digital imaging products but is smaller in size than the Compact Flash cards. Secure Digital High Capacity (SDHC) is a full-size SD memory card but with a storage capacity of between 4 GB and 32 GB. Secure Digital eXtended Capacity (SDXC) has the largest storage capacity of the full-size SD memory cards of more than 32GB.

Which solution would you use to support remote wiping of a laptop's hard drive in the event it was stolen?

LoJack WHAT YOU NEED TO KNOW LoJack is an anti-theft software package that can be installed on a laptop. In the event of theft of the laptop, LoJack can provide GPS tracking, and remote wipe. BitLocker is a data encryption technology from Microsoft that can be used to encrypt a laptop's hard drive. BitLocker works in conjunction with the computer's on-board Trusted Platform Module (TPM) chip. If the hard drive were stolen or removed, it would not be readable as the TPM chip is required to be present for authentication to the encrypted drive. A BIOS password is a password setup in the computer's system hardware. A BIOS password can usually be reset by removing the battery from the system board, and/or resetting a jumper on the system board. Power settings can be set within a system's BIOS and within a system's operating system. These setting would only adjust power settings are not security related.

What is the primary purpose of a Syslog server?

Logging event messages sent by network devices for identification of any issues or problems A Syslog server is a logging server that tracks and monitors networked devices for any issues or problems that need to be attended to immediately. Domain Name Servers (DNS) are the Internet's equivalent of a phone book. They maintain a directory of domain names and translate them to Internet Protocol (IP) addresses. The DHCP server maintains a pool of IP addresses and leases an address to any DHCP-enabled client when it starts up on the network. The primary function of a web server is to store, process and deliver web pages to clients. The communication between client and server takes place using the Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP).

Which of the following ports on a mobile device does Bluetooth use for communication?

Logical WHAT YOU NEED TO KNOW Bluetooth uses a logical port for communications. This means that there is no actual physical port, such as a USB port to make the connection to another device. UBS C is found on many mobile devices such as smartphones and tablets. A USB C port is used for a wired connection or for battery charging. Lightning ports are found only on Apple devices as it is a proprietary technology. These ports are used for wired connections and battery charging. Infrared is known as a line of sight technology where devices must be facing one another appropriately for communication to occur. A television remote control is an example of an infrared device.

What distance between hosts could mean multiple connected networks in the same municipality?

MAN (Metropolitan Area Network) WHAT YOU NEED TO KNOW MANs (Metropolitan Area Networks) are an area equivalent to a city or other municipality. It could mean a company with multiple connected networks within the same metropolitan area - so larger than a LAN (Local Area Network) but smaller than a WAN (Wide Area Network). WANs are usually thought of as relying on some intermediate network, such as the Internet or phones system, to connect geographically diverse LANs. ICAAN (Internet Corporation for Assigned Names and Number) is a nonprofit organization responsible for coordinating the maintenance and procedures of several databases related to namespaces and numerical spaces of the Internet. LANs are a single site or possibly several sites in close proximity connected by high-speed backbones.

Which of the following connectors is used for musical equipment?

MIDI WHAT YOU NEED TO KNOW The Musical Instrument Digital Interface (MIDI) connector is used for musical equipment such as keyboards, synthesizers, and sequencers. MIDI is used to create a clocking signal that all devices can synchronize to. The High Definition Multimedia Interface (HDMI) is the most widely used graphic device interface. Digital Visual Interface (DVI) is a video port. Most DVI ports support both analog and digital displays. There are five types of DVI, supporting different configurations for bandwidth and analog/digital signaling. DisplayPort was developed by VESA (Video Electronics Standards Association), the organization largely representing PC graphics adapter and display technology companies. DisplayPort is being replaced by Thunderbolt and USB-C.

What is the primary purpose of a Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server?

Maintaining a pool of IP addresses and leasing these to network devices WHAT YOU NEED TO KNOW The DHCP server maintains a pool of IP addresses and leases an address to any DHCP-enabled client when it starts up on the network. IP addresses no longer in use are automatically returned to the pool for reallocation. Domain Name Servers (DNS) are the Internet's equivalent of a phone book. They maintain a directory of domain names and translate them to Internet Protocol (IP) addresses. This is necessary because, although domain names are easy for people to remember, computers or machines access websites based on IP addresses. The primary function of a web server is to store, process and deliver web pages to clients. The communication between client and server takes place using the Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP). Syslog is a way for network devices to send event messages to a logging server - known as a Syslog server. It allows for tracking and monitoring those networked devices for any issues or problems that need to be attended to immediately.

Which of the following system form-factors is NOT used for embedded and portable computers?

Micro-ATX WHAT YOU NEED TO KNOW Micro-ATX is a system form-factor for small desktop PC systems that support a 9.6 x 9.6" (244 x 244 mm) system board. Nano-ITX is a system form-factor system board that measures 4.7 x 4.7" (12 x 12 cm) and is often used in embedded and mobile systems. Pico-ITX is a system form-factor that measures 3.9 x 2.8" (10 x 7.2 cm) and is often used in embedded and mobile systems. Mobile-ITX is a system form-factor that measures 2.4 x 2.4" (60 x 60 mm) and is often used in embedded and mobile systems.

Which of the following is NOT an example of a SaaS (Software as a Service) application?

Microsoft Excel 2010 WHAT YOU NEED TO KNOW Microsoft Excel 2010 is not a SaaS application as it is locally installed software that is not accessed via a web browser. Microsoft Office 365 is an example of a SaaS application suite. An SaaS application resides in the cloud. While Microsoft Office 365 offers optional locally installable software, at its core, Office 365 is an SaaS suite that offers a number of services that may be accessed through a web browser. Google Suite is an example of a SaaS application suite. An SaaS application resides in the cloud. While Google Suite offers optional locally installable components, at its core, Google Suite is an SaaS suite that offers a number of services that may be accessed through a web browser. Zoho Office Suite is an example of a SaaS application suite. An SaaS application resides in the cloud. Zoho Office Suite is an SaaS suite that offers a number of services that may be accessed through a web browser.

Space is at a minimum in a user's office. You have been tasked with building out the smallest system you can for this user. What motherboard form factor would you choose?

Mini-ITX (mITX) WHAT YOU NEED TO KNOW Small Form Factor (SFF) PCs often use VIA Technologies' mITX (Mini-ITX) form factor. mITX is 6.7" wide by 6.7" deep (170x170mm) with one expansion slot. The mATX (Micro-Advanced Technology Extended) standard specifies a 9.6 (244x244mm) square board, larger than the mITX which is only 6.7" by 6.7". The ATX (Advanced Technology Extended) is a full-sized board that is 12" wide by 9.6" deep (305x244mm). It would not allow you to build the smallest system possible. While the mini-ITX (mITX) is the smallest form factor motherboard for PCs, the nano-ITX form factor is used for embedded systems and portables rather that PCs.

Which statement is NOT correct about 32-bit and 64-bit Central Processing Units (CPUs)?

More computers are built using 32-bit processors. WHAT YOU NEED TO KNOW Computer parts retailers are offering fewer and fewer 32-bit processors and soon may not offer any at all. Most manufacturers build computers with 64-bit processors due to cheaper prices and because more users are now using 64-bit operating systems and programs. A big difference between 32-bit and 64-bit processors is the number of calculations per second performed. Programs requiring many calculations to function smoothly can operate faster and more efficiently on a multi-core 64-bit processor. 32-bit computers support a maximum of 4 GB of memory, whereas a 64-bit computer can support memory amounts over 4 GB. One thing to note is that 3D graphic programs and games do not benefit much, if at all, from switching to a 64-bit computer, unless the program is a 64-bit program.

Which command line tool can be used to establish if a link is working?

Ping WHAT YOU NEED TO KNOW The ping utility is a command-line diagnostic tool used to test whether a host can communicate with another host on the same network or on a remote network. It is the basic tool to use to establish that a link is working. The netstat tool can be used to investigate open ports and connections on the local host. You can use this tool to verify whether file sharing or email ports are open on a server and whether other clients are connecting to them. The tracert command-line utility is used to trace the route a packet of information takes to get to its target. The nslookup command can help you troubleshoot DNS if you suspect a problem with name resolution.

In a large network, to which of the following devices would you assign a static Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) address?

Proxy server WHAT YOU NEED TO KNOW A proxy server must have a static IP address. User machines are configured with the proxy's IP address and pass Internet requests to it. A workstation in a large network should obtain its IP address via DHCP. Configuring IP statically on each workstation can be very time consuming and prone to errors that can potentially disrupt communication on the network. A mobile device should obtain its IP address via DHCP since it will likely be connecting to multiple networks as the user takes the device from place to place. An unmanaged switch performs its function without any configuration. It does not have an IP address.

Which type of memory stores address information?

Registered WHAT YOU NEED TO KNOW Registered (buffered) memory has an extra component that stores address information, taking some load off the memory controller. It does not correct errors in Random Access Memory (RAM). Double Data Rate SDRAM (DDR SDRAM) is an updated type of memory where data is transferred twice in one cycle but can be both parity and non-parity memory. System memory for most desktops is non-parity; that is, it does not perform error checking. Parity checking is done in Error Checking and Correcting (ECC) memory. Dynamic RAM (DRAM) stores each data bit as an electrical charge within a single bit cell but dos not describe the type of error correction present in a memory chip.

After testing your theory of probable cause of a critical problem, what should you do if a part or system that you are troubleshooting is still under warranty?

Replace the part. WHAT YOU NEED TO KNOW If a part or system is under warranty, you can return the broken part for a replacement. To do this, you normally need to obtain a Returned Materials Authorization (RMA) ticket from the vendor. When repairing a part, you need to determine whether the cost of repair makes this the best option. However, if the part is still under warranty, you should replace it. You should use a workaround only if the problem is not critical, and if neither the repair nor replacement is cost-effective. You should verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventative measures after you apply and verify a solution to the problem.

How can you troubleshoot a problem with a single host's name resolution to a local LAN network?

Run nslookup to query the DNS server. WHAT YOU NEED TO KNOW If you identify or suspect a problem with name resolution, you can troubleshoot DNS with the nslookup command. netstat is used to investigate open ports and connections on the local host. You can use this tool to verify whether file sharing or email ports are open on a server and whether other clients are connecting to them. You should not restart any server without considering the impact on other users. A restart is probably only warranted if the problem is widespread. In this case, the problem is only affecting a single host. While DNS problems can make your Internet connection unavailable, Local Area Networks (LANs) are independent from the internet, although they can be connected to each other with gateway routers.

What service uses port 22?

Secure Shell (SSH) WHAT YOU NEED TO KNOW Secure Shell (SSH) over TCP port 22 is used to securely connect to a remote host (typically via a terminal emulator) and was designed to replace programs such as Telnet and FTP. The Domain Name System (DNS) uses port 53. DNS resolves names to IP addresses using a distributed database that contains information on domains and hosts within those domains. The HyperText Transfer Protocol (HTTP) uses port 80. HTTP enables clients (typically web browsers) to request resources from an HTTP server. The Post Office Protocol 3 (POP3) uses port 110. POP3 is an Internal mail protocol for retrieving emails.

How do you configure a host to use Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) in Windows?

Select the "Obtain an IP address automatically" option on the General tab of the Internet Protocol version 4 Properties dialog. WHAT YOU NEED TO KNOW To use Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) in Windows, select the "Obtain an IP address automatically" option on the General tab of the Internet Protocol version 4 Properties dialog. To obtain a Domain Name System (DNS) server automatically, choose this option in the (IPv4) Properties dialog. On the Alternate Configuration tab, Windows allows you to define an alternative IP address configuration for a machine if it cannot contact a DHCP server and using APIPA is unsuitable. If you enter a static IP address, then the host will not use DHCP to obtain an IP address.

Which of these technologies replaced Parallel Advanced Technology Attachment (PATA)?

Serial Advanced Technology Attachment (SATA) WHAT YOU NEED TO KNOW Serial Advanced Technology Attachment (SATA) is the standard means of attaching internal storage drives to a desktop PC. It has superseded the legacy Parallel ATA (PATA) technology. Small Computer Systems Interface (SCSI) is another parallel bus where one Host Bus Adapter (HBA) can control multiple devices, attached by internal ribbon cables or external SCSI cables. The Advanced Host Controller Interface (AHCI) is the logical interface used by SATA devices to communicate with the host's bus and is not hardware connection technology. Serial Attached SCSI (SAS) is a technology very popular in the server market where it offers point-to-point links and none of the termination issues of SCSI.

Which of the following ports would NOT be found on a tablet?

Serial Port WHAT YOU NEED TO KNOW A serial port (RS-232/DB-9) is a legacy port that supports data rates up to 115 Kbps. Serial ports may be found on desktop and laptop computers to support older peripherals, and some network equipment for management purposes. USB-C is a common USB connection found on newer devices including Android tablets. The USB-C port is used for purposes such as connecting a tablet to a computer system or for charging the tablet. USB-B is a common USB connection found on older devices including Android tablets. The USB-B port is used for purposes such as connecting a tablet to a computer system or for charging the tablet. Lighting is a proprietary 8 pin port and connector that is used for device connections and battery charging of Apple iOS mobile devices.

What type of internal memory is used specifically by laptops?

Small outline dual in-line memory module (SODIMM)

Rapid elasticity cloud services refer to which dynamically allocated resource?

Storage WHAT YOU NEED TO KNOW Storage space is a resource that is allocated as a rapid elasticity resource. Rapid elasticity cloud services are services that are implemented dynamically and seamlessly as needed and requested. CPU and CPU cores are allocated as On-demand resources. On-demand services are provisioned at run time. RAM is a resource that is allocated On-demand. On-demand resources are provisioned at run time. Network bandwidth is a measured cloud service. Measured cloud services control and provide accountability in terms of service provision and billing for any service change as the amount used may vary month-to-month.

Which of the following is used to distinguish between the host number and the network number?

Subnet mask WHAT YOU NEED TO KNOW A subnet mask (or netmask) is used to distinguish these two components within a single IP address. It is used to "mask" the host ID portion of the IP address and thereby reveal the network ID portion. A broadcast address for a network is an address where the host bits are all "1"s. A message sent to a broadcast address is received by all hosts on the network. The default gateway parameter is the IP address of a router where devices send outbound IP traffic by defaut. An IPv4 address is a 32-bit number. It consists of 4 octets displayed in dotted decimal notation.

How can you verify whether a solution you apply fixes a problem?

Substitute the part for a "known good" one. WHAT YOU NEED TO KNOW A basic technique when troubleshooting a cable, connector, or device is to have a ""known good"" duplicate to hand. This approach very quickly identifies ""non-causes."" To fully solve a problem, you should try to eliminate any factors that could cause the problem to reoccur. However, this is a preventative measure that should be implemented after you verify full system/part functionality. Documenting outcomes should be one of the last things you do when troubleshooting a problem. Documentation is very useful for future troubleshooting. You should only re-establish a new theory if your theory is not proven by the test you make or the research you undertake. This step would be performed before you even implement a solution.

The Director of your company is traveling out of the country with the company laptop. Which feature will you need to configure to prevent theft of the laptop?

The LoJack tracking software WHAT YOU NEED TO KNOW Some laptop firmware is bundled with LoJack tracking software, essentially a security rootkit designed to prevent theft. If the laptop is reported stolen, the authorization servers can force the laptop into a locked down mode. The system password protects access to the system setup program by requiring a password before entering the BIOS system. While the system BIOS password should be set to protect the device, it will not prevent theft. To help protect device data, Trusted Platform Module (TPM) is a hardware-based storage of digital certificates, keys, and hashed passwords. However, it does not prevent device theft. Drive lock is a way to secure access to the laptop disk specifically by configuring a drive password and storing it in the PC or drive firmware. A drive lock password protects device data but cannot prevent theft.

Which of these would NOT cause any issues with the Power On Self-Test (POST)?

The Power Good signal successfully being sent to the CPU WHAT YOU NEED TO KNOW Even though the fans may be receiving power, there may be a fault that is preventing the Power Good signal from being sent to the CPU, which would prevent the POST from running. You want to make sure to check for faulty interfaces and devices - it is possible that a faulty adapter card or device is halting the POST. POST test adapter cards can interpret the debug codes given by the firmware for logic errors. The card displays the codes, so that you can check where the POST has stopped executing. Some motherboards have jumpers to configure modes (such as firmware recovery) or processor settings. If the jumpers are set incorrectly it could cause the computer not to boot.

What may have happened if you cannot access the configuration utility in a RAID 1?

The RAID controller could have failed. WHAT YOU NEED TO KNOW If you cannot access the configuration utility, then the controller itself could have failed. One of the purposes of using RAID (or at least RAID 1/5/10) is that it is much less likely than a simple disk system to just ""stop working."" If one of the underlying disks fails, the volume will be listed as ""degraded"" but the data on the volume will still be accessible. RAID 0 has no redundancy so if one of the disks fails it will stop working - in this scenario you had better hope that you have a recent data backup. This would not be an issue with a RAID 1, 5 or 10.

What is the main advantage of selecting a 64-bit operating system over a 32-bit operating system?

The ability to access more than 4 GB of RAM WHAT YOU NEED TO KNOW To access more than 4 GB of RAM, you will need a 64-bit operating system (OS). 32-bit is limited to 4 GB of RAM, and in some cases 3.25 GB. Many computers today, especially custom computers such as virtualization systems and gaming computers, require more than 4 GB of RAM so a 64-bit OS is the only choice. Unsigned drivers are based on the operating system (OS) itself; whether that OS is 32-bit or 64-bit will not be a factor. You must be an administrator to allow the use of unsigned drivers. Data Execution Prevention (DEP) is a security feature in today's operating systems; it stops a program from executing code in a forbidden area of memory. Most of today's 32-bit or 64-bit systems offer this. 32-bit operating systems can run older 16-bit programs, but 64-bit operating systems will have problems running 16-bit programs even in compatibility mode.

What can you determine for certain if you receive "destination unreachable" message when your ping is unsuccessful?

There is no routing information. WHAT YOU NEED TO KNOW "Destination unreachable" means there is no routing information (that is, the local computer or an intermediate router does not know how to get to that IP address). "Destination unreachable" does not definitively mean that the firewall is blocking ICMP. There are other things that you should check as well, such as the local IP configuration and router. While a cabling problem can be the cause of "destination unreachable" ping responses. There are other issues besides cabling, that can cause a "destination unreachable" ping message, such as other hardware or configuration problems. "Destination unreachable" messages are not just the result of a broken switch. You also need to check the local IP settings such as the IP address, subnet mask, as well as other hardware or cabling problems.

What is NOT true about troubleshooting WiFi network problems?

There may be a problem with the Ethernet NIC. WHAT YOU NEED TO KNOW You need a wireless NIC adapter to connect to WiFi networks. Ethernet NICs connect to wired networks. When troubleshooting wireless networks, as with cabled links, you need to consider problems with the physical media, such as interference, and configuration issues. If a user is looking for a network name that is not shown in the list of available wireless networks (SSID not found), the user could be out of range. If an access point is not operating in compatibility mode it will not be able to communicate with devices that only support older standards.

How can you check to see if you have an invalid partition or file system structure?

Type C: at the command prompt. WHAT YOU NEED TO KNOW If you type C: at the command prompt, and this produces the error message "Invalid media type", the disk has no valid file system on it. If it produces the error message "Invalid drive specification", the drive may have an invalid partition. You can use the Windows chkdsk utility to verify the physical integrity of a formatted disk. Most hard drives run a self-diagnostic program called S.M.A.R.T (Self-Monitoring, Analysis, and Reporting Technology) that can alert the operating system if physical disk reliability is compromised. If you suspect that a hard drive is physically failing, you should try to run an advanced diagnostic test on the hard drive.

A user has lost the charging cable for their company issued Android smartphone. You are tasked with providing them with a replacement. The user has requested to make the cable work with their device without an adapter. While you would need to know the specific make and model of the device to supply the correct charging cable, you can immediately rule out one of the following cables:

USB Type B WHAT YOU NEED TO KNOW USB Type B connectors are typically utilized for connecting devices such as printers and while they can provide power to devices, they are not used with Android devices. USB Type C is the emerging standard for charging and transferring data. Right now, it's included in devices like the newest laptops, phones, and tablets. This could work if it is a newer smartphone. Android-based devices usually have a Micro-B USB port for charging and connectivity. New devices are quickly adopting the USB-C connector. Micro-USB would likely work on this device. Mini-USB connectors and ports are found in older devices. Mini-USB has since been replaced with Micro-B USB and most recent USB-C connectors. If the smartphone is older, the mini-USB might work.

Which built-in feature of a wireless router enables Wi-Fi-enabled devices to be easily discoverable by the router?

Universal Plug and Play (UPnP) WHAT YOU NEED TO KNOW Universal Plug and Play (UPnP) is a feature built into many wireless routers that enables computers, printers, and other wireless devices to be easily discoverable by the router. It is recommended that this feature be disabled if not required as it poses a number of security risks. Quality of Service (QoS) is a feature that allows you to prioritize certain types of network traffic. Network Address Translation (NAT) is used to conceal internal private IP addresses from external networks. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) is a network service that provides automatic assignment of IP addresses and other TCP/IP configuration information for clients configured to use DHCP.

Which device provides microsegmentation without requiring any sort of configuration?

Unmanaged switch WHAT YOU NEED TO KNOW An unmanaged switch performs the microsegmentation function without requiring any sort of configuration. You just power it on, connect some hosts to it, and it works without any more intervention. A managed switch will work as an unmanaged switch out-of-the-box but an administrator can connect to it over a management port, configure security settings, and then choose options for the switch's more advanced functionality. A router is responsible for moving data around a network of networks, known as an internetwork or internet. A bridge is a device that divides a local network into two or more segments. Hosts on one segment are able to communicate with those on another segment only via the bridge.

The small marina business you work for wants to add cable TV into the office building for constant weather updates. You need to connect the new cable modem to existing cable wiring in the building. Which cabling do you use for this project?

Use a RG-6 patch cable. WHAT YOU NEED TO KNOW RG-6 is a coaxial cable that has a thicker core conductor for better signal quality and is often used as drop/patch cable for modern Cable Access TV (CATV) and broadband cable modems. A RJ-45 (Registered Jack) connector is used with twisted pair cable for Ethernet local area networking products. RJ-11 connectors are used with 2- or 3-pair UTP or with flat ribbon; "silver satin" phone cables. Typically, only one pair carries the dial tone and voice. RG-59 is a coaxial cable that has a thinner core conductor and was used as drop cable for older CATV/cable modem installs and is also used for CCTV cabling.

In Windows Firewall properties, how can you prevent a specific port from receiving traffic?

Use the "Allow" state for inbound connections and create a rule to block the port. When using the "Allow" state for inbound connections, you must create rules for any incoming connections you wish to block. When using the "Block" state for outbound connections, you must create rules for each program that is allowed to make an outbound connection. When using the "Allow" state for outbound connections, all outbound connections are allowed by default. You must create rules for programs you wish to block. When using the "Block" state for inbound connections, you must create rules for any incoming connections you wish to allow.

In Windows Firewall properties, how can you block a computer from accessing a specific program?

Use the "Allow" state for outbound connections and create a rule to block the program.

In Windows Firewall properties, how can you block a computer from accessing a specific program?

Use the "Allow" state for outbound connections and create a rule to block the program. WHAT YOU NEED TO KNOW When using the "Allow" state for outbound connections, all outbound connections are allowed by default. You must create rules for programs you wish to block. When using the "Block" state for outbound connections, you must create rules for each program that is allowed to make an outbound connection. When using the "Allow" state for inbound connections, you must create rules for any incoming connections you wish to block. When using the "Block" state for inbound connections, you must create rules for any incoming connections you with to allow.

Which of these attributes describe the Small Form Factor (SFF) case designs?

Used for entertainment systems requiring a very limited number of components WHAT YOU NEED TO KNOW Small Form Factor (SFF) case designs are semi-portable, space-saving designs typically used for domestic entertainment "Media Center" systems. They are usually cube-like or super slimline. SFF cases can only fit a limited number of components. Full tower cases are usually used for PC servers that require the extra internal space for additional hard disks, adapter cards, and redundant power supply units. Mini-tower cases are usually used for office or home PCs where the requirement for additional internal devices and adapter cards is limited. Mid tower cases are used for high-end user PCs. These PCs do require extra devices and adapter cards, but not as many as a server.

Which of the following network authentication methods uses credentials that are verified against a user database?

Username/password WHAT YOU NEED TO KNOW Kerberos allows Single Sign On (SSO) on a network that runs the Kerberos authentication protocol. Windows Active Directory domain networks use Kerberos. Username/password requires the client to submit credentials that are verified by SSH either against a local user database or using an authentication server. Host-based authentication provides non-interactive login, relying on public key authentication between the server and the client but there is considerable risk from intrusion if a client host's private key is compromised. Public key authentication is a network authentication method that can be used for each user account. The user's private key can be configured with a passphrase that must be input to access the key, providing an additional measure of protection compared to host-based authentication.

Cloud computing is an abstraction of computing, where resources are made available to users in which way?

Virtual WHAT YOU NEED TO KNOW Virtual computing is a computing method that is transparent to the user. By using cloud services, users are unaware of what systems, how many systems, or where those systems are located that they are connecting to. Some of these systems may be physical systems or systems that are virtualized. Physical systems, such as a local workstation and server, are represented by actual physical devices. With virtual computing there is transparency in what systems are being used. Redundant systems are systems that are setup in such a way that if there is a failure in a single system or more, users are not impacted in their use. An example of redundant systems are having multiple email servers. Pooling is a method of combining resources to serve a computing need. An example of pooling is with printer pooling. Multiple printers can be set to work together to handle large workloads. A user can send a print job to what appears to be a single printer on their system, however, it will print to any of the printers in the group that is available.

You have installed a Linux operating system in a virtualized environment by using Hyper-V on your Windows 10 desktop computer. You now need to configure networking so the virtual machine can communicate with other systems. What setting do you need to configure within Hyper-V settings?

Virtual switch WHAT YOU NEED TO KNOW The virtual switch within Hyper-V is used to connect the guest virtual machine to the network. A virtual switch can be configured so guest virtual machines can only communicate with one another, or also with the host and the external network as well. A LAN adapter selection is part of the overall Virtual Switch setting. In order to communicate with other systems, the Virtual Switch needs to be configured overall. An IP address would be configured within the guest operating system virtual machine and not within Hyper-V settings. A gateway address would be configured within the guest operating system virtual machine and not within Hyper-V settings.

Which of the following connectors can have audio and video pass through it?

WHAT YOU NEED TO KNOW Answer: High Definition Multimedia Interface (HDMI) The High Definition Multimedia Interface (HDMI) is the most widely used graphic device interface. HDMI supports both video and audio digital streams, plus remote control and digital content protection. The distinctive blue, 15-pin Video Graphics Array (VGA) port was the standard analog video interface for PC devices for a very long time. However, today the most widely used connector is HDMI. The RGB (Red, Green, and Blue) connection is an old standard used by workstation video monitors. It uses the same signals as VGA, both of which are being phased out over newer technologies such as HDMI. Digital Visual Interface (DVI) is a video cable type designed for flat panel display equipment. DVI is now being phased out in favor of better-established technologies, such as HDMI.

When should you consider a workaround as solution to a non-critical IT problem?

When you want to be most cost-effective WHAT YOU NEED TO KNOW If the problem is not critical, and if neither repair nor replacement is cost-effective, it may be best either to find a workaround or just to document the issue and move on. Replacing a part or software is often more expensive and time-consuming. If a part or system is under warranty, you can return the broken part for a replacement. When you are repairing, replacing or upgrading a part or software, you need to determine if the repair or replacement is cost-effective. If fixing a given problem causes other programs not to work, effective change and configuration management system needs to be involved to prevent this.

Where is the memory controller located in a Core 2 Duo system?

Within the chipset WHAT YOU NEED TO KNOW On Core 2 Duo, Quad, and Extreme systems, the memory controller is located within the chipset and is known as the Memory Controller Hub (MCH) by Intel, but it is also referred to as the northbridge. The memory controller is not located on memory in a Core 2 Duo system. It is located within the chipset. On AMD systems and newer Intel systems such as the Core i5 or i7, the memory controller is located "on-die," meaning within the CPU. In hardware-based RAID, a physical controller is used to manage the RAID array. The controller can take the form of a PCI or PCI Express (PCIe) card, which is designed to support a specific drive format such as SATA or SCSI.

In a large network, to which of the following devices would you NOT assign a static Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) address?

Workstation WHAT YOU NEED TO KNOW A workstation in a large network should obtain its IP address via DHCP. Configuring IP statically on each workstation can be very time consuming and prone to errors that can potentially disrupt communication on the network. A network-attached printer has a dedicated functionality and should have a static IP address. A web server hosts applications and should have a static IP address. Servers and resources that are accessed regularly by users generally have static IP addresses. A router is part of network infrastructure and as such, should have a static IP address.

Which of the following is NOT a system requirement for a Hyper-V host?

X86 WHAT YOU NEED TO KNOW X86 is a 32-bit processor (CPU) technology. Hyper-V guest virtual machines (VM) can be 32-bit. However, the host requirement is 64-bit architecture. X86-64 is one of many names for 64-bit processing (CPU) technology. Hyper-V guest virtual machines (VM) can be 32-bit. However, the host requirement is 64-bit architecture. AMD-V is a type of hardware-assisted virtualization built into AMD processors (CPU). This technology provides the hypervisor with features that allow the physical CPUs in the host to be utilized independently buy guest virtual machines (VM). Intel VT is a type of hardware-assisted virtualization built into Intel processors (CPU). This technology provides the hypervisor with features that allow the physical CPUs in the host to be utilized independently buy guest virtual machines (VM).

After using an optical drive cleaning kit, what can you determine if your DVD drive is still not able to read CDs at all?

You have a hardware problem. WHAT YOU NEED TO KNOW Support for CD drives is built into Windows. If your CD drive is not able to read CDs at all, it is likely to be a hardware problem. Most problems related to dirt, are caused by dirt on the disk itself. Disks get dirty and carry that dirt inside the optical drive. Special cleaning kits are available for cleaning optical drives if read/write problems are experienced. However, most problems related to dirt though, are caused by dirt on the disk itself. If you have used a cleaning kit, dirt is most likely not the problem. Remember that a DVD-ROM disk cannot be read from a CD-ROM drive, but a CD-ROM disk CAN be read from a DVD-ROM drive.

What do you need to be aware of when hot swapping a faulty RAID disk?

You should not remove a healthy disk from the array. WHAT YOU NEED TO KNOW When hot swapping a faulty disk, take caution not to remove a healthy disk from the array as making a mistake could cause the array to fail. Hardware RAID is often able to hot swap a damaged disk (replace the failed unit without shutting down Windows), thereby keeping the system operational all the time. Hot swapping is a feature of high-end hardware RAID solutions and requires compatible controller and disk units. While this is usually a server-level feature, it might be implemented on high-end workstations. Hot swappable drives plug (or ""mate"") into a combined data and power port on the enclosure, not cabled connectors. Drives can be easily added and removed from the front of the case without having to open the chassis.

Which motherboard form factor is a square 9.6" square board?

mATX (Micro-ATX) WHAT YOU NEED TO KNOW The mATX (Micro-Advanced Technology Extended) standard specifies a 9.6 (244x244mm) square board, with fewer expansion slots (up to 4 compared to a maximum of 7 for full-sized ATX boards). The ATX (Advanced Technology Extended) is a full-sized board that is 12" wide by 9.6" deep (305x244mm). The ATX specification was developed by Intel in 1995 to provide a new design for PC motherboards. ITX (Information Technology eXtended) was release by VIA Technologies to promote the low power C3 processor. It is a full-sized board that is 8.4" wide by 7.5" deep (215x191mm). Small Form Factor (SFF) PCs often use VIA Technologies' mITX (Mini-ITX) form factor. mITX is 6.7" wide by 6.7" deep (170x170mm) with one expansion slot.

What term describes the number of pixels that make up the dimensions of a display?

resolution WHAT YOU NEED TO KNOW Resolution is the term that describes the number of pixels that make up the dimensions of a display. The higher the resolution, the more objects or information you can fit on the screen at once. Brightness is a measure of how much light is being emitted from a display device whereas resolution has to do with the number of pixels. Contrast is a measure of the difference in intensity between adjacent colors in an image and resolution is the number of pixels that make up the dimensions of a display. Refresh rate is a measure of how many times the display is refreshed per second. The refresh rate is also sometimes called the frame rate.