Domain III prep

you are performing one-person CPR on an unconscious victim. what is the proper compression-to-breath ratio?

30:2

according to the national association of EMS Physicians, which of the following is an accepted criterion for cessation of CPR procedures? A. a non hypothermic athlete is in cardiac arrest for more than 30 minutes B. an emergency medical technician instructs you to discontinue treatment of the athlete C. the athlete regains normal breathing pattern D. another rescuer arrives on the scene and offers assistance E. the AED has provided at least one shock

A. a non hypothermic athlete is in cardiac arrest for more than 30 minutes

which of the following best describes a catastrophic injury or illness? A. a sudden death or injury in which there is life-altering physical and/or mental impairment B. a sudden death or injury that results in paralysis C. an injury that terminates an athlete's sports participation D. an injury that results in criminal and/or civil legal actions E. an injury that permanently disables an aspect of the central nervous system

A. a sudden death or injury in which there is life-altering physical and/or mental impairment

while conducting a secondary survey, an athletic trainer assesses the pupils of the patient. the patient is asked to follow the examiner's finger as it moves in different directions using just his eyes. what should be assessed in this portion of the evaluation? A. ability of the eyes to accommodate by pupils moving simultaneously and smoothly B. ability of the pupil to react to the changes in light it is taking in as it moves C. ability of the pupil to constrict as the finger moves in different directions D. ability of pupils to remain an equal size as they move in different directions

A. ability of the eyes to accommodate by pupils moving simultaneously and smoothly

you are assisting in the medical treatment tent at a local youth soccer tournament. this is the first tournament of the spring season. one of the coaches appears to be having difficulty catching his breath. you have conducted an initial assessment and determined the athlete is suffering from an asthma attack. while you are consulting with the physician in the medical tent, the athlete's mother arrives carrying asthma medications. which inhaler is the most appropriate for the immediate management of this athlete's current symptoms? A. albuterol (Proventil) B. fluticasone propionate and salmeterol (Advair) C. salmeterol (serevent) D. fluticasone propionate (Flovent)

A. albuterol (Proventil)

which of the following recommendations is in alignment with the inter-association task force for preventing sudden death in secondary school athletes? A. an AED should be on-site and accessible within 1 to 3 minutes for all organized athletic activities B. a resting ECG should be obtained for all secondary school athletes to make clearance decisions C. sports drinks should be available for all practices in hot environments to reduce the risk of exertional heat illness D. athletes with suspected concussion can return to activity the same day if cleared through objective concussion testing and reviewed by the school nurse/physician

A. an AED should be on-site and accessible within 1 to 3 minutes for all organized athletic activities

for which of the following injuries would a manual conveyance method for transporting a mildly injured athlete be used? A. an athlete sitting in the middle of the track and exhibiting signs of heat illness B. an athlete kneeling by the sideline with a lateral ankle sprain C. an athlete sitting in front of the goal with a suspected ACL sprain D. an athlete lying in the middle of the football field with a hip pointer E. an athlete exhibiting signs of an acute asthma attack on the bench during a baseball game

A. an athlete sitting in the middle of the track and exhibiting signs of heat illness

a soccer goalie comes out of the box to retrieve a rebounded shot. the attacking forward seizes the opportunity to shoot and his foot makes direct contact with the goalie's face, resulting in profuse bleeding. management of external bleeding includes the use of direct pressure, elevation, and pressure points. what is the correct procedure to follow if the blood soaks through the dressing being used to apply direct pressure? A. apply additional gauze atop saturated gauze B. remove saturated gauze and replace within new gauze C.remove saturated gauze and replace with more absorbent dressing D. remove saturated gauze, apply a later of petroleum jelly, and replace with new gauze E. apply a later of petroleum jelly atop saturated gauze and apply an additional layer of gauze

A. apply additional gauze atop saturated gauze

when treating an athlete with chilblains, which of the following treatments would be contraindicated? A. applying friction massage to rewarm the tissue B. removing wet or constrictive clothing C. washing or drying the area D. covering the affected area E. placing a space heater near the patient

A. applying friction massage to rewarm the tissue

trauma to the spinal cord above which level of the cervical spine has a high probability of death? A. c4 B. c5 C. c6 D. c7

A. c4

following a yelling and screaming episode, a basketball coach appears confused. he drops the pen from his clipboard, begins to slur his speech, and complains of numbness and weakness on the right side of his face. what condition should be suspected, and how is this condition best treated? A. cerebrovascular accident; activate EMS, encourage the coach to remain calm B. myocardial infarction; activate EMS and provide a low-dose aspirin to the coach C. transient ischemic attack; provide a low-dose of aspirin and instruct him to call his physician D. supraventricular tachycardia; instruct the coach to lie supine and monitor him for shock E. deep vein thrombosis; provide a glucose beverage, and reassess vital signs every 10 minutes

A. cerebrovascular accident; activate EMS, encourage the coach to remain calm

based on current research investigating the best method of removing football helmet facemarks to access the airway, the combined tool technique has been recommended. what emergency equipment should be accessible for applying this technique? A. cordless power screwdriver and trainer's angel B. trainer's angel and FM extractor C. cordless power screwdriver and manual screwdriver D. EMT scissors and FM extractor

A. cordless power screwdriver and trainer's angel

as trained medical personnel are often not present at youth sporting events, which education is considered to be critical for youth athletes with potentially life-threatening conditions such as asthma and severe allergies? A. education on self-administration of medications B. education on past medical history C. education on current EAP D. education on how to contact emergency personnel

A. education on self-administration of medications

in 2012 the NATA released an official statement entitled "Time Outs Before Athletic Events Recommended for Health Care Providers." What is the purpose of the recommended "time out"? A. ensure all the athletic health-care professionals who comprise the emergency response team go through a pre-athletic event checklist reviewing the venue's EAP B. ensure all athletic health-care professionals providing emergency care for a specific sport event have appropriate and current first responder certifications and are willing to provide care in case of an emergency C. make certain all emergency equipment and first aid supplies are complete, in excellent working order, and easily accessible to all persons involved in any aspect of athletic healthcare for a specific sporting event D. ensure all athletic health-care professionals for a specific sport have reviewed the medical records of all participants, have access to participant emergency contact information (cards), and have adequate knowledge for using any potentially necessary emergency equipment

A. ensure all the athletic health-care professionals who comprise the emergency response team go through a pre-athletic event checklist reviewing the venue's EAP

in order to ease respiratory distress and restore cardiac output, what drug does the world health organization recommend be available for immediate treatment of acute anaphylaxis? A. epinephrine B. albuterol C. benadryl D. prednisone

A. epinephrine

as the AT for a high school football team, you hold a team meeting before the start of each season to discuss emergency management protocols with the players. what is the most important information the athletes should receive? A. if an injury occurs, players should not touch or move the injured athlete until instructed to do so by the AT B. if an injury occurs, the players should assist the injured athlete in removing his helmet if the player is unable to remove it himself C. if an injury occurs, every effort should be made by the teammates to get the injured player to the sideline, where he can be seen by the AT D. if an injury occurs, only the team captain should signal the ambulance staff to come onto the field to transport the athlete

A. if an injury occurs, players should not touch or move the injured athlete until instructed to do so by the AT

after returning from a road trip, a member of your swim team is diagnosed with bacterial meningitis. which of the following is the most appropriate management approach for this condition? A. individuals who have been in close contact with the sick athlete should be placed on prophylactic antibiotics B. individuals who have been in close contact with the sick athlete should be tested for the disease using a nasal swab C. everyone in the travel party should be quarantined and monitored for 48 hours to ensure no one else has contracted the disease D. everyone in the travel party should be encouraged to eat well, get plenty of rest and fluids, and report to the athletic training room immediately if they begin to experience any symptoms

A. individuals who have been in close contact with the sick athlete should be placed on prophylactic antibiotics

a football player sustains an acute cervical spine injury during a game. the EAP is activated, and the athlete is spine boarded for transport to an emergency medical facility for evaluation and treatment. on arrival the EMS provider asks which local hospital you would like to use. which of the following facilities would provide the medical professionals that are best equipped to manage this injury from evaluation through the treatment and rehab process? A. level I trauma center B. level II trauma center C. level III trauma center D. level IV trauma center E. level V trauma center

A. level I trauma center - level I centers provide most comprehensive services from initial evaluation through rehab, whereas level V are able to provide initial eval and stabilization to prepare for transport to a higher-level center

what is the primary goal when providing emergency care? A. maintain cardiovascular function and, indirectly, central nervous system function B. maintain central nervous system function and, indirectly, respiratory system integrity C. maintain adequate blood supply and, indirectly, brain function D. maintain breathing and, indirectly, central nervous system function E. maintain visceral organs and, indirectly, peripheral function

A. maintain cardiovascular function and, indirectly, central nervous system function

a venue-specific EAP should include info for the following subjects: emergency personnel, emergency communication, emergency equipment, medical emergency transportation, venue directions with map. To aid in providing effective emergency communication, where in the athletic training facility should a copy of the EAP be posted? A. near the landline telephone B. near the facility entrance C. near the treatment tables D. near the entrance to the storage facility

A. near the landline telephone

a volleyball player sustains an acute eversion ankle sprain. what taping technique should be applied to best control swelling and provide limited support? A. open basket weave B. Gibney C. Low-dye D. kinesio taping E. McConnell taping

A. open basket weave

which EMS provider has training and authority to provide advanced airway support, perform invasive procedures such as IV placement, and administer medication under the supervision of a physician as part of his or her scope of practice? A. paramedic B. emergency medical technician C. basic life support provider D. emergency medical responder

A. paramedic

during a thunderstorm, lightning strikes a power pole, resulting in a live power line falling onto an outfield chainlink fence. after the storm passes, the coaches go out to assess the damage. one of the coaches inadvertently touches the fence, receives an electrical shock, and collapses several feet away from the fence. what is the first step you should take to care for the injured coach? A. perform a primary survey B. call the power company to have the electricity shut off C. move the coach off the wet grass and onto a dry blanket D. activate EMS and do not touch the victim to protect yourself E. use a wooden bat to see if the coach is still carrying a charge

A. perform a primary survey

you have been caring for an athlete who is unconscious, but his vital signs are stable, and you dont suspect a cervical spine injury. before arriving on the scene, EMS requests that you position the athlete in the recovery position and monitor vital signs. which of the following best describes this position? A. side-lying on the left side with the left arm moved aside and the right arm draped across the body as support and the right leg crossed over the left B. side-lying on the right side with right arm moved aside and the left arm draped across the body as support and the right leg crossed over the left C. side-lying on the right side with right arm moved aside and the left arm draped across the body as support and the left leg crossed over the right D. side-lying on the left side with left arm moved aside and the right arm draped across the body as support and the left leg crossed over the right E. side lying on the right side with both arms overhead, next to the ears and the left leg crossed over the right

A. side-lying on the left side with the left arm moved aside and the right arm draped across the body as support and the right leg crossed over the left -left side b/c stomach is on left and in case aspiration of the airways is less likely to become obstructed

which of the following types of splints is recommended for immobilization of a suspected pelvis fracture? A. spine board B. long leg vacuum splint C. traction splint D. long leg air splint with rigid SAM splint extension

A. spine board

a wrestler is visibly uncomfortable and complains of scrotal swelling, abdominal pain, nausea, and unilateral testicular tenderness. he reports no trauma, tells you he woke up with the symptoms this morning, and says it feels like his left testicle is not in the right place. you ask him to elevate the involved testicle, but no relief is noted. what condition would you suspect and what is the most appropriate immediate care? A. testicular torsion; refer immediately to the team physician or emergency department B. testicular torsion; apply ice and attempt to manual reduction after area is numb C. epididymitis; refer to team physician for antibiotic prescription D. epididymitis; apply ice and notify coach that he will be unable to practice today E. hydrocele; the athlete should be schedule to see the team physician later in the day

A. testicular torsion; refer immediately to the team physician or emergency department

a soccer player is brought into the athletic training room by his teammates. they report that they were playing pick-up when someone kicked a ball and the athlete didnt see it coming toward his head. the athlete turned unexpectedly and met the full force of the ball with his head and face. your evaluation reveals that the athlete's bottom three central incisors appear to have been forced down into their sockets. what action should the athletic trainer take to manage this injury? A. the athlete should be immediately transported to a trauma-trained dentist or the emergency department B. the athlete should be asked to bite on a gauze pad to hold the teeth in place and then referred to the team dentist C. the athletic trainer should attempt to gently reposition the teeth and then refer to the team dentist D. the athlete should be allowed to return back to his dorm to rest and then return for reevaluation later in the day as the teeth will more than likely rebound to their original position

A. the athlete should be immediately transported to a trauma-trained dentist or the emergency department

a football player conditioning during a summer workout collapses. which of the following factors suggests the athlete is suffering from an exertional sickling crisis? A. the collapse occurs early in the workout, and the athlete's core temperature is not greatly elevated B. the collapse is associated with visible, rock-hard muscle contractions C. the athlete's rectally assessed core's temperature is above 106ºF at collapse D. the collapse is associated with excruciating pain and occurs late in the conditioning session

A. the collapse occurs early in the workout, and the athlete's core temperature is not greatly elevated

a spectator collapses during a college basketball game. the EAP is activated and EMS is en route. which staff member would be in the best position to meet and direct EMS personnel to the location of the emergency? A. the facility manager B. the athletics director C. one of the coaches D. an athletic training student

A. the facility manager

according to the inter-association task force document on emergency health and safety for youth sports leagues, who is responsible for development, communication, and implementation of EAPs in youth sports? A. the local member leader (commissioner, director, or league safety officer) B. the national governing body leadership C. local EMS D. head coaches of each team

A. the local member leader (commissioner, director, or league safety officer)

what is the advantage of conducting unannounced EAP drills? A. they give a good indication how the EAP team will respond during an actual emergency B. they are required to meet catastrophic insurance coverage requirements C. they are important to educate all EAP team members on their individual roles and responsibilities D. they serve as an acceptable defense to avoid potential litigation

A. they give a good indication how the EAP team will respond during an actual emergency

which type of splint is indicated for stabilization of long-bone fractures because it limits spasm of surrounding musculature that might negatively impact fracture alignment? A. traction splint B. dynamic splint C. vacuum splint D. air splint

A. traction splint

a standard procedure for helmet and shoulder pad removal of an athlete with a cervical spine injury can be part of a venue-specific EAP. based on current guidelines, there are two recommended techniques for stabilizing the cervical spine. which of the following is one of those techniques? A. trap-squeeze method B. inverted-hands method C. diagonal-squeeze method D. chin-forehead method

A. trap-squeeze method

which of the following descriptions best define an emergency action plan (EAP)? A. written document that defines the standard of care required in every conceivable event during an emergency situation B. step-by-step procedures that are specific to the needs of each situation and athletic facility during an emergency situation C. a statement that will drive the institution's functional goals, which turn formulate all medical operating procedures D. detailed plan that describes the roles of involved personnel during an emergency situation E. written, site-specific plan for transporting injured athletes in an emergency situation

A. written document that defines the standard of care required in every conceivable event during an emergency situation

your collegiate lacrosse team is practicing at a nearby school because it has a synthetic turf field. how should you obtain a copy of the EAP for the school where you will be practicing? A. you should request the EAP from the school before your first practice session B. the host school is required by law to provide all facility users a copy of the EAP C. the coach should request a copy of the EAP from the host school's coach D. as the EAP will be posted at the practice site, you do not need to obtain a copy

A. you should request the EAP from the school before your first practice session

you are assessing an injured athlete's level of consciousness. the athlete responds to your voice but is not fully oriented to person, time, or place. how would this be categorized when employing the AVPU scale? A. A B. V C. P D. U

B. V - V for verbal signifies the patient responds to verbal cues but isn't oriented to person, time or place

which of the following best characterizes a simple partial epileptic seizure? A. impairment of consciousness alone or in association with purposeful movements such as automatism B. a brief bout of uncontrolled shaking of the limbs on one side of the body and no loss of consciousness C. a brief bout of uncontrolled shaking of the limbs with a loss of consciousness D. total body convulsions with a loss of consciousness

B. a brief bout of uncontrolled shaking of the limbs on one side of the body and no loss of consciousness

an athlete who has just completed running a marathon on a hot and humid late summer day is demonstrating signs and symptoms of exertional hyponatremia. what is the physiological cause of this condition and its associated clinical presentation? A. a decrease in serum or plasma chloride concentration B. a decrease in serum or plasma sodium concentration C. an increase in serum or plasma potassium concentration D. an overall increase in serum or plasma volume

B. a decrease in serum or plasma sodium concentration

when creating your EAP, what information should be included for each specific venue? A. emergency vehicle transportation, emergency equipment, location of lighting safe shelters B. accessibility to emergency personnel, communication system, emergency equipment C. name and location of nearest emergency care facility, number of stairs between floors, availability of emergency transportations D. location of lightning safe shelters, policy for activating emergency transportation, communication systems

B. accessibility to emergency personnel, communication system, emergency equipment

in accordance with the NCAA inter-association consensus statement on management of concussion, what is the standard procedure for management of a student athlete diagnosed with a concussion? A. an athlete should be screened and, if assessments are within 10% of baseline measures, they can return to competition B. an athlete may not return to the practice or competition and should be withheld from all activity for the remainder of the day. C. an athlete should be removed from activity and referred to a physician for evaluation and management D. an athlete can return to activity later in the same day if cognition and balance have returned to normal limits and only a headache remains

B. an athlete may not return to the practice or competition and should be withheld from all activity for the remainder of the day.

in order to protect health-care professionals providing care in a life-threatening emergency, how often does the OSHA require mandatory training for managing blood borne pathogens? A. every 6 months B. annually C. every other year D. every 5 years

B. annually

in the last 2 minutes of a soccer game, a forward charging toward a goal collides with the sweeper from the opposing team and sustains a composed midshaft tibiofibular fracture. what is the most appropriate immediate care for this injury? A. activate EMS, splint the injury in correct alignment, elevate the distal extremity and monitor for shock B. apply dressing to the wound, splint the injury in the position it was initially found, continually check neuromuscular status, and activate EMS C. monitor the patient's vital signs, activate EMS, and remain with the athlete until assistance arrives D. apply dressing to the wound, splint the injury in correct alignment, transport the athlete to the sideline using ambulatory aid techniques, and reassess

B. apply dressing to the wound, splint the injury in the position it was initially found, continually check neuromuscular status, and activate EMS

a cross country runner tripped running through a wooden trail and sustained a severe laceration of her lower leg that is bleeding. what is the best way to distinguish arterial from venous bleeding? A. arterial blood produces a more steady flow of blood B. arterial blood spurts from the wound C. arterial blood produces a flow of dark red blood D. arterial blood slowly oozes from the tissues E. arterial blood clots rapidly

B. arterial blood spurts from the wound

in 1992, what piece of equipment did the OSHA mandate athletic trainers use while performing CPR? A. bag-valve mask to provide standard quantity of oxygen delivery B. barrier device or pocket mask to minimize transmission of blood borne pathogens C. gloves to minimize transmission of blood borne pathogens D. supplemental oxygen to increase oxygen saturation E. watch with a second hand to more accurately perform compressions at the recommended rate

B. barrier device or pocket mask to minimize transmission of blood borne pathogens

why are antipyretic medications not indicated for the treatment of athletes with exertional heatstroke? A. antipyretic medications may promote dehydration by delaying return to normal body temperatures in a person with exertional heatstroke B. because the increase in body temperature during exercise is not a chemical response, antipyretic medications are ineffective in treating exertional heatstroke C. antipyretic medications cant penetrate to the active muscles and so are ineffective in treating exertional heatstroke D. because exertional heatstroke affects the preoptic area of the anterior hypothalamus, antipyretic medications are ineffective in treating exertional heatstroke

B. because the increase in body temperature during exercise is not a chemical response, antipyretic medications are ineffective in treating exertional heatstroke

an EAP should direct the emergency team to follow a CHECK-CALL-CARE system when responding to an emergency. which of the following is an action taken during the initial CHECK? A. check ambulance route to make sure all gates, doors, and other entrances are accessible B. check the scene to make sure it is safe for you to aid the athlete C. check the athlete's medical records, noting pre-existing conditions and medication allergies D. check stability provided by the immobilization devices you have applied

B. check the scene to make sure it is safe for you to aid the athlete

a freshmen women's basketball player who is struggling with balancing schoolwork, roommate issues, and the demands of the team arrives at practice in tears. midway through practice, she walks off the court. when you approach her in the hallway, she is visibly upset and she tells you she just wants to put an end to all the pain and hurting. you are concerned that she may attempt suicide. what is the most appropriate immediate management for this situation? A. notify your campus security or public safety office and request they transport her to the hospital's emergency department for a psychiatric evaluation B. comfort the athlete, and then escort her to the campus counseling center C. ask the coach to get her involved in practice to get her mind off her worries and make an appointment at the campus counseling center for the next morning D. ask the coach to assign a teammate to stay with her at all times until you can arrange an appointment with your team physician the next day

B. comfort the athlete, and then escort her to the campus counseling center

a middle-aged coach falls unconscious on the sideline. her skin is cool and dry, and her breathing is labored. her face is flushed, and there is a sweet odor on her breath. what do you suspect? A. stroke B. diabetic coma C. insulin shock D. anaphylactic shock

B. diabetic coma

what action is recommended to protect a health-care provider against exposure to blood borne pathogens when there is heavy bleeding present? A. double hand washing following glove removal B. double gloving C. changing gloves when they become saturated D. using alcohol-based hand sanitizer following glove removal and hand washing

B. double gloving

which of the following actions should you take when treating a person who is in shock? A. administer oral fluids B. elevate the legs C. elevate the head and trunk D. induce vomiting E. assist the patient in taking shock medications

B. elevate the legs

in order to avoid potentially fatal delays in providing CPR, what should be communicated to athletic health-care professionals regarding a collapsed and unresponsive patient? A. if patient is gasping, even occasionally, a cardiac arrest can be ruled out B. every collapsed and unresponsive athlete should be treated as having a cardiac arrest until a non cardiac cause is determined or the athlete becomes responsive C. seizure-like activity is rarely associated with cardiac arrest; therefore, the collapsed and unresponsive athlete should be treated as having a neurological condition D. a rescuer trained in CPR detecting a pulse in a collapsed and unresponsive athlete is a strong indicator the athlete is not experiencing a cardiac arrest

B. every collapsed and unresponsive athlete should be treated as having a cardiac arrest until a non cardiac cause is determined or the athlete becomes responsive

to what pressure point should digital pressure be applied to control bleeding from a wound in the lower leg? A. brachial B. femoral C. subclavian D. bicipital E. carotid

B. femoral

an EAP may include protocols for football helmet and shoulder pad removal. which shoulder pad removal technique can be used only when the shoulder pads have previously been cut or separated both anteriorly and posteriorly? A. elevated torso technique B. flat torso technique C. 8-person lift technique D. 8-person lateral slide technique

B. flat torso technique

an athlete sustains a compound fracture of the middle third of the right tibia. in an initial attempt to control the bleeding, which of the following techniques would be the most effective and appropriate? A. elevate the leg above the level of the heart to slow the bleeding B. gently apply sterile gauze over the wound and apply digital pressure over the femoral artery C. apply sterile gauze and direct pressure over the fracture site D. apply a tourniquet just above the knee E. gently apply sterile gauze over the wound and apply pressure at the dorsal pedal pressure point

B. gently apply sterile gauze over the wound and apply digital pressure over the femoral artery

what is the purpose of writing a chronology of events following a catastrophic injury? A. it assists the injured party's legal team in developing legal action against medical staff and the institution B. it allows management team to critique the process while providing a basis for reviewing the efficacy of the procedures C. it assists the counseling team by providing comprehensive background of events from which they can formulate a care plan D. it aids the administration in making decisions regarding the employment status of involved personnel

B. it allows management team to critique the process while providing a basis for reviewing the efficacy of the procedures

when developing a venue-specific EAP, which of the following should be consistent with the type of available emergency equipment? A. institution's medical equipment budget B. level of training of the emergency care personnel C. athlete exposure rate and injury rate for sports at venue D. number of emergency care personnel

B. level of training of the emergency care personnel

what is recommended technique for moving a supine athlete with a suspected spinal injury to the spine board for transport off the field? A. log roll B. lift and slide C. manual conveyance D. scoop extraction

B. lift and slide

what outside entities should be consulted when an educational institution sets out to develop an effective EAP? A. campus health services staff B. local EMS C. medical staff from other schools within the conference D. local police department personnel

B. local EMS

the NATA position statement on acute management of the cervical spine-injured athlete recommends considering the removal of the helmet and shoulder pads to be an all-or-nothing endeavor for which sport in addition to American football? A. men's lacrosse B. men's ice hockey C. field hockey D. women's lacrosse E. Australian rules football

B. men's ice hockey

to improve patient outcomes, an AT in a rural county may need to educate facility administrators and medical staff at local emergency care facilities in which of the following areas, as the information not be part of their standard education program? A. management of heat-related illness B. proper removal of athletic equipment C. management of concussion D. splinting and immobilization techniques

B. proper removal of athletic equipment

while covering a middle school softball game, one of the player suffers an acute asthma attack. you assist the athlete in using her short-acting beta-2-agonist rescue inhaler. the athlete's symptoms do not diminish after a second administration of the medication. what are the recommended next steps? A. assist the athlete in using her long-acting beta-2-agonist inhaler B. provide a third administration of the rescue inhaler and if symptoms do not subside refer promptly to health-care facility C. assist the athlete is using her corticosteriod inhaler D. refer athlete immediately to health-care facility

B. provide a third administration of the rescue inhaler and if symptoms do not subside refer promptly to health-care facility

while rebounding a shot, a basketball player lands awkwardly on another's foot before falling to the floor. when the AT reaches the injured player it is obvious the ankle is deformed with one or more possible fractures. what emergency medical equipment is most appropriate to immobilize this athlete's injury? A. SAM splint B. rapid form vacuum immobilizer C. half-ring splint D. stack splint

B. rapid form vacuum immobilizer

what emergency medical equipment should be included in an athletic trainer's EAP to diagnose an athlete with exertion heatstroke? A. pen light B. rectal thermometer C. reflex hammer D. urinalysis dipstick

B. rectal thermometer

which of the following mechanisms would most likely cause a spontaneous pneumothorax? A. acute bacterial pneumonia B. rupture of a bleb C. costochondral separation D. posterior displaced sternoclavicular joint separation E. hyperventilation

B. rupture of a bleb

although once considered the standard of care, the use of high-dose methylprednisolone for the treatment of acute spinal cord injury is currently controversial. what led to this change? A. research suggest that patients given methylprednisolone for the treatment of acute spinal cord injury did not demonstrate significantly better functional outcome measures than patients given a placebo medication B. several research studies have demonstrated a higher incidence of respiratory and infection complications with methylprednisolone C. recent research has demonstrated support for the use of methylprednisolone D. research suggests that the use of methylprednisolone may lead to dangerous drops in blood pressure

B. several research studies have demonstrated a higher incidence of respiratory and infection complications with methylprednisolone

when assessing a patient's blood pressure, how much should the cuff be inflated? A. the cuff should be inflated 5-10 mm Hg above the patient's normal systolic measurement B. the cuff should be inflated to a minimum of 200 mm Hg C. the cuff should be inflated 15-20 mm Hg above the point at which the last Korotkoff sound is heard D. the cuff should be inflated 15-20 mm Hg above the point at which the first Korotkoff sound is heard

B. the cuff should be inflated to a minimum of 200 mm Hg

Assessment of a 45-year-old woman who began experiencing light-headedness during a tennis match reveals a heart rate of 155 beats/min. how would you describe this HR to EMS personnel when they arrive on the scene? A. the patient is demonstrating normal pulse rate for her age, gender, and activity level B. the patient is demonstrating supra ventricular tachycardia C. the patient is demonstrating tachycardia but this will likely go down at the next assessment because she just stopped playing D. the patient is demonstrating bradycardia that is consistent with the stimulant medication she is currently taking

B. the patient is demonstrating supra ventricular tachycardia

after a big win, the members of your soccer team throw a party where alcohol is served. in the early morning hours, a player calls you because he is unable to wake his teammate. you ask the player what the teammate actually did. what is the role of the player in the immediate care of the ill teammate? A. the player should relate information only about the teammate's current condition B. the player should be completely honest about the evening's activities C. the player should avoid providing details without the teammate's permission D. the player should request that the AT keep all provided info strictly between them E. the player should convene a team meeting to make sure all players provide the same story

B. the player should be completely honest about the evening's activities

to comply with AHA guidelines, which state that early defibrillation is considered a critical component of basic life support, what emergency equipment must be on hand for all athletic practices and events? A. advanced airway aids B. supplemental oxygen C. AED D. immobilisation splints

C. AED

a decreased triceps reflex is indicated of a lower motor neuron lesion at which level? A. C5 B. C6 C. C7 D. C8 E. T1

C. C7

what is the legal basis for institutions needing to have EAPs established for athletic venues? A. an EAP protects institutions against legal actions B. an EAP guarantees injured athletes will have positive outcomes C. an EAP is an accepted standard of care D. an EAP prevents first responders from making decisions or taking actions that may result in legal actions

C. an EAP is an accepted standard of care

while covering a youth soccer game, you are cancelled to the field to evaluate an athlete who was injured after an opponent completed a slide tackle directly into his lower leg. your evaluation reveals a possible tibia fracture and you elect to splint the athlete before transport to a local hospital for evaluation. when applying a splint, which area should be stabilized by the splint? A. ankle and lower leg B. lower leg and knee C. ankle, lower leg, and knee D. entire leg from foot to hip

C. ankle, lower leg, and knee

after the running back on your football team completes a first down, you notice that he is still laying face down on the field as the other players return to the huddle. As you watch from the sidelines a teammate jogs over to the down player before you can get to him. what is the most helpful action this teammate could take to assist in the care of this injured athlete? A. help the player to get up by grabbing his shoulder pads and lifting superiorly so he can get his feet under him B. take the player by one shoulder and arm and gently roll him over onto his back to maximize airflow C. ask the down player if he is injured and instruct him to lie still until the AT comes out D. tell the player that because he cant move his legs he is probably paralyzed and should not move until the AT comes out E. tell his teammates in the huddle to stay where they are because the down player is seriously hurt

C. ask the down player if he is injured and instruct him to lie still until the AT comes out

a gymnast dismounting into a pit misses the pit and sustains a severe head injury. the AT activates the EAP and calls EMS, but the arrival of the ambulance is delated because the driveway closest to the facility entrance is blocked. once inside the athletics complex, the EMS responders are delayed further due to difficulty finding the gymnastics practice facility. which component of the EAP was poorly executed? A. identifying qualified personnel B. ensuring presence of emergency care equipment C. assignment of duties and responsibilities D. activation of EMS

C. assignment of duties and responsibilities

when hosting an athletic event, what information should be communicated to the visiting athletic team staff by the host athletic trainer? A. location of the posted EAP B. copy of the department's policy and procedure manual C. available medical personnel, methods of communication, and available equipment D. transportation policy detailing which types of injuries merit transport

C. available medical personnel, methods of communication, and available equipment

During a gymnastics meet, an athlete falls from the balance beam, injuring her right shoulder. Palpation reveals a posterior displacement of the head of the humerus. The athlete's arm is abducted approximately 45° and any movement results in severe pain. The decision is to splint the arm as it is using pillows and cravats. Which of the following parameters should one assess before and after applying the splint? A. blood pressure in the injured arm B. heart rate, rhythm, and strength C. distal neuromuscular and circulatory functions D. respiratory rate, rhythm, and depth E. strength of the forearm muscles

C. distal neuromuscular and circulatory functions

which of the following are components of an EAP? A. roles of first responders, venue directions, and emergency contact information for each athlete B. names and contact information for staff and administration personnel, date of most recent EAP practice session, list of available emergency equipment C. emergency personnel, modes of communication, and venue directions or site map D. location of personal protective equipment, roles of first responders, method of activating EMS

C. emergency personnel, modes of communication, and venue directions or site map

to effectively manage athletes with a history of anaphylactic reactions, what medical equipment should health-care professionals stock and be trained to use at the first sign of anaphylaxis? A.nebulizer B. supplemental oxygen C. epipen D. metered dose inhaler

C. epipen

the number of recorded direct fatalities resulting from participation in the fundamental skills of football at the high school, collegiate, and professional level have declined dramatically since the late 1970s as a result of major rule changes, helmet standards, better coaching, and improved medical care of athletes. however, indirect fatalities have remained high and have even increased during some decades. which of the following is the leading cause of football indirect fatalities? A. asthma B. internal trauma C. exertional heatstroke D. concussion

C. exertional heatstroke

an athlete with sickle cell trait collapses during a training season and exertional sickling is suspected. in addition to removal from activity, monitoring vital signs, and activating EAP, what other therapeutic interventions are indicated for this athlete? A. urinalysis to assess for possible rhabdomyolysis B. peak flow measurements to assess lung function C. high flow oxygen administration with a non breather mask D. elevation of extremities to prevent shock

C. high flow oxygen administration with a non breather mask

a male referee down the sidelines during a punt return suddenly grasps at his chest and collapses. his face becomes ashen, and his breathing is difficult, but he maintains consciousness. because you are trained in first aid, you suspect a heart attack. what should you do? A. treat for shock and send someone to get an AED B. begin artificial respirations, monitor pulse, and activate EMS C. monitor patient's vital signs, send someone to get an Aid and activate EMS D. administer CPR, monitor vital signs, and activate EMS using your cell phone E. place patient in semi reclining position, provide electrolyte fluids along with low-dose aspirin, send someone to get an AED, and activate EMS

C. monitor patient's vital signs, send someone to get an Aid and activate EMS

why are AEDs effective in preventing sudden death from a cardiac emergency during sports activity? A. most cardiac emergencies in sports activities involve atrial fibrillation B. most cardiac emergencies in sports activities involve cardiac arrest C. most cardiac emergencies in sports activities involved ventricular fibrillation and cardiac arrest D. most cardiac emergencies in sports activities involve cardiac arrhythmia and congestive heart failure E. most cardiac emergencies in sports activities involve valve dysfunction

C. most cardiac emergencies in sports activities involved ventricular fibrillation and cardiac arrest

during a triathlon, the athletes have completed the swimming leg and are on the cycling segment. the ambient air temperature is 55ºF, and the win is steady at 15 mph. an athlete has difficulty and cant continue riding. during the evaluation, you notice the athlete is disoriented and lethargic, has garbled speech, and has a core temperature of 95º F. the athlete's respirations are shallow, and the heart rate is notably slow. what would be the appropriate initial treatment for this athlete? A. cover the athlete with cool, damp towels and send for emergency assistance B. administer warm IV saline solution and prepare for immediate transport C. move the athlete to a sheltered area, remove wet clothing, wrap the athlete in a warm blanket, and administer warm fluids D. position the athlete on a table with feet elevated, cover with a blanket and monitor for shock E. move the athlete to a sheltered area, administer cool fluids, and prepare the athlete for transport

C. move the athlete to a sheltered area, remove wet clothing, wrap the athlete in a warm blanket, and administer warm fluids

the emergency medical equipment available on-site should be based on the type of event being covered and the possible emergency scenarios associated with that event. if an emergency scenario requiring advanced airway management is anticipated, what emergency medical equipment needs to be readily available at the event center? A. AED with extra pads B. pulse oximeter C. oral pharyngeal airway (OPA) D. epipen

C. oral pharyngeal airway (OPA)

in order to comply with the OSHA standards that govern occupational exposure to bloodborne pathogens, what emergency equipment should be included in a venue-specific EAP? A. AED B. pneumatic splint kit C. personal protective equipment D. spine board with padding and straps

C. personal protective equipment

what highly vascularized, loose connective tissue membrane adheres closely to the surface of the brain? A. dura mater B. nuchal ligament C. pia mater D. scalp

C. pia mater

what information should an AT be prepared to communicate to a 911 dispatcher? A. caller's name, title and position, condition of the patient, and medical history of patient B. location of telephone being used, date of caller's most recent CPR training, and type of suspected emergency C. present condition of the patient, current assistance being given, exact location of emergency, and how to enter the facility D. type of emergency situation, patient's medical history, and name of the person meeting the ambulance E. current assistance being given to patient, number of persons on scene who are certified in CPR, and location of telephone being used

C. present condition of the patient, current assistance being given, exact location of emergency, and how to enter the facility

what strategy is recommended by the national federation of state high school associations sports medicine advisory committee for management of athletes exhibiting serious signs of exertional heat illness? A. remove to a Cool location and provide oral fluids B. contact the student's parents for transport to an emergency facility for treatment C. provide immediate cooling using cold water immersion or ice bags to the neck, axilla, and groin if pool is not available D. active EAP and wait for trained rescuers to arrive

C. provide immediate cooling using cold water immersion or ice bags to the neck, axilla, and groin if pool is not available

according to the NATA position statement on acute management of the cervical spine-injured athlete, which of the following dictates the development of separate EAPs? A. injury risk level of sports B. gender of athlete C. sport or activity locations D. sport seasons

C. sport or activity locations

in an on-field emergency situation, which member of the emergency team should direct the immediate care of the injured athlete? A. athletic trainer B. athletic training student C. team physician D. local EMS personnel covering the game

C. team physician

a member of your field hockey team calls you in a highly emotional state to report that she came back to her residence hall room to find her roommate, who is also her teammate, unconscious on the floor with an empty bottle of pills beside her. which of the following would be appropriate next steps? A. tell the athlete to hang up and call 911 and then report back to you on the status after they arrive B. tell that athlete you will call 911 and the athlete should call her teammate's parents C. tell the athlete to hang up and call 911 and you will contact poison control center and meet her at her room D. tell the athlete to have her resident advisor call 911 and then she should attempt to provide CPR

C. tell the athlete to hang up and call 911 and you will contact poison control center and meet her at her room

during assessment of the vital signs of an 8-year-old baseball player, you note the following: respiration rate of 25 breaths/min, pulse of 108 beats/min, temperature of 98ºF, and pink skin. what should you conclude? A. the athlete is hyperventilating B. the athlete is bradycardic C. the athlete is exhibiting normal vital signs D. the athlete is hyperventilating and tachycardic E. the athlete is erythemic and and bradycardic

C. the athlete is exhibiting normal vital signs - normal vital signs for children: 14-26 breaths/min, HR of 62-130 bpm

in which of the following situations would it be appropriate for the athletic trainer to progress from the primary survey to the secondary survey when managing a patient with an on-field injury? A. airway, breathing, and circulation have been established and the athlete is bleeding profusely from an open leg wound B. the athlete is conscious, stable and being treated for shock C. the athlete is unconscious, supine, and breathing and vital signs are stable D. the athlete is conscious with an obvious closed tibfib fracture; is exhibiting nervousness, nausea, and chills; and appears pale

C. the athlete is unconscious, supine, and breathing and vital signs are stable

while assessing an athlete's blood pressure, you initially inflate the cuff to 150 mm Hg. When you release the pressure, the first sound you hear is a swooshing sound of soft murmur. what does the sound indicate? A. the cuff was inflated too high initially, and you are hearing the brachial artery blood flow occlusion. B. the cuff was inflated to a correct pressure, and you are hearing the first Korotkoff sound, which should be recorded as systolic pressure C. the cuff was not inflated to a high enough initial pressure, and you are hearing the second Korotkoff sound instead of the first D. the cuff was inflated to a correct pressure, and you are hearing the fifth Korotkoff sound, which should be recorded as diastolic pressure

C. the cuff was not inflated to a high enough initial pressure, and you are hearing the second Korotkoff sound instead of the first

while you are covering a swim meet, a swimmer sustains a suspected cervical spine injury. the lifeguard covering the event maintains cervical stabilization and together you determine the athlete needs to be placed on a spine board how is this best accomplished? A. the athlete is placed in a cervical collar and then moved to the deck to be spine boarded B. the athlete's arms are raised overhead by the ears to provide cervical stabilization and then a rescuer on the deck pulls the athlete onto the deck while a rescuer in the pool guides and lifts them onto the deck to be spine boarded C. the lifeguard maintains cervical stabilization while a second rescuer submerges a spine board under the athlete, who is then strapped onto the board and lifted out of the water D. the lifeguard maintains cervical stabilization while a spine board is floated in the pool. several bystanders are recruited to lift and slide the athlete onto the board, and then the athlete is strapped onto the board and lifted out of the water

C. the lifeguard maintains cervical stabilization while a second rescuer submerges a spine board under the athlete, who is then strapped onto the board and lifted out of the water

the length of an EMS response time may factor into an EAP in regard to necessary emergency equipment and whether on-site ambulance coverage is warranted. when determining an EMS response time, both horizontal and vertical response times should be considered. what is vertical response time? A. the time from when the EMS call goes out until driven dispatched unit arrives on the scene B. the time from when the EMS call goes out until a medical helicopter arrives on the scene C. the time from when the dispatched unit arrives on the scene until patient treatment begins D. the time from when the dispatched unit arrives on the scene until the patient is completely loaded onto the emergency transportation vehicle

C. the time from when the dispatched unit arrives on the scene until patient treatment begins

where is cyanosis best observed in a dark-skinned person? A. eyes B. lips and abdomen C. tongue and nailbeds D. earlobes E. pupils

C. tongue and nailbeds

what is indicated when a first responder carries an AEMT classification? A. trained to provide only basic emergency care B. trained to provide care to patients at scene of accident and transport athlete by ambulance to the hospital under medical direction C. trained to provide care to patients that includes the administration of intravenous fluids, use of manual defibrillators, and application of advanced airway techniques D. trained to provide the most advanced prehospital care by administering drugs orally and intravenously, interpreting electrocardiograms, performing endotracheal intubations, and using monitors and other complex equipment

C. trained to provide care to patients that includes the administration of intravenous fluids, use of manual defibrillators, and application of advanced airway techniques

a pitcher is struck in the head by a batted ball. palpation of the injured area reveals what may be a small depressed skull fracture. the athletic trainer elects to perform the halo test to confirm the suspected diagnosis. why is it important to wear gloves while performing this special test? A. it prevents the introduction of infection into the fracture site B. it protects the athletic trainer from exposure to bleeding, as a laceration often accompanies an injury of this nature C. universal precautions are required, as cerebrospinal fluid may carry blood borne pathogens D. insertion of the gauze into the external auditory canal may introduce bacteria to the ear canal

C. universal precautions are required, as cerebrospinal fluid may carry blood borne pathogens

while attending a local theater performance, you observe a man collapse in the aisle of the theater and bystanders begin compression-only CPR. According to the AHA guidelines, how would you characterize the response to this emergency situation? A. bystanders regardless of level of training should provide breaths in addition to compressions in case the cause of arrest is related to asphyxial causes B. CPR performed in any way is ineffective without the use of an AED C. untrained bystanders are more likely to perform compression-only CPR and can be more easily guided by dispatchers. in addition, the survival rates between compression-only and conventional CPR are not significantly different D. bystanders could provide the most effective assistance by foregoing compressions and instead calling 911 and administering an AED if available

C. untrained bystanders are more likely to perform compression-only CPR and can be more easily guided by dispatchers. in addition, the survival rates between compression-only and conventional CPR are not significantly different

which of the following signs and symptoms best characterize hypovolemic shock? A. slow, deep breathing; agitation, and cold pale clammy skin B. dilated pupils; excessive urine output, and bluish lips and fingernails C. very low blood pressure, rapid/weak pulse, and cold pale clammy skin D. profuse sweating, hot dry skin, and rapid shallow breathing E. hyperventilation, lightheadedness and slow thready pulse

C. very low blood pressure, rapid/weak pulse, and cold pale clammy skin

what is the purpose of a preincident survey by local emergency medical personnel? A. identify current levels of satisfaction from local citizens regarding emergency response. B. identify amount of time it takes to reach individual venues C. visit specific venues identified in an EAP to identify potential problems or poorly accessible areas D. survey local sports medicine personnel to determine role of emergency medical services staff when responding to sports-related emergencies

C. visit specific venues identified in an EAP to identify potential problems or poorly accessible areas

when managing an athlete with an acute airway obstruction, when should EMS be activated? A. if the athlete complains of throat irritation following dislodgment of the obstruction B. on initiation of CPR C. when the athlete cannot cough, speak, or breathe D. if the athlete cannot be stopped from coughing forcefully and continually

C. when the athlete cannot cough, speak, or breathe

a field hockey player sustains a non contact lateral patellar dislocation during play. what is the accepted method for on-field reduction of this dislocation? A. with the athlete supine, apply gentle pressure to the patella in the medial direction while the athlete actively flexes the knee B. with the athlete seated, apply gentle pressure to the patella in an inferior and lateral direction while the athlete actively extends the knee C. with the athlete seated, apply gentle pressure to the patella in the medial direction while the athlete actively extends the knee D. with the athlete side-lying, apply gentle pressure to the patella in the medial direction while the athlete actively flexes the knee to the chest E. with the athlete seated, apply gentle pressure to the patella in the superior and lateral direction while the athlete actively flexes the knee

C. with the athlete seated, apply gentle pressure to the patella in the medial direction while the athlete actively extends the knee

while evaluating a football player for a brachial plexus injury on the sideline, the athletic trainer determines the athlete is unable to extend his elbow against resistance. a deficit in which nerve root is most associated with this impairment?

C7

you have recently been hired as the first athletic trainer for a brand new high school. currently the school has no medical emergency equipment. Your athletic director has approved the purchase of only one piece of emergency equipment. which piece of equipment is the most appropriate purchase? A. spine board (with straps and padding) B. rapid form vacuum splints C. vital signs monitor D. AED

D. AED

the components of a primary survey can be designated by the mnemonic ABDCE. which component of the primary survey includes a brief neurological examination or, in the case of cardiac arrest, application of an AED? A. A B. B C. C D. D E. E

D. D - letter D represents disability or defibrillation if the patient is in cardiac arrest

while leaving the office one evening, you notice the custodian collapse at the end of the hallway. you determine that the custodian is unresponsive. as you are the only person in the building at the time, what action should you take? A. assess airway, breathing, and circulation and call loudly in hope that someone will come and help B. complete one cycle of CPR, activate EMS, and then get the AED C. activate EMS while starting CPR and then obtain the AED after completing one cycle of CPR D. activate EMS, obtain an AED, and return immediately to assist the victim

D. activate EMS, obtain an AED, and return immediately to assist the victim

a diabetic athlete comes to the sideline during practice complaining of dizziness, fatigue, trembling, heart racing, and headache. the athlete also has a fruity odor on his breath. as the athletic trainer begins the evaluation, the athlete becomes more and more confused. what action should the athletic trainer take? A. provide an insulin injection and based on the athlete's response activate the EAP B. activate the EAP and monitor vital signs until EMS personnel arrive C. move the athlete to a cool location, monitor core body temperature, and provide oral fluids D. activate the EAP, and attempt to provide carbohydrates orally or through glucagon injection if the athlete is unable to swallow

D. activate the EAP, and attempt to provide carbohydrates orally or through glucagon injection if the athlete is unable to swallow

a beach volleyball player comes to the sidelines at practice with symptoms of wheezing, difficulty breathing dizziness, feeling of throat tightening, and extreme anxiety. the athlete tells you that she thinks she was just stung by a bee. you are able to quickly identify a red mark on her lower leg that appears to be a sting. the athlete has an EpiPen in her bag but does not feel comfortable using it. what are your next steps? A. demonstrate to the athlete how to use the EpiPen and help her self-adminster injection and then monitor vital signs to determine need for referral B. ask a coach to call 911 and monitor the athlete's vital signs while you wait for help to arrive C. provide a single dose of diphenhydramine (benadryl) to minimize reaction, monitor vital signs and call parents to ask if she should be transported D. administer epinephrine injection, holding injector in place for 10 seconds and stay with athlete while a coach calls 911

D. administer epinephrine injection, holding injector in place for 10 seconds and stay with athlete while a coach calls 911

a nebulizer, also known as an atomizer, is effective in treating a severe asthma attack because it can deliver a higher medication dose compared with a metered dose inhaler. when treating a serious respiratory rescue situation, what medication is typically administered with a nebulizer? A. montelukast B. salmeterol C. formoterol D. albuterol

D. albuterol

early one Saturday morning you receive a phone call from another certified athletic trainer on your university's sports medicine staff asking you to serve as the athletic trainer for the men's lacrosse match scheduled for 2 pm. he tells you he has a family emergency and must immediately leave town. you have no experience providing athletic training services for a men's lacrosse match. on hat should you base your decision regarding the emergency equipment available on the sidelines during the match? A. age range of the equipment B. type of protective equipment worn by players C. presence of a physician on the sidelines D. anticipated possible emergency scenarios

D. anticipated possible emergency scenarios

what is the best location to determine the pulse rate of a patient who has a weak radial pulse? A. dorsal pedal B. popliteal C. brachial D. carotid E. femoral

D. carotid

the EAP for a high school identifies head and assistant coaches as targeted first responders to assist the AT in providing care in an emergency situation. what is the minimum level of training that should be provided to these first responders? A. handout on the EAP that clearly defines roles and responsibilities B. basic first aid training C. advanced life support training D. certified training in CPR and AED use

D. certified training in CPR and AED use

during a boys soccer college recruiting summer tournament a player collapse and is unresponsive. the athlete's parent is not in attendance, and no written consent -to-treat form exists. which of the following statements best reflects the athletic trainer's ability to treat this athlete? A. actual consent can be obtained from the parent via phone before the athletic trainer administers any treatment B. the coach can act as the parent and provide consent for treatment C. the AT can active EMS and communicate findings but may not provide direct treatment to the athlete D. consent to treat is implied on the part of the athlete and the parents because this is a potentially life-threatening injury

D. consent to treat is implied on the part of the athlete and the parents because this is a potentially life-threatening injury

an athlete with a partial-thickness laceration has been treated with a hydrocolloid occlusive dressing. how often does this dressing need to be changed if there is no sign of infection or adverse reaction present on daily inspection? A. daily B. every other day C. every third day D. dressing can stay in place for 5-7 days

D. dressing can stay in place for 5-7 days

one component of an EAP is the formation of an emergency team. there are four basic roles within this emergency team. what is the first and most important role? A. activation emergency medical services and providing info to 911 dispatcher B. retrieving emergency equipment C. directing EMS personnel to scene D. establishing safety at the scene and providing immediate patient care

D. establishing safety at the scene and providing immediate patient care

which of the following is the best way to estimate the appropriate size of an oral pharyngeal airway before insertion? A. use large size in men, medium size in women, and small size in adolescents and children B. estimated frame size correlates with OPA airway size (small, medium, large) C. estimated patient height correlates with OPA airway size (small, 60 in. or less; medium, 60-72 in.; large, greater than 72 in.) D. hold OPA against patient's cheek

D. hold OPA against patient's cheek

what is the first step that should be taken when providing immediate care for a chemical burn of the eye? A. irrigate eye with a solution of sodium bicarbonate B. clean eye with a sterile cloth C. cover eye with a moist sterile cloth D. irrigate eye with copious amounts of clear water

D. irrigate eye with copious amounts of clear water

when completing a primary survey, what is the first component that should be assessed? A. airway, breathing, and circulation B. presence of spinal cord involvement C. patient's position and presence of deformities D. level of consciousness

D. level of consciousness

which of the following actions would assist youth sports league coaches and personnel in effectively implementing an EAP? A. policy statement from the national governing board distributed to all team personnel B. required meeting for all coaches and parents at the beginning of the season to explain safety rules C. overview of legal cases involving youth sports coaches to motivate compliance D. one-page handout with clearly presented EAP that outlines step-by-step directions for team staff in conjunction with EMS

D. one-page handout with clearly presented EAP that outlines step-by-step directions for team staff in conjunction with EMS

while practicing, an ice hockey player collides with a teammate and sustains a potential cervical spine injury. the player is supine on the ice and you are providing cervical spine stabilization when two other athletic trainers arrive to provide assistance. EMS has been contacted and dispatched to your location. based on recent practice recommendations, you and your colleagues begin the process of removing the player's helmet. to avoid potential compromise of the cervical spine, what other personal protective equipment should be removed from this patient before transporting him to an emergency facility? A. ice skates B. jersey C.elbow pads D. shoulder pads

D. shoulder pads

an athlete sustains a blow to the head in the first few minutes of a contest and is diagnosed with a concussion. according to the SCAT5, what recommendation is made regarding returning this athlete to the contest? A. the athlete can be returned to the contest before half-time if his SCAT5 scores indicate a "normal" rating B. the athlete can be returned to the contest after half-time if his SCAT5 scores indicate a "normal" rating C. the athlete can return to the contest immediately, as long as he is not demonstrating any of the SCAT5 red flags, such as neck pain or tenderness, double vision, severe or increasing headache and vomiting D. the athlete should not be returned to participation on that day

D. the athlete should not be returned to participation on that day

an athletic trainer is assessing vital signs as part of a primary survey. the athlete's pulse oximetry value is less than 90%. what is the appropriate interpretation and recommended intervention for this patient? A. value is normal, no intervention is required at this time B. value is very high, encourage patient to slow down rate of respiration C. value is on the low end of normal; encourage patient to take one or two slow deep breaths to see if value increases D. value is low; supplemental oxygen is indicated

D. value is low; supplemental oxygen is indicated

when assessed by an AED, which of the following is the most commonly occurring initial cardiac rhythm in a patient with sudden cardiac response? A. pulseless electrical activity B. asystole C. atrial fibrillation D. ventricular fibrillation

D. ventricular fibrillation

under most circumstances, after how many minutes of oxygen deprivation will brain damage occur in a non breathing victim? A. less than 1 minute B. 1 to 2 minutes C. 2 to 3 minutes D. 3 to 4 minutes E. 4 to 6 minutes

E. 4 to 6 minutes - unconsciousness occurs within 20-30 secs with lack of blood flow, 4-6 mins= brain damage, 10 minutes or more=death

an offensive lineman sustains a low chop block at the same time he incurs a posteriorly directed blow to his upper body, resulting in a posterior-superior tibiofibular dislocation of the femur. what is the most appropriate immediate care for this knees injury? A. apply a vacuum splint, use a manual conveyance technique to transport the athlete to the sidelines, and perform a complete lower extremity evaluation B. apply a padded, long board splint; assess the athlete for shock; and activate EMS C. perform a lower extremity evaluation, use a manual conveyance technique to transport the athlete to the sidelines, and activate EMS D. activate EMS, apply a traction splint, and monitor for shock E. assess circulation and neurological status of the leg, assess the athlete for shock, and activate EMS

E. assess circulation and neurological status of the leg, assess the athlete for shock, and activate EMS

when providing primary emergency care to an unconscious athlete with a suspected cervical spine injury, what is the first action that should be taken? A. apply a rigid cervical collar to stabilize the spine B. place a towel in the posterior curve of the neck to establish normal lordotic curve C. treat athlete for shock by elevating the lower extremity D. assess heart rate via the carotid pulse E. establish and maintain an open airway

E. establish and maintain an open airway

trauma centers are designated levels by states and municipalities and are verified by the American college of surgeons. additionally, a facility may have different designations for adults and pediatrics. which trauma center level designation is defined as a "comprehensive regional resource that is a tertiary care facility central to the trauma system" and is the highest level? A. level V B. level IV C. level III D. level II E. level I

E. level I

when auscultating the lungs as part of assessment of a thoracic injury, which of the following sounds would be indicative of a collapsed lung? A. stridor B. wheezing C. rhonchi D. crackles E. no sounds

E. no sounds

which method is recommended to preserve an avulsed tooth that cannot be reimplanted until the athlete can see a dentist? A. wrap the tooth as is in moist gauze and take the tooth and athlete to the dentist B. place the tooth in a 10% hydrogen peroxide solution to preserve it and take the athlete to the dentist within the next 24 hours C. scrub the tooth vigorously, then place it in milk and take the athlete to the dentist within the next 3 days D. apply a topical dental anesthetic (such as Orajel) to the tooth and take the tooth and the athlete to the dentist E. place the tooth in a commercially prepared preservation solution and take the tooth and the athlete to the dentist

E. place the tooth in a commercially prepared preservation solution and take the tooth and the athlete to the dentist

which of the following groups of field kit supplies is most helpful in managing an athlete with a displaced contact lens? A. penlight, mirror, and sterile gauze pads B. blue light, fluorescein strips, and eye patch C. sterile eyewash, tweezers, and cotton-tipped applicators D. contact lens case, eye patch, and sterile saline solution E. sterile saline solution, mirror, and contact lens case

E. sterile saline solution, mirror, and contact lens case

what is the most appropriate immediate treatment for an athlete with exertional heatstroke? A. use ice bags and wet towels to cool the athlete, and transport the athlete to a health-care facility B. immediately transport the athlete to a health-care facility C. move the athlete into an air-conditioned room and provide fluids D. provide IV fluids along with oral fluids, and transport the athlete to a health-care facility E. use full-body ice immersion to cool the athlete, and transport the athlete to a health-care facility

E. use full-body ice immersion to cool the athlete, and transport the athlete to a health-care facility

an athlete sustains a head injury. during the evaluation of the athlete, the halo test is positive. what does this indicate and what steps should be taken to manage this injury?

the athlete is leaking cerebrospinal fluid and should be referred immediately for evaluation of possible skull fracture