CPhT Practice Examination III
A patient has been prescribed a fentanyl patch for severe chronic pain. How often should the patch be changed? A. Once a day B. Every 2 days C. Every 3 days D. Once a week
A fentanyl patch is changed every 3 days.
A pregnant female presents a prescription for isotretinoin to be filled. Which of the following should a pharmacy technician do? A. Alert the pharmacist of the situation. B. Contact the prescriber to determine if they were aware the patient was pregnant. C. Fill the prescription. D. Return the prescription to the patient.
a- isotretinoin taken during pregnancy may result in birth defects. The pharmacy technician must notify the pharmacist immediately.
Which of the following medications should a patient take with a glass of water and should remain in an upright position for a minimum of 30 minutes? A. Alendronate B. Estradiol C. Levothyroxine D. Zolpidern
a-A patient should take alendronate with a glass of water and should remain in an upright position for 30 minutes.
Which of the following medications should have the auxiliary label "Take on an Empty Stomach" affixed to the prescription vial? A. alendronate B. carbamazepine C. carvedilol D. celecoxib
a-Alendronate should be taken on an empty stomach. It should be taken 30 minutes prior to drinking, eating, or taking any other medications.
Which of the following medications would be appropriate to dispense to a 64-year-old woman diagnosed with osteoporosis? A. alendronate with vitamin D B. estradiol C. naproxen D. sertraline
a-Alendronate with vitainin D may be dispensed to a 64-year old patient, According to the American Geriatrics Society (ACS) Beers Criteria for Potentially Inappropriate Medication (PIM) Use in Older Adults, estradiol 1nay exacerbate urinary incontinence, NSAIDs such as naproxen may cause gastric or duodenal ulcers, and SSRIs such as sertraline should be used with caution in older adults.
Which of the following branded over-the-counter medications contains naproxen sodium as its active ingredient? A. Aleve B. Maalox C. Motrin 1B D. Tylenol
a-Aleve contains naproxen sodium as its active ingredient. Maalox contains aluminmn hydroxide and 1nagnesium hydroxide, Motrin IB contains ibuprofen, and Tylenol contains acetaminophen.
Which of the following medications is.exempted from being dispensed in a child-resistant container? A. Lyrica B. Metformin C. Ortho-Novurn 7/7/7 D. Singulair
c-Ortho-Novum 7/7 /7 is exempted from being dispensed in a child-resistant container.
Which of the following may be used when treating a sunburn? A. Aloe Vera B. Goldenseal C. Peppermint D. Valerian
a-Aloe vera may be used in h"'eating a sunburn.. Goldenseal may be used to boost the immune system; peppermint may be used to heat an upset stomach; and valerian has been used as a sedative, an analgesic, or for nervous tension.
Which of the following analgesics may cause liver damage as an adverse reaction? A. acetaminophen B. aspirin C. celecoxib D. naproxen
a-An adverse reaction associated with acetaminophen is liver damage.
A patient has been prescribed clotrimazole orophmyngeal buccal tablets. Where should the patient place this tablet? A. Between the cheeks and gum B. In the mouth and swallow C. In the rectum D. Under the tongue
a-Buccal tablets are placed between the gum and the cheek and are absorbed into the bloodstream at that point.
Which of the following medications would be prescribed for a patient diagnosed with fibromyalgia? A. cyclobenzaprine B. escitalopram C. fenofibrale D. tamsulosin
a-Cydobenzaprine is indicated for fibromyalgia. Escitaloprarn is indicated for depression, fenofibrate is used for hyperlipidernia, and tamsulosin is used for benign prostate hypertrophy.
A pharmacy technician has accidentally spilled a pint of guaifenesin/ codeine, which is a controlled substance. Which DEA form is used to document the spillage of a controlled substance in a pharmacy? A. DEA form 41 B. DEA form 106 C. DEA form 222 D. DEA form 224
a-DEA form 41 is used to designate controlled substances that are being surrendered for destruction due to damage or being expired. DEA form 106 is used to report the theft of Controlled substances. DEA form 222 is used to order Schedule II medications. DEA form 224 is used to register a pharmacy with the DEA that will permit it to dispense controlled substances.
A patient has been diagnosed with a major depressive episode and duloxetine has been prescribed; which of the following are appropriate directions for use? A. PO q AM B. PO bid C. PO q 6 hours D. PO g hs
a-Duloxetine should be taken orally once a day in the morning.
A patient has been diagnosed with deep vein thrombosis.Which of the following medications is an appropriate treatment for this condition? A. enoxaparin B. lovastatin C. pramipexole D. pregabalin
a-Enoxaparin is indicated for deep vein thrombosis. Lovastatin is indicated for hypercholesterolemia, pramipexole is indicated for Parkinson disease, and pregabalin is indicated for neuropathic pain.
Which of the following .medications is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor and is indicated for depression? A. escitaloprarn B. eszopiclone C. omega-3-acid ethyl esters D. vardenafil
a-Escitalopram is indicated for depression. Eszopiclone is indicated for insomnia, omega-3-acid ethyl esters is indicated for hypertriglyceridemia, and vardenafil is indicated for erectile dysfunction.
Which of the following is the strongest dose? A. NTG 1/100 gr B. NTG 1/150 gr C. NTG 1/200 gr D. NTG 1/400 gr
a-NTG 1/100 gr is the strongest dose, 1/100 is greater than 1/150, 1/200, or 1/400.
Which of the following drug classifications may result in the patient experiencing nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity? A. Aminoglycosides B. Cephalosporins C. Fluoroquinolones D. Macrolides
a-Side effects associated with aminoglycosides include nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity.
Which organization determines the medications requiring medication guides be distributed to the patient? A. FDA B. ISMP C. TJC D. USP
a-The FDA determines those medications requiring medication guides.
Which term refers to the name of the medication, its strength, and the quantity to be dispensed? A. Inscription B. Rx C. Signa D. Subscription
a-The inscription is the name, strength, and quantity of the medication to be dispensed; Rx means to take a particular drug, the signa means "write on label" and is the direction to the patient, and the subscription contains instructions to the pharmacist (e.g., regarding refills, packaging, and generic substitution).
How often must the temperature be taken and recorded in a pharmacy compounding sterile preparations? A. once a day B. twice a day C. three times a day D. 4 times a day
a-USP <797> requires that the temperature be taken and recorded once a day.
Which of the following medications carries a boxed warning? A. allopurinol B. ezetimibe C. levalbuterol D. sertraline .
d-Sertraline carries a boxed warning
Which of the following is the generic name for vitamin K? A. ergocalciferol B. phytonadione C. retinal D. tocopherol
b-Phytonadione is the generic name for vitan1in K. Ergocalciferol is generic for vitainin D2, retinal is generic for vitamin A, and tocopherol is generic for vitamin E.
A patient has been prescribed Singulair; which of the following auxiliary labels should be affixed to the prescription bottle? A. May cause drowsiness. B. Take on an empty stomach. C. Take 1 hour before or 2 hours after a meal. D. Take with milk
b-Singulair should be taken on an empty stomach.
Both glipiZIDE and glyBURIDE are examples of which of the following? A. Drugs found on the "Do Not Use" list B. Drugs using tall man letters C.lnvestigational drugs D. Proprietary drugs
b glipiZIDE and glyBURIDE are examples of medications using tall man letters.
A medication guide must be provided in all of the following situations EXCEPT A.when the drug is dispensed in an outpatient setting and the product will then be used by the patient without direct supervision by a health care professional. B. when the drug is dispensed in an inp2itient setting. C. when the medication is a rcquirern.ent of n REMS. D. when the patient requests it.
b-A medication guide does NOT need to be provided for a medication dispensed in an inpatient setting. Medication guides do need to be provided to a patient when the patient or the patient's agent requests a medication guide; when a drug is dispensed in an outpatient setting (e.g., retail pharmacy, hospital ambulatory care pharmacy) and the product will then be used by the patient without direct supervision by a health care professional; the first time a drug is dispensed to a health care professional for administration to a patient in an outpatient setting, such as in a clinic or dialysis or infusion center; the first time a drug is dispensed in an outpatient setting of any kind; after a medication guide is materially changed (e.g., after addition of a new indication, new safety information); and when a drug is subject to a REMS that includes specific requirements for reviewing or providing a medication guide as part of an element to assure safe use (possibly in conjunction with distribution, the medication guide must be provided in accordance with the terms of the REMS).
Which drug classification does o medication with a -sartan suffix belong? A. Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor B. Angiotensin U receptor antagonist C. Calcium. channel blocker D. Loop diuretic
b-Angiotcnsin IT receptor antagonists end with the suffix -sartan. Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors are identified with a -pril suffix, calcium channel blockers have the suffix -dipine, and loop diuretics have the suffix-semide.
Which of the following is an indication for angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor? A. Epilepsy B. Hypertension C. Schizophrenia D. Type II diabetes mellitus
b-Angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are indicated for hypertension.
A patient complains of having difficulty focusing their attention in a quiet inattentive manner and displays hyperactivity at times. Which medication would be appropriate for physician to prescribe? A. amitriptyline B. atomoxetine C. eletriptan D. olanzapine
b-Atomoxetine is indicated for attention deficit hyperactivity disorder. Amitriptyline is indicated for depression, eletriptan for migraine headaches, and olanzapine for psychosis or bipolar disorders.
A patient has been diagnosed having seizures and who has been prescribed carbamazepine. While on this medication, the patient should have which laboratory test performed? A. Blood glucose B. BUN C. HDL cholestorol D. triglycerides
b-Carbamazepine, furosemide, propranolol, spironolactone, cephalosporins, tetracyclines, and thiazide diuretics are examples of medications that elevate BUN levels in the body.
A pharmacy technician has been asked to compound a medication and has been instructed by the pharmacist to reduce the substance to small, fine particles. This is an example of which compounding technique? A. Blending B. Comminution C. Levigation D. Tumbling
b-Comminution is defined as an act of reducing a substance to small, fine particles. Blending is an act of combining two substances. Levigation is trituration of a powder drug with a solvent, in which the drug is insoluble with the solvent. Tumbling is the process of combining powders in a bag and shaking .it.
Which of the following is a side effect of prednisone? A. Drowsiness B. Edema C. Hypotension D. Hypothyroidism
b-Edema is a side effect of prednisone.
How long must a pharmacy maintain the original prescription order for a patient? A. 1 year B. 2 years C. 3 years D. 4 years
b-Federal law requires that a pharmacy maintain a prescription on file for a minimum of 2 years after it was last filled.
Which classification of antidepressants needs to be washed out of the body before a patient switches to another antidepressant? A, Lithium B. MAOIs C. SSRIs D. TCAs
b-MAOIs inhibit the activity of enzymes that break down catecholamine; therefore the buildup of transmitters occurs at the synapse. Because of this buildup, MAOls must be washed out of the system before treatment with another antidepressant is begun.
Under the Controlled Substance Act, which drug schedule is meperidine classified? A. Schedule I controlled substance B. Schedule II controlled substance C. Schedule III controlled substance D. Schedule IV controlled substance
b-Meperidine is a Schedule II drug according to the Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act of 1970.
Which of the following is the generic name for Paxil? A. lansoprazole B. paroxetine C. pravastatin D. sertraline
b-Paroxetine ,is the generic for Paxil. Lansoprazole is the generic for Prevacid, pravastatin is the generic for Pravachol, and sertraline is the generic for Zoloft.
Which of the following is the purpose of tall man lettering? A. Identify dissimilarities in drug classifications. B. Identify dissimilarities in drug names. C. Identify simlarities in drug classifications. D. Identify similarities in drug names.
b-Tall man lettering is used in identifying dissimilarities in drug names.
Which is the maximum quantity of pseudoephedrine that may be sold in 1 day to a patient? A. 2.5 g B. 3.6 g C. 7.5 g D. 9 g
b-The Combat Methamphetamine Epidemic Act of 2005 allows maximum of 3.6 g to be purchased in one day.
What do the first five digits of an NDC number represent? A. Drug item B. Drug manufacturer C. Drug package D. Drug schedule
b-The first five digits of an NOC number identify the drug manufacturer, the next four digits indicate the drug product, and the last two digits refer to the packaging of the drug.
What is the maximum number of different medications that may be ordered on a paper DEA form 222? A. 5 B. 10 C. 15 D. 20
b-The maximum number of different Schedule II medications permitted on a paper DEA form 222 is 10.
Which is the correct way to write five milligrams on a prescription/medication order? A. 0.5 mg B. 5mg C. 5.0 mg D. 5.00 mg
b-Trailing zeroes should not appear on prescriptions or medication orders, according to The Joint Commission and the Institute of Safe Medication Practices.
54. Which of the following routes of administration is the quickest in producing a pharmacological response? A. Intradermally B. Intramuscularly C. Intravenously D. Subcutaneously
c-Medications administered intravenously result in the quickest response.
Which of the following would be an appropriate auxiliary label for a prescription of metoprolol? A.May discolor urine or feces. B. Federal law prohibits the transfer of this drug to any person other than the person for whom it was prescribed. C. Take with food or milk. D. Take with orange juice.
c-Metoprolol should be taken with food or milk.
Interpret the following prescription: Tussionex PennKinetic suspension 60 mL 1 tsp PO q 12h for cough Which are the appropriate directions for use to appear on the prescription label? A. Take 1 tsp by mouth every 12 hours for cough. B. Take 1 teaspoon by mouth every 12 hours as needed for cough. C. Take 1 teaspoon by mouth every 12 hours for cough. D. Take 1 tablespoon by mouth every 12 hours for cough
c- Take 1 teaspoon (tsp) by mouth (PO) every (q) 12 hours (hr) for cough.
A patient is prescribed Humulin N 25 units BID subcutaneous; how many days will the prescription last? A. 10 days B. 15 days C. 20 days D. 30 days
c-100 units/1 mL= X units/10 mL, where X = 1000 units, 25 units BID (2 times a day) = 50 units/ day. 50 units/ day = 1000 units/X days, where X = 20 days,
If a patient is to receive 2.4 g of medication per day and the drug is available in 600 mg tablets, how many tablets are needed for a day's dose? A. Half a tablet B. 1 tablet C. 4 tablets D. 8 tablets
c-2.4 g is equal to 2400 mg. The problem can be solved using the following proportion: 600 mg/tablet= 2400 mg/X tablets, where Xis equal to 4 tablets.
The following prescription is presented to the pharmacy.How many days will it last? Latanoprost ophthalmic 0.005°/4) 2.5 mL 1 gtt in each eye q pm A. 15 days B. 20 days C. 25 days D. 30 days
c-20 drops/ml X drops/2.5 mL, where X 50 drops. The patient is instilling one drop in each eye in the evening; 2 drops/ day = 50 drops/X days, ·where X = 25davs.
If a medication has awarded a "B" therapeutic equivalent code by the FDA, which of the following does it mean? A. It is therapeutically equivalent to other phannaceutically equivalent products. B. In conventional dosage forms it does not present bioequivalence problems. C. It is not therapeutically equivalent to other pharmaceutically equivalent products, D. It requires further FDA investigation and review to determine therapeutic equivalence.
c-A "B" classification indicates the FDA does not consider it to be therapeutically equivalent to other pharmaceutically equivalent products. Drug products that the FDA considers to be therapeutically equivalent to other pharmaceutically equivalent products are classified with an" A" rating. Medications classified as II AA" products available in conventional dosage forms do not present bioequivalence problems. A "B*" classification requires further FDA investigation and review to determine therapeutic equivalence.
A patient has been prescribed Transderm-Scop for vertigo. How often should the transdermal patch be changed? A. Daily B. Twice a day C. Every 3 days D. Weekly
c-A Transdenn-Scop patch should be changed every 3 days.
A deficiency of which vitamin results in pernicious anemia? A. B1 B. B7 C. B12 D. C
c-A deficiency in vitamin B12 may result in pernicious anemia. A deficiency in vitamin B1 results in beriberi, a vitamin B12 deficiency results in dermatitis, and a vitamin C deficiency in scurvy.
Which type of hospital error occurs when a medication is com.pounded incorrectly and administered to the patient? A. Wrong administration B. Wrong dosage form C. Wrong drug preparation D. Unauthorized drug error
c-According to the ASHP, this is an example of a wrong drug preparation, which is defined as a drug being incorrectly formulated or manipulated and the medication is administered to the patient.
Who must adhere to the "Do Not Use" List? A. Community pharmacies B. Compounding pharmacies C. Health care facilities accredited by The Joint Commission D. Mail order pharmacies
c-Any health care institution accredited by The Joint Commission (TJC) must include the TJC's "Do Not Use" list in their formulary and adhere to the list to reduce medication errors.
H.ow many grams of fluorouracil will a 154-lb patient receive in 5 successive days at a dosage rate of 12 mg/ kg/day? A. 0.84 g B. 1.848 g C. 4.2 g D. 9.2•1 g
c-Convert 154 lb to kilograms (154 lb/2.2 lb per kg= 70 kg). Calculate the amount of drug the patient will receive per day (12 mg/kg/day X 70 kg= 840 mg). Multiply the amount per day times 5 days (840 mg/day X 5 days = 4200 mg). Convert milligrams to grams (4200 mg/1000 mg per gram = 4.2 g).
What is the generic name for Zestril? A. enalapril B. fosinopril C. lisinopril D. quinapril
c-Lisinopril is the generic name for Zestril. Enalapril is generic for Vasotec, fosinopril is generic for Monopril, and quinapril is generic for Accupril.
Which term is defined as the process of identifying the most up-to-date list of all the medications a patient is taking? A. Drug utilization evaluation B. Drug utilization review C. Medication reconciliation D. Patient profile update
c-Medication reconciliation is the process of obtaining a list of all medications (prescription and over-the counter drugs) that a patient is taking. Drug utilization evaluation, formerly known as drug utilization review, is part of the prescription filling process in which the prescription being filled is being checked against other medications on a patient's profile to make sure there are no drug interactions or contraindications. A patient profile is information about the patient to include demographic information, a history of disease states or illness, allergies, and medications the patient is taking.
Which of the following electrolytes is necessary for the heart to function properly? A. Calcium B. Iodine C. Potassium D. Zinc
c-Potassium is necessary for the heart to function properly. Calcium is needed to maintain both bones and teeth. Iodine is required for the thyroid to function. Zinc aids in building up the immune system.
Which of the following medications may require a prior authorization be obtained before dispensing? A. Cipro B. Lasix C. Retin-A D. Zoloft
c-Retin-A may require prior authorization depending on the age of the patient.
How much water should be added to 1 L of 70% isopropyl alcohol to prepare a 30 percent solution? A. 2.33 mL B. 42.86 mL C. 1333 mL D. 2.33 L
c-Solve by using the following formula: (!S)(IV) = (FS) (FV), where IS = 70%, IV = 1000 mL, and FS = 30%; FV = 2333 mL. The amount of water needed = FV - IV (2333 mL - 1000 mL = 1333 mL of water).
Which organization is responsible for issuing drug recalls? A. Board of pharmacy B. DEA C. FDA D. NABP
c-The FDA has the authority to issue a medication recall if the manufacturer does not voluntarily issue one.
Which of the following drugs must be placed in a child resistant container? A. erythromycin ethylsuccinate tablets in packages not containing more than 16 g B. n1ebendazole tablets C. rosiglitazone tablets D. sodium fluoride tablets
c-The Poison Prevention Packaging Act of 1970 does NOT exempt rosiglitazone (Avandia) from being packaged in a child-resistant container.
The pharmacy technician receives a prescription for cyclobenzaprine 10 mg, and the instructions read "i PO lid," What is the total daily dose? A. 10 mg B. 20 mg C, 30 mg D. 40 mg
c-The patient is receiving 10 mg/ dose x 3 doses/ day, which equals 30 mg/day.
A patient presents you with a prescription for furosemide 20 mg. As you are processing the prescription, you receive a therapy-duplication message, because they have a prescription for spironolactone 25 mg. What should you do? A. Call the physician about the situation. B. Inform the patient they should stop taking the spironolactone. C. Inform the pharmacist. D. Process the prescription.
c-The pharmacy technician should inform the pharmacist any time a therapy-duplication warning appears while processing a prescription.
Which o(the following will elevate blood glucose levels? A. Aspirin B. Beta blockers C. Thiazide diuretics D. Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole
c-Thiazide diuretics will elevate blood glucose levels. Beta-blockers, aspirin, and trimethoprim/ sulfamethoxazole will lower blood glucose levels.
How frequently must a pharmacy technician handles hazardous drugs receive training? A. every 4 months B. every 6 months C. every 12 months D. every 24 months
c-USP <800> requires a pharmacy technician who handles hazardous drugs must receive training every 12 months.
If a pharmacy technician spills a hazardous substance in their eye, how long should they flood the affected eye with water or an isotonic eye wash? A. 5 minutes B. 10 minutes C. 15 minutes D. 20 minutes
c-USP <800> requires an individual to flood an eye exposed to a hazardous substance for a manimum of 15 minutes using water or an isotonic solution.
A pharmacy technician uses D10W solution to compound a sterile compound instead of normal saline solution. Which type of medication error has occurred? A. Improper dose error B. Wrong dosage-form error C. Wrong drug preparation error D. Wrong administration-technique error
c-Using the wrong solution to compound a sterile preparation is an example of a wrong drug preparation. This type of error occurs when the drug product is incorrectly formulated or manipulated before administration. An improper dose error occurs when the dose that is administered is greater than or less than the amount ordered by the prescriber. A wrong dosage form error occurs when a dosage form administered to a patient is different than what was prescribed. A wrong administration-technique error is one where either an inappropriate procedure or improper technique in administering a drug occurs.
All of the following medications are measured in international units EXCEPT A. heparin. B. insulin. C. vitamin B6 D. vitamin E
c-Vitamin B6 is measured in milligrams. Heparin, insulin, and vitamin E are measured in international units.
Which of the following medications should not be crushed? A. Lasix B. Naprosyn C. TenonT1.in D. Toprol XL
cl-According to the ISMP, Toprol XL should not be crushed or chewed, because it is formulated as a long-acting dosage form.
Which of the following drug classifications is indicated for depression? A. Biguanide B. HMG Co-A reductase inhibitor C. Protease inhibitor D. Selective serotonin receptor inhibitor
cl-Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are indicated for depression. Biguanides are used in treating type II diabetes, HMG Co-A reductase is indicated for hyperlipidemia, and protease inhibitors (Pis) are used in treating HIV/ AIDS.
How many days would 40 capsules of a medication last if the directions were "i cap qid"? A. 4 days B. 6 days C. 8 days D. 10 days
d 4 capsules/day= 40 capsules/X days, where X = 10 days.
A 27-year-old female patient has been diagnosed with depression and obsessive-compulsive disorder. Her physician wishes to prescribe an SSRI; which medication would be an appropriate choice? A. amitriptyline B. bupropion C. imipramine D. sertraline
d-Sertraline is an SSRl used in treating depression and obsessive-compulsive disorder. Amitriptyline and imipramine are tricyclic antidepressants and bupropion is a norepinephrine-dopamine reuptake inhibitor.
Which of the following OTC ingredients is indicated for flatulence? A. docusate B. polyethylene glycol/ electrolytes C. psylliurn D. simethicone
d-Simethicone is indicated for flatulence. Docusate is a stool softener and polyethylene glycol/ electrolytes and psyllium are bulk laxatives.
How often is a biennial inventory for controlled substances taken in a pharmacy? A. Monthly B. Twice per year C. Yearly D. Every 2 years
d-A biennial inventory of all controlled substances is required to be taken every 2 years by the DEA.
A patient has developed a goiter which is a symptom of which condition? A. Cancer B. Hypertension C. Hypoglycemia D. Hyperthyroidism
d-A goiter is associated with hyperthyroidism.
If a hospital pharmacy fails to review a patient's INR/PT lab results; which type of medication error is this? A. Unauthorized drug error B. Compliance error C. Improper dose error D. Monitoring error
d-A hospital pharmacy that fails to monitor a patient's INR/PT is an example of a monitoring error.
lf taken with alcohol, which of the following antibiotics may result in a disulfiram,-like reaction? A. amoxicillin/clavulanate B. cephalexin C. clarithr01nycin D. metronidazo]e
d-A patient being treated with metronidazole should not consume alcohol while taking the medication because of the possibility of experiencing a disulfiram-like reaction.
Which medications requires that a patient have a negative pregnancy test within 24 hours of beginning it? A. doxycycline B. insulin lispro C. methotrexate D. thalidmnide
d-A patient must have a negative pregnancy test within 24 hours of beginning treatment with thalidomide.
Which medication if expired and dispensed to a patient may be fatal to the patient? A. amoxicillin B. cephalexin C. darithromycin D. tetracycline
d-A patient taking expired tetracycline may be fatal to them. If the other products are taken after they have expired, the effectiveness will not be guaranteed by the manufacturer.
How much guaifenesin with codeine would you dispense for a 7-day supply if the prescription calls for "Guaifenesin with Codeine 5 mLq4h PO prn"? A. 120 mL B. 150 mL C. 180 mL D. 210 mL
d-A patient would receive a maximum of six doses of (5 mL)/day for 7 days. 5 mL/dose x 6 doses/day x 7 days = 210 mL. The pharmacy would need to dispense 210 mL (7 fl oz) to fill the prescription.
Which of the following may handle the disposition of controlled substances? A. DEA B. FDA C. Drug manufacturer D. Reverse distributor
d-A reverse distributor is permitted to handle the disposition of controlled substances. The DEA enforces the Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act of 1970, which defines a reverse distributor. The FDA is responsible to ensure that medications classified as controlled substances by the DEA are pure, safe, and effective. A drug manufacturer is responsible for manufacturing medications.
Which medication is being monitored if a patient has an INR value of 3.0? A. dabigatran B. enoxaparin C. rivaroxaban D. warfarin
d-INRs are used to measure how quickly warfarin coagulates.
What is the correct interpretation of "10 mg MSO4 IM q4h prn pain"? A. Inhale 10 mg of morphine sulfate every 4 hours 85 needed for pain. B. Insert 10 mL of morphine sulfate intramuscularly every 4 hours as needed for pain. C. Inject 10 mg of morphine sulfate intravenously every 4 hours as needed for pain. D. Inject 10 mg of m011-1hine sulfate intramuscularly eve1y 4 hours as needed for pain.
d-Inject 10mg of morphine sulfate (MSO,) intramuscularly (IM) every (q) 4 hours (4h) as needed (prn) for pain.
Which of the following medication is indicated for glaucoma? A. bacitracin ophthalmic B. cromolyn ophthalmic C. gentainicin ophthalmic D. latanoprost ophthalmic
d-Latanoprost is indicated for glaucoma. Bacitracin and gentamicin ophthahnic are used to treat bacterial ocular infections. Cromolyn ophthalmic is indicated for allergic conjunctivitis.
Which of the following medications is available as a suspension and is injected intramuscularly? A. ethinyl estradiol/ etonogestrel B. ethinyl estradiol/norelgestromin C. levonorgestrel D. medroxyprogesterone
d-Medroxyprogesterone is available as a suspension that may be administered intramuscularly. Ethinyl estradiol/etonogestrel is available as a vaginal ring, ethinyl estradiol/norelgestron1ll1is available as a patch, and levonorgestrel is a tablet.
Which of the following medications should be tapered when discontinuing therapy? A. atorvastatin B. furosemide C. lisinopril D. metoprolol
d-Metoprolol is a beta-blocker. When discontinuing a beta-blocker the patient should be tapered off their medication.
How many teaspoon doses are in a pint of elixir? A. 24 B. 48 C. 72 D. 96
d-One teaspoon is approximately 5 mL and one pint is equal to 480 mL 5 mL/1 tsp 480 mL/X tsp, where X = 96 teaspoons.
Which of the following is a Risk Evaluation and Mitigation Strategy (REMS) used to manage a known or potential serious risk? A. Compounds B. lnvestigational new drugs C. OTC medications D. Prescription medications
d-Risk Evaluation and Mitigation Strategy (REMS) is used to manage a known or potential serious risk associated with prescription medications.
Which of the following medications is indicated for diabetes mellitus? A. clonazepam B. larnotrigine C. lurasidone D. sitagliptin
d-Sitagliptin is indicated for diabetes mellitus. Clonazepam is indicated for seizure disorders, lamotrigine is indicated for bipolar disorders, and lurasidone is indicated for schizophrenia.
Which of the following medications if taken with nitroglycerin may result in postural hypotension? A. losartan B. imvastatin C. spironolactone D. tadalafil
d-Tada!afil is a phosphodiesterase type 5 inhibitm; which when taken with a nitrate such as nitroglycerin will result in the patient experiencing postural hypotension.
A patient has been diagnosed with breast cancer, and their physician wishes to prescribe a selective estrogen receptor modulator. Which of the following shou1d be prescribed? A. anastrozole B. megestrol C. paclitaxel D. tamoxifen
d-Tamoxifen is a selective estrogen receptor modulator. Anastrozole is an aromatase inhibitm megestrol is a progestin, and paclitaxel is a classified as a taxane. All are indicated in treating breast cancer.
A 75-year-old patient presents a prescription for Zoloft to be filled. Which of the following should the pharmacy technician do? A. Ask the patient if they would like to have their prescription dispensed in a child-resistant container. B. Contact the physician to see if a generic may be dispensed to save the patient money. C. Dispense the prescription as written. D. Notify the pharmacist.
d-The American Geriatrics Society Beers Criteria has classified SSRIs such as Zoloft as a potentially inappropriate medication/ drug classification to be used with caution in older adults. The technician should inform the pharmacist of the 75-year old patient presenting a prescription of Zoloft to be filled. At that time the pharmacist will make a decision on the proper course of action.
What should a pharmacy technician do while processing a prescription if they receive a contraindication message on the pharmacy terminal screen? A. Bypass the screen and continue to process the prescription. B. Contact the physician and ask that a different drug be prescribed. C. Inform the patient that you cannot fill the prescription because the physician made an error. D. Inform the pharmacist of the message.
d-The pharmacist should be informed of any contraindications that appear while a pharmacy technician is performing a DUE. A pharmacist is qualified and permitted to make these decisions regarding a patient's therapy. The role of the pharmacy technician is to perform technical tasks not make decisions on a patient's medication therapy.
How many grams of a 10% and 2% ointment should be used to make 25 g of a 5% ointment? a. 2%: 9.4 g; 10%: 15.6 g b. 2%: 10 g; 10%: 15 g C. 2%: 12.5 g; 10%: 12.5 g d. 2%: 15.6 g; 10%: 9.4 g
d-This is an alligation problem in which one would use 9.4 g of the 10% ointment and 15.6 g of the 2% ointment to make 25 g of a 5% compound.
A 52-year-old male has been diagnosed with hypertension; which of the medications is indicated for this condition? A. etanercept B. fluticasone C. tamsulosin D. triamterene/hydrochlorothiazide
d-Triamterene/hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic and is indicated for the treatment of hypertension. Etanercept is indicated for arthritis, fluticasone is indicated for asthma, and tcimsulosin is indicated for benign prostatic hypertrophy.
A patient informs you they have experienced an adverse effect as a result of the vaccination they received this morning from the pharmacy. After informing the pharmacist of this situation, which organization should be notified? A. FAERS B. ISMPVERP C. MEDMARX D. VAERS
d-Vaccine Adverse Effect Reporting System (VAERS) is a system that allows the reporting of adverse effects associated with a vaccine to the Food and Drug Administration (FDA).
According to MEDMARX, which of the following medications has resulted in a large number of medication errors? A. hydrochlorothiazide B. naproxen C. propranolol D. warfarin
d-Warfarin has been identified through MEDMARX as one of the 10 most common medications involved in medication errors.
When transferring a controlled substance prescription to another pharmacy, which of the following must be written on the front of the original prescription? A. Copy B. New C. Transferred D. Void
d-When transferring a controlled substance prescription to another pharmacy the pharmacist must write void on the front of the original prescription.
Which of the following interpretations of "i cap PO qid ac and hs" is correct? A. Take one caplet by mouth 1 hour before meals and at bedtime. B. Take one capsule by mouth 1 hour before meals and at bedtime. C. Take one capsule by mouth after meals and before bedtime. D. Take one capsule by mouth four times a day before meals and at bedtime.
d-i (1) cap (capsule) qid (four times per day) ac (before meals) and hs (at bedtime).
Which of the following actions should you take when receiving an illegible prescription? A. Ask the patient if they remember the name of the medication. B. Call the prescriber for clarification. C. Inform the patient that you can't fill the prescription because you can't read it. D. Inform the pharmacist of the situation.
d. Inform the pharmacist when you are processing a prescription that is illegible.
How many milliliters of a 1:50 (-w /v) stock solution can be prepared from 1 pint of a 5% stock solution? A. 96 mL B. 92 mL C. 720 mL D. 1200 mL
d.Initial volume is 480 mL, initial strength is 5%, and final strength is 1:50 (2%), (480 mL)(5%) = (X mL)(2%), where X = 1200 mL.
Which is the generic name for Namenda? A. gabapentin B. memantine C. naproxen D. saxagliptin
memantine
