crisis 2 exam four chapter questions

598. The nurse is teaching a client who is beginning antiviral therapy for influenza. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the instructions? 1. "I must take the medication exactly as prescribed." 2. "Once I start the medication, I will no longer be contagious." 3. "I will not get any colds or infections while taking this medication." 4. "This medication has minimal side effects and I can return to normal activities."

1. "I must take the medication exactly as prescribed." Rationale: Antiviral medications for influenza must be taken exactly as prescribed. These medications do not prevent the spread of influenza, and clients are usually contagious for up to 2 days after the initiation of antiviral medications. Secondary bacterial infections may occur despite antiviral treatment. Side effects occur with these medications and may necessitate a change in activities, especially when driving or operating machinery if dizziness occurs.

866. A client develops an anaphylactic reaction after receiving morphine. The nurse should plan to institute which actions? Select all that apply. 1. Administer oxygen. 2. Quickly assess the client's respiratory status. 3. Document the event, interventions, and client's response. 4. Keep the client supine regardless of the blood pressure readings. 5. Leave the client briefly to contact a primary health care provider (PHCP). 6. Start an intravenous (IV) infusion of D5W and administer a 500-mL bolus.

1, 2, 3 Rationale: An anaphylactic reaction requires immediate action, starting with quickly assessing the client's respiratory status. Although the PHCP and the Rapid Response Team must be notified immediately, the nurse must stay with the client. Oxygen is administered and an IV of normal saline is started and infused per PHCP prescription. Documentation of the event, actions taken, and client outcomes needs to be done. The head of the bed should be elevated if the client's blood pressure is normal.

595. Rifabutin is prescribed for a client with active Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC) disease and tuberculosis. The nurse should monitor for which side and adverse effects of rifabutin? Select all that apply. 1. Signs of hepatitis 2. Flu-like syndrome 3. Low neutrophil count 4. Vitamin B6 deficiency 5. Ocular pain or blurred vision 6. Tingling and numbness of the fingers

1, 2, 3, 5 Rationale: Rifabutin may be prescribed for a client with active MAC disease and tuberculosis. It inhibits mycobacterial DNA-dependent RNA polymerase and suppresses protein synthesis. Side and adverse effects include rash, gastrointestinal disturbances, neutropenia (low neutrophil count), red-orange-colored body secretions, uveitis (blurred vision and eye pain), myositis, arthralgia, hepatitis, chest pain with dyspnea, and flu-like syndrome. Vitamin B6 deficiency and numbness and tingling in the extremities are associated with the use of isoniazid.

511. A client has been diagnosed with hyperthyroidism. The nurse monitors for which signs and symptoms indicating a complication of this disorder? Select all that apply. 1. Fever 2. Nausea 3. Lethargy 4. Tremors 5. Confusion 6. Bradycardia

1, 2, 4, 5 Rationale: Thyroid storm is an acute and life-threatening complication that occurs in a client with uncontrollable hyperthyroidism. Signs and symptoms of thyroid storm include elevated temperature (fever), nausea, and tremors. In addition, as the condition progresses, the client becomes confused. The client is restless and anxious and experiences tachycardia.

60. The nurse notes that a client's arterial blood gas (ABG) results reveal a pH of 7.50 and a Paco2 of 30 mm Hg (30 mm Hg). The nurse monitors the client for which clinical manifestations associated with these ABG results? Select all that apply. 1. Nausea 2. Confusion 3. Bradypnea 4. Tachycardia 5. Hyperkalemia 6. Lightheadedness

1, 2, 4, 6 Rationale: Respiratory alkalosis is defined as a deficit of carbonic acid or a decrease in hydrogen ion concentration that results from the accumulation of base or from a loss of acid without a comparable loss of base in the body fluids. This occurs in conditions that cause overstimulation of the respiratory system. Clinical manifestations of respiratory alkalosis include lethargy, lightheadedness, confusion, tachycardia, dysrhythmias related to hypokalemia, nausea, vomiting, epigastric pain, and numbness and tingling of the extremities. Hyperventilation (tachypnea) occurs. Bradypnea describes respirations that are regular but abnormally slow. Hyperkalemia is associated with acidosis.

521. The nurse is monitoring a client receiving levothyroxine sodium for hypothyroidism. Which findings indicate the presence of a side effect associated with this medication? Select all that apply. 1. Insomnia 2. Weight loss 3. Bradycardia 4. Constipation 5. Mild heat intolerance

1, 2, 5 Rationale: Insomnia, weight loss, and mild heat intolerance are side effects of levothyroxine sodium. Bradycardia and constipation are not side effects associated with this medication, and rather are associated with hypothyroidism, which is the disorder that this medication is prescribed to treat.

455. The nurse is conducting a history and monitoring laboratory values on a client with multiple myeloma. What assessment findings should the nurse expect to note? Select all that apply. 1. Pathological fracture 2. Urinalysis positive for Bence Jones protein 3. Hemoglobin level of 15.5 g/dL (155 mmol/L) 4. Calcium level of 8.6 mg/dL (2.15 mmol/L) 5. Serum creatinine level of 2.0 mg/dL (176.6 mcmol/L)

1, 2, 5 Rationale: Multiple myeloma is a B cell neoplastic condition characterized by abnormal malignant proliferation of plasma cells and the accumulation of mature plasma cells in the bone marrow. The client with multiple myeloma may experience pathological fractures, hypercalcemia, anemia, recurrent infections, and renal failure. In addition, Bence Jones proteinuria is a finding. A serum calcium level of 8.6 mg/dL (2.15 mmol/L) and a hemoglobin level of 15.5 g/dL (155 mmol/L) are normal values. A serum creatinine level of 2.0 mg/dL (176.6 mcmol/L) is elevated indicating a renal problem.

504. A client with a diagnosis of addisonian crisis is being admitted to the intensive care unit. Which findings will the interprofessional health care team focus on? Select all that apply. 1. Hypotension 2. Leukocytosis 3. Hyperkalemia 4. Hypercalcemia 5. Hypernatremia

1, 3 Rationale: In Addison's disease, also known as adrenal insufficiency, destruction of the adrenal gland leads to decreased production of adrenocortical hormones, including the glucocorticoid cortisol and the mineralocorticoid aldosterone. Addisonian crisis, also known as acute adrenal insuf iciency, occurs when there is extreme physical or emotional stress and lack of sufficient adrenocortical hormones to manage the stressor. Addisonian crisis is a life-threatening emergency. One of the roles of endogenous cortisol is to enhance vascular tone and vascular response to the catecholamines epinephrine and norepinephrine. Hypotension occurs when vascular tone is decreased and blood vessels cannot respond to epinephrine and norepinephrine. The role of aldosterone in the body is to support the blood pressure by holding salt and water and excreting potassium. When there is insufficient aldosterone, salt and water are lost and potassium builds up; this leads to hypotension from decreased vascular volume, hyponatremia, and hyperkalemia. The remaining options are not associated with addisonian crisis.

502. The nurse is completing an assessment on a client who is being admitted for a diagnostic workup for primary hyperparathyroidism. Which client complaints would be characteristic of this disorder? Select all that apply. 1. Polyuria 2. Headache 3. Bone pain 4. Nervousness 5. Weight gain

1, 3 Rationale: The role of parathyroid hormone (PTH) in the body is to maintain serum calcium homeostasis. In hyperparathyroidism, PTH levels are high, which causes bone resorption (calcium is pulled from the bones). Hypercalcemia occurs with hyperparathyroidism. Elevated serum calcium levels produce osmotic diuresis and thus polyuria. This diuresis leads to dehydration (weight loss rather than weight gain). Loss of calcium from the bones causes bone pain. Options 2, 4, and 5 are not associated with hyperparathyroidism. Some gastrointestinal symptoms include anorexia, nausea, vomiting, and constipation.

520. A client with hyperthyroidism has been given methimazole. Which nursing considerations are associated with this medication? Select all that apply. 1. Administer methimazole with food. 2. Place the client on a low-calorie, low-protein diet. 3. Assess the client for unexplained bruising or bleeding. 4. Instruct the client to report side and adverse effects such as sore throat, fever, or headaches. 5. Use special radioactive precautions when handling the client's urine for the first 24 hours following initial administration.

1, 3, 4 Rationale: Common side effects of methimazole include nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. To address these side effects, this medication should be taken with food. Because of the increase in metabolism that occurs in hyperthyroidism, the client should consume a high-calorie diet. Antithyroid medications can cause agranulocytosis with leukopenia and thrombocytopenia. Sore throat, fever, headache, or bleeding may indicate agranulocytosis and the primary health care provider should be notified immediately. Methimazole is not radioactive and should not be stopped abruptly, due to the risk of thyroid storm

519. The nurse is teaching the client about his prescribed prednisone. Which statement, if made by the client, indicates that further teaching is necessary? 1. "I can take aspirin or my antihistamine if I need it." 2. "I need to take the medication every day at the same time." 3. "I need to avoid coffee, tea, cola, and chocolate in my diet." 4. "If I gain 5 pounds or more a week, I will call my doctor."

1. "I can take aspirin or my antihistamine if I need it." Rationale: Aspirin and other over-the-counter medications should not be taken unless the client consults with the PHCP. The client needs to take the medication at the same time every day and should be instructed not to stop the medication. A slight weight gain as a result of an improved appetite is expected; however, after the dosage is stabilized, a weight gain of 5 pounds (2.25 kg) or more weekly should be reported to the PHCP. Caffeine-containing foods and fluids need to be avoided because they may contribute to steroid-ulcer development.

568. The nurse is preparing a list of home care instructions for a client who has been hospitalized and treated for tuberculosis. Which instructions should the nurse include on the list? Select all that apply. 1. Activities should be resumed gradually. 2. Avoid contact with other individuals, except family members, for at least 6 months. 3. A sputum culture is needed every 2 to 4 weeks once medication therapy is initiated. 4. Respiratory isolation is not necessary, because family members already have been exposed. 5. Cover the mouth and nose when coughing or sneezing and put used tissues in plastic bags. 6. When 1 sputum culture is negative, the client is no longer considered infectious and usually can return to former employment.

1, 3, 4, 5 Rationale: The nurse should provide the client and family with information about tuberculosis and allay concerns about the contagious aspect of the infection. The client needs to follow the medication regimen exactly as prescribed and always have a supply of the medication on hand. Side and adverse effects of the medication and ways of minimizing them to ensure compliance should be explained. After 2 to 3 weeks of medication therapy, it is unlikely that the client will infect anyone. Activities should be resumed gradually and a well-balanced diet that is rich in iron, protein, and vitamin C to promote healing and prevent recurrence of infection should be consumed. Respiratory isolation is not necessary, because family members already have been exposed. Instruct the client about thorough hand washing, to cover the mouth and nose when coughing or sneezing, and to put used tissues into plastic bags. A sputum culture is needed every 2 to 4 weeks once medication therapy is initiated. When the results of 3 sputum cultures are negative, the client is no longer considered infectious and can usually return to former employment.

581. The community health nurse is conducting an educational session with community members regarding the signs and symptoms associated with tuberculosis. The nurse informs the participants that tuberculosis is considered as a diagnosis if which signs and symptoms are present? Select all that apply. 1. Dyspnea 2. Headache 3. Night sweats 4. A bloody, productive cough 5. A cough with the expectoration of mucoid sputum

1, 3, 4, 5 Rationale: Tuberculosis should be considered for any clients with a persistent cough, weight loss, anorexia, night sweats, hemoptysis, shortness of breath, fever, or chills. The client's previous exposure to tuberculosis should also be assessed and correlated with the clinical manifestations.

469. The nurse is providing dietary teaching for a client with a diagnosis of chronic gastritis. The nurse instructs the client to include which foods rich in vitamin B12 in the diet? Select all that apply. 1. Nuts 2. Corn 3. Liver 4. Apples 5. Lentils 6. Bananas

1, 3, 5 Rationale: Chronic gastritis causes deterioration and atrophy of the lining of the stomach, leading to the loss of function of the parietal cells. The source of intrinsic factor is lost, which results in an inability to absorb vitamin B12 , leading to development of pernicious anemia. Clients must increase their intake of vitamin B12 by increasing consumption of foods rich in this vitamin, such as nuts, organ meats, dried beans, citrus fruits, green leafy vegetables, and yeast.

498. The nurse is admitting a client who is diagnosed with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH) and has serum sodium of 118 mEq/L (118 mmol/L). Which primary health care provider prescriptions should the nurse anticipate receiving? Select all that apply. 1. Initiate an infusion of 3% NaCl. 2. Administer intravenous furosemide. 3. Restrict fluids to 800 mL over 24 hours. 4. Elevate the head of the bed to high-Fowler's. 5. Administer a vasopressin antagonist as prescribed.

1, 3, 5 Rationale: Clients with SIADH experience excess secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), which leads to excess intravascular volume, a declining serum osmolarity, and dilutional hyponatremia. Management is directed at correcting the hyponatremia and preventing cerebral edema. Hypertonic saline is prescribed when the hyponatremia is severe, less than 120 mEq/L (120 mmol/L). An intravenous (IV) infusion of 3% saline is hypertonic. Hypertonic saline must be infused slowly as prescribed, and an infusion pump must be used. Fluid restriction is a useful strategy aimed at correcting dilutional hyponatremia. Vasopressin is an ADH; vasopressin antagonists are used to treat SIADH. Furosemide may be used to treat extravascular volume and dilutional hyponatremia in SIADH, but it is only safe to use if the serum sodium is at least 125 mEq/L (125 mmol/L). When furosemide is used, potassium supplementation should also occur and serum potassium levels should be monitored. To promote venous return, the head of the bed should not be raised more than 10 degrees for the client with SIADH. Maximizing venous return helps avoid stimulating stretch receptors in the heart that signal to the pituitary that more ADH is needed.

503. The nurse is teaching a client with hyperparathyroidism how to manage the condition at home. Which response by the client indicates the need for additional teaching? 1. "I should consume less than 1 liter of fluid per day." 2. "I should use my treadmill or go for walks daily." 3. "I should follow a moderate-calcium, high-fiber diet." 4. "My alendronate helps keep calcium from coming out of my bones."

1. "I should consume less than 1 liter of fluid per day." Rationale: In hyperparathyroidism, clients experience excess parathyroid hormone (PTH) secretion. A role of PTH in the body is to maintain serum calcium homeostasis. When PTH levels are high, there is excess bone resorption (calcium is pulled from the bones). In clients with elevated serum calcium levels, there is a risk of nephrolithiasis. One to two liters of fluids daily should be encouraged to protect the kidneys and decrease the risk of nephrolithiasis. Moderate physical activity, particularly weight-bearing activity, minimizes bone resorption and helps protect against pathological fracture. Walking, as an exercise, should be encouraged in the client with hyperparathyroidism. Even though serum calcium is already high, clients should follow a moderate-calcium diet, because a low-calcium diet will surge PTH. Calcium causes constipation, so a diet high in fiber is recommended. Alendronate is a bisphosphate that inhibits bone resorption. In bone resorption, bone is broken down and calcium is deposited into the serum.

585. The nurse teaches a client about the effects of diphenhydramine, which has been prescribed as a cough suppressant. The nurse determines that the client needs further instruction if the client makes which statement? 1. "I will take the medication on an empty stomach." 2. "I won't drink alcohol while taking this medication." 3. "I won't do activities that require mental alertness while taking this medication." 4. "I will use sugarless gum, candy, or oral rinses to decrease dryness in my mouth."

1. "I will take the medication on an empty stomach." Rationale: Diphenhydramine has several uses, including as an antihistamine, antitussive, antidyskinetic, and sedative-hypnotic. Instructions for use include taking with food or milk to decrease gastrointestinal upset and using oral rinses, sugarless gum, or hard candy to minimize dry mouth. Because the medication causes drowsiness, the client should avoid use of alcohol or central nervous system depressants, operating a car, or engaging in other activities requiring mental awareness during use.

449. The nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following a pelvic exenteration, and the surgeon changes the client's diet from NPO (nothing by mouth) status to clear liquids. The nurse should check which priority item before administering the diet? 1. Bowel sounds 2. Ability to ambulate 3. Incision appearance 4. Urine specific gravity

1. Bowel sounds Rationale: The client is kept NPO until peristalsis returns, usually in 4 to 6 days. When signs of bowel function return, clear fluids are given to the client. If no distention occurs, the diet is advanced as tolerated. The most important assessment is to assess bowel sounds before feeding the client. Options 2, 3, and 4 are unrelated to the data in the question.

869. The nurse is caring for a client hospitalized for heart failure exacerbation and suspects the client may be entering a state of shock. The nurse knows that which intervention is the priority for this client? 1. Administration of digoxin 2. Administration of whole blood 3. Administration of intravenous fluids 4. Administration of packed red blood cells

1. Administration of digoxin Rationale: The client in this question is likely experiencing cardiogenic shock secondary to heart failure exacerbation. It is important to note that if the shock state is cardiogenic in nature, the infusion of volume-expanding fluids may result in pulmonary edema; therefore, restoration of cardiac function is the priority for this type of shock. Cardiotonic medications such as digoxin, dopamine, or norepinephrine may be administered to increase cardiac contractility and induce vasoconstriction. Whole blood, intravenous fluids, and packed red blood cells are volume-expanding fluids and may further complicate the client's clinical status; therefore, they should be avoided.

858. The nurse is caring for a client experiencing acute lower gastrointestinal bleeding. In developing the plan of care, which priority problem should the nurse assign to this client? 1. Deficient fluid volume related to acute blood loss 2. Risk for aspiration related to acute bleeding in the GI tract 3. Risk for infection related to acute disease process and medications 4. Imbalanced nutrition, less than body requirements, related to lack of nutrients and increased metabolism

1. Deficient fluid volume related to acute blood loss Rationale: The priority problem for the client with acute gastrointestinal bleeding among these options is deficient fluid volume related to acute blood less. This state can result in decreased cardiac output and hypovolemic shock. Although nutrition is a problem, fluid volume deficit is more of a priority. The client is at risk for aspiration and infection, but these are not actual problems at this point in time.

444. The nurse is creating a plan of care for the client with multiple myeloma and includes which priority intervention in the plan? 1. Encouraging fluids 2. Providing frequent oral care 3. Coughing and deep breathing 4. Monitoring the red blood cell count

1. Encouraging fluids Rationale: Hypercalcemia caused by bone destruction is a priority concern in the client with multiple myeloma. The nurse should administer fluids in adequate amounts to maintain a urine output of 1.5 to 2 L/day; this requires about 3 L of fluid intake per day. The fluid is needed not only to dilute the calcium overload but also to prevent protein from precipitating in the renal tubules. Options 2, 3, and 4 may be components of the plan of care but are not the priority in this client.

582. The nurse performs an admission assessment on a client with a diagnosis of tuberculosis. The nurse should check the results of which diagnostic test that will confirm this diagnosis? 1. Chest x-ray 2. Bronchoscopy 3. Sputum culture 4. Tuberculin skin test

3. Sputum culture Rationale: Tuberculosis is definitively diagnosed through culture and isolation of Mycobacterium tuberculosis. A presumptive diagnosis is made based on a tuberculin skin test, a sputum smear that is positive for acid-fast bacteria, a chest x-ray, and histological evidence of granulomatous disease on biopsy.

443. The nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client diagnosed with multiple myeloma. Which would the nurse expect to note specifically in this disorder? 1. Increased calcium level 2. Increased white blood cells 3. Decreased blood urea nitrogen level 4. Decreased number of plasma cells in the bone marrow

1. Increased calcium level Rationale: Findings indicative of multiple myeloma are an increased number of plasma cells in the bone marrow, anemia, hypercalcemia caused by the release of calcium from the deteriorating bone tissue, and an elevated blood urea nitrogen level. An increased white blood cell count may or may not be present and is not related specifically to multiple myeloma.

579. The nurse is taking the history of a client with occupational lung disease (silicosis). The nurse should assess whether the client wears which item during periods of exposure to silica particles? 1. Mask 2. Gown 3. Gloves 4. Eye protection

1. Mask Rationale: Silicosis results from chronic, excessive inhalation of particles of free crystalline silica dust. The client should wear a mask to limit inhalation of this substance, which can cause restrictive lung disease after years of exposure. Options 2, 3, and 4 are not necessary.

576. A client who is human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)-positive has had a tuberculin skin test (TST). The nurse notes a 7-mm area of induration at the site of the skin test and interprets the result as which finding? 1. Positive 2. Negative 3. Inconclusive 4. Need for repeat testing

1. Positive Rationale: The client with HIV infection is considered to have positive results on tuberculin skin testing with an area of induration larger than 5 mm. The client without HIV is positive with an induration larger than 10 mm. The client with HIV is immunosuppressed, making a smaller area of induration positive for this type of client. It is possible for the client infected with HIV to have false-negative readings because of the immunosuppression factor. Options 2, 3, and 4 are incorrect

63. The nurse is caring for a client with several broken ribs. The client is most likely to experience what type of acid-base imbalance? 1. Respiratory acidosis from inadequate ventilation 2. Respiratory alkalosis from anxiety and hyperventilation 3. Metabolic acidosis from calcium loss due to broken bones 4. Metabolic alkalosis from taking analgesics containing base products

1. Respiratory acidosis from inadequate ventilation Rationale: Respiratory acidosis is most often caused by hypoventilation. The client with broken ribs will have difficulty with breathing adequately and is at risk for hypoventilation and resultant respiratory acidosis. The remaining options are incorrect. Respiratory alkalosis is associated with hyperventilation. There are no data in the question that indicate calcium loss or that the client is taking analgesics containing base products.

448. The home health care nurse is caring for a client with cancer who is complaining of acute pain. The most appropriate determination of the client's pain should include which assessment? 1. The client's pain rating 2. Nonverbal cues from the client 3. The nurse's impression of the client's pain 4. Pain relief after appropriate nursing intervention

1. The client's pain rating Rationale: The client's self-report is a critical component of pain assessment. The nurse should ask the client to describe the pain and listen carefully to the words the client uses to describe the pain. Nonverbal cues from the client are important but are not the most appropriate pain assessment measure. The nurse's impression of the client's pain is not appropriate in determining the client's level of pain. Assessing pain relief is an important measure, but this option is not related to the subject of the question.

620. The nurse is assessing the neurovascular status of a client who returned to the surgical nursing unit 4 hours ago after undergoing aortoiliac bypass graft. The affected leg is warm, and the nurse notes redness and edema. The pedal pulse is palpable. How should the nurse interpret the client's neurovascular status? 1. The neurovascular status is normal because of increased blood flow through the leg. 2. The neurovascular status is moderately impaired, and the surgeon should be called. 3. The neurovascular status is slightly deteriorating and should be monitored for another hour. 4. The neurovascular status shows adequate arterial flow, but venous complications are arising.

1. The neurovascular status is normal because of increased blood flow through the leg. Rationale: An expected outcome of aortoiliac bypass graft surgery is warmth, redness, and edema in the surgical extremity because of increased blood flow. The remaining options are incorrect interpretations.

61. The nurse reviews the blood gas results of a client with atelectasis. The nurse analyzes the results and determines that the client is experiencing respiratory acidosis. Which result validates the nurse's findings? 1. pH 7.25, Paco2 50 mm Hg (50 mm Hg) 2. pH 7.35, Paco2 40 mm Hg (40 mm Hg) 3. pH 7.50, Paco2 52 mm Hg (52 mm Hg) 4. pH 7.52, Paco2 28 mm Hg (28 mm Hg)

1. pH 7.25, Paco2 50 mm Hg (50 mm Hg) Rationale: Atelectasis is a condition characterized by the collapse of alveoli, preventing the respiratory exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide in a part of the lungs. The normal pH is 7.35 to 7.45. The normal Paco2 is 35 to 45 mm Hg (35 to 45 mm Hg). In respiratory acidosis, the pH is decreased and the Paco2 is elevated. Option 2 identifies normal values. Option 3 identifies an alkalotic condition, and option 4 identifies respiratory alkalosis.

507. The nurse is monitoring a client diagnosed with acromegaly who was treated with transsphenoidal hypophysectomy and is recovering in the intensive care unit. Which findings should alert the nurse to the presence of a possible postoperative complication? Select all that apply. 1. Anxiety 2. Leukocytosis 3. Chvostek's sign 4. Urinary output of 800 mL/hr 5. Clear drainage on nasal dripper pad

2, 4, 5 Rationale: Acromegaly results from excess secretion of growth hormone, usually caused by a benign tumor on the anterior pituitary gland. Treatment is surgical removal of the tumor, usually with a sublingual transsphenoidal complete or partial hypophysectomy. The sublingual transsphenoidal approach is often through an incision in the inner upper lip at the gum line. Transsphenoidal surgery is a type of brain surgery, and infection is a primary concern. Leukocytosis, or an elevated white count, may indicate infection. Diabetes insipidus is a possible complication of transsphenoidal hypophysectomy. In diabetes insipidus there is decreased secretion of antidiuretic hormone, and clients excrete large amounts of dilute urine. Following transsphenoidal surgery, the nasal passages are packed and a dripper pad is secured under the nares. Clear drainage on the dripper pad is suggestive of a cerebrospinal fluid leak. The surgeon should be notified and the drainage should be tested for glucose. A cerebrospinal fluid leak increases the postoperative risk of meningitis. Anxiety is a nonspecific finding that is common to many disorders. Chvostek's sign is a test of nerve hyperexcitability associated with hypocalcemia and is seen as grimacing in response to tapping on the facial nerve. Chvostek's sign has no association with complications of sublingual transsphenoidal hypophysectomy.

525. The nurse teaches the client who is newly diagnosed with diabetes insipidus about the prescribed intranasal desmopressin. Which statements by the client indicate understanding? Select all that apply. 1. "This medication will turn my urine orange." 2. "I should decrease my oral fluids when I start this medication." 3. "The amount of urine I make should increase if this medicine is working." 4. "I need to follow a low-fat diet to avoid pancreatitis when taking this medicine." 5. "I should report headache and drowsiness to my doctor since these symptoms could be related to my desmopressin."

2, 5 Rationale: In diabetes insipidus, there is a deficiency in antidiuretic hormone (ADH), resulting in large urinary losses. Desmopressin is an antidiuretic hormone that enhances reabsorption of water in the kidney. Clients with diabetes insipidus drink high volumes of fluid (polydipsia) as a compensatory mechanism to counteract urinary losses and maintain fluid balance. Once desmopressin is started, oral fluids should be decreased to prevent water intoxication. Therefore, clients with diabetes insipidus should decrease their oral fluid intake when they start desmopressin. Headache and drowsiness are signs of water intoxication in the client taking desmopressin and should be reported to the primary health care provider. Desmopressin does not turn urine orange. The amount of urine should decrease, not increase, when desmopressin is started. Desmopressin does not cause pancreatitis.

566. The emergency department nurse is assessing a client who has sustained a blunt injury to the chest wall. Which finding indicates the presence of a pneumothorax in this client? 1. A low respiratory rate 2. Diminished breath sounds 3. The presence of a barrel chest 4. A sucking sound at the site of injury

2. Diminished breath sounds Rationale: This client has sustained a blunt or closed-chest injury. Basic symptoms of a closed pneumothorax are shortness of breath and chest pain. A larger pneumothorax may cause tachypnea, cyanosis, diminished breath sounds, and subcutaneous emphysema. Hyper-resonance also may occur on the affected side. A sucking sound at the site of injury would be noted with an open chest injury.

470. The nurse is instructing a client with iron deficiency anemia regarding the administration of a liquid oral iron supplement. Which instruction should the nurse tell the client? 1. Administer the iron at mealtimes. 2. Administer the iron through a straw. 3. Mix the iron with cereal to administer. 4. Add the iron to apple juice for easy administration.

2. Administer the iron through a straw. Rationale: In iron deficiency anemia, iron stores are depleted, resulting in a decreased supply of iron for the manufacture of hemoglobin in red blood cells. An oral iron supplement should be administered through a straw or medicine dropper placed at the back of the mouth, because the iron stains the teeth. The client should be instructed to brush or wipe their teeth after administration. Iron is administered between meals, because absorption is decreased if there is food in the stomach. Iron requires an acid environment to facilitate its absorption in the duodenum. Iron is not mixed with cereal or other food items.

865. The nurse is monitoring a client with a head injury for signs of increased intracranial pressure. The nurse would note which trend in vital signs if the intracranial pressure is rising? 1. Increasing temperature, increasing pulse, increasing respirations, decreasing blood pressure 2. Increasing temperature, decreasing pulse, decreasing respirations, increasing blood pressure 3. Decreasing temperature, decreasing pulse, increasing respirations, decreasing blood pressure 4. Decreasing temperature, increasing pulse, decreasing respirations, increasing blood pressure

2. Increasing temperature, decreasing pulse, decreasing respirations, increasing blood pressure Rationale: A change in vital signs may be a late sign of increased intracranial pressure. Trends include increasing temperature and blood pressure and decreasing pulse and respirations. Respiratory irregularities also may occur.

499. A client is admitted to an emergency department, and a diagnosis of myxedema coma is made. Which action should the nurse prepare to carry out initially? 1. Warm the client. 2. Maintain a patent airway. 3. Administer thyroid hormone. 4. Administer fluid replacement.

2. Maintain a patent airway. Rationale: Myxedema coma is a rare but serious disorder that results from persistently low thyroid production. Coma can be precipitated by acute illness, rapid withdrawal of thyroid medication, anesthesia and surgery, hypothermia, and the use of sedatives and opioid analgesics. In myxedema coma, the initial nursing action is to maintain a patent airway. Oxygen should be administered, followed by fluid replacement, keeping the client warm, monitoring vital signs, and administering thyroid hormones by the intravenous route.

55. The nurse is caring for a client with a nasogastric tube that is attached to low suction. The nurse monitors the client for manifestations of which disorder that the client is at risk for? 1. Metabolic acidosis 2. Metabolic alkalosis 3. Respiratory acidosis 4. Respiratory alkalosis

2. Metabolic alkalosis Rationale:Metabolic alkalosis is defined as a deficit or loss of hydrogen ions or acids or an excess of base (bicarbonate) that results from the accumulation of base or from a loss of acid without a comparable loss of base in the body fluids. This occurs in conditions resulting in hypovolemia, the loss of gastric fluid, excessive bicarbonate intake, the massive transfusion of whole blood, and hyperaldosteronism. Loss of gastric fluid via nasogastric suction or vomiting causes metabolic alkalosis as a result of the loss of hydrochloric acid. The remaining options are incorrect interpretations.

574. The nurse is preparing to give a bed bath to an immobilized client with tuberculosis. The nurse should wear which items when performing this care? 1. Surgical mask and gloves 2. Particulate respirator, gown, and gloves 3. Particulate respirator and protective eyewear 4. Surgical mask, gown, and protective eyewear

2. Particulate respirator, gown, and gloves Rationale: The nurse who is in contact with a client with tuberculosis should wear an individually fitted particulate respirator. The nurse also would wear gloves as per standard precautions. The nurse wears a gown when the possibility exists that the clothing could become contaminated, such as when giving a bed bath.

589. A client has been taking isoniazid for 2 months. The client complains to the nurse about numbness, paresthesias, and tingling in the extremities. The nurse interprets that the client is experiencing which problem? 1. Hypercalcemia 2. Peripheral neuritis 3. Small blood vessel spasm 4. Impaired peripheral circulation

2. Peripheral neuritis Rationale: Isoniazid is an antitubercular medication. A common side effect of isoniazid is peripheral neuritis, manifested by numbness, tingling, and paresthesias in the extremities. This can be minimized with pyridoxine (vitamin B6 ) intake. Options 1, 3, and 4 are not associated with the information in the question.

62. The nurse is caring for a client who is on a mechanical ventilator. Blood gas results indicate a pH of 7.50 and a Paco2 of 30 mm Hg (30 mm Hg). The nurse has determined that the client is experiencing respiratory alkalosis. Which laboratory value would most likely be noted in this condition? 1. Sodium level of 145 mEq/L (145 mmol/L) 2. Potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L (3.0 mmol/L) 3. Magnesium level of 1.8 (0.74 mmol/L) 4. Phosphorus level of 3.0 mg/dL (0.97 mmol/L)

2. Potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L (3.0 mmol/L) Rationale: Respiratory alkalosis is defined as a deficit of carbonic acid or a decrease in hydrogen ion concentration that results from the accumulation of base or from a loss of acid without a comparable loss of base in the body fluids. This occurs in conditions that cause overstimulation of the respiratory system. Some clinical manifestations of respiratory alkalosis include lightheadedness, confusion, tachycardia, dysrhythmias related to hypokalemia, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, epigastric pain, and numbness and tingling of the extremities. All three incorrect options identify normal laboratory values. The correct option identifies the presence of hypokalemia.

590. A client is to begin a 6-month course of therapy with isoniazid. The nurse should plan to teach the client to take which action? 1. Use alcohol in small amounts only. 2. Report yellow eyes or skin immediately. 3. Increase intake of Swiss or aged cheeses. 4. Avoid vitamin supplements during therapy.

2. Report yellow eyes or skin immediately. Rationale: Isoniazid is hepatotoxic, and therefore the client is taught to report signs and symptoms of hepatitis immediately, which include yellow skin and sclera. For the same reason, alcohol should be avoided during therapy. The client should avoid intake of Swiss cheese, fish such as tuna, and foods containing tyramine, because they may cause a reaction characterized by redness and itching of the skin, flushing, sweating, tachycardia, headache, or lightheadedness. The client can avoid developing peripheral neuritis by increasing the intake of pyridoxine (vitamin B6 ) during the course of isoniazid therapy.

54. The nurse reviews the arterial blood gas results of a client and notes the following: pH 7.45, Paco2 of 30 mm Hg (30 mm Hg), and HCO3 - of 20 mEq/L (20 mmol/L). The nurse analyzes these results as indicating which condition? 1. Metabolic acidosis, compensated 2. Respiratory alkalosis, compensated 3. Metabolic alkalosis, uncompensated 4. Respiratory acidosis, uncompensated

2. Respiratory alkalosis, compensated Rationale: The normal pH is 7.35 to 7.45. In a respiratory condition, an opposite effect will be seen between the pH and the Paco2 . In this situation, the pH is at the high end of the normal value and the Pco2 is low. In an alkalotic condition, the pH is elevated. Therefore, the values identified in the question indicate a respiratory alkalosis that is compensated by the kidneys through the renal excretion of bicarbonate. Because the pH has returned to a normal value, compensation has occurred.

868. A client at risk for shock secondary to pneumonia develops restlessness and is agitated and confused. Urinary output has decreased and the blood pressure is 92/68 mm Hg. The nurse minimally suspects which stage of shock based on this data? 1. Stage 1 2. Stage 2 3. Stage 3 4. Stage 4

2. Stage 2 Rationale: Shock is categorized by 4 stages. Stage 1 is characterized by restlessness, increased heart rate, cool and pale skin, and agitation. Stage 2 is characterized by a cardiac output that is less than 4 to 6 liters per minute, systolic blood pressure less than 100 mm Hg, decreased urinary output, confusion, and cerebral perfusion pressure that is less than 70 mm Hg. Stage 3 is characterized by edema, excessively low blood pressure, dysrhythmias, and weak and thready pulses. Stage 4 is characterized as unresponsiveness to vasopressors, profound hypotension, slowed heart rate, and multiple organ failure. Most often, the client will not survive.

497. The nurse is caring for a client after hypophysectomy and notes clear nasal drainage from the client's nostril. The nurse should take which initial action? 1. Lower the head of the bed. 2. Test the drainage for glucose. 3. Obtain a culture of the drainage. 4. Continue to observe the drainage.

2. Test the drainage for glucose. Rationale: After hypophysectomy, the client should be monitored for rhinorrhea, which could indicate a cerebrospinal fluid leak. If this occurs, the drainage should be collected and tested for the presence of cerebrospinal fluid. Cerebrospinal fluid contains glucose, and if positive, this would indicate that the drainage is cerebrospinal fluid. The head of the bed should remain elevated to prevent increased intracranial pressure. Clear nasal drainage would not indicate the need for a culture. Continuing to observe the drainage without taking action could result in a serious complication.

523. The nurse should tell the client who is taking levothyroxine to notify the primary health care provider (PHCP) if which problem occurs? 1. Fatigue 2. Tremors 3. Cold intolerance 4. Excessively dry skin

2. Tremors Rationale: Excessive doses of levothyroxine can produce signs and symptoms of hyperthyroidism. These include tachycardia, chest pain, tremors, nervousness, insomnia, hyperthermia, extreme heat intolerance, and sweating. The client should be instructed to notify the PHCP if these occur. Options 1, 3, and 4 are signs of hypothyroidism.

474. A client with acute myelocytic leukemia is being treated with busulfan. Which laboratory value would the nurse specifically monitor during treatment with this medication? 1. Clotting time 2. Uric acid level 3. Potassium level 4. Blood glucose level

2. Uric acid level Rationale: Busulfan can cause an increase in the uric acid level. Hyperuricemia can produce uric acid nephropathy, renal stones, and acute kidney injury. Options 1, 3, and 4 are not specifically related to this medication.

605. A client with myocardial infarction is developing cardiogenic shock. What condition should the nurse carefully assess the client for? 1. Pulsus paradoxus 2. Ventricular dysrhythmias 3. Rising diastolic blood pressure 4. Falling central venous pressure

2. Ventricular dysrhythmias Rationale: Dysrhythmias commonly occur as a result of decreased oxygenation and severe damage to greater than 40% of the myocardium. Classic signs of cardiogenic shock as they relate to myocardial ischemia include low blood pressure and tachycardia. The central venous pressure would rise as the backward effects of the severe left ventricular failure became apparent. Pulsus paradoxus is a finding associated with cardiac tamponade.

571. A client with a chest injury has suffered flail chest. The nurse assesses the client for which most distinctive sign of flail chest? 1. Cyanosis 2. Hypotension 3. Paradoxical chest movement 4. Dyspnea, especially on exhalation

3. Paradoxical chest movement Rationale: Flail chest results from multiple rib fractures. This results in a "floating" section of ribs. Because this section is unattached to the rest of the bony rib cage, this segment results in paradoxical chest movement. This means that the force of inspiration pulls the fractured segment inward, while the rest of the chest expands. Similarly, during exhalation, the segment balloons outward while the rest of the chest moves inward. This is a characteristic sign of flail chest.

527. The client with hyperparathyroidism is taking alendronate. Which statements by the client indicate understanding of the proper way to take this medication? Select all that apply. 1. "I should take this medication with food." 2. "I should take this medication at bedtime." 3. "I should sit up for at least 30 minutes after taking this medication." 4. "I should take this medication first thing in the morning on an empty stomach." 5. "I can pick a time to take this medication that best fits my lifestyle as long as I take it at the same time each day."

3, 4 Rationale: Alendronate is a bisphosphonate used in hyperparathyroidism to inhibit bone loss and normalize serum calcium levels. Esophagitis is an adverse effect of primary concern in clients taking alendronate. For this reason the client is instructed to take alendronate first thing in the morning with a full glass of water on an empty stomach, not to eat or drink anything else for at least 30 minutes after taking the medication, and to remain sitting upright for at least 30 minutes after taking it.

870. Which clinical findings are consistent with sepsis diagnostic criteria? Select all that apply. 1. Urine output 50 mL/hr 2. Hypoactive bowel sounds 3. Temperature of 102° F (38.9° C) 4. Heart rate of 96 beats per minute 5. Mean arterial pressure 65 mm Hg 6. Systolic blood pressure 110 mm Hg

3, 4, 5 Rationale: Sepsis diagnostic criteria with regard to signs and symptoms include the following: Fever (temperature higher than 100.9° F [38.3° C]) or hypothermia (core temperature lower than 97° F [36° C]), tachycardia (heart rate above 90 beats per minute), tachypnea (respiratory rate above 22 breaths per minute), systolic blood pressure (SBP) less than or equal to 100 mm Hg or arterial hypotension (SBP below 90 mm Hg), MAP less than 70 mm Hg, or a decrease in SBP of more than 40 mm Hg, altered mental status, edema or positive fluid balance, oliguria, ileus (absent bowel sounds), and decreased capillary refill or mottling of skin.

509. The nurse is preparing a client with a new diagnosis of hypothyroidism for discharge. The nurse determines that the client understands discharge instructions if the client states that which signs and symptoms are associated with this diagnosis? Select all that apply. 1. Tremors 2. Weight loss 3. Feeling cold 4. Loss of body hair 5. Persistent lethargy 6. Puffiness of the face

3, 4, 5, 6 Rationale: Feeling cold, hair loss, lethargy, and facial puffiness are signs of hypothyroidism. Tremors and weight loss are signs of hyperthyroidism.

859. The nurse is assessing the functioning of a chest tube drainage system in a client with a chest injury who has just returned from the recovery room following a thoracotomy with wedge resection. Which are the expected assessment findings? Select all that apply. 1. Excessive bubbling in the water seal chamber 2. Vigorous bubbling in the suction control chamber 3. Drainage system maintained below the client's chest 4. 50 mL of drainage in the drainage collection chamber 5. Occlusive dressing in place over the chest tube insertion site 6. Fluctuation of water in the tube in the water seal chamber during inhalation and exhalation

3, 4, 5, 6 Rationale: The bubbling of water in the water seal chamber indicates air drainage from the client and usually is seen when intrathoracic pressure is higher than atmospheric pressure; it may occur during exhalation, coughing, or sneezing. Excessive bubbling in the water seal chamber may indicate an air leak, an unexpected finding. Fluctuation of water in the tube in the water seal chamber during inhalation and exhalation is expected. An absence of fluctuation may indicate that the chest tube is obstructed or that the lung has re-expanded and that no more air is leaking into the pleural space. Gentle (not vigorous) bubbling should be noted in the suction control chamber. A total of 50 mL of drainage is not excessive in a client returning to the nursing unit from the recovery room. Drainage that is more than 70 to 100 mL/hr is considered excessive and requires notification of the surgeon. The chest tube insertion site is covered with an occlusive (airtight) dressing to prevent air from entering the pleural space. Positioning the drainage system below the client's chest allows gravity to drain the pleural space.

465. As part of chemotherapy education, the nurse teaches a female client about the risk for bleeding and self-care during the period of greatest bone marrow suppression (the nadir). The nurse understands that further teaching is needed if the client makes which statement? 1. "I should avoid blowing my nose." 2. "I may need a platelet transfusion if my platelet count is too low." 3. "I'm going to take aspirin for my headache as soon as I get home." 4. "I will count the number of pads and tampons I use when menstruating."

3. "I'm going to take aspirin for my headache as soon as I get home." Rationale: During the period of greatest bone marrow suppression (the nadir), the platelet count may be low, less than 20,000 cells mm3 (20.0 × 10 9 /L). The correct option describes an incorrect statement by the client. Aspirin and nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs and products that contain aspirin should be avoided because of their antiplatelet activity.

463. The nurse is monitoring a client for signs and symptoms related to superior vena cava syndrome. Which is an early sign of this oncological emergency? 1. Cyanosis 2. Arm edema 3. Periorbital edema 4. Mental status changes

3. Periorbital edema Rationale: Superior vena cava syndrome occurs when the superior vena cava is compressed or obstructed by tumor growth. Early signs and symptoms generally occur in the morning and include edema of the face, especially around the eyes, and client complaints of tightness of a shirt or blouse collar. As the compression worsens, the client experiences edema of the hands and arms. Cyanosis and mental status changes are late signs.

506. The nurse is performing an assessment on a client with pheochromocytoma. Which assessment data would indicate a potential complication associated with this disorder? 1. A urinary output of 50 mL/hr 2. A coagulation time of 5 minutes 3. A heart rate that is 90 beats per minute and irregular 4. A blood urea nitrogen level of 20 mg/dL (7.1 mmol/L)

3. A heart rate that is 90 beats per minute and irregular Rationale: Pheochromocytoma is a catecholamine-producing tumor usually found in the adrenal medulla, but extra-adrenal locations include the chest, bladder, abdomen, and brain; it is typically a benign tumor but can be malignant. Excessive amounts of epinephrine and norepinephrine are secreted. The complications associated with pheochromocytoma include hypertensive retinopathy and nephropathy, myocarditis, increased platelet aggregation, and stroke. Death can occur from shock, stroke, kidney failure, dysrhythmias, or dissecting aortic aneurysm. An irregular heart rate indicates the presence of a dysrhythmia. A coagulation time of 5 minutes is normal. A urinary output of 50 mL/hr is an adequate output. A blood urea nitrogen level of 20 mg/dL (7.1 mmol/L) is a normal finding

486. The nurse is monitoring the laboratory results of a client receiving an antineoplastic medication by the intravenous route. The nurse plans to initiate bleeding precautions if which laboratory result is noted? 1. A clotting time of 10 minutes 2. An ammonia level of 10 mcg/dL (6 mcmol/L). 3. A platelet count of 50,000 mm3 (50 × 10 9 /L) 4. A white blood cell count of 5000 mm3 (5.0 × 10 9 /L)

3. A platelet count of 50,000 mm3 (50 × 10 9 /L) Rationale: Bleeding precautions need to be initiated when the platelet count decreases. The normal platelet count is 150,000 to 450,000 mm3 (150 to 400 × 10 9 /L). When the platelet count decreases, the client is at risk for bleeding. The normal white blood cell count is 5000 to 10,000 mm3 (5.0 to 10.0 × 10 9 /L). When the white blood cell count drops, neutropenic precautions need to be implemented. The normal clotting time is 8 to 15 minutes. The normal ammonia value is 10 to 80 mcg/dL (6 to 47 mcmol/L).

510. A client has just been admitted to the nursing unit following thyroidectomy. Which assessment is the priority for this client? 1. Hoarseness 2. Hypocalcemia 3. Audible stridor 4. Edema at the surgical site

3. Audible stridor Rationale: Thyroidectomy is the removal of the thyroid gland, which is located in the anterior neck. It is very important to monitor airway status, as any swelling to the surgical site could cause respiratory distress. Although all of the options are important for the nurse to monitor, the priority nursing action is to monitor the airway.

569. The nurse is caring for a client after a bronchoscopy and biopsy. Which finding, if noted in the client, should be reported immediately to the primary health care provider? 1. Dry cough 2. Hematuria 3. Bronchospasm 4. Blood-streaked sputum

3. Bronchospasm Rationale: If a biopsy was performed during a bronchoscopy, blood-streaked sputum is expected for several hours. Frank blood indicates hemorrhage. A dry cough may be expected. The client should be assessed for signs of complications, which would include cyanosis, dyspnea, stridor, bronchospasm, hemoptysis, hypotension, tachycardia, and dysrhythmias. Hematuria is unrelated to this procedure

591. A client has been started on long-term therapy with rifampin. The nurse should provide which information to the client about the medication? 1. Should always be taken with food or antacids 2. Should be double-dosed if 1 dose is forgotten 3. Causes orange discoloration of sweat, tears, urine, and feces 4. May be discontinued independently if symptoms are gone in 3 months

3. Causes orange discoloration of sweat, tears, urine, and feces stain soft contact lenses permanently. Rifampin should be taken exactly as directed. Doses should not be doubled or skipped. The client should not stop therapy until directed to do so by a primary health care provider. It is best to administer the medication on an empty stomach unless it causes gastrointestinal upset, and then it may be taken with food. Antacids, if prescribed, should be taken at least 1 hour before the medication.

575. A client has experienced pulmonary embolism. The nurse should assess for which symptom, which is most commonly reported? 1. Hot, flushed feeling 2. Sudden chills and fever 3. Chest pain that occurs suddenly 4. Dyspnea when deep breaths are taken

3. Chest pain that occurs suddenly Rationale: The most common initial symptom in pulmonary embolism is chest pain that is sudden in onset. The next most commonly reported symptom is dyspnea, which is accompanied by an increased respiratory rate. Other typical symptoms of pulmonary embolism include apprehension and restlessness, tachycardia, cough, and cyanosis.

587. Terbutaline is prescribed for a client with bronchitis. Which disorder in the client's medical history requires caution by the nurse? 1. Osteoarthritis 2. Hypothyroidism 3. Diabetes mellitus 4. Polycystic disease

3. Diabetes mellitus Rationale: Terbutaline is a bronchodilator and is contraindicated in clients with hypersensitivity to sympathomimetics. It should be used with caution in clients with impaired cardiac function, diabetes mellitus, hypertension, hyperthyroidism, or a history of seizures. The medication may increase blood glucose levels.

526. A daily dose of prednisone is prescribed for a client. The nurse provides instructions to the client regarding administration of the medication and should instruct the client that which time is best to take this medication? 1. At noon 2. At bedtime 3. Early morning 4. Any time, at the same time, each day

3. Early morning Rationale: Corticosteroids (glucocorticoids) should be administered before 9 a.m. Administration at this time helps minimize adrenal insufficiency and mimics the burst of glucocorticoids released naturally by the adrenal glands each morning.

483. The nurse is analyzing the laboratory results of a client with leukemia who has received a regimen of chemotherapy. Which laboratory value would the nurse specifically note as a result of the massive cell destruction that occurred from the chemotherapy? 1. Anemia 2. Decreased platelets 3. Increased uric acid level 4. Decreased leukocyte count

3. Increased uric acid level Rationale: Hyperuricemia is especially common following treatment for leukemias and lymphomas, because chemotherapy results in massive cell kill. Although options 1, 2, and 4 also may be noted, an increased uric acid level is related specifically to cell destruction.

593. A client with tuberculosis is starting antituberculosis therapy with isoniazid. Before giving the client the first dose, the nurse should ensure that which baseline study has been completed? 1. Electrolyte levels 2. Coagulation times 3. Liver enzyme levels 4. Serum creatinine level

3. Liver enzyme levels Rationale: Isoniazid therapy can cause an elevation of hepatic enzyme levels and hepatitis. Therefore, liver enzyme levels are monitored when therapy is initiated and during the first 3 months of therapy. They may be monitored longer in the client who is older than 50 years or abuses alcohol. The laboratory tests in options 1, 2, and 4 are not necessary.

522. The nurse provides instructions to a client who is taking levothyroxine. The nurse should tell the client to take the medication in which way? 1. With food 2. At lunchtime 3. On an empty stomach 4. At bedtime with a snack

3. On an empty stomach Rationale: Oral doses of levothyroxine should be taken on an empty stomach to enhance absorption. Dosing should be done in the morning before breakfast.

447. The nurse should plan to implement which intervention in the care of a client experiencing neutropenia as a result of chemotherapy? 1. Restrict all visitors. 2. Restrict fluid intake. 3. Teach the client and family about the need for hand hygiene. 4. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter to prevent skin breakdown.

3. Teach the client and family about the need for hand hygiene. Rationale: In the neutropenic client, meticulous hand hygiene education is implemented for the client, family, visitors, and staff. Not all visitors are restricted, but the client is protected from persons with known infections. Fluids should be encouraged. Invasive measures such as an indwelling urinary catheter should be avoided to prevent infections.

450. A client is admitted to the hospital with a suspected diagnosis of Hodgkin's disease. Which assessment finding would the nurse expect to note specifically in the client? 1. Fatigue 2. Weakness 3. Weight gain 4. Enlarged lymph nodes

4. Enlarged lymph nodes Rationale: Hodgkin's disease is a chronic progressive neoplastic disorder of lymphoid tissue characterized by the painless enlargement of lymph nodes with progression to extralymphatic sites, such as the spleen and liver. Weight loss is most likely to be noted. Fatigue and weakness may occur but are not related significantly to the disease.

573. The nurse has conducted discharge teaching with a client diagnosed with tuberculosis who has been receiving medication for 2 weeks. The nurse determines that the client has understood the information if the client makes which statement? 1. "I need to continue medication therapy for 1 month." 2. "I can't shop at the mall for the next 6 months." 3. "I can return to work if a sputum culture comes back negative." 4. "I should not be contagious after 2 to 3 weeks of medication therapy."

4. "I should not be contagious after 2 to 3 weeks of medication therapy." Rationale: The client is continued on medication therapy for up to 12 months, depending on the situation. The client generally is considered noncontagious after 2 to 3 weeks of medication therapy. The client is instructed to wear a mask if there will be exposure to crowds until the medication is effective in preventing transmission. The client is allowed to return to work when the results of 3 sputum cultures are negative.

56. A client with a 3-day history of nausea and vomiting presents to the emergency department. The client is hypoventilating and has a respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute. The electrocardiogram (ECG) monitor displays tachycardia, with a heart rate of 120 beats per minute. Arterial blood gases are drawn and the nurse reviews the results, expecting to note which finding? 1. A decreased pH and an increased Paco2 2. An increased pH and a decreased Paco2 3. A decreased pH and a decreased HCO3 - 4. An increased pH and an increased HCO3

4. An increased pH and an increased HCO3 Rationale: Clients experiencing nausea and vomiting would most likely present with metabolic alkalosis resulting from loss of gastric acid, thus causing the pH and HCO3 - to increase. Symptoms experienced by the client would include a decrease in the respiratory rate and depth, and tachycardia. Option 1 reflects a respiratory acidotic condition. Option 2 reflects a respiratory alkalotic condition, and option 3 reflects a metabolic acidotic condition.

622. The nurse is caring for a client who had a resection of an abdominal aortic aneurysm yesterday. The client has an intravenous (IV) infusion at a rate of 150 mL/hr, unchanged for the last 10 hours. The client's urine output for the last 3 hours has been 90, 50, and 28 mL (28 mL is most recent). The client's blood urea nitrogen level is 35 mg/dL (12.6 mmol/L), and the serum creatinine level is 1.8 mg/dL (159 mcmol/L), measured this morning. Which nursing action is the priority? 1. Check the serum albumin level. 2. Check the urine specific gravity. 3. Continue monitoring urine output. 4. Call the primary health care provider (PHCP).

4. Call the primary health care provider (PHCP). Rationale: Following abdominal aortic aneurysm resection or repair, the nurse monitors the client for signs of acute kidney injury. Acute kidney injury can occur because often much blood is lost during the surgery and, depending on the aneurysm location, the renal arteries may be hypoperfused for a short period during surgery. Normal reference levels are BUN 10 to 20 mg/dL (3.6 to 7.1 mmol/L), and creatinine 0.6 to 1.2 mg/dL (53 to 106 mcmol/L) for males and 0.5 to 1.1 mg/dL (44 to 97 mcmol/L) for females. Continuing to monitor urine output or checking other parameters can wait. Urine output lower than 30 mL/hr is reported to the PHCP for urgent treatment

485. A client with non-Hodgkin's lymphoma is receiving daunorubicin. Which finding would indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing an adverse effect related to the medication? 1. Fever 2. Sores in the mouth and throat 3. Complaints of nausea and vomiting 4. Crackles on auscultation of the lungs

4. Crackles on auscultation of the lungs Rationale: Cardiotoxicity noted by abnormal electrocardiographic findings or cardiomyopathy manifested as heart failure (lung crackles) is an adverse effect of daunorubicin. Bone marrow depression is also an adverse effect. Fever is a frequent side effect, and sores in the mouth and throat can occur occasionally. Nausea and vomiting is a frequent side effect associated with the medication that begins a few hours after administration and lasts 24 to 48 hours. Options 1, 2, and 3 are not adverse effects.

857. Packed red blood cells have been prescribed for a female client with anemia who has a hemoglobin level of 7.6 g/dL (76 mmol/L) and a hematocrit level of 30% (0.30). The nurse takes the client's temperature before hanging the blood transfusion and records 100.6° F (38.1° C) orally. Which action should the nurse take? 1. Begin the transfusion as prescribed. 2. Administer an antihistamine and begin the transfusion. 3. Administer 2 tablets of acetaminophen and begin the transfusion. 4. Delay hanging the blood and notify the primary health care provider (PHCP).

4. Delay hanging the blood and notify the primary health care provider (PHCP). Rationale: If the client has a temperature higher than 100° F (37.8° C), the unit of blood should not be hung until the primary PHCP is notified and has the opportunity to give further prescriptions. The PHCP likely will prescribe that the blood be administered regardless of the temperature, or may instruct the nurse to administer prescribed acetaminophen and wait until the temperature has decreased before administration, but the decision is not within the nurse's scope of practice to make. The nurse needs a PHCP's prescription to administer medications to the client.

592. The nurse has given a client taking ethambutol information about the medication. The nurse determines that the client understands the instructions if the client states that they will immediately report which finding? 1. Impaired sense of hearing 2. Gastrointestinal side effects 3. Orange-red discoloration of body secretions 4. Difficulty in discriminating the color red from green

4. Difficulty in discriminating the color red from green Rationale: Ethambutol causes optic neuritis, which decreases visual acuity and the ability to discriminate between the colors red and green. This poses a potential safety hazard when a client is driving a motor vehicle. The client is taught to report this symptom immediately. The client also is taught to take the medication with food if gastrointestinal upset occurs. Impaired hearing results from antitubercular therapy with streptomycin. Orange-red discoloration of secretions occurs with rifampin.

464. The nurse manager is teaching the nursing staff about signs and symptoms related to hypercalcemia in a client with metastatic prostate cancer and tells the staff that which is a late sign or symptom of this oncological emergency? 1. Headache 2. Dysphagia 3. Constipation 4. Electrocardiographic changes

4. Electrocardiographic changes Rationale: Hypercalcemia is a manifestation of bone metastasis in late-stage cancer. Headache and dysphagia are not associated with hypercalcemia. Constipation may occur early in the process. Electrocardiogram changes include shortened ST segment and a widened T wave.

867. A client in shock develops a central venous pressure (CVP) of 2 mm Hg and mean arterial pressure (MAP) of 60 mm Hg. Which prescribed intervention should the nurse implement first? 1. Increase the rate of O2 flow 2. Obtain arterial blood gas results 3. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter 4. Increase the rate of intravenous (IV) fluids

4. Increase the rate of intravenous (IV) fluids Rationale: The MAP and CVP are both low for this client, indicating a shock state. Shock is the result of inadequate tissue perfusion. Fluid volume should be immediately restored first to provide adequate perfusion for the client in a shock state. Although increasing the rate of O2 flow may be a necessary intervention, perfusion is the first priority. Obtaining arterial blood gas results and inserting an indwelling urinary catheter may be necessary interventions to monitor the client's response to prescribed therapy, but these are not the priority.

572. The nurse is assessing a client with multiple trauma who is at risk for developing acute respiratory distress syndrome. The nurse should assess for which earliest sign of acute respiratory distress syndrome? 1. Bilateral wheezing 2. Inspiratory crackles 3. Intercostal retractions 4. Increased respiratory rate

4. Increased respiratory rate Rationale: The earliest detectable sign of acute respiratory distress syndrome is an increased respiratory rate, which can begin from 1 to 96 hours after the initial insult to the body. This is followed by increasing dyspnea, air hunger, retraction of accessory muscles, and cyanosis. Breath sounds may be clear or consist of fine inspiratory crackles or diffuse coarse crackles.

862. The nurse is assessing a client with multiple trauma who is at risk for developing acute respiratory distress syndrome. The nurse should assess for which earliest sign of acute respiratory distress syndrome? 1. Bilateral wheezing 2. Inspiratory crackles 3. Intercostal retractions 4. Increased respiratory rate

4. Increased respiratory rate Rationale: The earliest detectable sign of acute respiratory distress syndrome is an increased respiratory rate, which can begin from 1 to 96 hours after the initial insult to the body. This is followed by increasing dyspnea, air hunger, retraction of accessory muscles, and cyanosis. Breath sounds may be clear or consist of fine inspiratory crackles or diffuse coarse crackles.

475. A client with small cell lung cancer is being treated with etoposide. The nurse monitors the client during administration, knowing that which adverse effect is specifically associated with this medication? 1. Alopecia 2. Chest pain 3. Pulmonary fibrosis 4. Orthostatic hypotension

4. Orthostatic hypotension Rationale: An adverse effect specific to etoposide is orthostatic hypotension. Etoposide should be administered slowly over 30 to 60 minutes to avoid hypotension. The client's blood pressure is monitored during the infusion. Hair loss occurs with nearly all antineoplastic medications. Chest pain and pulmonary fibrosis are unrelated to this medication.

570. The nurse is assessing the respiratory status of a client who has suffered a fractured rib. The nurse should expect to note which finding? 1. Slow, deep respirations 2. Rapid, deep respirations 3. Paradoxical respirations 4. Pain, especially with inspiration

4. Pain, especially with inspiration Rationale: Rib fractures result from a blunt injury or a fall. Typical signs and symptoms include pain and tenderness localized at the fracture site that is exacerbated by inspiration and palpation, shallow respirations, splinting or guarding the chest protectively to minimize chest movement, and possible bruising at the fracture site. Paradoxical respirations are seen with flail chest.

473. A client with squamous cell carcinoma of the larynx is receiving bleomycin intravenously. The nurse caring for the client anticipates that which diagnostic study will be prescribed? 1. Echocardiography 2. Electrocardiography 3. Cervical radiography 4. Pulmonary function studies

4. Pulmonary function studies Rationale: Bleomycin is an antineoplastic medication that can cause interstitial pneumonitis, which can progress to pulmonary fibrosis. Pulmonary function studies along with hematological, hepatic, and renal function tests need to be monitored. The nurse needs to monitor lung sounds for dyspnea and crackles, which indicate pulmonary toxicity. The medication needs to be discontinued immediately if pulmonary toxicity occurs. Options 1, 2, and 3 are unrelated to the specific use of this medication.

471. Laboratory studies are performed for a client suspected to have iron deficiency anemia. The nurse reviews the laboratory results, knowing that which result indicates this type of anemia? 1. Elevated hemoglobin level 2. Decreased reticulocyte count 3. Elevated red blood cell count 4. Red blood cells that are microcytic and hypochromic

4. Red blood cells that are microcytic and hypochromic Rationale: In iron deficiency anemia, iron stores are depleted, resulting in a decreased supply of iron for the manufacture of hemoglobin in red blood cells. The results of a complete blood cell count in clients with iron deficiency anemia show decreased hemoglobin levels and microcytic and hypochromic red blood cells. The red blood cell count is decreased. The reticulocyte count is usually normal or slightly elevated.

59. A client who is found unresponsive has arterial blood gases drawn and the results indicate the following: pH is 7.12, Paco2 is 90 mm Hg (90 mm Hg), and is 22 mEq/L (22 mmol/L). The nurse interprets the results as indicating which condition? 1. Metabolic acidosis with compensation 2. Respiratory acidosis with compensation 3. Metabolic acidosis without compensation 4. Respiratory acidosis without compensation

4. Respiratory acidosis without compensation Rationale: The acid-base disturbance is respiratory acidosis without compensation. The normal pH is 7.35 to 7.45. The normal Paco2 is 35 to 45 mm Hg (35 to 45 mm Hg). In respiratory acidosis the pH is decreased and the Pco2 is elevated. The normal bicarbonate ) level is 21 to 28 mEq/L (21 to 28 mmol/L). Because the bicarbonate is still within normal limits, the kidneys have not had time to adjust for this acid-base disturbance. In addition, the pH is not within normal limits. Therefore, the condition is without compensation. The remaining options are incorrect interpretations.

57. The nurse is caring for a client having respiratory distress related to an anxiety attack. Recent arterial blood gas values are pH = 7.53, Pao2 = 72 mm Hg (72 mm Hg), Paco2 = 32 mm Hg (32 mm Hg), and = 28 mEq/L (28 mmol/L). Which conclusion about the client should the nurse make? 1. The client has acidotic blood. 2. The client is probably overreacting. 3. The client is fluid volume overloaded. 4. The client is probably hyperventilating.

4. The client is probably hyperventilating. Rationale: The ABG values are abnormal, which supports a physiological problem. The ABGs indicate respiratory alkalosis as a result of hyperventilating, not acidosis. Concluding that the client is overreacting is an inaccurate analysis. No conclusion can be made about a client's fluid volume status from the information provided.