CSCS PREP 3
39. A strength and conditioning professional observes an athlete everting his foot during the downward movement of a bodyweight squat. Which of the following BEST describes the corresponding effect on the knee alignment? A. valgus B. varus C. no change
A
45. Which of the following is the primary movement during the catch phase of the power clean? A. Hip Flexion B. Knee Extension C. Ankle Plantar flexion D. Shoulder Extension
A
22. If calcium is not returned to the sarcoplasmic reticulum, which of the following BEST describes what occurs in the muscle? A. fused tetanus B. flaccid paralysis C. twitch summation
A 9
28. Which of the following components stimulate new bone? A. progressive overload, direction of force, and rate of loading B. rate of loading, progressive overload, and rest period C. rest period, direction of force, and progressive overload
A 98-99
12. During an intense outdoor summer soccer practice, a player is seen to be sweating heavily and performing poorly. A coach identifies that the athlete has cold, clammy skin. Which of the following is the MOST likely condition? A. heat stroke B. heat exhaustion C. fatigue
B 256
2. Which of the following muscle groups and types of muscle actions are associated with the downward phase of the dumbbell biceps curl exercise? Primary muscle group Primary muscle action A. elbow extensors eccentric B. elbow flexors eccentric C. elbow flexors concentric
B 32/367
35. Which of the following muscles acts isometrically during the deadlift exercise? A. gastrocnemius B. erector spinae C. rectus femoris
B 32/389
14. Which of the following muscle actions precedes a countermovement jump? A. concentric B. eccentric C. isometric
B 32/474
Which type of stretching has been shown to increase the risk of injuring muscles or connective tissue, especially when there has been a previous injury? a) Static. b) Ballistic. c) Dynamic. d) PNF.
B 323
43. Which of the following BEST describes the hamstrings during the contract-relax PNF technique? Initial pre-stretch Duration A. active 10 sec B. passive 10 sec C. passive 30 sec
B 323-328
50. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate when performing the forward walking lunge stretch? A. planting the heel of the front foot into the floor B. moving the hips forward and downward C. keeping the knee of the forward leg behind the foot
B 335
During a reverse curl and athlete's palms are down and her knuckles are up, this grip isreferred to as? a) Supinated. b) Pronated. c) Alternated. d) Underhand.
B 352
During the flat bench press the spotter should? a) flex the knees during the upward movement. b) use an alternated grip. c) extend the knees during the downward movement. d) use a supinated grip.
B 355
During which of the following exercises should a spotter's hands be placed on the athlete's wrists? a) bench press. b) dumbbell incline bench press. c) overhead triceps extension . d) biceps curl.
B 355
While spotting a basketball player during the incline bench press you should provide assistance when? a) When the athlete looks tired. b) When the designated sound or signal is performed. c) When the athlete inhales. d) When the athlete exhales.
B 355
38. Which of the following increases as an adaptation to chronic resistance training, but decreases as an adaptation to chronic aerobic training? A. mitochondrial density B. maximal power production C. creatine phosphate stores
B 90/121
12. Which of the following exercises increases axial bone mineral density MOST? A. seated leg press B. barbell shoulder press C. dumbbell chest press
B 97-99
43. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate to stimulate bone growth? A. deep water running B. hex bar deadlift C. race walking
B 98-99
14. An athlete is performing three sets of the bench press exercise. What is the volume load of the workout shown below? SET 1 SET 2 SET 3 load reps load reps load reps 100 lb (45 kg) 6 115 lb (52 kg) 4 125 lb (57 kg) 2 A. 4080 lb (1581 kg) B. 3930 lb (1783 kg) C. 1310 lb (594 kg)
C
31. An athlete has recurring hamstrings injuries. He currently performs the following exercises: Back squat Bench press Dumbbell lunge Pull-up Step-up Seated row Which of the following exercises should be included in the athlete's program? A. leg (knee) extension and good morning B. stiff-leg deadlift and leg curl C. push jerk and power clean
B
33. During the performance of the deadlift, which of the following muscles acts isometrically? A. Vastus Lateralis B. Triceps Brachii C. Semitendinosus D. Iliocostalis Lumborum
B
A male wrestler is 5'6 and weighs 127 lbs. Using BMI, how would this athlete be classified? A. Underweight. B. Normal. C. Overweight. D. Obese.
B 219 Kilos/meters*2 (LBS/Inches*2) x 703 Normal 18.5 - 24.9 Overweight 25.0 - 29.9 Obesity > 30.0 Extreme Obesity > 40
9. Which of the following is potentially a sign of anorexia nervosa? A. uncontrolled binge eating at least once a week for 3 weeks or more B. restriction of food followed by binge-eating and purging for several months C. binge-eating and purging at least once a week for 3 months or more
B 221-222
15. Which of the following hormones are secreted by the liver? A. Insulin B. Insulin-Like Growth Factors C. Epinephrine D. Norepinephrine
B 234 Insulin by pancreas
An athlete who is blood doping would likely experience a substantial increase in what lab values? a) White Blood Cells and Triglycerides. b) Hematocrit and Hemoglobin. c) White Blood Cells and Hemoglobin. d) Hematocrit and Triglycerides.
B 236
7. Which of the following will improve the MOST with creatine monohydrate supplementation? A. 100-m sprint time B. squat strength C. volleyball jump performance
B 241-242
26. Which of the following activities occurs PRIMARILY in the transverse plane? A. barbell push jerk B. bent-over lateral raise C. bent-over row
B 25-27
Which of the following refers to the degree of consistency or repeatability of a test? a) Measurement. b) Reliability. c) Variability. d) Validity.
B 252
All of the following tests would have good predictive validity for a potential soccer player EXCEPT? a) Sprinting speed. b) Muscular strength of the arms. c) Agility. d) Kicking power.
B 253
Which of the following tests is MOST appropriate for assessing a female volleyball player? A. 1 RM Bench Press. B. Vertical Jump. C. Sit and Reach. D. 40 yard sprint.
B 253
52. Which of the following will be improved the MOST by increasing the strength of the hip flexor muscles? A. maximum speed B. start speed C. deceleration speed
A 527-532
46. Which of the following techniques should be emphasized when starting a sprint from the blocks? A. swing the arms through a large range of motion B. attain an upright position by approximately 10 m C. maximize stride by pushing off with the front leg only
A 527-533
34. You are watching a video of a sprinter at maximum velocity, during the early support phase you notice excessive forward rotation of the tibia over the ankle. This represents a deficiency in which of the following? A. Eccentric Plantar flexion B. Concentric Plantar flexion C. Eccentric Knee Flexion D. Concentric Knee Flexion
A 531
59. Which of the following contributes MOST to shock absorption while running? A. eccentric plantar flexion B. concentric hip extension C. eccentric knee flexion
A 531
40. An athlete is transitioning from a backpedal into a forward sprint. Which of the following body parts initiates the movement? A. head B. hips C. feet
A 533-536
During medical screening by a physician all of the following might suggest anabolic steroid use EXCEPT? a) Gynecomastia. b) A new acne problem. c) HDL Cholesterol level >50 mg/dl. d) Soft and small testes.
C 232
All of the following are functions of Human Growth Hormone EXCEPT? a) Increased bone and muscle growth. b) Increase uptake of glucose. c) Decreased uptake of amino acids. d) Increased utilization of fatty acids.
C 234
19. A strength and conditioning professional suspects a 100 m sprinter is taking an ergogenic aid. She displays changes in mood, nausea, increased heart rate and palpitations. Which of the following is MOST likely? A. human growth hormone B. anabolic steroids C. ephedrine
C 246
A strength and conditioning professional will be administering a 3 mile run to the lacrosse team in 91° heat. Which of the following guidelines should be followed in order to minimize the health risks associated with these conditions? A. Allow the athletes 1 day to acclimatize to the heat. B. Make sure the athletes are well hydrated 8 hours before the test. C. Measure the relative humidity. D. Instruct the athletes to wear tight fitting dark clothing.
C 253
When selecting a test for use all of the following should be taken into account EXCEPT? a) Energy System Used. b) Temperature. c) Height of Athlete. d) Sex of Athlete.
C 253
The strength and conditioning professional is selecting exercises to target the core of a 20 year old female basketball player. Performance of which of the following exercises will also improve sports performance? I. Plank. II. Deadlift. III. Push-Up. IV. Push-Press. A. I, II, and IV only. B. I and III only. C. II and IV only. D. I, II, and III only.
C 411
All of the following are types of basic PNF stretching EXCEPT? a) Hold-Relax. b) Contract-Relax. c) Hold-Relax with Antagonist Contraction. d) Hold-Relax with Agonist Contraction.
C 327
Which of the following exercises would the valsalva maneuver be most useful to an athlete trying to maintain proper vertebral alignment and support? a) wrist curl. b) knee extension. c) standing shoulder press. d) triceps pressdown.
C 353
You are assisting a freshmen football player during his workout and provide spotting during the execution of all of the following exercises EXCEPT? a) Back squat. b) Seated Dumbbell Shoulder Press. c) Power Clean. d) Flat Bench Press.
C 355
You are spotting an athlete during the bench press and move the bar from the upright supports to a position in which the athlete can begin the exercise. This is called? a) scoop. b) pull. c) liftoff. d) dip.
C 356
You are instructing an athlete in the weight room, the correct grip for the hammer curl is? a) pronated. b) supinated. c) neutral. d) alternating.
C 368
Two spotters are utilized for the? a) incline dumbbell fly. b) snatch. c) front squat. d) step-up.
C 382
You are observing a group of football players performing the deadlift, which of the following is a common error? a) slowly flexing the hips and knees during the downward movement. b) keeping the elbows extended. c) extending the knees before the hips during the upward movement. d) keeping the bar as close to the shins as possible.
C 389
20. Use of a weight belt is the MOST important when performing which of the following exercises at a 1RM load? A. leg press B. bench press C. back squat
C 39
Which of the following activities would be classified as bodyweight training? I. Gymnastics. II. Sit-Ups . III. Tire Flip. IV. Yoga. A. I and II only. B. II and III only. C. I, II, and IV only. D. II, III, and IV only.
C 410
11. Which of the following factors should be determined FIRST when designing a training program for a rugby team? A. exercise order B. goal repetitions C. metabolic demands
C 441
During the performance of high intensity anaerobic exercise accumulation of which of the following in working skeletal muscle leads to decreased performance? A. ATP. B. Creatine Phosphate. C. Hydrogen Ions. D. Calcium Ions.
C 48
2. A male collegiate volleyball player is performing lower-body plyometric drills that are of high intensity in the strength and conditioning facility. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate surface? A. carpet B. turf C. rubber floor
C 482/627
10. Which of the following relies predominantly on the phosphagen energy system? A. 200-m swim B. 3K race C. 5RM push press
C 54/89
19. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate order when rest periods need to be minimized and training time is limited? A. bench press, shoulder press, hang clean, lunge B. lunge, hang clean, shoulder press, bench press C. hang clean, bench press, lunge, shoulder press
C
20. Which of the following tests are MOST appropriate for women's collegiate field hockey? A. 1.5 mile (2.4 km) run and 1RM power clean B. 1RM deadlift and 300-yd (274 m) shuttle C. 40-yd (37-m) sprint and 20-m beep test
C
23. A high school baseball player has a 1RM bench press of 220 lbs. How much weight should he lift in this exercise to allow him to perform 6 repetitions before failure? A. 205 lbs. B. 200 lbs. C. 185 lbs. D. 175 lbs.
C
24. Which of the following BEST describes the upward movement phase of the deadlift? A. Hips and knee flex and the gluteus maximus and rectus femoris are antagonists B. Hips flex and the gluteus maximus is an antagonist, knees extend and the rectus femoris is an agonist C. Hips and knees extend and the gluteus maximus and rectus femoris are agonists D. Hips extend and the gluteus maximus is an agonist, knees flex and the rectus femoris is an antagonist
C
28. A volleyball player is in a pre-season preparatory period and currently performing a resistance training program at a moderate intensity 4 times per week. Which of the following modifications is MOST appropriate when progressing to an in-season training program? Intensity Frequency A. increase increase B. decrease increase C. increase decrease
C
28. Which of the following is a technique error during the performance of the upward movement phase of the step up that needs correcting? A. Torso kept erect B. Entire foot of the lead leg placed on the box C. Pushed off with the trailing leg D. At highest position paused before beginning the downward phase
C
29. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate to include in the hypertrophy phase for a professional basketball player? A. push jerk with 85% of 1RM for 3 sets of 3 repetitions B. hang clean with 95% of the 1RM for 5 sets of 2 repetitions C. front squat with 65% of the 1RM for 4 sets of 12 repetitions
C
58. Which of the following cause an athlete's heart rate to increase during the anticipatory period immediately before the start of a race? Parasympathetic activity Sympathetic activity A. increase decrease B. increase increase C. decrease increase
C 116-117
23. A novice athlete has been following an aerobic endurance training program for 6 months. Which of the following is MOST likely to occur? A. decreased resting a-vO2 difference B. decreased maximal tidal volume C. increased resting stroke volume
C 121
47. An athlete is trying to determine the correct seat height on a stationary cycle. Which of the following is MOST appropriate with the pedal in the bottom position? A. placing the toes on the pedal with no bend in the knee B. placing the heel on the pedal with a 10° bend in the knee C. placing the heel on the pedal with no bend in the knee
C 576
25. Which of the following is an appropriate rest interval for a 1600m runner performing 400m high-intensity intervals at greater than V02 max in 53 seconds? A. 53 seconds B. 1 minute 46 seconds C. 4 minutes 25 seconds D. 8 minutes 50 seconds
C 60
3. Which of the following rest periods is MOST appropriate for a middle distance runner performing 800-m running intervals in 2 min? A. 2 min B. 4 min C. 6 min
C 60
30. An athlete wants to train the glycolytic and aerobic energy systems. Which of the following rest periods is the MOST appropriate if she performs work intervals of 60 sec in duration? A. 1 min B. 2 min C. 3 min
C 60
4. Which of the following will optimize traffic flow in a strength and conditioning facility? A. pathways with a width of 24 in (61 cm) B. spacing equipment at least 36 in (91 cm) apart C. arrangement of the equipment
C 629
40. Which of the following responsibilities would be MOST important for the Strength and Conditioning Director? A. Assist in cleaning of the facility B. Enforce facility rules C. Stay updated on the latest strength and conditioning research D. Assist with spotting
C 644
1. During the concentric phase of the low-bar back squat, which of the following muscles acts as an antagonist to the gluteus maximus? A. quadriceps B. hamstrings C. psoas major
C. 20/381
14. Which of the following has the fastest rate of ATP production? A. Oxidation of Carbohydrates B. Oxidation of Fats C. Oxidation of Proteins D. Slow Glycolysis
D
20. In an athlete suspected of having an eating disorder, which of the following warning signs can be used to differentiate bulimia nervosa from anorexia nervosa? A. Complaining of constipation B. Criticism of one's body C. Excessive exercise D. Repeatedly disappearing right after eating
D
26. Which of the following would disqualify an athlete during the administration of a T-Test? A. The athlete touches a cone with her hand B. The athlete shuffles her feet C. The athlete keeps her head forward the entire time D. The athlete crosses her feet
D
32. Which of the following are closed kinetic chain exercises? I.Push-ups II. Pull-ups III. Barbell Bent Over Row IV. Dips A. I, II only B. I,II,III only C. III, IV only D. I, II, IV only
D
35. Which of the following should be considered when scheduling athletes in the strength and conditioning facility? I. Seasonal Priority II. Gender of Athletes III. Training Status of Athletes IV. Staff to Athlete Supervision Ratios A. I, II, III B. I,II C. II, III, IV D. I, IV
D
37. Which of the following goal repetitions and rest periods would BEST promote muscular hypertrophy? A. 5 repetitions and 3 minute rest periods B. 5 repetitions and 1 minute rest periods C. 8 repetitions and 3 minute rest periods D. 10 repetitions and 1 minute rest periods
D
39. Which of the following muscles acts isometrically during the forward lunge? A. Vastus Medialis B. Gluteus Maximus C. Semitendinosus D. Adductor Brevis
D
41. A soccer player has a knee extension to knee flexion strength ratio of 5:1. Which of the following exercises should be added to her program to reduce the potential for injury? A. Front Squats B. Plyometric Depth Jumps C. Power Cleans D. Lying Leg Curl
D
An athlete performs a vertical jump height test followed by a 1 RM test of his back squat. What is the primary energy source utilized during these tests? a) Oxygen. b) Glucose. c) Fat. d) ATP.
D
Muscle uptake of creatine can be enhanced by pairing it with which of the following? a) Fats. b) Oils. c) Proteins. d) Carbohydrates.
D
Which of the following is classified as a disaccharide? A. Starch. B. Fiber. C. Glycogen. D. Lactose.
D 184 Disaccharide: sucrose, lactose, and maltose Polysaccharides: starch, fiber and glycogen Monosaccharides: glucose, fructose, and galactose
3. A 19 year old college basketball player began a resistance training program 12 weeks ago and continues to see gains in his strength. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for his continued gains? A. Neural Adaptations B. Improved Exercise Technique C. Conversion of Muscle Fiber Type D. Increased Muscle Fiber Area
D 93 Neural adaptation 6-10 wees Hypertrophy Over 10 weeks
41. Which of the following is a benefit of static stretching? A. increased joint ROM B. decreased risk of injury C. improved muscular recovery
A 324
10. The triceps brachii performs which of the following muscle actions during the downward movement phase of a standing should press? A. Eccentric B. Concentric C. Isometric D. Isokinetic
A
10. Which of the following methods of assessment measures max strength? A. 1RM back squat B. 1RM clean C. YMCA Bench Press
A
12. A baseball pitcher has an elbow flexion to elbow extension strength ratio of 1:3. Which of the following exercises should be added to his program? A. biceps curl B. bench press C. triceps pushdown
A
13. A strength and conditioning professional plans on administering a 12-min run in the heat. Which of the following is the MOST important to consider before testing? A. measuring the relative humidity B. allowing athletes to acclimatize for 1 hr C. ensuring athletes are well hydrated 48 hrs before the test
A
15. An athlete should begin the pro-agility test by sprinting A. 5 yd (4.6 m) to the left. B. 10 yd (9.1 m) forward. C. 5 yd (4.6 m) backward.
A
17. A 134 lb. female volleyball player has a daily intake of 2,800 kilocalories. 21% of her diet comes from fat. Approximately how many grams of fat is she consuming per day? A. 65 B. 84 C. 147 D. 588
A
30. A nutritionist is testing a 19 year old male soccer player using the Jackson Pollock 7 site body composition formula. Which of the following skinfold sites should be used? A. Chest, Abdomen, Triceps, Subscapular, Suprailiac, Midaxilla, Thigh B. Chest, Abdomen, Triceps, Subscapular, Suprailiac, Midaxilla, Calf C. Chest, Abdomen, Biceps, Subscapular, Suprailiac, Midaxilla, Thigh D. Chest, Abdomen, Biceps, Subscapular, Suprailiac, Midaxilla, Calf
A
47. Which of the following sequences of exercises is most appropriate for a female college basketball player entering the preseason? A. Hang Clean, Front Squat, Incline Bench Press, Triceps Pushdown B. Incline Bench Press, Triceps Pushdown, Front Squat, Hang Clean C. Front Squat, Seated Row, Incline Bench Press, Push Jerk D. Incline Bench Press, Seated Row, Push Jerk, Hang Clean
A
49. Training for sport and movement specific strength is given HIGHEST priority during which of the following sport seasons? A. Pre-season B. In-Season C. Post-Season D. Off-Season
A
6. A countermovement prior to jumping as far as possible consists of what type of muscle action? A. Eccentric B. Isometric C. Concentric D. Isokinetic
A
7. Which of the following sequences is the MOST appropriate? A. power clean, bench press, back squat, pull-up B. push press, shoulder press, power clean, deadlift C. leg press, front squat, power snatch, push press
A
8. Which of the following mineral deficiencies is relatively common in women and adolescents? A. Iron B. Copper C. Zinc D. Magnesium
A
A test that reflects low-speed muscular strength and utilizes relatively low movement speeds would be which of the following? a) Maximum Muscular Strength. b) Local Muscular Endurance. c) Aerobic Capacity. d) Maximum Muscular Power.
A
Which muscle is recruited to achieve hip extension during the snatch? a) Gluteus maximus. b) Soleus. c) Vastus Lateralis. d) Rectus Femoris.
A
Which of the following are the principle methods in which anabolic steroids increase strength and lean body mass? I. Increased Protein Synthesis. II. Decreased Protein Synthesis. III. Inhibition of the Catabolic Effects of High Intensity Training. IV. Acceleration of the Catabolic Effects of High Intensity Training. A. I, III only B. II,IIIonly C. I, IV only D. II, IV only"
A
Which of the following tests assess muscular power in a male tennis player? A. Standing long jump. B. 1 RM Squat. C. 1 RM Bench Press. D. 40 yard sprint.
A
44. In comparison to an elite Olympic weightlifter, an elite long-distance cyclist will have a greater percentage of which of the following? A. Type I muscle fibers B. Type IIa muscle fibers C. Type IIx muscle fibers
A 11
16. Which of the following refers to the amount of blood passing through the aortic valve during each heart beat? A. Stroke Volume B. Cardiac Output C. Systolic Blood Pressure D. End Diastolic Volume
A 116
45. A 17-year-old high school tennis player follows an aerobic training program 3 days per week at 70% HRmax for 4 weeks. Which of the following is the MOST likely to increase? A. stored creatine phosphate B. body fat percentage C. maximal rate of force production
A 121
5. Which of the following cardiovascular adaptations to chronic aerobic exercise contributes the MOST to improved aerobic endurance performance? A. increased maximal cardiac output B. decreased resting blood pressure C. lowered resting heart rate
A 121
24. A female marathoner trains at sea-level. She travels to a race venue held at an altitude of 5280 ft (1625 m). Which of the following BEST describes the immediate physiological effect? A. increased cardiac output B. decreased ventilation rate C. decreased tidal volume
A 126-127
48. Which of the following is a marker of aerobic overtraining? A. decreased total testosterone concentration B. increased muscle glycogen stores C. increased resting catecholamine level
A 131 catecholamines(84): epinephrine, norepinephrine and dopamine
3. Which of the following is an incomplete protein? A. beans B. eggs C. milk
A 182
14. An athlete is participating in an aerobic endurance event that lasts approximately one hour. Which of the following beverages is MOST appropriate? Temperature Carbohydrate concentration A. 55°F (13°C) 6% B. 65°F (18°C) 10% C. 75°F (25°C) 14%
A 198
8. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate recommendation for fluid intake before a collegiate soccer match? Volume (L) Hours before a match A. 0.5 2 B. 1.0 0.5 C. 1.5 1
A 198-199 1 oz = 30 ml
13. Which of the following exercises is an example of a first-class lever? A. triceps pushdown B. lateral raise C. biceps curl
A 20-21
42. Which of the following BEST describes the effect on mechanical advantage as a resistance moment arm shortens? A. increases B. decreases C. no change
A 20-21
2. A 120-lb (55-kg) marathon runner begins to taper one week before her race. Three days prior to the race she begins to carbohydrate load. Approximately how many grams of carbohydrates per day is MOST appropriate? A. 550 B. 1100 C. 2200
A 206
36. Which of the following exercises involves a second-class lever? A. standing calf (heel) raise B. dumbbell biceps curl C. lying triceps extension
A 21-22
10. A collegiate rubgy player wants to enhance recovery. Which of the following is MOST appropriate for her to consume promptly after completing a strenuous resistance training workout? A. carbohydrates, electrolytes, protein B. protein, omega-3 fatty acids, electrolytes C. electrolytes, carbohydrates, omega-3 fatty acids
A 211/215
15. A female collegiate basketball forward is in-season. She is content with her weight but would like to know if her diet is appropriate for her needs. Her daily caloric intake consists of the following: Carbohydrate 1500 kcal Protien 500 kcal Fat 350 kcal Which of the following is MOST appropriate to recommend? Carbohydrate Protein Fat A. maintain decrease increase B. increase increase maintain C. decrease maintain decrease
A 217
Which of the following represents the most important goal for achieving weight loss? A. Achieving a negative caloric balance. B. Engaging in intense aerobic activity. C. Decreasing fat consumption, while increasing protein consumption. D. Spreading meals throughout the day.
A 218
21. Which of the following describes binge eating that is associated with bulimia nervosa? Recurrent binge episodes/week Length of time A. 1 3 months B. 2 3 months C. 3 3 months
A 222
Which of the following factors appear to be responsible for the strength benefits from anabolic steroids? a) Increased protein synthesis. b) Decreased cortisol levels. c) Decreased catabolic hormones. d) Decreased water retention.
A 230
Which of the following have affects such as lipolysis and thermogenesis and have been found to increase lean mass and decrease stored fat? a) Beta-Adrenergic Agonists. b) Erythropoietin. c) Human Chorionic Gonadotropin. d) Growth Hormone.
A 236
Caffeine improves athletic performance by all of the following EXCEPT? a) Decreased urine output. b) Delayed fatigue. c) Increased alertness. d) Glycogen sparing.
A 244
55. Which of the following will DECREASE the power output of an athlete performing the snatch exercise? A. increasing the load from 90 to 95% of the athlete's 1RM B. increasing the speed at which the athlete performs the exercise C. lengthening the rest period between sets of the exercise
A 25-30
Which of the following tests is MOST appropriate for assessing a professional football offensive lineman? A. 1 RM Bench Press. B. 40 yard sprint. C. Sit and Reach. D. 1.5 mile run.
A 253
Anthropometry is the science of measurement applied to the human body, and measurements generally include all of the following EXCEPT? a) Flexibility. b) Height. c) Weight. d) Limb Girths.
A 262
How is the athlete instructed to grasp the barbell when performing the 1RM Bench Pull? A. Closed Pronated Grip. B. Closed Supinated Grip. C. Open Supinated Grip. D. Open Neutral Grip.
A 265
When administering the 300 yard shuttle, how far are the parallel lines placed apart? A. 25 yards B. 50 yards C. 75 yards D. 100 yards
A 273
When setting up the course for the Yo-Yo Intermittent Recovery Test, how far is the cone placed behind the start line in order for the athletes to jog for recovery? A. 5 m. B. 10 m. C. 15 m . D. 20 m.
A 278
All of the following are reasons for disqualification of a T-Test EXCEPT? A. During the initial movement, the athlete sprints forward only 10 yards. B. The athlete crosses one foot in front of the other. C. The athlete fails to touch a cone. D. The athlete turns to the right.
A 280
Which of the following identifies the correct way to stand during the Balance Error Scoring System? A. Eyes closed, hands on hips. B. Eyes closed, arms folded across chest. C. Eyes open, hands on hips. D. Eyes open, arms folded across chest.
A 284
9. A 145-lb (59-kg), 6 ft., 3 in. female college volleyball player has the following test profile: 1RM bench press: 110 lb (50 kg) 1RM back squat: 130 lb (59 kg) VO2 max: 49 ml/kg/min Body fat percentage: 18% Vertical jump: 21 in. (53 cm) Which of the following needs improvement? A. lower body strength B. lower body power C. upper body strength
A 295 50% = 143 LBS
22. A Division I collegiate defensive tackle (American football) had the following testing results two months before the competitive season: Bodyweight: 319 lb (145 kg) Height: 6 ft, 3 in. (191 cm) Standing long jump: 7 ft, 10 in. (2.4 m) 1RM bench press: 400 lb (181 kg) 40-yard (37-m) sprint: 4.84 sec Which of the following should this athlete focus on during training? A. lower body power b. upper body strength C. sprint speed
A 300 50% = 110" (279 cm)
A 24 year old professional male tennis player was administered a battery of tests and had the following results. 1RM Bench Press:220 lbs. 1RM Squat: 265 lbs. T-Test: 9.2 seconds. 1.5 Mile Run: 15.53. Sit and Reach: 20.5 inches. His strength and conditioning program should focus on improving which of the following? A. Aerobic Endurance. B. Flexibility. C. Agility. D. Muscular Strength.
A 305
12. A 315-lb (143-kg) male collegiate American football offensive lineman has the following test results: 40-yd (37-m) sprint: 5.9 sec Body fat percentage: 20% 1RM bench press: 405 lb (184 kg) 1RM back squat: 530 lb (241 kg) Which of the following areas should his training program emphasize? A. sprint speed B. body composition C. upper body strength
A 312-313
A college long jumper utilizes low-intensity bounding prior to his event. This type of warm-up would be considered? a) Specific. b) General. c) PNF. d) Static.
A 318
11. Which of the following muscle actions produces the greatest amount of muscle force? A. eccentric B. isometric C. concentric
A 32-33
Which of the following is the least likely to invoke the stretch reflex by avoiding stimulation of the muscle spindles? a) Static Stretch. b) Ballistic Stretch. c) Dynamic Stretch. d) Rapid Stretch.
A 323
Instruction for breathing during the dumbbell bench press should include? a) exhale through the sticking point. b) inhale through the sticking point. c) exhale as weight is lowered. d) exhale at the top of the movement.
A 353
A spotter is required for? a) Flat barbell bench. b) Power Clean. c) Good Morning. d) Flat Bench Press (Smith Machine).
A 354
45. Which of the following is MOST appropriate for performing the wrist extension exercise? A. grasping the bar with a pronated grip B. allowing the wrists to extend toward the floor C. extending the wrists to the neutral position
A 377
Proper spotting of the forward lunge has the spotter? a) Stepping forward with the same leg as the lifter's lead leg. b) Stepping forward with the opposite leg as the lifter's lead leg. c) Stepping forward with both legs. d) Not stepping forward with the lifter.
A 385
You are instructing a female soccer player on the deadlift. Correct technique for lifting a bar off of the floor would include all of the following EXCEPT? a) Lift the bar up to your chest before standing. b) Keep the bar close to the body. c) Keep the back flat. d) Weight evenly dispersed between the feet.
A 389
You are observing an athlete performing power cleans and notice an error during the Catch phase. Which of the following would need correction? a) A flexed torso. b) A tight torso. c) Flat feet. d) Neutral head position.
A 405
Which of the following is an exercise used to isolate the core? A. Side Plank. B. Squat. C. Push Press. D. Snatch.
A 411
Performing a dumbbell bench press on a physio ball leads to which of the following? A. Increased core muscle activation, reduced force generation by the pectoralis major. B. Increased core muscle activation, increased force generation by the pectoralis major. C. Reduced core muscle activation, reduced force generation by the pectoralis major. D. Reduced core muscle activation, increased force generation by the pectoralis major.
A 412
20. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate to include in the strength/power phase for a collegiate soccer goalie? A. push press with 85% of 1RM for 3 sets of 3 repetitions B. deadlift with 95% of the 1RM for 5 sets of 2 repetitions C. back squat with 65% of the 1RM for 4 sets of 12 repetitions
A 458
22. A volleyball player needs to increase his multiple-effort event power. Which of the following protocols is MOST appropriate for him to use while performing the power clean exercise? Load (% 1RM) Goal repetitions A. 85 4 B. 90 3 C. 95 2
A 458 80-90% 1-2 reps 75-85% 3-5 reps
53. Which of the following accumulates in the working muscle as an athlete exercises at near-maximum intensity? A. hydrogen ions B. creatine phosphate C. lactic acid
A 49/57
27. A high school cross-country runner wants to improve her speed-endurance. Which of the following types of training is MOST appropriate? A. interval B. pace/tempo C. fartlek
A 568
7. Depletion of which of the following fuel sources hinders marathon performance MOST? A. muscle glycogen B. triglycerides C. creatine phosphate
A 57
30. A collegiate softball player is participating in an in-season strength and conditioning program. She is transitioning between phases in the program. Phase A Sets Repetitions %1RM 1-3 1-3 95 Phase B Sets Repetitions %1RM 2-3 6-8 80 Which of the following BEST describes the change in phases? A. peaking to maintenance B. strength/power to peaking C. basic strength to hypertrophy
A 590
25. An athlete is using interval training to increase the capacity of the oxidative energy system. Which of the following work-to-rest ratios is MOST appropriate? A. 1:3 B. 1:4 C. 1:5
A 60
31. Which of the following protocols MOST closely simulates the metabolic demands of a basketball game? Work interval Intensity (%maximal power) A. 10 sec 95% B. 30 sec 75% C. 50 sec 55%
A 60/89
13. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate set of conditions for a strength and conditioning facility? Temperature Humidity Sound levels A. 72°F (22.2° C) 55% 85 dB B. 70°F (21.1° C) 50% 95 dB C. 68°F (20.0° C) 65% 80 dB
A 627-628
9. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate guideline for the arrangement of equipment for safety in a strength and conditioning facility? A. visibility and traffic flow B. grouping according to emphasis on body parts C. grouping according to equipment manufacturer
A 628-629
6. Which of the following is MOST appropriate for an assistant strength and conditioning professional to perform? A. properly instruct exercise techniques B. provide appropriate nutritional recommendations C. purchase equipment for the facility
A 642-652
10. A new collegiate athlete wants to use the strength and conditioning facility for the first time. The FIRST priority of the strength and conditioning professional is to make sure that the new student-athlete A. obtains clearance from the sports medicine staff. B. signs a release agreement form prior to using the facility. C. attends an orientation session for familiarization.
A 647-648
33. Which of the following involves training loads that are MOST associated with increases in serum testosterone concentrations? A. muscular strength B. muscular hypertrophy C. muscular endurance
A 74-75/85
41. To allow for cross-bridge interactions during muscular contraction, calcium must bind with which of the following? A. troponin B. tropomyosin C. actin
A 8
46. An 18-year-old collegiate rugby player is participating in a resistance training program. The strength and conditioning professional conducted strength testing every 6 weeks with the following results: Exercise 1 RM bench press Pre-testing Week 6 Week 12 Week 18 200 lb (91 kg) 210 lb (95 kg) 215 lb (98 kg) 225 lb (102 kg) Which of the following is PRIMARILY responsible for the increases in strength from week 6 to week 18? A. muscle fiber hypertrophy B. motor unit synchronization C. muscle fiber recruitment increases
A 88-95
1. Which of the following physical competency screens is most appropriate for assessing mobility of the hips and upper back? A. sit-and-reach test B. overhead squat C. star-excursion balance test
B
10. A strongman competitor is performing a standing barbell shoulder press using a load of 85% of his 1RM. Approximately how many repetitions can he expect to perform? A. 8 B. 6 C. 4
B
49. Performing a Valsalva maneuver during a 1RM effort results in which of the following? A. improved dynamic balance B. increased core stability C. decreased blood pressure
B 85-86
11. An athlete is scheduled to perform the following assessments: • 40-yd (37 m) sprint • 300-yd (274 m) shuttle • Pro agility • 1.5-mile (2.4 km) run • Skinfold measurements Which assessment should be administered on a separate day? A. 300-yd (274 m) shuttle B. 1.5 mile (2.4 km) run C. 40-yd (37 m) sprint
B
16. An 18-year-old male collegiate baseball player is 5 ft, 10 in. (178 cm) and weighs 170 lb (77 kg). He wants to increase muscle mass and strength. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate daily intake of protein? A. 308 kcal B. 554 kcal C. 693 kcal
B 217
11. Which of the following best represents a required procedure, or standard, for the Strength and Conditioning professional? A. the Strength & Conditioning practitioner should acquire a bachelor's or master's degree B. Strength & Conditioning programs must provide adequate and appropriate supervision C. Strength & Conditioning professionals should develop and maintain various records
B
12. A college wrestler would like to decrease his bodyweight by 4.5 kg while maintaining his fat free mass and strength prior to the next season. His current 3,200 kilocalorie diet has allowed him to maintain a weight of 82 kg. In order to achieve his goal which of the following daily guidelines would be MOST appropriate? A. Maintain a 500 kilocalorie deficit and consume 123 g of protein per day B. Maintain a 500 kilocalorie deficit and consume 189 g of protein per day C. Maintain a 1,000 kilocalorie deficit and consume 131 g of protein per day D. Maintain a 1,000 kilocalorie deficit and consume 238 g of protein per d
B
13. Compared to a cross country skier, a basketball player would have a higher percentage of which of the following? A. Type I Muscle Fibers B. Type II MuscleFibers C. Capillary Density D. Myoglobin Content
B
13. Which of the following is a structural exercise that requires free weights to be performed? A. front squat B. power snatch C. bent-over row
B
15. An American collegiate rugby player is participating in a pre-season strength and conditioning program. He is transitioning between phases in his program. Phase A Sets Repetitions %1RM 3-6 10-20 50-75 Phase B Sets Repetitions %1RM 3-5 4-8 80-90 Which of the following BEST describes the change in phases? A. basic strength to strength/power B. hypertrophy to basic strength C. strength/power to peaking
B
16. An athlete is scheduled to perform 12 repetitions in the incline bench press exercise. Which of the following percentages of his 1RM is MOST appropriate to assign? A. 60% B. 70% C. 80%
B
16. Which of the following tests requires the greatest amount of time to administer to ensure reliable results? A. 1RM deadlift B. 12-min run C. 300-yd (274 m) shuttle
B
17. Which of the following protocols is MOST appropriate to develop muscular hypertrophy? Repetitions Sets A. 6 2 B. 10 4 C. 16 3
B
18. A strength and conditioning professional is testing a female athlete using the Jackson-Pollock 3-site body composition formula. Which of the following skinfold sites should be used? A. abdomen, triceps, and suprailium B. suprailium, triceps, and thigh C. thigh, abdomen, and suprailium
B
18. A strength and conditioning professional is working with an athletic trainer to recondition a cross-country runner who has an injured ankle. During which of the following phases is it appropriate to introduce rotations on a wobble board? A. inflammation B. repair C. remodeling
B
19. A 120-lb (55-kg) female field hockey player has the following test results: 1RM bench press: 155 lb (70 kg) 1RM back squat: 190 lb (86 kg) Vertical jump: 15 in. (38 cm) 1-minute sit-up test: 65 She is currently performing the following program: Back squat 3x5 @ 95% 5RM Leg (knee) curl 3x6 @10RM Incline bench press 3x5 @ 95% 5RM Upright row 2x8 @ 10RM Abdominal crunch 3x30 Which of the following exercises is the MOST important to introduce into her training program? A. goblet squat B. hang clean C. front plank
B
2. A national rugby player has completed his first resistance training macrocycle. Pre- and post-tests are as follows: Pretest Post-test Body Weight 190 lbs (86.4 kg) 210 lbs (95.45 kg) Bench Press 295 lbs (134.1 kg) 335 lbs (152.3 kg) Squat 310 lbs (140.9 kg) 360 lbs (163.6 kg) 40 m Sprint 5.18 s 5.16 s Vertical Jump 20.0 in (50.7 cm) 20.0 in (50.7 cm) Which of the following is the most appropriate explanation for a lack of change in the vertical jump? A. Lack of effort B. Increased body weight C. Inefficient training program
B
21. An athlete's trial on the T-test is disqualified for which of the following reasons? A. touching the base of the cones B. crossing the feet when moving C. facing forward the entire time
B
22. Which of the following resistance training exercises MOST closely mimics the movement pattern of dribbling a basketball? A. Lat Pulldown B. Close Grip Bench Press C. Flat Dumb bell Fly D. Bent Over Row
B
27. A spotter is NOT indicated in which of the following exercises? A. Barbell Bench Press B. Snatch C. Overhead Dumb bell triceps extension D. Step Up
B
29. A strength and conditioning professional is redesigning a high school strength and conditioning facility. In order to ensure traffic flow and access, which of the following is the recommended space between resistance training machines? A. 22 inches B. 36 inches C. 54 inches D. 60 inches
B
3. An athlete initiates the T-test by performing which of the following movements? A. diagonal hop B. forward sprint C. lateral shuffle
B
36. A 19 year old college baseball player was administered a battery of tests 2 months before the start of the season. Here are the results. Height: 5'10" Weight:190 lbs. 1RM Bench Press: 205 lbs. 1RM Squat: 285 lbs. Vertical Jump: 24 inches 40 yard Sprint: 4.9 seconds Sit and Reach: 20 inches Which of the following needs improvement? A. Speed and Flexibility B. Upper Body Strength only C. Upper Body Strength and Flexibility D. Flexibility only
B
42. Which of the following plyometric drills has the LOWEST level of intensity? A. Split Squat Jump B. Jump to Box C. SingleLeg Hop D. Depth Jump
B
50. The strength and conditioning professional should instruct the athlete to do which of the following during the sticking point of a biceps curl exercise? A. Inhale B. Exhale C. Hold their Breath D. Arch the Back
B
7. Which of the following sequences will produce the MOST reliable results when testing? A. 1RM power clean, 1RM incline bench press, T-Test, 1-min sit-up test B. T-Test, 1RM power clean, 1RM incline bench press, 1-min sit-up test C. 1RM incline bench press, 1RM power clean, 1-min sit-up test, T-Test
B
8. Which of the following tests is the MOST appropriate for assessing a soccer goalie? A. 300-yd (274-m) shuttle B. Margaria-Kalamen C. 1.5-mile (2.4 km) run
B
All of the following are examples of Anaerobic Power/Maximum Muscular Power (High Speed Strength) tests EXCEPT? a) 1 RM Power Clean. b) 1 RM Bench Press. c) Vertical Jump Height. d) Time to sprint up a staircase.
B
All of the following are true regarding dietary supplements EXCEPT? a) Their safety is not guaranteed. b) They may be advertised as food replacements. c) They may be ineffective. d) They do not need to be approved by government agencies to be sold.
B
16. Which of the following decreases as a result of resistance training and increases due to aerobic training? A. muscle fiber size B. mitochondrial density C. osteoblast synthesis
B 105-107/124-125
19. Which of the following muscles would be MOST affected by inactivity? A. Rectus Femoris B. Gluteus Maximus C. Pectoralis Major D. Triceps Brachii
B 110
21. An increase in which of the following increases oxygen delivery to the active muscles during acute aerobic exercise? A. blood hemoglobin B. cardiac output C. plasma volume
B 116
51. A high school junior 1600-m runner has been aerobically training for 2 years. She improves her performance time throughout the course of her first season on the team. Which of the following is PRIMARILY responsible for her performance increases? A. decrease in lean body mass B. improvement in VO2max C. increase in running economy
B 120/124 Most adaptations in Vo2max can be achieved within 6 - 12 months.
2. Which of the following is a marker of overtraining in an aerobic endurance athlete? A. Decreased Creatine Kinase B. Increased Sympathetic Stress Response C. Increased Muscle Glycogen D. Decreased Submaximal Exercise Heart Rate
B 131
40. A 12-year-old athlete has been resistance training twice a week for six weeks. Which of the following adaptations contribute the MOST to training-induced strength gains? A. increased muscle size B. increased motor unit activation C. greater testosterone concentration
B 139
4. As compared to males, the potential for force production of females per muscle cross-sectional area is A. lower. B. similar. C. higher.
B 146
8. Which of the following situations would MOST inspire an athlete with a high motive to achieve success? A. a very easy competition in which the probability of success is virtually guaranteed B. a challenging situation in which the probability of success to failure is even C. an extremely difficult situation in which the probability of success is highly unlikely
B 162
1. A 165-lb (75-kg) athlete has an average daily intake of 450 g of carbohydrate, 75 g of protein, and 100 g of fat. What percent of the total kilocalorie intake is carbohydrate? A. 50% B. 60% C. 70%
B 188
11. A 115-lb (61-kg) softball player has an average daily intake of 325 g of carbohydrate, 55 g of protein, and 75 g of fat. Approximately what percentage of her calories come from protein? A. 8% B. 10% C. 12%
B 188
20. What is the MINIMUM amount of carbohydrates that a 132-lb (60-kg) competitive Olympic triathlete should consume on a daily basis? A. 240 g B. 480 g C. 720 g
B 188
18. Which of the following types of fat should be limited according to the 2015 Dietary Guidelines? A. unsaturated B. saturated C. trans
B 189
4. An athlete is training at 85° F (29° C) and 90% humidity. At what percentage of weight loss due to dehydration will core body temperature potentially begin to increase and significantly affect athletic performance? A. 1% B. 2% C. 4%
B 196 2 - 3 %
7. During a practice session a 73 kg high school soccer player was noted to lose 1.5 kg. of body weight. In order to rehydrate before tomorrow morning's training session, this athlete should consume how much fluid? A. 1.5L B. 2.25L C. 3.0L D. 3.75 L
B 198 1.5 L for per kilo 0.7 L for per LB
57.Which of the following muscles acts as an agonist during the second pull of the power clean exercise? A. latissimus dorsi B. trapezius C. tricep brachii
B 20/405
13. A high school American football player would like to increase his strength and muscle mass. His average caloric intake of 2200 kcals/day has allowed him to maintain a bodyweight of 160 lb (73 kg). He would like to gain 8 lb (4.5 kg) and has increased his caloric intake by 500 kcals and is following a periodized resistance training program. The athlete reports the following intake: Carbohydrate 1050 kcals Protein 700 kcals Fat 950 kcals Which of the following is MOST appropriate to recommend? Carbohydrate Protein Fat A. increase decrease decrease B. increase maintain decrease C. increase decrease maintain
B 217
15. Which of the following increases serum testosterone MOST during resistance training? A. high intensity (10RM) B. short rest periods (30-60 seconds) C. moderate resistance (67%-85% of 1RM)
B 75/85
A strength and conditioning professional is going to administer the following tests to a professional basketball player. 40 yard sprint. 1RM Bench Press. 1RM Squat. Vertical Jump. Hexagon Test. Skinfold Measurement. Sit and Reach. 12 minute Run. Which test should be administered on a separate day? A. Skinfold Measurement B. 12 minute run C. 40 yard sprint D. 1RM Squat"
B 257
Which of the following tests would be the best to measure a basketball player's ability to start, stop, and change direction of her body rapidly? a) 40 yard sprint. b) T-test. c) 1 RM power clean. d) Sit and Reach.
B 261
You want to provide a measure of a running back's speed, tests of speed are usually not conducted over distances greater than which of the following? a) 50 m. b) 100 m. c) 800 m. d) 1600 m.
B 261
Which of the following is utilized to calculate the Reactive Strength Index? A. Jump Height X Contact Time. B. Jump Height / Contact Time. C. (Box Height -Jump Height) x Contact Time. D. (Box Height - Jump Height) / Contact Time.
B 271
25. Which of the following is used to calculate power? A. force x distance B. work ÷ time C. acceleration ÷ force
B 28
A strength and conditioning professional is conducting the T-Test on high school running backs. The initial movement is a forward sprint and touch of a cone. Which of the following represents the next movement in the testing sequence? A. Turn and sprint to the left. B. Continue to face forward and shuffle to the left. C. Run backward to the starting point. D. Continue to face forward and shuffle to the right.
B 280
17. What is the recommended length of the sides for the hexagon test? A. 12 in. (30 cm) B. 24 in. (60 cm) C. 36 in. (90 cm)
B 281
When performing the pro agility test the athlete initially sprints 5 yards to the line on the left. Which of the following maneuvers occurs next? A. Sprints 5 yards to the right. B. Sprints 10 yards to the right. C. Springs 5 yards forward. D. Sprints 10 yards forward.
B 282
Which of the following identifies the correct location and limb position to take right upper arm girth measurements? A. At the point of maximal circumference with the elbow fully flexed and arm abducted to parallel to the floor. B. At the point of maximal circumference with the elbow fully extended and arm abducted to parallel to the foor. C. At the point midway between the olecranon and acromion process with the elbow fully extended and arm abducted to parallel to the floor. D. At the point midway between the olecranon and acromion process with the elbow fully extended and arm perpendicular to the floor.
B 290
A college softball player was administered a battery of test 12 weeks before the start of the season. Here are the results Height: 5'6"" Weight: 120 lbs Percent Body Fat: 18.5% 1 RM Bench Press: 90 lbs 1 RM Squat: 150 lbs Vertical Jump: 19 inches Sit and Reach: 22.5 inches Which of the following should her program focus on?" A. Body Composition. B. Upper Body Strength. C. Muscular Power. D. Upper Body Strength and Body Composition.
B 295
48. A 20 year old collegiate female tennis player had the following test results. Height: 5"8" Weight: 126 lbs. 1RM Bench Press: 110 lbs. 1RM Squat: 120 lbs. Vertical Jump: 19 inches T-Test: 10.9 seconds 1.5 Mile Run: 14:20 Sit and Reach: 16.5 inches Which of the following exercises would be MOST beneficial to add to her training program? A. Dumbbell Bench Press and Power Clean B. Back Barbell Squat and Contract Relax PNF Stretching of her Hamstrings C. Back Barbell Squat and a 45 minute interval run with a work rest ratio of 1:1 D. Power Clean and Contract Relax PNF Stretching of her Hamstrings
B 295/306 Back Barbel 50 % = 126LBS Sit and Reach 50 % = 19" 1.5 Mile Run 50% = 14:04
A 6'4‖ 190 lb. Division I basketball player is 21 years old and had the following test . 1RM Bench Press: 230 lbs. 1RM Squat: 280 lbs. 1RM Power Clean: 180 lbs. T-Test: 8.8 secons. Which of the following needs improvement? A. Agility. B. Power. C. Lower Body Strength. D. Upper Body Strength.
B 297 Power Clean 50% = 215lbs
14. A 23-year-old Division I college baseball player has the following test results: 1RM bench press: 245 lb (111 kg) 1RM back squat: 275 lb (125 kg) 1.5-mile (2.4-km) run: 10:16 (min:sec) Which of the following needs improvement? A. upper body strength B. lower body strength C. aerobic endurance
B 297/305
39. The latissimus dorsi performs which of the following muscle actions during the upward movement phase of the lat pulldown exercise? A. isometric B. eccentric C. concentric
B 32
47. Which of the following BEST identifies the joint actions during the upward phase of the push press exercise? A. rapidly flex the hips, knees and ankles while extending the arms to push the bar overhead B. rapidly extend the hips, knees and ankles and then the arms to push the bar overhead C. rapidly extend the arms overhead while a slightly flexed position at the hip and knees
B 400
38. Which of the following would represent a technique error during the performance of the snatch that would need correcting? I. Feet are placed shoulder width apart II. Shoulders behind the bar with eyes focused straight ahead III. Squatting down with the hips higher than the shoulders IV. Back flat, chest held up and out A. I and II only B. II and III only C. II, III, and IV only D. I, III, IV only
B 406
Which of the following are benefits of bodyweight training? I. Develops absolute strength. II. Often includes open chain based exercises. III. Is specific to each individuals anthropometrics. IV. Improves body control. A. I and II only. B. III and IV only. C. II, III, IV only. D. I, III, IV only.
B 411
When compared to a barbell squat performance of a squat on a Smith Machine reduces the activity of the back stabilizers by what percentage? A. 10%. B. 30%. C. 60% . D. 90%.
B 412
32. A basketball player needs to increase his muscular strength. Which of the following protocols is MOST appropriate for him to use while performing the deadlift exercise? Load (%1RM) Goal repetitions Sets A. 80 8 3 B. 90 4 4 C. 95 4 3
B 452
38. A strength and conditioning professional is working with a novice sprinter. In order to improve their sprint speed, which of the following is the MOST critical component to improving their speed? A. increasing stride frequency while decreasing stride length B. increasing vertical force application C. increasing ground contact time
B 527-333
48. A sprinter runs with too little height of the swing leg knee. Which of the following recommendations is MOST appropriate? A. use a longer push-off with each stride B. emphasize development of stretch-shortening cycle C. increase stride length to allow for greater ROM
B 529-532
32. Which of the following factors determine the primary energy system used during exercise? A. exercise intensity and exercise mode B. exercise intensity and exercise duration C. exercise duration and exercise mode
B 53-55
50. During a single exercise session, which of the following training variables should be decreased to produce a greater adenosine triphosphate (ATP) production capacity? A. duration B. intensity C. rest
B 53-55
42. During the acceleration phase of sprinting, which of the following techniques is MOST appropriate? A. athlete should be nearly upright by 30m B. recovery of swing leg is low to the ground during initial steps C. athlete steps laterally during initial drive phase
B 530-531
44. Which of the following backpedaling techniques is the MOST appropriate? A. greater range of motion at the knee joint B. smaller range of motion at the hip joint C. initiate arm movement at the elbows
B 535,545
5. Which of the following activities relies primarily on the phosphagen energy system? A. 400m Sprint B. 5RM Back Barbell Squat C. 400m Freestyle Swim D. 5K Race
B 54/57
21. A 30-year old male athlete has a resting heart rate of 60 bpm. He wants to work at 80% to 90% of his maximal heart rate. Using the percentage of maximal heart rate method, what is his target heart rate range? A. 104-117 bpm B. 152-171 bpm C. 164-177 bpm
B 564
26. A 40-year-old female athlete has a resting heart rate of 80 bpm. She wants to exercise at an intensity of 60%. What is her target heart rate using the Karvonen method? A. 108 beats per minute B. 140 beats per minute C. 188 beats per minute
B 564
31. Using the Karvonen method, which of the following is the 10 second target heart rate range for a 37 year old male aerobically exercising at an intensity of 65-75% of his functional capacity if his resting heart rate is 58 bpm? A. 20-23 B. 30-33 C. 119-137 D. 177-195
B 564
24. A professional basketball player is in the middle of postseason competition. A game has been rescheduled due to inclement weather. Adjustments to his strength training program will affect which of the following? A. macrocycle B. microcycle C. mesocycle
B 587
23. The goal of the hypertrophy/endurance phase of the preparatory period to increase A. muscular strength. B. fat free mass. C movement speed.
B 589
11. Which of the following occurs in the sarcomeres of the gastrocnemius muscle during the upward movement phase of a standing calf (heel) raise? A. The H-Zone Lengthens B. The I-Band Shortens C. TheA-BandLengthens D. The Z-Line Shortens
B 6
1. A head collegiate strength and conditioning professional is scheduled to supervise the resistance training session of the men's rowing team. He is unexpectedly called away from the facility 10 minutes before the session is scheduled to begin. Which of the following should the assistant strength and conditioning professional do NEXT? A. cancel the training session B. supervise the training session C. ask the rowing coach to supervise the athletes
B 643-646
5. While performing a squat under moderate loads, an athlete loses balance. The spotter is then injured when the weights slide off the end of the bar due to ill-fitting collars. The potential legal ramification of this incident is most likely which of the following? A. negligence on the part of the spotter B. negligence on the part of the strength and conditioning coach C. no one is at fault, it was an accident
B 647
7. Which of the following will MOST likely have the greatest impact on reducing the risk of litigation in a strength and conditioning facility? A. proper exercise technique instruction for athletes B. supervision of athletes by a qualified strength and conditioning professional C. a copy of strength and conditioning programs on file
B 652
3. While working out in the strength and conditioning facility, an athlete comes across a sharp edge on a piece of equipment and cuts her hand open. There is immediate pain and bleeding. What is the strength and conditioning professional's immediate priority? A. clean the wound B. apply compression C. apply ice
B 653
1. Which of the following increases cortisol levels the MOST during resistance training? A. Moderate Volume B. Isolated Muscles C. Short Rest Periods D. Low Volume
C
37. A field hockey player has a running pace of 6.5 mph (10.5 km/h). She now must run indoors due to inclement weather. The strength and conditioning professional observes the athlete set the treadmill to 6.5 mph (10.5 km/h) at a 3% grade. Which of the following treadmill adjustments is MOST appropriate to mimic her outdoor pace? Speed Grade A. increase decrease B. increase maintain C. maintain decrease Do Online
C
4. A 175 lb. lacrosse player has an average daily intake of 600 g of carbohydrate, 90 g of protein, and 100 g of fat. What percentage of his total kilocalorie intake is carbohydrate? A. 10% B. 23% C. 67% D. 76%
C
4. Which of the following instructions are appropriate to give to an athlete who is preparing to perform the T-test? A. Keep your head slightly tilted down and focus your eyes on each cone. B. Keep your head in a neutral position and focus your eyes on each cone. C. Keep your head in a neutral position and focus your eyes straight ahead.
C
43. When administering a battery of tests to a male basketball player, which of the following sequences will produce the most reliable results? A. Partial Curl Up, 300 yard shuttle, 1RM Squat, 40 yard sprint B. 1RM Bench Press, 300 yard shuttle, 40 yard sprint, Partial Curl Up C. T- Test, 1RM Squat, 40 yard Sprint, Partial Curl Up D. Partial Curl Up, 40 Yard Sprint, 1 RM Bench Press, T-Test
C
44. A running back is performing the barbell bench press when the bar slips out of his right hand and comes crushing down on his throat. He begins coughing up blood and loses consciousness. Luckily, the strength and conditioning director was spotting him. Which of the following actions should IMMEDIATELY be taken? I. Call the head football coach II. Call 911 III. Move him to the locker room IV. Administer CPR if he is not breathing A. I, II, III B. II,III C. II, IV D. I, II, III, IV
C
6. A strength and conditioning professional is designing a reconditioning program for an athlete who has undergone physical therapy after ACL reconstruction surgery. The athletic trainer indicates that joint movement is CONTRAINDICATED. Which of the following types of exercise is MOST appropriate? A. isokinetic B. isotonic C. isometric DO ONLINE
C
8. Which of the following exercises requires the longest recovery time after a training session if performed using 90% of 1RM? A. bench press B. leg press C. front squat
C
9. Which of the following are the MOST sport-specific exercises for a sprinter? A. triceps pushdowns and leg (knee) extensions B. barbell back squats and lat pulldowns C. seated arm swings and dumbbell lunges
C
9. Which of the following equations is used to calculate power? A. Force x Distance B. Force / Time C. (Force x Distance) / Time D. (Force/ Time) x Distance
C
During the upward movement phase of a barbell bench press, which of the following muscles acts as an antagonist? A. Deltoid. B. Pectoralis Major. C. Biceps Brachii. D. Serratus Anterior.
C
Which of the following is a side effect associated with caffeine? A. Bradycardia. B. Lethargy. C. Increased Urine Output. D. Hallucinations.
C
You are observing an athlete perform the Bent-over row and notice which of the following technique flaws that needs correction? a) Pronated closed grip. b) Grip wider than should width. c) Torso flexed so it is slightly below parallel to floor. d) Bar hangs with the elbows fully extended.
C
A track sprinter performing long walking strides that emphasize hip extension would be utilizing what type of stretching? a) Static. b) Ballistic. c) Dynamic. d) PNF.
C 324
19. An increase in which of the following is a marker of aerobic overtraining? A. body fat percentage B. muscle glycogen C. creatine kinase concentration
C 130-131
34. A parent informs the strength and conditioning professional that her child has been classified as being at Tanner's Stage 1. What does this classification assess? A. chronological age B. psychological age C. biological age
C 137
54. Which of the following is characterized by a personal desire to improve? A. extrinsic motivation B. achievement motivation C. intrinsic motivation
C 161-162
27. Which of the following may hinder an athlete's focus during competitive sport performance? A. placekicker stretching his hamstrings or checking the turf B. pitcher's awareness of players on base C. basketball player focusing on other players during a free throw
C 163
29. Gas exchange during respiration occurs in which of the following structures? A. veins B. bronchioles C. capillaries
C 17
All of the following food choices have an amino acid pattern similar to that needed by the body EXCEPT? A. Tuna. B. Turkey. C. Avocado. D. Eggs.
C 182
12. Which of the following is the MOST effective way to determine an athlete's fluid replacement needs after an exercise session? A. thirst mechanism B. pre-exercise urine color C. change in body weight
C 197
17. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate food to consume to promote glycogen restoration immediately following a 10k training run? A. 1 c (274 ml) of noncarbonated soft drink B. 1 oz (28 g) of honey roasted peanuts C. 1 pint (473 ml) of chocolate milk
C 210-211
6. A 6-ft, 2-in. (188-cm), 220-lb (100-kg) college American football player wants to gain muscle mass. He has a daily intake of 3000 kcal that consists of 18% protein, 55% carbohydrate, and 27% fat. Which of the following is the MOST important to consider? A. decrease carbohydrate and increase protein and fat B. increase protein and carbohydrate and decrease fat C. increase protein, carbohydrate, and fat proportionally
C 217
A college football nose guard is 188 cm tall and weighs 135 kg. How would this athlete be classified using BMI? A. Normal. B. Overweight. C. Obese. D. Extreme Obesity.
C 219
5. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate if an athlete is suspected of having an eating disorder? A. Monitor the athlete's weight weekly B. Provide basic nutritional information C. Refer the athlete to the team physician
C 221
You are about to perform a sequence of tests on a male basketball player. The tests are vertical jump, skinfold measurements, 1 RM back squat, and T-Test. What should be the proper sequence of these tests? a) T-Test, 1 RM back squat, Vertical jump, Skinfold measurements b) Skinfold measurements, T-Test, 1 RM back squat, Vertical jump c) Skinfold measurements, Vertical jump, T-Test, 1 RM back squat d) T-Test, 1 RM back squat, Skinfold measurements, Vertical jump"
C 256
All of the following would represent tests of local muscular endurance EXCEPT? a) Maximum number of chin-ups in 1 minute. b) Maximum number of chin-ups in 30 seconds. c) Maximum number of chin-ups in 1 minute with 5 seconds rest every 10 seconds. d) Maximum number of sit-ups in 30 seconds.
C 261
In order to test the aerobic capacity of the members of the women's soccer team, a collegiate strength and conditioning specialist could utilize which of the following tests? A. 300 yard shuttle. B. Hexagon Test. C. Yo-Yo Intermittent Recovery Test. D. Margaria-Kalamen Test.
C 278
When is the Yo-Yo Intermittent Recovery Test Terminated? A. The first time the start line is not reached. B. After 15 minutes. C. Inability of an athlete to maintain the required pace for two trials. D. After 400 m.
C 278
Which of the following would cause a trial of the Star Excursion Balance Test to be discarded? I. Athlete remains facing in the beginning direction. II. Athlete maintains start and return position for 1 second. III. Athlete rests 30 seconds between reaches. IV. Athlete does not touch the line. A. I, II, IV only B. II, IV only C. III, IV only D. II, III, IV only"
C 285
Which of the following represents a correct procedure during the application of the Sit- and-Reach-Test? a) Wear shoes. b) Use Ballistic stretches to warm up the low back and hamstrings. c) The tester may hold the athlete's kneed down if necessary. d) Reach forward as fast as possible.
C 286
What measure of central tendency is represented by the score that occurs with the greatest frequency? a) Mean. b) Median. c) Mode. d) Average.
C 291
6. A female collegiate basketball forward in her junior year is administered a battery of tests. The results are shown below: Height: 69 in. (175 cm) Weight: 150 lb (68 kg) Percent body fat: 20% 1RM bench press: 100 lb (45 kg) 1RM squat: 215 lb (98 kg) Vertical jump: 19 in. (48 cm) Which of the following needs improvement? A. body composition B. anaerobic power C. upper body strength
C 295 average male 16 - 20 average female 12 - 16
A high school soccer player was tested during the offseason and here are the results Height: 5'9" Weight: 158 lbs 1 RM Bench Press: 190 lbs 1 RM Squat: 245 lbs T-Test: 12 seconds Sit and Reach: 15 inches Vertical Jump: 25 inches 40 yard Sprint: 4.7 seconds Which of the following needs improvement? A. Muscular strength and power. B. Muscular power and speed. C. Agility and Flexibility. D. Flexibility and Speed.
C 305/311
5. A college baseball player was tested ten weeks before the start of the season with these results: Height: 6 ft, 0 in. (182 cm) Weight: 212 lb (96 kg) 1 RM bench press: 275 lb (125 kg) 1 RM squat: 325 lb (147 kg) Vertical jump: 24 in. (61 cm) T-Test: 11.6 sec 40-yard (37-m) sprint: 4.8 sec 1-minute sit-up: 37 Which of the following need improvement? A. agility and muscular strength B. power and local muscular endurance C. agility and local muscular endurance
C 311 Recreational athletes =10.31 1 minute sit-up: 35-38 = average
A nutritionist is testing a male basketball player using the Jackson Pollack 3 site body composition formula. Which of the following skinfold sites should be used? A. Triceps, suprailiac, thigh. B. Triceps, abdomen, thigh. C. Chest, abdomen, thigh. D. Abdomen, subscapular, calf.
C 314
A punter is utilizing static stretches to increase his hamstring length, how long should this type of stretching be held at the point of minor discomfort? a) 15 sec. b) 20 sec. c) 30 sec. d) 1 minute.
C 322
8. Which of the following is given FIRST priority when setting up a weight room schedule? A. off-season athletes B. pre-season athletes C. in-season athletes
C 653
49. Within the biceps brachii muscle, the I-bands lengthen during the downward movement phase of which of the following exercises? A. bench press B. lat pulldown C. bent-over row
C 7
6. Which of the following events occurs in the hamstring muscles during the concentric muscle action of leg (knee) curl exercise? A. the A-band length increases B. the I-band length stays the same C. the H-zone length decreases
C 7
21. Which of the following is a physiological function of epinephrine in muscle? I. Decrease blood flow II. Decrease blood pressure III. Increase muscle contraction rate IV. Decrease force production A. I, II only B. I, II, IV only C. III only D. IV only
C 84 catecholamines = Epinephrine, norepinephrine, and dopamine
17. An exercise session consisting of which of the following modalities results in the LARGEST increase in serum HGH concentration? A. moderate-intensity aerobic exercise B. moderate-intensity resistance exercise C. high-intensity resistance exercise
C 85
37. All innervated muscle fibers of a motor unit fully contract when stimulated due to which of the following? A. size principle B. selective recruitment C. all-or-none principle
C 9
9. Which of the following is a characteristic of Type II muscle fibers? A. slow contraction speed B. small fiber diameter C. high power output
C 9-10
56. Which of the following adaptations results from heavy resistance training? A. increased capillary density B. decreased triglyceride storage capacity C. increased Type II fiber cross-sectional area
C 90
18. A female, college-age athlete began a strength and conditioning program 8 weeks ago. In the weeks following, she continues to see gains in her strength. Which of the following MOST likely contributes to this change? A. improved neuromuscular efficiency B. conversion of Type I to Type II muscle fibers C. increased size of muscle fibers
C 93
18. Which of the following describes erythropoietin? Secreted by Produces A. Pituitary Gland Red Blood Cells B. PituitaryGland Epinephrine C. Kidneys Epinephrine D. Kidneys Red Blood Cells
D 235
Which of the following is a protein primarily produced in the kidney that stimulates new red blood cells? a) Insulin. b) Stanozolol. c) Epinephrine. d) Erythropoietin.
D 235
Which of the following refers to the degree to which a test or test item measures what it is supposed to measure? a) Measurement. b) Reliability. c) Variability. d) Validity.
D 250
Which of the following would be the most valid test for measuring a volleyball player's muscular power? a) 1 RM Bench Press. b) 100-m Sprint. c) 1 mile run. d) Vertical Jump.
D 253
When administering a battery of tests to a high school quarterback, which of the following sequences will produce the most reliable results? A. 300 yard shuttle, T-Test, 1RM Bench Press, 1RM Power Clean. B. 1RM Bench Press, 1RM Power Clean, T-Test, 300 yard shuttle. C. 1RM Power Clean, 1 RM Bench Press, 300 yard shuttle, T-Test. D. T-Test, 1RM Power Clean, 1RM Bench Press, 300 yard shuttle.
D 256
You would like to test a freshmen soccer player's aerobic capacity, which of the following activities would be the best measure? a) 100 meter dash. b) 200 meter dash. c) 400 meter dash. d)1600 meter dash.
D 261
Which of the following is a measure of high speed strength? A. 1 RM Back Squat. B. T-Test. C. Straight-Line Sprint Test. D. Standing Long Jump.
D 267
When administering the partial curl up test, the strength and conditioning professional should set the metronome to how many beats per minute? A. 10. B. 20. C. 30. D. 40.
D 274
When taking skinfolds of an athlete the midaxilla measurement is represented by which of the following? a) Diagonal fold on the midaxillary line at the level of the nipples. b) Vertical fold on the midaxillary line at the level of the nipples. c) Diagonal fold on the midaxillary line at the level of the xiphoid process. d) Vertical fold on the midaxillary line at the level of the xiphoid process.
D 288
A female collegiate soccer player was administered a battery of tests, and here are the results. Height: 5'8" Weight: 137 lbs. 1RM Bench Press: 110 lbs . 1RM Squat: 155 lbs. Vertical Jump: 18 inches. T-Test: 10.6 seconds. V02 Max: 33ml/kg/min. Which of the following needs improvement? A. Muscular Power. B. Upper Body Strength. C. Agility. D. Aerobic Capacity.
D 295 VO2 Max 50% = 37.8
A 5'10‖ 187 lb. college football defensive back was administered a battery of tests and had the following results. 1RM Bench Press: 265 lbs 1RM Squat: 320 lbs T-Test: 8.6 seconds Standing Long Jump: 65 inches Sit and Reach Test: 21.5 inches 1.5 mile run: 9:59 seconds A. Barbell Bench Press. B. Contract Relax PNF Stretching of his hamstrings. C. Long Slow Distance Training of 5 kilometers. D. Power Clean.
D 296/300 Standing Long Jump 50% = 110"
A 16 year old female basketball player had a standing long jump of 66 inches? How would this performance be classified in comparison to other girls her age competing in sports? A. Poor. B. Below Average. C. Average. D. Excellent.
D 300 50% = 57" Male 50% = 69"
All of the following affect flexibility EXCEPT? a) Age and Sex. b) Joint Structure and Muscle Bulk. c) Age and Activity Level. d) Race and Height.
D 321
Contracting the hamstrings muscle group while it is passively being stretched stimulates the Golgi Tendon Organ and allows which of the following? a) Relaxation of the hamstrings muscle group by relaxing the hip flexors. b) Relaxation of the hip flexors by contracting the hamstrings. c) Relaxation of the hip flexors by the contraction of the hip flexors. d) Relaxation of the hamstrings by contraction of the hamstrings.
D 325
In order to stretch her hamstring muscle group a college soccer player asks a partner to passively move her hip into flexion, after a 10 s stretch the partner continues to move the leg further into hip flexion while the soccer player resists the movement, after 6 s she relaxes and the partner further moves her leg into hip flexion. This type of stretching is referred to as? a) Static. b) Ballistic. c) Dynamic. d) PNF.
D 325
A golfer would like to incorporate PNF stretching into his program to improve his flexibility, and asks you what the most effective PNF stretching technique is? a) Hold-Relax. b) Contract-Relax. c) Hold-Relax with Antagonist Contraction. d) Hold-Relax with Agonist Contraction.
D 327
A softball player elects to use the vertical (machine) chest press, in order to ensure proper alignment for the exercise the handles should be at the level of what anatomical landmark? a) Clavicle. b) Elbows. c) Belly Button. d) Nipples.
D 375
Which of the following exercise does NOT require concentric activation of the brachialis? a) Hammer curl. b) Lat pulldown. c) Biceps curl. d) Wrist curl.
D 377
46. Which of the following is a technique error during the performance of the barbell upright row? A. Grasp the bar with a closed pronated grip B. Rest the bar on the front of the thighs with the elbows extended C. Pull the bar along the abdomen D. As the bar rises keep the elbows tucked to the sides
D 396
When are instability devices best utilized for core training? A. With trained athletes to maximize movement velocity. B. With trained athletes to maximize force production. C. With trained athletes to maximize rate of force production. D. With trained athletes to rehabilitate from injury.
D 413
Which of the following is an example of an accommodating load? A. Free Weights. B. Chains. C. Resistance Bands. D. A device that controls the speed of movement throughout a range of motion.
D 413