DTR sample practice

अब Quizwiz के साथ अपने होमवर्क और परीक्षाओं को एस करें!

The normal PH of the stomach is? a. Very acidic b. Slightly Acidic c. Neutral d. Slightly Alkaline

20. A

When a product is labeled as an excellent source of a nutrient, it must contain at least what % of the daily value? a. 30% b. 20% c. 45% d. 80%

35. B.

Diabetic Acidosis is found in which type of diabetes? a. Type 2 b. Type 3 c. Type 1 d. All types

36. C.- Ketones in the breathe, blood and urine. Ketones are produced for energy. It is a potentially life-threatening complication in patients with diabetes mellitus. It happens predominantly in those with type 1 diabetes, but it can occur in those with type 2 diabetes under certain circumstances. Diabetic Acidosis (DKA) results from a shortage of insulin; in response the body switches to burning fatty acids and producing acidic ketone bodies that cause most of the symptoms and complications.

What delivers oxygen and nutrients to the heart muscle? a. Coronary Arteries b. Saturated Fat c. Co2 d. O2

37. A

The Hourly Rate for all employees is $5.00/hour. Total meals/day=1000. Workers: 40 full time (35 hrs/wk) 10 part time (3 hours/day) 15 part-time (4hrs/day). The fringe benefit is 33%. Find meals/labor hours, minutes/meal, payroll costs/day, cost/meal, labor cost. a. 3.45, 17.4, $1450, 1.45 and 1928 b. 5.65, 384, $2948, 1.56 and 9384 c. 484, 494, 3893, 3828 d. 284, 2938, 485, 4839, 3837

38. A- Assuming 8 hrs/day 5 days a week. 1. Meals/labor hours: Labor hours/day(7)= 200 +30+60=290= 1000 divided by 290=3.45. Minutes per meal. 290 hrs/day x 60min/hr=17400. 17400/1000=17.4. Payroll cost/day= $5.00 x290=1450. Payroll cost/meal served: 5.00 x 290=1450. 1450/1000=1.45. Labor cost: 1450 x .33=478.5+ 1450=1928

How to calculate the nutrient content of IV solutions: Suppose a person is receiving 1500ml of 50% dextrose and 1500ml of 7% AA solution. For dextrose, the person would get (in calories, NOT grams): a. 2783kcal b. 3783kcal c. 2970kcal d. 5686kcal

39. C.- You need to set-up a proportion. And within the proportion you need this Formula: % # divided by 100. Then line up the units d/ml=d/ml. Remember, the % of grams always/100ml. Dextrose: 50g dextrose/100ml=x grams dextrose/1500ml=750g dextrose. Or simply, 1500 x 0.7=105g AA. Total Kcal: Simply multiply by kcal/gram. 750g dextrose x 3.4kcal/g=2550kcal. 105g AA x 4.0kcal/g=420. 2970kcal total

You need to prepare 374- 4 oz portions of broccoli. You note broccoli has a waste of 19%. How much broccoli do you need to purchase? a. 94 lbs b. 116 lbs c. 890 lbs d. 43 lbs

40. B.- The question is asking you to find AP (amount needed) INCLUDING unusable items. So, 100%-19%=81% yield.4oz/.81=4.938. 4.938/16=0.308 x 375=116 lbs If you answered as 94lbs, this is incorrect. This is the edible portion. 375 x 4oz=1496/16=94 lbs. This is the amount to serve after preparation.

The yield factor on green cabbage is 87%. Approximately how much cabbage is needed to prepare 175 servings of cole slaw that require 2.25 oz of cabbage in each serving? a. 76 lbs b. 347 lbs c. 36 lbs d. 29 lbs

41. D.- 16bs /2.25oz=7.1 (conversion factor) 7.1 x .87 (yield factor) =6.17 175 servings/6.17=29 lbs OR you can use this method: 2.25/.87=2.58. 2.58x175=452.452/16=29 lbs

You have purchased 35 lbs of fresh green beans with a 23% waste. How many 4 oz portions will be prepared? a. 204-4oz portions b. 107- 4oz portions c. 387-4 oz portions d. 235- 4 oz portions

42. B.- Remember, there not asking you what you need. They're asking you what you will end up with. It's asking for edible portion. 1. Determine yield (100-23%=77% yield) 2. Multiply 35 lbs (AP) by 77%=26.95 3. 26.95 x 16 oz/lb=431.2 oz 4. 431.2/4oz=107.4 oz portions OR another way to calculate to get to step 2: 35x23%=8.05. 35-8.05=26.95=27

What is the most effective dietary change to lower cholesterol? a. Limit foods high in saturated fat b. Eat more foods low in saturated fat c. Eat more tubbed margarine d. Eat pizza

64. A

JCAHO requires nutrition documentation in the medical records of all patients in extended-care facilities at least: a. Monthly b. Quarterly c. Biannually d. Annually

65. B

A 17-year old typical daily intake is: Breakfast: Carbonated beverage. Lunch: Hamburger with bun and french fries, iced tea. Snack: peanut butter cookies and milk. Dinner: meat loaf, rice, gravy, green beans, roll with margarine, milk. Which nutrients are deficient? a. Ascorbic acid and calcuim b. Ascorbic acid and thiamin c. Neither d. Both Which nutrients needs are needed to be added to the breakfast menu? a. Toast with jelly and orange juice b. Cheese toast and orange juice c. Neither d. Both

66. 1-a 2-b. - 66. They trick you. Just because milk is in her diet doesn't mean she's not deficient in calcuim. 1 Cup of milk only contains 30% of RDA of calcuim.

Biochemical Lab Data: What lab value responds to both PEM and Iron Status? a. Albumin b. Pre-albumin c. TLC d. Transferrin

67. D- 67. Transferin transports iron and indicates protein status and PEM

A patient reports not being hungry at meal time. The RD/DTR should: a. Check patient's weight frequently b. Ask patient about food preferences c. Put patient on a Tube Feed d. Go out to Denny's and bring the patient back something tasty

10.A- Can't assume you have the power to give him what he wants. All you can do is make sure his wt is as stable as possible.

32. One week after starting work, a new employee informs the supervising dietetic technician that she is 3 months pregnant. The technician should: a. Let her go b. Help with her pregnancy c. Take no action d. Reschedule her

C

35. Which of the following performance standards would be the most difficult to accurately measure? a. Quality and quantity of work b. Accuracy of work c. Responsiveness to patient or client needs d. Cooperation with other personnel

C

Which form of alternative medicine states that ill health results in internal disruption in the body. a. homeopathic b. naturopathic c. traditional chinese medicine d. chiropractic

b. naturopathic

The best choice for older adults with small energy needs: a. vitamin/mineral supplement b. nutrient dense foods c. help immune system d. help macular degeneration

b. nutrient dense foods

11. A vegetarian patient is given a clear liquid diet. What can you give them? a. Apple juice, vegetable broth, jell-o b. Apricot nectar, vegetable broth, hot tea c. Cranberry juice, vegetable broth, popsicle d. Grape juice, vegetable broth, sherbert

c

10. The reason most of us enjoy Turkey and pumpkin pie at thanksgiving is due to: a. Habit b. Associations c. Values d. Emotional state

b

5. A patient has an elevated MCV and is diagnosed with megaloblastic anemia. You suspect_____ deficiency and recommend______ as good food sources of this nutrient. a. Folic acid: cheese and raisins b. Iron: green leafy vegetables and red meats c. Folic acid: beans and spinach d. Iron: dried figs and liver

c

6. A lactating woman should increase her calorie needs by how many calories/day during the lactation period? a. 100kcal b. 300kcal c. 500kcal d. 600 kcal

c. 500 kcal

A patient who is following a Low NA diet should avoid: a. canned fruit b. fresh fruit c. tomato based products d. milk

c. tomato based products

A patient being treated with prednisone should be advised to follow: a. a calorie controlled diet b. a low-fat diet c. low sodium diet d. low potassium diet

c. low sodium diet. explanation: Your body tends to retain sodium (salt) and lose potassium when taking prednisone, particularly in higher doses. Sometimes the salt retention reverses when the dose of prednisone is reduced. The resulting fluid retention shows up as an apparent weight gain because a pint of fluid weighs about 1 pound. You can discourage this fluid retention by eating a reduced sodium diet and eating more potassium-rich foods.

Which performance considers the order of tasks to prepare from food being received to the dining room? a. Task analysis b. Time and motion study c. Work flow pattern d. Work sampling

c. work flow pattern

On any supermarket product box what has to be on it in regards to minerals? a. Calcium and iron b. Calcium and magnesium c. Iron and potassium d. Iron and Zinc

30. A

A patient has an HIV-related gastrointestinal tract infection. To manage diarrhea, the RD/DTR would recommend which of the following types of diet modifications? a. Low fat, low fiber, no caffeine, lactose-free b. High-Fat, High Fiber, increased fluid c. Low carb diet d. High Carb diet

31. A.

To promote the healing of pressure ulcers, the RD should increase: a. Choline, citric acid, phosphorus and zinc b. Iodine, ascorbic acid, calciferol, zinc c. Beta carotene, ascorbic acid, thiamin and zinc d. Vitamin B12, zinc and Vitamin D

32. C.- Beta carotene (vitamin A) is good for the skin. Ascorbic acid (Vitamin C): good for wound healing. Thiamin and zinc are good overall for the body.

An elderly patient has a stage II decubiti pressure ulcer on her buttock. She should increase intake of: a. Margarine, butter and vegetable oils b. Broccoli, green beans, and spinach c. Milk, beef, fish, poultry d. Beer and cookies

33. C.- Pressure ulcer, also known as bed sores or decubiti. Eating foods high in protein- such as cheese, peanut butter, chicken, beef and fish. Low albumin levels indicate pressure ulcers, and that means overhydration, therefore protein is needed.

What is the food cost %? Food costs: $1200. Sales: $3000 a. 35% b. 38% c. 40% d. 50%

34. C.- Food Cost %= Cost of food divided by Sales (menu price)= 1200/3000=0.4 (40%)

What fiber source is most effective in forming soft, bulky stools? a. Soluble fiber b. Bran (insoluble) c. Cardboard d. Fruit

63. B

3. Which of the following meats should you avoid? 1. Bacon 2. Goose 3. Crab

1

4. Which of the following vegetables can you eat? 1. Asparagus 2. Baked beans 3. Yams

1

7. Which of the following fruits can you eat? 1. Fresh apple 2. Banana 3. Cantaloupe

1

9. Which of the following beverages can you drink? 1. Kool-Aid® 2. Cola 3. Beer

1

Approximately how many calories are in the following meal? 1/3 C grape juice. Two 4 inch Pancakes. 1 Tbsp butter. 1 Cup 2% milk a. 458kcal b. 440kcal c. 125kcal d. 389kcal

100. b- . 1/3 C grape juice= 60kcal (1/3C=60kcal) Two 4 in pancakes=160kcal (1 4 in=80 kcal) 1 Tbsp of butter= 135kcal (1 tsp=45kcal) 1 C of 2% milk= 120 (120kcal) Total: approximately 475 kcal

Determine the number of exchanges found per serving in the following recipe (recipe yields 4 servings): 8 oz chopped chicken breast 4 oz shredded cheese 4 C cooked rotini pasta ¼ C sour cream a. 3 meat. 2 bread. 1 fat b. 9 meat. 6 bread. 2 fat c. 3 meat. 3 bread. 7 fat d. 3 meat. 2 bread. 2 fat

101. a- Divide everything by 4. Therefore, 8oz chicken/4= 2 oz chicken=2 meat 1 oz cheddar cheese= 1 meat 1 C pasta= 2 bread 1/16 C sour cream= 1 fat

Find out how many exchanges are in the following meal. 3 oz baked fish ½ C green beans One Medium Baked Potato 1 C skim milk a. 3 lean meats, 2 CHO and 1 veg b. 3 lean meats, 2 CHO and 2 veg c. 3 lean meats, 1 CHO and 1 veg d. 2 lean meats, 2 CHO and 1 veg

102. a- 3 Lean meats (3 oz of fish) 2 CHO (1 from the potato and 1 from the milk 1 vegetable (1 green beans) Interesting fact: A Potato is considered a vegetable according to the food guide pyramid but is considered a starchy vegetable (carb group) according to the exchange system.

A 35 year old, moderately active man consumes the following foods daily: 5 oz meat six grain one dairy Three fruit The man is consuming adequate amounts of: a. Grain b. Dairy c. Fruit d. Meats

103. c- For healthy adults, a daily meal plan includes at least: 3 veg, 2 fruit, 6 grains, 2 milk, and 6 oz meat. Since he is very active, he needs to consume 6-10 grains, not just 6, therefore he is more adequate in fruits.

Dietary aides substituted a ½ C tomato or grape juice for an orange or a grape fruit half. The RD should: a. Explain substitutions cannot be made without first checking with the dietitian b. Provide an in-service training session on Carbohydrate content c. Teach a class on exchanges for all the dietary employees d. Post a list of interchangeable fruits and juices

104. d- According to the exchange list: ½ C grape juice is more than 1 exchange, but 1/3 C counts as an exchange. ½ C tomato juice is an exchange but not a substitute for orange/grapefruit juice. Tomato juice is a non-starchy vegetable not a fruit.

Using the food guide pyramid, a small fast food hamburger would be a. 4 servings of meat, 2 servings of bread b. 3 servings of meat, 2 servings of bread c. 2 servings of meat, 2 servings of bread d. 1 serving of meat, 2 servings of bread

105. d- One 3 oz hamburger= 1 serving of meat. 1 hamburger bun= 2 servings of bread. Incorrect: 3 servings of meat, 2 servings of bread. Based on the exchange system, this answer would be correct because 3 oz (3 exchanges) of meat= 1 small hamburger.

Who does the dietary recommendation mostly apply to? a. average daily intake b. Healthy people c. Everyone d. A & B

106. d- When you're looking at the RDA's, it's telling you what the average daily intake is for healthy people. Answer C automatically comes out because everyone can't apply.

Twenty-five people report nausea, vomiting, and abdominal cramping 24 hours after eating a chicken salad. The source? a. Clostridium perfringens b. Salmonella c. Botulism d. MRSA

11.B.- Salmonella. There may be a question on exam regarding cross contamination and salmonella.

The baked custards are routinely exhibiting syneresis which is caused by: a. Stirring the custard during baking b. Chilling custard too quickly c. Baking custard too high a temperature

12. C.- Curdling: also known as synersis or "weeping" when egg mixtures such as custards or sauces are cooked too rapidly, the protein becomes over coagulated and separates from the liquid. Good mnemonic device syneresis=synergy=volcanic=sinder (very hot)

The moving average method is used to smooth the randomness of the data. The dietitian averages the data from April, May, June, and July to determine the # of soy burgers needed for August. To find # of soy patties for Sept: a. Add data from Aug and delete data from April b. Delete data from April only c. Delete August and June only d. Add a leap year

13. A- . "out with the old and in with the new".

Cafeteria customer comments that the turkey salad tastes rancid. The dietitian should first: a. Remove the turkey salad from the service line b. Report the incident to the foodservice manager c. Punch the customer in the face d. Show the turkey is not rancid by eating some in front of the customer

14. A- Better safe than sorry. Foodservice manager may be busy in that moment and quick action is necessary. Understand your not throwing it out just because a customer makes a comment about it, your just removing it (possibly just temporarily) in order make sure the kitchen is not serving rancid food.

Which of the following foods does not contain cholesterol? a. Cheese b. Milk c. Peanut butter d. Eggs

15. C

Which one of the dietary components cannot be used to synthesize and store energy? a. Lactose b. Animal fats c. Wheat starch d. Plant Protein

16. B.- Fat does not contain carbohydrates. Glycogen=carbohydrate. Fat has no glycogen

Which monosaccharide is found in nature only as part of a disaccharide? a. Glucose b. Fructose c. Maltose d. Galactose

17. D- Galactose- does not appear freely in nature. When you take the disaccharide lactose and you ingest it you break it into a molecule of glucose and galactose. Galactose is produced only when we consume lactose. Lactose creates glucose and galactose. Maltose=glucose and glucose. Sucrose= Fructose and glucose

Which nutrient has the greatest energy density? a. Carbohydrate b. Protein c. Fat d. Vitamins

18. C- Fat (9kcal/g). Protein and carbs only 4kcal/g.

Which of the following factors will likely have the most significant effect in increasing LDL's? a. Lipo fat intake b. High Saturated fat intake c. Obesity d. Low mono-unsaturated fat intake

19. B

2. Which of the following foods from the milk and dairy group do you need to avoid? 1. Whipping cream 2. Buttermilk 3. Ice cream

2

5. Which of the following vegetables should you avoid? 1. Green beans 2. Spinach 3. Green peas

2

8. Which of the following fruit juices should you avoid? 1. Apple juice 2. Prune juice 3. Cranberry juice cocktail

2

The nutritional result of adding baking soda to cooking cabbage is that? a. More B12 is induced b. Less Zinc is induced c. Vitamin C is destroyed d. Vitamin C is added

21. C.

The combination of monoamine-oxidase and tryramine-containing foods may cause dangerous increases in a patient's: a. Blood sugars b. Blood Pressure c. Oxidative Stress d. Hormones

22. B- Tyramine: causes elevated blood pressure. Foods containing tyramine: beer, aged cheeses, avocados and soy. People taking monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOI's) must follow a low-tyramine diet.

The daily value for sodium listed on food labels is how many mg? a. 3000mg/day b. 198mg/day c. 2000mg/day d. 2400mg/day

23. D

The average amount of dietary fiber stated in grams consumed by Americans is? a. 10-15g b. 20-25g c. 30-35g d. 40-45g

24. A- 10-15g, but what's the recommended amount? 20-25g

What is the major energy carrier in most cells? a. ATP b. Glucose c. Pyruvate d. Kcalorie

25. A

What % of an adults body is water? a. 90% b. 60% c. 30% d. 20%

26. B.

Which of the following foods would result in the most rapid rate of digestion? a. Piece of lemon pie b. Apple c. Baked potato with sour cream d. Piece of cheese on a cracker

27. A.- Popular but wrong answer: Apple=fiber (slows down the digestion of the sugars)

The chemical digestion of fat takes place a. Mouth b. Stomach c. Small Intestine d. Gall Bladder

28. C.

The enzyme that breaks up starch in the mouth: a. CHO b. Lipase c. Salivary Amylase d. Secretin

29. C.

1. According to the renal diet guidelines, which is a serving from the milk and dairy group? 1. ½ cup (C) of evaporated milk 2. 1 C of yogurt 3. ½ C of whole, low-fat, or skim milk

3

10. Which of the following foods is allowed? 1. Chocolate 2. Molasses 3. Jam, jelly, or marmalade

3

6. Which of the following foods has the most sodium? 1. ½ C of cooked egg noodles 2. ½ C of cream of rice, prepared without salt 3. One slice of Italian bread

3

How many lbs of pork roast (with a 15% shrinkage factor) should be bought to serve 600 portions that each weigh 3 oz? a. 625 lbs b. 376 lbs c. 133 lbs d. 376 lbs

43. C.- Start at the base. How many 3 oz portions of pork roast does it take to make one pound? The answer is 5.3. 5.3 portions= 1 lb. 1 oz=0.0625 lbs. 1 lb=16 oz. Because 16oz=1 lb. Remember to subtract shrinkage factor because your dividing It to get a bigger answer. Method one: Take the compliment. 100-15%=85%. 3/.85=3.53. 3.53 x 600=2118/16=133 lbs. Method two: 16/3=5.3. 5.3 x 15%=.795. 5.3-.795=4.505. 600 portions/4.505=133 lbs.

The Standard portion for gravy is served with a No.8 scoop. Three gallons of the product should yield how many servings? a. 96 servings b. 87 servings c. 34 servings d. 12 servings

44. A.

A 4 oz serving of soy cheese is used in one omelet. How many 5 lb blocks of cheese do you need to make 400 omelets? a. 20 lb 5 lb soy cheese blocks b. 40 lb 5 lb soy cheese blocks c. 50 lb 5 lb soy cheese blocks d. 45 lb 5 lb soy cheese blocks

45. A.- . Method one. 4 oz/serving x 400 omelet's=1600/80 oz total needed. Method two: Ask yourself, how many omelets will it take to use just 1 5 lb block of cheese? Answer=80oz. Therefore, it takes 20 omelets to use up 1 5 lb block (80 oz). So now if you know how many omelets it takes to use up one 1 5 lb block, how many will 400 omelets use up? 400/20=20 5 lb cheese blocks.

What specification for ground beef patties describes a portion size of 5 1/3 oz? a. 2/1 b. 3/1 c. 4/1 d. 5/1

46. B

How many #10 cans of green beans must be bought to serve 200 ½-C portions? a. 6 b. 3 c. 8 d. 2

47. C.- 47. 4 oz=1/2 C. If a ½ C is considered a serving, then a #10 can=25 servings. A #10 can provides 25-(4oz)servings/can. Therefore, (1/2)200 divided by 25=8. OR: #10 can=13 cups. 200 ½ C=100 C. 100/13=7.7=8. (#10 can=12.96 Cups)

A 2 oz portion of refried beans is used in a veggie burrito. How many #10 cans should be ordered if making 235 burritos and each can weighs 5 lbs? a. 4 cans b. 5 cans c. 7 cans d. 6 cans

48. D.- Step 1: 2 oz portion/burrito x 235 burritos= 470 oz needed total. Step 2: Convert 470 oz/16=29.4=30 lbs Step 3: 30 lbs/5lbs/can= 6 cans total OR: Method 2: 5 lbs=80 oz. Therefore 470/80=5.8=6 cans OR: Method 3: 40 portions=1 can (16/2=8. 8x5lbs=40). 235/40=6 cans

20 gallons of sugar free vanilla pudding using a 12 scoop. How many servings does this provide? a. 908 servings b. 760 servings c. 960 servings d. 876 servings

49. C.- 49. You can get a total of 12 scoops of the #12 scoop to equal a quart. Since 4qt=1 gal: 1 qt x 4=48= 1 gallon. Therefore, 48 x 20 gallons=960 #12 servings needed.

50. What is the price value of this section of inventory? Cornstarch: 24/lb -$10.08 - 2lb Crackers 1/300 $13.50- ½ Case Flour, plain: 50-lb bag $6.80 - 5lb a. $8.15 b. $8.27 c. $7.37 d. $3.47

50. B.- 50. Just set-up proporations for each one. Cornstarch: 24lb/$10.08=2/x=0.84 Flour: 50lb/$6.80=5/x=0.68 Crackers: $13.50/1=X/.5=6.75 Add them up: 6.75 + .84+ .68=$8.27.

51. When cooking green beans, you add lemon juice which turns the vegetables olive green. The chlorophyll pigment has come into contact with an acid and as a result, the pigment has chemically changed to: a. Chlorophyllin b. Anthocyanin c. Pheophytin d. Orange e. None of these

51. C.- Chlorophyll + acid=pheophytin Incorrect Answers: Chlorophytin: alkali (baking soda) is added to chlorophyll and it gives it a light green appearance. Anthocyanin is the red, blue pigment normally found in produce such as red cabbage.

Which type of flour is best used when preparing muffins? a. Bread flour b. Cake flour c. All-purpose flour d. Pastry flour

52. C.- 52. All purpose flour is the optimal structure for quick bread products such as muffins. The gluten found in all-purpose flour is less strong and elastic compared to bread flours. Bread flour: higher in protein (more elastic) Pastry flour: lower in protein but used for cookies and other pastries Cake flour: low in protein and used for baked goods

Use the following information to calculate the amount of bleach needed to make a 200 ppm solution in a 5-gallon tank of water if 1 oz (2 tbsp) of bleach to 1.5 gallons of water=200 ppm. a. 4 TBS + 1 tsp b. 8 TBS + 2 tsp c. 6 TBS + 2 tsp d. 8 TBS + 4 tsp

53. C.- 53. Set-up a proportion: Bleach/bleach=water/water. Also know that 1 oz= 2 TBS First Find TBS: 1oz/X oz=1.5 gal/5gal=3.33 oz (3x2=6 TBS) FIND tsp: .33/ 1 oz= X tsp/6tsp=2 tsp. OR METHOD 2: 1.5gal/2 TBS=5 gal/ X TBS= 6.6 TBS (6 TBS + 2 tsp)

Which brand of canned whole corn is the best buy? A. $2.25 11 Cups B. $2.69 14 Cups C. $2.42 13 Cups D. $2.18 10 ½ Cups

54.C.- A.$2.25/11=20 cents B. $2.69/14=.192 cents C. $2.42/13=.190 cents (cheapest) D. $2.18/10.5=.21 cents (most expensive

If the raw food cost for tuna salad is $1.00, the selling price, with a 40% raw food cost objective (expected), would be: a. $2.50 b. $8.90 c. $3.30 d. $5.00

55. A.- 55. When finding the selling price: Cost of item (raw food cost)/ food cost % (expected)=$1.00/40%=$2.50

Recipe conversion: Original recipe yields 100 portions. You need 75 portions. What's the multiplying factor? a. 0.65 b. 0.75 c. 0.65 d. .045

56. B- 56. New Yield/ Original Yield= 75/100=0.75

Zucchini yield factor is 78%. How much is needed to prepare 200 servings of sauteed zucchini that requires 2.25 oz/serving? Convert to lbs. a. 24 lbs b. 34 lbs c. 36 lbs d. 100 lbs

57. C.- 2.25/.78=2.98

Find the cost/servable pound AND the amount needed to purchase. 109# Prime Rib. AP (as purchased) price: 3.75/lb. Yield %: 55.0. EP needed-100:8oz (unfactored) portions a. 1450; 90 lbs b. 7689; 98 lbs c. 7865; 90 lbs d. 4356; 78 lbs

58. A- Step 1: 3.75/.55=6.82 cost/lb Step 2: 8 oz/.55=14.5 x 100 servings=1450 1450/16=90 lbs of rib needed

RD's care plan includes weight gain or 1.5 lb/wk. An appropriate monitoring plan would include. a. Daily Weights b. Serum Albumin c. Meal Rounds d. Intake Summary

59. D.- One would think it would be daily weight but the RD would not normally do this. It is not generally necessary to weight a patient every single day

A nutrition assessment includes which of the following: a. Clinical, biochemical and anthropometric measurements, and dietary evaluation b. Individual assessment, care plan, intervention, and evaluation c. Daily meal round data, and dietary evaluation d. Calculating the BEE formula

60. A.

The RD is preparing to counsel a pregnant woman. The most important objective to enable her to improve her nutrient intake, which would be: a. Understand functions of essential nutrients b. Plan a 3 day menu using MyPyramid c. Follow a weight reduction diet d. Tell her to eat more nuts

61. B.

A patient with cancer is experiencing steady weight loss should be evaluated for levels of calories and: a. Fat b. Fluids c. Protein d. Vitamin and minerals

62. C

Clinical evaluation (a picture is worth a thousand words): Edema is a possible sign of: a. Reduced physical exercise b. Protein-energy malnutrition c. Nutritional anemia d. Decreased functional activity

68. b- . Edema: When too much fluid collects in the interstitial spaces. Proteins are able to help determine the distribution of fluids, and proteins help hold water properly.

A patient receiving Lasix most likely would benefit from an increased intake of: a. Sodium b. Potassium c. Phosphorus d. Calcium

69. b- Lasix is a diuretic which Increases excretion of K (Potassium) although you do lose other minerals such as Na and Ca, Lasix creates a loop (K) depleting and may need a K or magnesium supplement.

Patient has Hypertension and takes a diuretic. The RD/DTR should evaluate intake of: a. Potassium b. Magnesium c. sodium d. Vitamin B12

70. a-. Potassium regulates water content and blood pressure

The RD should suspect dehydration when abnormal results of which of the following studies are obtained: a. BUN b. MCV c. TLC d. Albumin

71. a- If BUN is increased, that means that the patient has dehydration. Abnormal MCV does not indicate dehydration

Direct observation is used to generate an estimate of the patients food intake: a. Calorie count b. Food Diary c. Food Frequency Questionnaire d. Food reference

72. a

Medical Nutrition Therapy includes all of the following except: a. Performing nutritional assessments b. Diagnosing nutrition problems c. Developing nutrition care plans d. Prescribing a patient's diet order

73. d- You never write a diet order (although certain RD's can), but generally you never do,

An elderly nursing home patient with a low albumin level would be at risk for: a. anemia b. osteoporosis c. Osteoarthritis d. Skin breakdown

74.d- Skin breakdown. Patient's >70 years of age with a low albumin can get decubitus ulcer (pressure ulcer). That's why nurses need to turn elderly patients over in their beds regularly.

A patient with an increased BUN and increased SERUM creatinine. The patient is diagnosed with acute renal failure but does not need dialysis. The patient's nutrition care plan would include a diet with: a. increased Na b. increased phosphorus c. decrease phosphorus d. decreased protein

75.d- Serum creatine: monitors renal function and state of hydration. Increased BUN= dehydration. Protein is needed for proper proportion of fluids (if edema) but since dehydration is present, cutting back protein is necessary.

What lab values are most important who is protein and calorie malnourished? a. TLC and Serum Albumin and 24-hour urinary creatinine levels b. Albumin, and pre-albumin c. TLC and transferrin d. none of the above

76.a- TLC: Immunity. Serum albumin: detects PEM. 24 hour urinary creatinine levels: detects muscle tissue in the body and renal function.

WIC routinely checks biochemical lab data to identify clients at nutritional risk for: a. hemotocrit and hemoglobin b. pre-albumin c. serum folate d. serum albumin

77. c- Hg and HCT are general tests for anemia. These 2 lab values help evaluate possible anemia which is a problem for woman. Iron, folate and B12 deficiencies are the most common anemia's.

A client has just begun to eat after days without significant amounts of food. Which of the following laboratory tests would be expected to respond quickly to changes in energy and protein intakes? a. albumin b. pre-albumin c. Transferrin d. TLC

78.b- Albumin detects PEM but pre-albumin detects PEM and response to feeding.

The best indicator of current visceral protein status is the level of: a. Albumin b. Pre-albumin c. TLC d. Hemoglobin

79. b- . pre-albumin detects the visceral (or the extra) protein found in your body.

The best way to streamline the trayline production is to a. Put more employees on the trayline b. Limit the number of items on a menu c. Offer more cold plates d. Increase the speed of the trayline belt

8 B- answer a. Not a practical or efficient. Answer c. doesn't necessarily guarantee it will be streamlined. D. Increasing speed: employees not used to it and may make mistakes. All answers will help streamline but B is the most practical answer.

Decreased albumin levels indicates: a. dehydration b. osteoporosis (bone loss) c. pressure ulcers (overhydration) d. none of the above

80. c

Which lab value provides the best indication for long-term control with a diabetic diet? a. glycosylated hemoglobin (A1C) b. albumin c. glucose d. TLC

81. a- Used to identify the average plasma glucose concentration over a prolonged period of time. The closer the diabetic can keep their A1c to 6% the better. The Normal Ranges: 6%= average glucose of 135 mg/dl. 9%= average glucose of 240 mg/dl.

Client with diabetes drinks an alcoholic beverage. The caloric equivalent of the beverage should be subtracted from: a. The carb exchange b. The fat exchange c. The meat exchange d. Free Exchange

82. b

Which of the following foods decreases the efficiency of tetracycline? a. OJ b. Potato c. Broccoli d. milk

83. d- tetracycline can be inactivated by Ca++ ion so you do not want to take with milk or yogurt. Tetracycline: anti-biotic to treat bacterial infections. Commonly used to treat acne.

What mineral is least likely to be deficient in anyone? a. calcium b. phosphorous c. Iron d. Iodine

84. b- Every single animal tissue has phosphorus

From the list below choose the richest source of potassium: a. Fresh fruits b. Milk c. Meat d. Whole-grains

85. a

Studies suggest that diets rich in caratoids is associated with a lower risk of a. diabetes b. arthritis c. Heart disease d. Osteoporosis

86. c

Following chemotherapy, patients with mucositis should avoid: a. milk b. sodium c. acid foods d. alkaline foods

87. c

Which of the following vitamins are naturally lacking in the vegan diet? a. B12 b. Folic acid c. Vitamin A d. Vitamin K

88. a

Beri Beri is caused by a lack of a. Niacin b. Thiamin c. riboflavin d. vitamin K

89. b

The most appropriate diet plan for a person who has GERD would be: a. Small meals that are high in fluids b. Small meals that are low in fat c. Tell the pt to start sleeping sideways d. Eat Indian and Mexican food at the same time

9 B- Liquids can be salty, spicy and fattening, even though it is a liquid. It's important to limit foods that weaken lower esophageal sphincter pressure or increase gastric secretion including FAT, alcohol, coffee, chocolate, etc. A diet prescription would be something like this: frequent small meals of bland low-fat foods.

Poor intake values, they can be used to plan and evaluate diets for healthy people is the: a. RDA b. AI's c. UL's d. DRI's

90. d- Everything else is part of DRI (dietary reference intake) which includes the RDA, AI and UL.

When the kidneys cannot excrete urea, what builds up in the body? a. ammonia b. calcium c. potassium d. Amino Acids

91. b- What happens when the body does not excrete urea? What builds up? Ammonia. High levels of urea in the blood creates ammonia.

What causes gas, diarrhea, bloating and cramping of lactose intolerance? a. Bacteria b. Lactose absorbs too rapidly c. glucose-galactose attract water d. lactose undigested into the colon

92. d

The most common cause of cirosis in the U. S is: a. vitamin B12 deficiency b. Alcoholism c. protein deficiency d. hepatitis C

93. d

What are the classic signs of a newly diagnosed insulin dependent diabetic? a. weight loss, fainting b. thrist, hunger, frequent urination c. weight gain, thurst, disorientation d. sweating, tachycardia, insulin shock

94. b

Mr. Jones consumes a 2000 kcal diet which provides 175g of CHO. This provides: a. inadequate amount of CHO b. excessive amount of CHO c. appropriate amount of CHO d. inadequate amount of fiber

95. a- About 55% of your calories should be coming from CHO based on the dietary guidelines. Therefore, you need to find the kcalories per gram. 2000kcal x 55% (.55)=1100. 1100/4=275g. Mr. Jones should be consuming 275g of CHO's. Therefore he is consuming an inadequate amount of CHO. Now if it was to find FAT, it would be 30% of the diet. Or if it was protein, you would calculate 0.8 g/kg of body weight to find protein needs.

Calculate % IBW: Current weight: 139#. IBW: 120# a. 86% b. 116% c. 1.16% d. .086%

96. b- %IBW= Actual/IBW x 100= 139/20=1.18 x 100=116%. Since his actual weight is more than his ideal weight, it has to be over 100%. This is typical.

A healthy man who's weight is 154# and is within the standard weight for height on the chart. What his is recommended protein input? a. 67g b. 56g c. 24g d. 91g

97. b- 154#/2.2=70kg. 70 x 0.8=56g protein needed daily.

4oz Orange Juice. 1 Medium Banana. 1 Apple. ½ C fruit cocktail. 8 oz Pineapple juice. 1 C shredded lettuce. 1 C mashed potatoes. How many servings of the food guide pyramid were consumed? a. 6 servings of fruit and 3 servings of vegetables b. 5 servings of fruit and 3 servings of vegetables c. 8 servings of fruit and 2 servings of vegetables d. 5 servings of fruit and 1 servings of vegetables

98.a

Based on the exchange list, how many grams of carbohydrates is in the following meal plan? Milk: 3. Meat: 5. Bread: 9. Fruit: 4. Vegetable: 3. Fat: 4 a. 234g b. 898g c. 123g d. 246g

99. d- Milk: 3 x 12=36 CHO Meat: 5 x 0 =0 CHO Bread: 9 x 15=135 CHO Fruit: 4 x 15=60 CHO Vegetable: 3 x 5=15 CHO Fat: 4 x 0=0 Total: 246g CHO

10. What chemicals should be used to extinguish an electrical fire? a. Carbon dioxide and dry chemical b. Water and lemon juice c. Fire extinguisher d. Baking soda

A

11. Cooked perishable leftovers should be chilled to a. 40 F b. 18 F c. 32 F d. 45 F

A

24. An appropriate menu for toddlers would be: a. Baked chicken legs, diced potatoes, carrots, peaches and milk b. Chicken fingers, French fries, green beans, grapes and milk c. Toast and fruit cocktail d. Chicken pot pie, mashed potatoes and peaches

A

31. The estimated weekly food cost per patient day is $0.50 per patient over the budget. What can be done to bring this cost back into line with the budget? a. Revise the menu where necessary b. Increase use of convenience foods c. Reduce number of nourishments d. Reduce labor costs

A

4. Ready-to-eat breakfast cereal that has been in stock for nearly 15 months is being served. To prevent this from recurring, the dietetic technician should establish inventory procedures that include a. dating all foods upon delivery b. back-dating all the foods on the shelf c. moving old stock to the trayline d. rearranging the store room

A

5. The best way to protect diners from the ciguotoxin found in some fish is to a. purchase fish from approved supplies only b. purchase frozen fish c. cook fish to 145 F for 15 seconds d. cross your fingers

A

47. A RD/DTR is asked to present a program at a congregate meals site, the importance of a low-fat, low cholesterol diet. The most effective method would be: a. A Game that identifies high cholesterol, high fat foods b. A Movie that shows the effects of a high fat diet c. Slide program on the preparation of meals low in fat and cholesterol d. Lecture on high cholesterol foods

A-

16. 7 Day Work Position based on a 40-hour work week requires how many FTE's? a. 1.4 b. 2.5 c. 3.2 d. 4.0

A- 1 FTE=40 hrs/wk (8 hrs/day) for 5 days. 1.4 FTE=56 hrs/wk (8hrs/day) for 7 days. Hours of work/wk(56)/40 equals=56/40=1.4. 40 hours/wk +2 extra days (16 hrs)=56 hrs total. OR 7 x 8=56/40=1.4.

39. A school foodservice expects to serve 31,250 meals to students and an additional 7,500 meals to staff and visitors during the month of September. It has been established that this foodservice produces 14 meals per hour of labor. Calculate the # of meals for the month of September. a. 16 b. 20 c. 14 d. 10

A- 2,768=total hours in 1 month. $2,768/3 weeks in a month)= 692/40= total hours in 1 week. 17.3=173. 1. Divide total meals by meals produced/hour of labor 2. 38,750/14=2,768 hours/month 3. Divide labor by # of hours a FTE works each month (2080 hours/year divided by 12=173). Labor hrs/hrs/month=2,768/173=16 FTEs

43. Patient wants to Increase wt by 1.5lb/wk. How many calories would need to be added to the current daily meal plan to achieve the goal? a. 750 calories b. 659 calories c. 359 calories d. 323 calories

A- 3500=1 lb (3500/2=1750) 1750+3500=5250cal 5250=1.5#. 5250/7 days=750 calories

19. An infant who is formula fed and is growing at a normal rate has a hemoglobin level of 10.5g/dl. The RD/DTR should first determine: a. the type of formula the infant is receiving b. how much formula the infant is receiving c. How the formula is being prepared d. How often the infant receives the formula

A- A normal hemoglobin level is between 12-18g/dl. This baby is low which indicates anemia, protein-calorie malnutrition, pernicious anemia, and folate deficiency. Examples of types of formula include EnfaCare Lipil (22 Kcal/fl oz) versus Similac (24kcal/fl/oz).

15. Nutritional Status for kids: Which of the following parameters most closely reflect nutritional status for children? a. Growth rate b. Head circumference c. hair quality/color d. Skin

A- Anything between 10% and 90% percentile of the growth rate chart is fine. 17. Problem with this question. Normally you add an additional 10 grams for pregnancy (15g for nursing/breast feeding). Therefore there is no exact answer so you pick the next best one (which is 8g).

12. A recent E-coli outbreak could have been avoided if the tainted hamburger had been a. cooked to 155 F b. cooked to 145 F c. cooked to 180 F d. cooked to 110 F

A- B may not seem like the correct answer but it is the closest right answer (nearest to 160*). You don't want to pick C (180*) because even though you are killing the e-coli bacteria, you are overcooking it.

38. If hours worked total 52,689 per year and the total hours paid (including paid vacation) are 62,758, based on a forty hour work week, how many productive FTE's are in the department? a. 25.33 b. 38.40 c. 45.70 d. 38.40

A- Based on a forty hour work week, therefore divide by 52, since there are 52 weeks in a year. 52,689 per year/52 weeks in a year=1013.25. 1013.25/40 hour work week=25.33. Totall hour paid is just fluff (unnecessary)

6. Two cases containing 88 half-pint cartons of milk have been sitting on the counter for at least 2 hours. The temperature range of this product is 55-65 F. The milk should be a. discarded b. use to make puddings c. used to make cream soups d. Placed in the fridge

A- It should be discarded as a pre-cautionary measure.

15. A patient is experiencing ketosis due to diabetes complications and a reduced PC02. You suspect it may be: a. metabolic acidosis b. metabolic alkolosis c. respiratory acidosis d. respiratory alkolosis

A- Metabolic acidosis: characterized by a reduced PC02 and/or PH. Causes may include starvation, low carb diet, diabetic ketosis. Metabolic alkolosis- increased PH, causes may include diuretic use or persistent vomiting. Respiratory answers: has nothing to do with diabetes or ketosis but with breathing.

14. A patient with type one diabetes is taking NPH and regular insulin before his morning and evening meal. His blood sugar levels before meals reveal: breakfast (9:00 a.m): 128; lunch (12:00 pm):122 and dinner (5:00 pm) 275. Which should be recommended? a. Increase morning NPH insulin b. Increase morning regular insulin c. Decrease insulin d. Decrease strawberry crème pies

A- NPH is an intermediate action insulin with a peak effect of 4-10 hours. Increasing NPH could cover food intake 8 hours later at dinner. Remember, regular short acting insulin has a peak of 2-3 hours, so it wouldn't be able to cover dinner.

23. Cravings for non-food items such as dirt, clay, or ice during pregnancy may indicate a. Low iron levels b. High vitamin B levels c. High Iron levels d. High potassium levels

A- This illness is called PICA, where woman eat non-food items

The BEST way of adding energy to a protein restricted diet who has renal failure: a. margarine b. milkshakes c.vegetables d. hard boiled eggs

A. magarine

12. What should the temperature be (at least) of the final sanitizing rinse in a dish machine: a.160 F b. 180 F c. 175 F d. 110 F

B

18. Public Health Programs: The School lunch program is expected to provide at least what % of RDA for each meal: a. ¼ b. 1/3 c. 100% d. no equivalent

B

22. The elevated need for folate in the pregnant woman is due to: a. GERD b. cell division c. Clay d. Low BMI

B

25. According to the American Academy of pediatrics, infants may begin eating solid foods how many months following birth? a.1-3 b. 4-6 c. 7-9 d. 10-12

B

27. Average daily intake of folate for pregnant woman: 200 micrograms. How many additional micrograms does she need to meet the DRI? a. 150 b. 200 c. 300 d. 450

B

30. The patient census in the pediatrics dept varies daily. The most economical way to provide high-calorie supplements at all times is to: a. deliver a variety of supplements so children have choice b. provide cans of standard feedings for nurses as needed c. prepared fruit flavored supplements daily d. Prepare and deliver individual supplements as ordered

B

33. An employee has been continuously extending break times. The RD/DTR first step would be: a. take no action b. Counsel the employee and confront the problem c. Report them to the HR dept d. Let the supervisor know

B

34. An RD raises the problem of dept not being informed when patients have pressure sores. What is the most effective way to improve this situation immediately? a. Ask nursing staff to distribute a weekly pressure sore audit sheet to all depts. Involved b. Participate 2x weekly in meetings to assess pressure sores c. Do nothing d. Yell at the nurses

B

7. The proper temperature of foods on a trayline can be utilized best by checking the temperature of: a. all food during production b. all food prior to serving c. one sample food prior to serving d. one sample food on trayline once a day

B

8. To decrease Ecoli, hamburgers should be cooked to a minimum internal temperature of: A. 140 F B. 160 F C. 175 F D. 210 F

B

21. The most common form of anemia in children is: A. Vitamin B 12 B. Iron C. Folate D. Potassium

B- . General Risk Factors for Anemia in Infants and Children. Up to 20% of American children and 80% of children in developing countries become anemic at some point during their childhood and adolescence. Iron deficiency is the most common cause in children.

42. You have an eighty year old patient who weights 154#. What are the patient's fluid needs: a. 8370ml b. 2100ml c. 3849ml d. 3388ml

B- 154lbs/2.2=70kg to get into kilograms. Then multiply by 30=2100ml

17. A major step in the quality improvement process is to: a. Evaluate employee performance b. Identify potential problem areas c. Set the stage for solutions d. Examine controlled environments

B- Although evaluating employee performance is important, identifying the areas of needed improvement (problem areas) must be found in order to make the necessary plans for the improvement

40. Dietary dept has the following weekly requirements: Employee Hours Days DT's 8 5 Cook's 16 7 Diet Aides 12 7 Dietitian 8 1 How many FTE's are required? A. 5.2 B. 6.1 C. 6.8 D. 9.2

B- DT's 8x5= 40 hrs per week/40=1 FTE cooks: 16+7=112 hrs/wk divided by 40=2.8 FTEs Diet Aides=84 hrs/wk divided by 40 Dietitian: 8 hrs/wk/40=0.2 FTEs Add them together and you get 6.1 FTE in total OR simply add up and divide by 40 .

20. Your client is a 21-year-old low income female with a 3 year old son. She is looking for information about nutrition to help feed her son a healthy diet. The best program to refer her to for nutrition information is: A. WIC B. Expanded food and education program C. Liquor store D. EPA

B- EFNEP (Expanded Food and Nutrition Education Program): Assisted limited resource people in a acquiring the knowledge, skills and changed behavior necessary for nutritionally sound diets. WIC does not do this but does provide federal grants for supplementation for foods, health care referrals.

36. A renal patient on a low potassium diet is encouraged to eat fewer: a. apples and pears b. oranges and cantaloupe c. grapes and berries d. pineapples and nectarines

B- Oranges (237mg) Cantaloupe (274mg). Apples (145mg), Pears (208mg) Grapes (88mg) Berries (120mg) Pineapples (88mg) nectarines (288mg)

9. Fresh meat and poultry should be stored between: a. 25-31 F b. 32-40 F c. 41-45 F d. 46-50 F

B- Remember that the danger zone is between 41 F and 135 F.

44. Determine the amount of lean body mass in pounds. Height: 67" Body fat%: 27%. Weight=165#. Mid-arm muscle circumference=23.6cm a. 198# b. 120# c. 395# d. 390#

B- Weight minus body fat. 27% of 165=44.5. 165 minus 44.55=120.45 (approx 120). OR weight-Body Fat (165-44.55)

41. Financial Report Beginning inventory, May 1st: $25,200 Purchases: $13,000 Ending inventory May 31st: $15,000 How much money was spent in May? a. $28,900 b. $23,200 c. $28,600 d. $14,500

B-Formula: Beginning-Ending+ Purchases You have $25,200 worth of food. By the end of the month, you naturally dwindle to $15,000 due to "purchases". So to find out how much was purchased you simply subtract beginning and end and then add the "extra" purchases ($13,000)

3. The corrct order of ware washing in a three-compartment sink is: a. rinse wash sanitize b. dry wash rinse c. wash rinse sanitize d. wash sanitize rinse

C

26. A woman gains 15# during the first 32 weeks of pregnancy before the weight gain can be assessed, the DT must calculate the: A. % weight gain B. % usual body weight C. Pre-pregnancy BMI D. Pre-pregnancy basal energy expenditure

C

37. If 80,000 hours were worked in the year, how many total FTE's would you need for that year? a. .85 b. .87 c. .96 d. .98

C- 80,000/40=2000. 2000/40 hours/wk=50. 50/52 wks in 1 year=.96 FTE's You always use 40 because most employees work 40 hours per week (it's the standard).

28. You are conducting a study to evaluate the effects of a high fat diet on blood triglyceride levels of obese women. Which of the following is the independent variable? a. triglyceride levels b. obese women c. high fat diet d. none

C- High Fat diet. The Independent variable is the manipulated variable which influences other variables. Independent variable=cause= High fat diet. Dependent variable= effect=high triglyceride levels. Independent=the one that Influences

2. The majority of bacteria grow best in the temperature range of: A.40-100 F B. 50-110 F C. 60-120 F D. 70-130 F

C- The time temperature abuse range is between 41-140. C is the closest fit in that range. *Note- the time temperature abuse (as of 2011) range has changed to 41° and 135° F

13. The evening cook discovers your holding oven to be malfunctioning and as a result, the beef entrée temperature is 120 F. After further examination, you decide to throw away the meat fearing foodborne illness due to: A. e-coli B. monkies C. clostridium perfringens D. botulism

C- clostridium perfringens is associated with meats stored at 120-130 F or meats held at too low of a temp for serving. The general cause is improper storage or holding of meats. Onset: 8-24 hrs. Symptoms: abdominal pain and diarrhea.

1. A 50-lb Package of frozen turkey that is left on a counter overnight should be: A. Given to employees B. Refrozen C. Cooked immediately D. Discarded

D

16. The most common outcome of a high pregnancy risk is: a. Diabetes b. Heart Disease c. Cancer d. Low birth rate

D

17. Nutrition Throughout the lifecycle: Protein RDA for pregnancy is how many grams higher than for non-pregnant women: a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d. 8

D

29. Which method would be best to stimulate an employee's desire to improve quality? a. Present a quality management program to staff b. delegate responsibility issues to a staff member c. continue to use quality program from previous year d. Involve all staff in quality related issues

D

Patient with a broken jaw should he be on a a. clear liquid b. soft c. NPO d. mechanical-soft

D The mechanical soft diet is a close cousin of the soft diet. It gets its name from the fact that household tools and machines, like a blender, meat grinder, or knife, are used to make foods easier to chew and swallow. In contrast to the soft diet, the mechanical soft diet does not restrict fat, fiber, spices, or seasonings (restricted for patients who have gone thru gastro-surgery; it's a step-up from clears/full-liquid). Only the texture and consistency of foods are changed. For the soft diet, fruits and vegetables may be soft-cooked or pureed. Meats, fish, and poultry can be cooked, ground, and moistened with sauce or gravy to make chewing and swallowing more comfortable Liquids and puréed or strained foods that are thin enough to pass through the teeth or a straw. These provide enough calories and protein to promote tissue repair without the need for chewing.

45. Calculate % of standard weight for height if patient's current weight is 139# and the standard is 120#. a. 383% b. 38% c. 987% e. 116%

D- Actual weight divided by IBW= 139/120=1.158 x 100=116%

7. The most important recommendation for clients taking a class about how to reduce salt intake would be to: a. Use fresh foods instead of processed foods b. Use frozen, rather than canned foods c. Stop using the salt shaker d. Use salt substitutes

a

4. How to determine Energy and protein requirements: A patient drinks 200ml of a 15.3% protein product that has a 1 kcal/ml. How many kcalories and how much protein did he consume? a. 30.6 kcal and 7.65g protein b. 25.9 kcal and 4.54g protein c. 33.5 kcal and 3.75g protein d. None of the above

a- 4. 1 kcal/ml x 200ml=200 kcal/ml .153 % protein x 200kcal=30.6 kcal (your extracting protein out to find kcalories. 30.6kcal x 1 g protein/4 kcal= 7.65g protein (1/4=0.25) 200 x .153=30.6 x 0.25=7.65g. There's 4 kcal/1 gram protein. Every 1 gram of protein there's 4 kcalories.

The most important thing a dietitian must know about a new patient is the? a. Diagnosis b. Diet plan c. Personal issues. D. none of the above

a. diagnosis

2. Calculate the cc/hour (rate) for a 1.5 kcal/cc at full strength. A patient needs a continuous (24hrs) tube feeding drip totaling 1800kcal worth for the day. a. 25 b. 50 c. 75 d. 100

b- 2. 1800/1.5=1200cc. 1200/24 (hrs in a day)=50

6. The first step in the nutrition care process is: a. Evaluation b. Assessment c. Development of the plan d. Implementation of the plan

b- Folic Acid: beans and spinach. Megaloblastic anemia is a result of abnormally large, immature red blood cells. MCV is elevated with this type of anemia. The vitamin deficiency for this type of anemia is Folate or B12. Since B12 is not a choice, Folate is the answer. If it was an iron deficiency anemia, then small red blood cells and MCV would be lower instead of higher.

8. Client says to you "I can't seem to stop binging.." You reply "How do you feel when your binging?" This is an example of what type of question? a. Reflective question b. Open ended question c. Closed question d. Leading question

b- There looking for the most important recommendation, not the most practical one

A patient on a 2-g (or 2000mg) sodium diet states he must salt his food. The patient's daily Na intake from food sources averages nearly 1500mg. How much salt could be allowed for seasoning? a. 1/3 tsp b. ¼ tsp c. 1/5 tsp d. 1/8 tsp

b. 1/4 tsp. Know how much sodium is in 1 tsp. 1 tsp=2325mg or roughly 2000mg. Recommended Range: 1,500-2,400 mg/day. Since his Na intake from food sources is already 1,500, he therefore can only salt 500mg worth of food. Since he is on a 2000mg Na diet and since 1 tsp=roughly 2000mg, ¼ of that=500mg.

As the newly hired food service director for a long-term care facility, you are concerned with costs and portion control. The line cook says he needs to prepare 375-4 oz. portions of broccoli. You note broccoli has a waste of 19%. How much broccoli do you need to purchase considering this information? a. 94 lbs b. 116 lbs c. 266 lbs d. 460 lbs

b. 116 lbs This question is asking you to calculate the AP (As Purchased) amount needed. The AP amount is the amount of product needed including unusable items. To calculate: 100% - 19% (waste) = 81% yield; 375 portions x 4 oz = 1500 oz; 1500 divided by .81 = 1852; 1852 oz divided by 16 oz/lb = 116 lbs.

What kind of hazard does Salmonella through cross contamination create? a. physical hazard b. biological hazard c. no hazard d. chemical hazard

b. biological hazard

In a ready-prepared system, foods are prepared in the hospital and then: a. Transported in bulk to service b. Chilled/frozen immediately c. Chilled and stored in refrigeration d. Rethermalized(microwaved) at the tableside

b. chilled/frozen immediately

The section of a job posting that identifies the abilities, skills, traits, and attributes necessary to do the job a. Job analysis b. Job description c. Job specification d. Skills inventory

b. job description- Job analysis: the process of determining duties and tasks of a job which in turn becomes the job description. Skills inventory: Information on employees, education, skills and experience.

Which of the following foods would provide the highest biologic value proteins? a. Rice and beans b. Roast beef and baked potato c. Cole slaw d. Ketchup

b. roast beef and baked potato- Rice and beans make a complete protein but it is not the highest biologic value dish.

In a facility where food production is located at a far distance from patients, decentralized tray assembly has the advantage of a. Serving all the clients within a reasonable time span b. Saving overall space allocations c. Decreasing labor time d. None of the above

b. saving overall space allocations- Serving all clients within a reasonable time span (where food production is located far away from clients). Although centralized tray assembly is usually faster, decentralized is efficient as well (at least in this scenario). In decentralized assembly, there is less time lapse between assembly and service of food trays which makes it quicker in that regard, but quality may be better.

5. Elderly people require a diet of higher nutrient density than younger individuals. Why? a. protein needs are higher b. their kcalorie needs are lower c. their fluid needs are higher d. vitamins are lower

b. their kcal needs are lower

1. Whole wheat sandwich sales last month totaled $67,500. Variable cost/sandwich was $3.00 and each sandwich sells for $5.00 each. What was the total variable cost of sandwiches sold last month? a. $38,500 b. $31,800 c. $40,500 d. $41,500

c- 1. Determine # of sandwiches sold: Total sales divided by price of sandwich sold (selling price)=67,500/$5.00=13,500. Then multiply: 13,500 x $3.00 variable cost=$40,500

46. An 85-year old woman is being sent home from the hospital after fracturing her hip. She has a low income and is now unable to drive. You recommend: a. Food Bank b. Title III congregate c. Type III Home Delivered d. Type A Lunch

c- Home Delivered (AKA: Meals on Wheels). Incorrect answers: Congregate Meals are provided for senior citizens who can attend meal sites. Food Bank is offered to one who has a low income. However, the discounted food must be picked-up from the site. Type A lunch is a type of lunch program offered through the National School Lunch Program for children

An individual beginning to take insulin is at risk for experiencing: a. decreased appetite b. fluid retention c. dry mouth d. none of the above

c. dry mouth.

An advantage of a centralized foodservice delivery system is that a. Portion control is easier b. A large # of meals can be distributed in a short period of time c. Heating and serving equipment is located close to the point of service d. Late trays are more easily accommodated

c. heating and serving equipment is located close to the point of service

9. In counseling a patient, you discover his wife cooks all the meals. What's to be your next step: a. Counsel the patient and have him relay the information to his wife b. Counsel patient and give hand-out to the wife c. Schedule a time where you meet his wife d. Schedule a time where you can meet with both the patient and his wife

d

3. Calculate the # of cans needed. Patient needs 1.2kcal/ml totaling 1400kcal for the day. Each can contains 240ml worth of formula. a. 1 can b. 3 cans c. 8 cans d. 5 cans

d- 3. First find out how many calories are in 1 can: 1.2 kcal/ml x 240ml=288 kcal/can. Next, find out how many cans are needed to meet the patients caloric requirements: 1400kcal X 1Can/288kcal=4.86=5 cans. Extra practice: if you want to find out protein requirements(if 17.7g protein per can): 5 cans X 17.7g/can=88.5g protein.

Which of the following entrees would be most appropriate in a Jewish assisted-living facility? a. cheeseburger with fries b. stuffed pork chop with potato c. chicken cordon blue d. cheese omelet with bagel

d. cheese omelet with bagel

Which one requires the dry heat cooking method a. Chicken a la king b. Egg noodles served with chicken a la king c. none d. Cherry cobbler

d. cherry cobbler

An RD/DTR has just completed a nutrition assessment. Next, a. Outline a nutrition care plan b. Follow-up c. Do a tube feeding d. Diet Education

d. diet education. This question is tricky and may actually be questionable. In a real-world setting, this answer may be plausible, but on paper, the next step after assessment (according to the Nutrition Care Process) is Diagnosing (identifying what's wrong) the patient. But since that is not an option on the answer list, we obviously can't use it. However, the third step- Nutrition Intervention which diet education is incorporated into, is the best answer.

What is the food guide pyramid? a. The visual representation of the U.S dietary guidelines b. A graph representing what the average person must eat c. The # of exchanges per meal d. none of the above

d. none of the above-The Food guide pyramid is quantitative nutrition guideline, using a mnemonic graphic of a pyramid with hierarchical separated zones to represent suggested percentages of the daily diet for different food groups. The food guide pyramid does however help the consumer follow the U.S dietary guidelines but it is not the exact representation of it.


संबंधित स्टडी सेट्स

Anatomy and Physiology: Chapter 29 Development and Inheritance

View Set

CS4220: Computer Networks - Quiz 9 IP Addressing

View Set

Chapter 7: Legal Dimensions of Nursing Practice

View Set

Exceptions to the Warrant Requirement

View Set

Creating and Solving Equations: Tutorial

View Set

The Greeks and the Romans (Chapter 1, Lesson 2)

View Set

Criminal Justice Systems, Chapter 3

View Set

Lesson 1.1 The Construction of Medical Words

View Set

TRI 2: Biomechanics Exam 3 Review

View Set

MGMT 425 Exam 1 Practice Questions

View Set