Eat Right Prep
Which of the following is an example of the hawthorne effect? A. "Chloe has always thought that she caught fewer colds when she remembered to take her zinc supplements, so she is pleased to be in a study now to determine the impact of zinc supplements on ones susceptibility to colds. She is sure that the supplement she is taking is helping her avoid catching colds." B. "Pat, a researcher for a number of clinical trials, has reviewed preliminary results from a study of the effects of caffeine on sleeplessness. The data indicate that the findings may be inconclusive so Pat has asked that the interview questions be revised to make it possible to identify what may be more subtle effects of caffeine. C. "Emma is participating in a study of the impact of artificially sweetened cold drinks on appetite. She believes that she is in the control group so she plans to report that the beverage she drinks does not affect her appetite." D. "Because Raul is in a study to determine the impact of eating breakfast on one`s ability to achieve faster times in track and field events that include "sprinting" periods, he is skipping his breakfast less often."
"Because Raul is in a study determining the impact of eating breakfast on ones ability to achieve faster times in track and field events that include sprinting periods, he is skipping breakfast more often. Reason: Hawthorne effect refers to the tendency of some people to work harder or perform better when they are participants in an experiment or program.
Which of the following would be an appropriate response for the nutrition professional using reflective listening to provide to a client who states: I don't have time to prepare healthy meals at home? A. There must be many demands on your time at home B. There are many time saving shortcuts that i can share with you to help ease the time crunch C. Everyone is busy, but preparing healthy meals should be a priority for you D. That is true for me too, that is why it is important to try
"There must be many demands on your time at home." Reason: Reflective listening allows the practitioner to test a hypothesis of what has been heard and involves making statements to confirm understanding of the clients meaning. Giving advice is not appropriate in reflective listening.
Consider the following scenario when the provider/client are talking. RDN- "Why don't you try spinach as a choice?". Client responds by rolling her eyes. Which of the following statements from the RDN is the best example of the motivational interviewing guiding principle "rolling with resistance"? A. "You don't like this idea." B. "You might try fresh spinach instead." C. "Maybe you can try other kinds of leafy green veggies." D. You've been talking about making changes. so I'm thinking this is a simple, straightforward change for you."
"You don't like this idea."
Relationship-building skills include a task referred to as legitimation. Which of the following phases is the best example of a legitimation process? A. "Im looking forward to working together to resolve this concern." B. "Your anger is understandable. Most people would be angry if they experienced what you did." C. "I really admire you for being able to lost weight while maintaining such as hectic work schedule." D. "I don't think I would have been as understanding as you are if I experienced what you have had happen in your life."
"Your anger is understandable. Most people would feel angry if they experienced what you did." Reason: Acknowledging the reason behind the behavior, indicates that the response from the client was legitimate.
Based on the principles of FIFO, which of the following canned items are correctly placed (by date) on the shelves? A. (front of shelf) 2/12, 2/15, 2/25, 3/1, 2/27 (back of shelf) B. (front of shelf) 3/1, 2/15, 2/25, 2/12, 2/27 (back of shelf) C. (front of shelf) 3/1, 2/27, 2/25, 2/15, 3/1 (back of shelf) D. (front of shelf) 2/12, 2/15, 2/25, 2/27, 3/1 (back of shelf)
(front of shelf) 2/12, 2/15, 2/25, 2/27, 3/1 (back of shelf) Reason: FIFO stands for First In, First Out.
When preparing most vegetables for freezing, it is imperative that you blanch the vegetable first. The primary purpose of this process is to ____ and improve product ____. A. Kill harmful microorganisms, safety B. Deactivate enzymes, safety C. Deactivate enzymes, quality D. Improve texture, palatibility
-deactivate enzymes -Quality Reason: Blanching slows/stops the enzyme action. After maturation, enzymes cause loss of quality, flavor, color, texture, and nutrients.
The indicator head of a bimetallic stemmed thermometer ranges from A. 32-212*F B. 32-220*F C. 0-220*F D. 0-212*F
0-220*F Reason: The indicator must register <32*F to accommodate incoming frozen food and >212*F to accommodate hot holdings.
The Institute of Medicine`s recommended rate of weight gain per week during the second and third trimesters for pregnant women whose BMI is >30 is _____ lbs. A. 0.5 B. 0.6 C. 0.7 D. 0.8
0.5
Bacterial spoilage is most likely to occur in which water activity? A. 0.9 B. 0.7 C. 0.5 D. 0.3
0.9 Reason: Water activity increases with water. The higher the water activity, the most likely the food is to spoil.
Bacterial spoilage is most likely to occur at which water activity? A. 0.9 B. 0.7 C. 0.5 D. 0.3
0.90 aw.
Achieving the appropriate aw level in dehydrated foods is crucial to ensure food safety and adequate shelf life. Most microorganisms grow well at aw level of A. 0.65-0.70 B. 0.91-0.99 C. 0.75-0.80 D. 0.25-0.35
0.91 to 0.99 Reason: AW (water activity) level-limits the growth of the majority of pathogenic bacteria- is 0.70 aw to 0.90 aw. The lower limit for all organisms is 0.60 aw.
A general rule for appropriate portion sizes for toddlers and preschool children is to offer A. 1 Tbsp of each food per meal for each year of the child`s age B. 1/4 to 1/2 cup of each of three foods per meal C. 2 Tbsp of each food per meal for each year of the child`s age. D. 1/2 of the adult portion
1 Tbsp of each food per meal for each year of the childs age
A calorie deficit of 500 kcal below estimated energy needs should result in the loss of: A. 1/2 lb per week B. 1 lb per week C. 2 lb per week D. 2.5 lb per week
1 lb per week Reason: 3500 kcal = 1 lb 3500 kcal÷500 kcal less per day = 7 days to lost 1 pound
The biologically active form of vitamin d is A. 7-Dehydrocholesterol B. 25-Hydroxyvitamin D C. D3 D. 1,25-Dehydroxyvitamin D
1,25-dehydroxyvitamin D. Reason: Vitamin D must first be hydroxylated in the liver by 25-hydroxylase and then in the kidney by 1a-hydroxylase. 1s-hydroxylase is responsible for the synthesis of the active metabolite 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D.
Which of the following correctly identifies amylopectin? A. Galacturonic acid units joined by 1,6 beta linkages B. 1,4 alpha glucosidic linkages only C. 1,4 alpha glucosidic linkages in addition to 1,6 alpha glucosidic linkages D. 1,4 beta glucosidic linkages only
1,4 alpha glucosidic linkages in addition to 1,6 alpha glucosidic linkages Reason: Amylopectin is the branched portion of starch. 1,4 alpha glucosidic linkages are linear, addition of 1,6 alpha glucosidic linkages results in a large branched structure.
Protein needs for patients with stage II pressure ulcers can be calculated as A. 1.2-1.5 g protein/kg B. 1.1-1.2 g protein/kg C. 1.5-1.7 g protein/kg D. 0.8-1.0 g protein/kg
1.2-1.5 g protein/kg
The USDA School Meals Initiative for Healthy Children requires that the schools participating in the National School Breakfast Program provide _____ of the Recommended Dietary Allowance for age or grade group for breakfast A. 1/2 B. 1/3 C. 1/4 D. 1/5
1/4 Reason: The USDA School LUNCH program must provide a 1/3 of the RDA for lunch meals while the USDA School BREAKFAST program must provide a 1/4 of the RDA for breakfast meals.
A #16 scoop will provide which level of measurement? A. 1/4 cup B. 1/2 cup C. 2/3 cup D. 3/4 cup
1/4 cup. Reason: Scoop sizes are based on the # of scoops it takes to fill a 32 fl oz container. (32 ÷ 16 (scoop #) = 2 fl oz; 2 fl oz ÷ 8 fl oz (1 cup) = 0.25 cup.
The USDA School Meals Initiative for Healthy Children requires that the schools participating in the National School Breakfast Program provides____ RDA for age/grade group for breakfast. A. 1/2 B. 1/3 C. 1/4 D. 1/5
1/4. Reason: the school lunch program must provide 1/3 of the RDA while the breakfast program requires a 1/4 of the RDA.
The 2015 Dietary Guidelines for Americans suggest what percentage of calories comes from saturated fat? A. 1% B. 5% C. 10% D. 20%
10%.
The OPTIMAL length of time to breastfeed an infant is
12 months.
The temperature range of the danger zone is between 41*F and _____ A. 125*F B. 135*F C. 145*F D. 165*F
135*F
When cooking fish, it should reach an internal temperature of: A. 135*F for 15 seconds B. 145*F for 15 seconds C. 155*F for 15 seconds D. 165*F for 15 seconds
145*F for 15 seconds
When cooking pork chops, they should reach an internal temperature of: A. 135*F for 15 seconds B. 145*F for 15 seconds C. 155*F for 15 seconds D. 165*F for 15 seconds
145*F for 15 seconds
The minimum amount of fiber recommended for a 10 year old child is: A. 8 G B. 10 G C. 12 G D. 15 G
15 grams. Reason: Beginning at age 2, it is recommended that fiber intake be ≥ the child`s age +5 g.
How many pounds are recommended for an overweight woman to gain during pregnancy? A. 0 B. 5-10 C. 15-25 D. 28-40
15-25 Reason: Underweight women are recommended to gain 28-40 lbs during pregnancy.
The recommended weight gain for a woman who is overweight is A. 0 lbs B. 5-10 lbs C. 15-25 lbs D. 28-40 lbs
15-25 lbs Reason: An underweight woman is recommended to gain 28-40 lbs during pregnancy; an average weight woman is recommended to gain 25-35 lbs during pregnancy; an obese woman is recommended to gain no more than 15 lbs during pregnancy.
What is the minimum internal cooking temperature of shell eggs that are hot-held for service? A. 165*F B. 155*F C. 145*F D. 135*F
155*F Reason: Shell eggs that are served immediately are cooked to 145*F; Shell eggs that are held for service are cooked to 155*F.
According to the Food Code, what temperature should be reached and maintained for at least 15 seconds when reheating previously cooked foods? A. 135*F B. 145*F C. 155*F D. 165*F
165*F
When cooking poultry, it should reach an internal temperature of: A. 135*F for 15 seconds B. 145*F for 15 seconds C. 165*F for 15 seconds D. 165*F for 20 seconds
165*F for 15 seconds
When reheating previously cooked foods, what temperature should they reach within 2 hours? A. 135*F for 15 seconds B. 145*F for 15 seconds C. 155* F for 15 seconds D. 165*F for 15 seconds
165*F for 15 seconds Reason: Reheating of foods should reach the highest temperature listed, which is 165*F.
What is the proper temperature for reheating TCS food for hot holding? A. 135*F B. 145*F C. 155*F D. 165*F
165*F. Reason: Reheating food for hot holding needs to be reheated to 165*F for 15 seconds, the food needs to reach this temperature within 2 hours from start to finish.
What daily energy intake should result in a weight loss of 2 lbs per month if one had been consuming 2,000 kcal? A. 1500 kcal B. 1650 kcal C. 1750 kcal D. 1850 kcal
1750 kcal Reason: 3500 kcal/pound = 7,000 kcal deficiency needed for 2 lbs weight loss over 4 weeks; 7,000÷28 (28=4 weeks × 7 days/week) = 250 kcal. 2000-250 = 1750 kcal.
How old must a foodservice employee be in order to operate power-driven bakery machine? A. 18 B. 17 C. 16 D. 15
18 Reason: According to child-labor laws, children (<18 years of age) are restricted in the operation of power driven bakery machines.
Approximately how many grams of protein does one cup of raw veggies contain? A. 2 B. 3 C. 7 D. 8
2 g Reason: 1 cup of raw veggies: 5 g carb; 2 g protein; 0 g fat; 25 kcal.
Using food-based menu planning, the required portion size for meat/meat alternate served in a reimbursable lunch to students in grades 9 through 12 must be A. 1 oz B. 2 oz C. 3 oz D. 4 oz
2 oz.
Which of the following breakfast meals contains approximately 60 g of carbohydrate? A. 2 slices of toast, 1 egg, 1 small OJ, 1 cup milk B. 2 slices of toast, 1 cup apple juice, 1 large banana C. 1.5 cups of oatmeal, 1/4 cup blueberries, 1 cup OJ, 0.5 cup milk D. 2 eggs, 1 slice bacon, 2 slices toast, 0.5 cup OJ.
2 slices of toast, 1 egg, 1 small OJ, 1 cup milk. Reason: One exchange of starch, fruit, or milk each has about 15 g of carbohydrate.
To lower LDL cholesterol levels, the Academy`s Evidence Analysis Library recommends which level of daily plant sterol consumption? A. 2-3 mg/day B. 4-5 mg/day C. 6-8 mg/day D. 10-12 mg/day
2-3 mg/day. Reason: This amount has been identified by EAL to decrease total cholesterol by 4-11% and LDL concentration by 7-15%.
In December 2014, the FDA approved a final rule that calorie and other nutrition labeling would be required for standard menu items offered for sale in a restaurant or similar retail food establishment that is part of a chain with ______ or more locations, doing business under the same name, and offering sale substantially the same menu items. A. 5 B. 10 C. 20 D. 30
20 Reason: As part of the Affordable Care Act the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act was amended to require restaurants and similar retail food establishments that are part of a chain of 20 or more locations.
How many kcal per oz does a standard infant formula provide?
20 kcal/oz
For a food to be labeled "high in," "rich in," or an "excellent source" of a nutrient, what percentage of the Daily Value for that nutrient must be present A. 10% B. 15% C. 20% D. 25%
20%
If the dietetics professional presents new information to an adult orally, about how much of what is heard will be remembered after 2 weeks? A. 20% B. 30% C. 40% D. 50%
20% Reason: People remember 10% of what they read, 20% of what they hear, 30% of what they see, 50% of what they hear and see, and 70% of what they say themselves, 90% of what they themselves say and do.
The FDA defines the term "gluten free" to mean that the food bearing the claim contains no more than ______ parts per million or ______ mg or more gluten per kilogram (kg) of food. A. 5, 10 B. 10, 15 C. 15, 15 D. 20, 20
20, 20.
Enteral feeding started within ___ hours of admission to ICU has been shown to improve length of stay and mortality. A. 2 B. 12 C. 24 D. 48
24
Overweight is defined as BMI of: A. 19-24 B. 25-29 C. 27-32 D. 31-36
25-29
The recommended weight gain during pregnancy for a woman with a BMI between 19.8 and 26 is A. 15-20 lbs B. 25-35 lbs C. 28-40 lbs D. 35-45 lbs
25-35 lbs
Guidelines to treat disorders of lipid metabolism in patients with diabetes include: A. 25-35% of total energy from fat; less than 7% of total energy from saturated and trans fat B. Less than 25% of total energy from fat; less than 10% of total energy from saturated and trans fat C. Less than 15% of total energy from all fat D. Less than 200 mg of cholesterol per day; greater than 10% of total energy from saturated or trans fat
25-35% of total energy from fat; less than 7% of total energy from saturated and trans fat
How many dietary folate equivalents (DFE) are provided in a supplement containing 150 mcg of folate? A. 150 DFE B. 225 DFE C. 250 DFE D. 270 DFE
250 DFE Reason: 1 mcg DFE = 0.6 mcg folic acid 150÷(0.6)= 250 DFE.
Which of the following is the recommended amount of caffeine for healthy children aged 5-12 years of age? A. 10 mg/kg B. 1 mg/kg C. 3 mg/kg D. 5 mg/kg
3 mg/kg Reason: Children should not exceed 100 mg/day.
A teen with diabetes snacks on 40-45 grapes each afternoon. The RD teaching him about carb counting could explain that his snack is equal to how many carb servings? A. 1 B. 2 C.3 D.4
3. Reason: 15 grapes= 1 carb serving.
Since July 2012, children in grades K through 5 must be served a minimum of ______ cup vegetables with each National School Lunch Program reimbursable lunch. A. 1/4 B. 1/3 C. 1/2 D. 3/4
3/4.
According to the CDC and Preventions worst-case projection made in 2010, what proportion of the US adult population will have diabetes by the year 2050? A. 15% B. 20% C. 30% D. 50%
30%
According to the CDC and Preventions worst-case projections, what proportion of the US adult population will have diabetes by year 2050? A. 15% B. 20% C. 30% D. 50%
30%
The BMI for class I obesity is:
30-34.9 BMI
An isotonic enteral formula would have the osmolality of A. 0 mOsm/L B. 300 mOsm/L C. 550 mOsm/L D. 700mOsm/L
300 mOsm/L. The osmolality of an isotonic solution (similar to the osmolality of blood) is ~300.
Nipple feeding is likely to be successful if it is attempted once an infant reaches a gestational age of A. 28 weeks B. 30 weeks C. 32 weeks D. 34 weeks
32 weeks Reason: An infant cannot coordinate sucking, swallowing, and breathing prior to 32 weeks gestation.
To maintain quality and freshness of refrigerated produce, upon receiving these items, they should be placed directly into cold storage and held at temperatures between A. 55 and 60*F B. 41 and 48*F C. 34 and 36*F D. 30 and 35*F
34 and 36*F
When performing a nutritional assessment on a child, head circumference should be measured up to the age of A. 12 months B. 18 months C. 24 months D. 36 months
36 months Reason: Measuring head growth is important for the indication of brain development up to 3 years of age (36 months).
Approximately how many servings of milk would a woman of 53 years of age need to consume to meet her RDA for calcium? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5
4 cups. Reason: RDA for women aged 51+ is 1200 mg of calcium/day. Milk has 300 mg calcium/cup- therefore 3 cups would be required.
According to USDA guidelines, during a power outage the refrigerator should keep food safely cold for about ____ hours, and a full freezer will hold the temperature for approximately ____ hours if the door remains closed. A. 4, 48 B. 1, 12 C. 2, 24 D. 6, 72
4, 48
The most appropriate nutrition prescription for your patient with cirrhosis includes: A. 0.6 g protein/kg B. 40-45% fat C. 4-6 smaller meals per day D. 4-6 g of sodium
4-6 smaller meals per day Reason: Cirrhosis is often associated with side effects such as malnutrition and severe weight loss, therefore diet should contain adequate calories and protein.
Large institutions most often plan meals using cycle menus. Which of the following cycle lengths is most appropriate for a long-term-care facility? A. 2-week cycle menu B. 1-week cycle menu C. 4-week cycle menu D. Restaurant style static menu
4-week cycle menu
The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends breastfed infants receive Vitamin D supplementation of A. 200 IU daily B. 400 IU daily C. 600 IU daily D. 1000 IU daily
400 IU daily
All breastfed infants should receive how many IUs of vitamin D per day during the first 2 months of life? A. 400 B. 500 C. 600 D. 800
400.
The temperatures in the danger zone include which of the following according to the FDA Food Code? A. 40-125*F B. 40-145*F C. 41-135*F D. 41-165*F
41*F to 135*F.
Shell eggs should be stored at or below A. 32*F B. 41*F C. 45*F D. 50*F
45*F Reason: Shell eggs are the only food stored at an air temperature of 45*F or lower; other cold foods are stored at 41*F or lower.
In accordance with the FDA`s product labeling regulations, an item with less than ___ kcal per labeled serving can be considered "calorie free"? A. 45 B. 35 C. 15 D. 5
5
Dietetic professionals can expect 1 in ____ of their clients to have a disability that will require special accommodations A. 5 B. 15 C. 25 D. 50
5 Reason: Statistics show that 20% of clients may have a disability.
When pickling foods, the level of brine acidity is critical not only for acceptable flavor and texture, but also for safety of the product. The appropriate acidity level of the vinegar used must be at least A. 3% B. 5% C. 10% D. 15%
5% White distilled and cider vinegars of 5% acidity are recommended for pickling.
Dry food should be stored between: A. 40-60*F B. 32-52*F C. 50-70*F D. 65-85*F
50-70*F. Reason: Temperatures <50*F are not needed since dry foods are not perishable & temperatures >70*F may shorten the shelf life.
The minimum number of additional competencies that ACEND requires a program to have to support its emphasis area is A. 3 B. 5 C. 7 D. 9
7 Reason: The establishment of an emphasis area , the following options are used: 1). Use one or more of the 4 defined emphasis areas. 2). Develop a general emphasis by selecting a minimum of 7 competency statements, relevant to program mission and goals, with at least 1 from each of the four defined emphasis areas; the selected competencies should build on the core competencies. 3). Create a unique emphasis area with a minimum of 7 competency statements, based on environmental resources and identified needs.
A food product may be labeled "Made with Organic Ingredients" if _____% of the finished product's ingredients meet organic criteria. A. 50 B. 60 C. 70 D. 80
70
Hot, potentially hazardous foods must be cooled to ___ °F or below within 2 hours and then cooled to ___ °F or below in the next 4 hours. a. 140 and 41 b. 70 and 41 c. 41 and 32 d. 100 and 38
70 and 41 Reason: Bacteria grows faster between 125-70* F.
How many times might a parent need to expose a child to food before acceptance of that food occurs? A. 1-2 B. 3-5 C. 6-7 D. 8-10
8-10
What is the requirement to label a food "fat free?" A. 0 g of fat per serving B. <0.5 g total fat per serving C. <3g total fat per serving D. 100% less fat than in the comparable product
<0.5 g total fat per serving.
Which of the following must be true for a serving of food to be labeled as low fat? A. <0.5 g of fat B. <3 g of fat C. 25% less fat than the full at food D. Contain 1/3 fewer calories or 50% less fat than the full fat food.
<3 g.
In order for a manufacturer to label a food as "healthy," it must contain <3g fat and A. <120 mg cholesterol B. <480 mg sodium C. >2g of protein D. >3g of dietary fiber
<480 mg sodium Reason: In order for a manufacturer to label a food as "healthy"- the product must contain <3g fat; <480 mg sodium; <1g saturated fat and <60 mg cholesterol
An item with less than _______ kcal per serving can be considered calorie free? A. 45 B. 35 C. 15 D. 5
<5 kcal/serving.
According to the CDC growth chart, in what percentile is a 1 year old boy measuring 82 cm (32 in)? A. <5% B. 25% C. 75% D. >95%
>95%
Which of the following individuals would be expected to have the highest BMR? A. A 25 year old male who is 6` tall and weighs 200 lbs. B. A 40 year old male who is 6`tall and weighs 210 lbs. C. A 30 year old female who is 5`7" tall and weighs 200 lbs D. A 50 year old female who is 5`3" tall and weighs 120 lbs.
A 25 year old male who is 6` tall and weighs 200 lbs. Reason: BMR for women: 655+(4.35 × weight in lb) + (4.7×height in inches)-(4.7 × age in years). BMR for men: 66 + (6.23 x weight in lbs) + (12.7 × height in inches) - (6.8× age in years).
Which of the following patient scenarios requires less stringent blood glucose targets A. A 32 year old with new diagnosis of t2d B. A 75 year old on metformin only and who is determined to lose weight and get off medication C. A 72 year old with 8 year history of diabetes starting basal insulin therapy D. A 58 year old with severe cardiomyopathy, depression, and limited family supports
A 58 year old with severe cardiomyopathy, depression, and limited family supports Reason: Stringent glucose targets are established with regard to life expectancy, presence of comorbid conditions, risk of hypoglycemia and support systems.
Which of the following categories of food items must bear a nutrition facts label? A. A donut purchased directly from the bakery where it was prepared B. A sandwich purchased at a restaurant for take out C. A burrito purchased from a small business D. A beverage purchased in a plastic container from a grocery store
A beverage purchased in a plastic container from a grocery store.
According to the USDA, what is the penalty for falsely labeling a product as organic? A. A civil fine of up to $11,000 B. Imprisonment C. Confiscation of assets D. Confiscation of product
A civil fine of up to $11,000
Which of the following is an application of nanotechnology in the foodservice industry? A. A computer software that manages inventory via the tracking of sales B. Foodservice storage containers that are permeable to gases that contribute to spoilage C. A frying oil that catalytically inhibits the thermal polymerization of the oil. D. Increasing the concentration of Vitamin D in low fat dairy products to increase the potential for absorption.
A frying oil that catalytically inhibits the thermal polymerization of the oil. Reason: catalytic device that conditions frying oil through the use of nanotechnology.
if students describe themselves as kinesthetic learners, which of the following learning experiences would be best suited to them a. a lecture session that includes the opportunity to ask questions b. a laboratory setting that includes hands on experience c. a self paced computerized presentation of content d. an audiotaped or televised presentation
A laboratory setting that includes hands on experience Reason: Kinesthetic means touching, feeling, and experiencing the material at hand.
Which of the following individuals would be LEAST likely to be at risk for B12 deficiency? A. A vegan B. A woman with polycystic ovarian syndrome taking metformin therapy C. An elderly individual on a proton pump inhibitor D. A man on aspirin therapy
A man on aspirin therapy Reason: A man on aspirin therapy may be at risk for iron deficiency but not b12 deficiency.
The ethical principle of autonomy is supported when A. A clinician treats all patients with similar attention B. Explaining the benefits and risks of enteral nutrition to the wife of a man in a persistent vegetative state C. Enteral nutrition is provided to a postoperative patient requiring mechanical ventilation D. A patient at end of life is allowed to refuse parenteral nutrition.
A patient at the end of life is allowed to refuse parenteral nutrition. Reason: Autonomy is the agreement to respect another`s right to determine a course of action for himself or herself, or the support of anothers independent decision making. Autonomy is a part of Motivational Interviewing.
Which of the following helps maintain indoor air quality by removing grease, steam, smoke and heat from a foodservice operation? A. A properly installed sewage system B. A properly installed plumbing system C. A proper ventilation system D. A cross-connection
A proper ventilation system.
One advantage of using a crossover design over a parallel design is: A. A shorter study duration B. A smaller sample size C. A reduction in variability D. A washout period is not needed
A reduction in variability. Reason: Crossover design includes a washout period and does not have to be a shorter study duration, and sample size does not have to be small.
Retrogradation, which occurs in starches, can be defined as A. A reforming of hydrogen bonds into crystalline regions as the starch paste is held B. A decreased swelling of the starch granules as sugar competes with starch for water C. The breakdown of a starch paste when acid is added at the beginning of the cooking period D. Swelling of starch granules upon exposure to heat
A reforming of hydrogen bonds into crystalline regions as the starch paste is held
What type of learning experiences should the dietetics professional provide in order to maximize the clients` accomplishment of learning outcomes? A. Multiple opportunities for asking questions and participating in a discussion B. A field trip or tour that is relevant to the topic C. A multimedia experience that is followed by a question and answer period. D. A role-play situation
A role-play situation
For credentialed RDNs and NDTRs, what is the basic difference between a statutory scope of practice and an individual scope of practice? A. A statutory (legal) scope of practice is, primarily, defined at the state level and an individual scope of practice is flexible and defined by the individuals professional practice. B. A statutory (legal) scope of practice is defined by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services and an individuals scope of practice in nutrition and dietetics is determined by the employer. C. A statutory (legal) scope of practice is defined by the US Department of Health and Human Services (USDHHS) and an individual scope of practice defined by the areas in which the practitioner provides services. D. There is no difference. All credentialed dietetics practitioners have the same statutory and individual scope of practice.
A statutory (legal) scope of practice is, primarily, defined at the state level and an individual scope of practice is flexible and defined by the individuals professional practice.
The local WIC nutritionist has collected considerable data about pregnant women and infants in her community. Which of the following would be correctly categorized as qualitative data? A. The number of live births per 1,000 deliveries B. The mean age of women with documented cases of gestational diabetes C. A graph of the gestational ages and birthweights of all infants born alive D. A tally that notes the reasons that pregnant women report for omitting dairy products from their diets
A tally that notes the reasons that pregnant women report for omitting dairy products from their diets Reason: The other options are all quantitative measurements.
The FDA would issue a class I recall for: A. Hot dogs contaminated with L. Monocytogenes B. A product containing canola oil rather than olive oil as stated on the label C. Cornflakes mislabeled as having 16 net ounces when in fact the package contained only 14 net ounces D. Strawberry jam that had only 35% fruit
A. Reason: Class I recalls apply to items that could be a health hazard for the public.
What inventory control method classifies products according to their value? A. ABC B. Mini-max C. Perpetual inventory D. Par rate
ABC
Which electronic healthy record style was created to reflect the NCP? A. SOAP B. ADIME C. PIE D. Focus
ADIME. Reason: SOAP is the oldest type of medical chart documentation. PIE and FOCUS are a blending of chart note types.
Nutrition informatics computer skills include: A. Ability to access and locate information in Academy`s online Nutrition Care Manual B. Ability to successfully write smartphone applications C. Ability to successfully complete a computer course in Javascript. D. Ability to correctly identify on a schematic all parts of a personal computer.
Ability to access and locate information in Academy`s online Nutrition Care Manual.
Which of the following is an example of a physiological change typically associated with aging? A. Ability to smell and taste decreases B. Fat mass decreases C. Secretion of gastric juice increases D. BP decreases
Ability to smell and taste decreases
A manager oversees one or more RDN`s providing care for patients with a variety of medical conditions. Which of the following should the manager use when determining work assignments? A. OSHA`s Professional Expectations for Professional Patient Care B. Joint Commission Standards for Care of Chronic Patients C. Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics SOP and SOPP D. Patients Care Guidelines from the American Board of Examiners for Nutrition and Dietetics
Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics SOP and SOPP
Nutrition informatics computer skills include the ability to A. Access and locate information in the Academy`s online Nutrition Care Manual B. Successfully write smart phone applications C. Successfully complete a computer course in Javascript D. Correctly identify on a schematic all parts of a personal computer
Access and locate information in the Academy`s online Nutrition Care Manual.
Which of the following financial terms represents current liabilities? A. Accrued expenses, depreciation B. Depreciation, retained earnings C. Retained earnings, accounts payable D. Accounts payable, accrued expenses
Accounts payable, accrued expenses Reason: A balance sheet includes a statement of an organizations assets (current, fixed); liabilities (current, longterm); and owners equity at a given time. Current liabilities (accounts payable, accrued expenses, current mortgage payable) are debts that must be paid within 12 months.
Which of the following is a current asset? A. Accounts receivable B. China C. Small equipment D. Retained earnings
Accounts receivable Reason: Current asset are those that are liquid or can easily be converted to cash. China and small equipment cannot be quickly converted to cash. Retained earnings are the part of income that is set aside by the company instead of being distributed to shareholders. Accounts receivable represent current assets.
The TCA cycle begins with the conversion of Pyruvate to A. Acetyl CoA B. Oxaloacetate C. ATP D. Hydrogen ions
Acetyl CoA. Reason: TCA is also known as the Krebs cycle.
Example of chemical spoilage? A. Acidic action of foods with metal-lined containers B. Metal curls from a workout can opener that fall into the food when the can is being opened. C. Development of an off-flavor due to uncontrolled enzyme reaction D. Anasakis contamination of fish
Acidic action of foods with metal lined containers.
The LEARN guidelines provide a framework that dietetics practitioners can use to convey a culturally sensitive treatment plan. The "A" in LEARN stands for: A. Acknowledge B. Assess C. Access D. Alternatives
Acknowledge
To prevent protein precipitation (curdling) when making cream of tomato soup A. Add acid to milk rather than milk to acid B. Add milk to acid rather than acid to milk C. Use a cross-linked starch for thickening D. Use only skim milk
Add acid to milk rather than milk to acid Reason: When the acid from tomatoes mixes with the neutral milk, the protein in the milk gather together in curds. To prevent this, add the acid to the milk.
Building an appropriate protein matrix is essential for achieving the proper quality features in baked goods. Increasing the amount of sugar in a recipe will have which of the following effects on gluten development and the mixing process? A. Added sugar will speed gluten development and require more manipulation B. Added sugar will slow gluten development and require more manipulation C. Added sugar will speed gluten development and require less manipulation D. Added sugar will slow gluten development and require less manipulation.
Added sugar will slow gluten development and require more manipulation. Reason: Sugar competes with starch for the water in the dough or batter.
If a person with Type I diabetes experiences dramatically low blood glucose and becomes unconscious, the most appropriate action would be to A. Give 3 hard candies and administer insulin B. Give 4 oz fruit juice and administer insulin C. Give 4 oz fruit juice and administer glucagon D. Administer glucagon and call 911
Administer glucagon and call 911
A consistent theme from the 2011 Dietetics Workforce Demand Study was that which of the following drives change for all areas of dietetic practice? A. Incidence rates for chronic diseases B. Costs associated with healthcare C. Changes to Medicare eligibility requirements D. Advances in technology
Advances in technology
The dietitian has written the following objective: "The clients with high blood pressure who attend the six class sessions planned will accept the goal of following a reduced-salt diet." Which learning domain does the objective represent? A. Psychomotor B. Rational C. Cognitive D. Affective
Affective Reason: 3 domains of educational activities: Psychomotor:manual or physical skills. Cognitive: mental skills or knowledge. Affective: attitude and growth in feelings or emotional areas.
Structure/function claims on the label of a dietary supplement might describe how a nutrient A. Prevents a disease B. Alters the treatment of a disease C. Affects normal body function D. Cures common ailments
Affects normal body function
Which of the following is the best example of an objective? A. Upon completing the class, students will understand to count the grams of carbohydrate contained in at least 5 foods. B. After participating in the online discussion, the students will list 3 of the benefits experienced by mothers who breastfed. C. At the end of the demonstration, students will know how to identify the grams of trans fat contained in prepared foods. D. After touring the supermarket, students will gain knowledge of how the placement of products on shelves encourages impulse buying.
After participating in the online discussion, the students will list 3 of the benefits experienced by mothers who breastfed. Reason: Ideal learning objective has 3 parts: 1). measurable verb. 2). Important condition under which the performance is to occur. 3). The criterion of acceptable performance.
Interpretation of BMI for children is A. Age specific B. Sex specific C. Age and sex specific D. The same as in adults
Age and sex specific
A client verbally attacks the registered dietitian nutritionist, indicating that weight loss expectations are unrealistic and no one could meet them. What defense mechanism is being exhibited? A. Regression B. Repression C. Aggression D. Projection
Aggression Reason: This defense mechanism attacks the source of frustration.
The Dietary Guidelines for Americans are primarily developed and published by the executive branch of the government under what departments? A. Agriculture and Education B. Housing and Urban Development and Agriculture C. Education and Health and Human Services D. Agriculture and Health and Human Services
Agriculture and Health and Human Services
Which of the following accurately describes how alcohol is digested and absorbed? A. Alcohol requires no digestion and is absorbed by simple diffusion B. Alcohol is digested in the stomach and absorbed primarily from the small intestine C. Alcohol is digested in and absorbed primarily from the stomach D. Alcohol requires no digestion and is absorbed by active transport.
Alcohol requires no digestion and is absorbed by simple diffusion.
Which of the following includes energy-yielding substances? A. Carbs, triglycerides, protein B. Alcohol, carbs, triglycerides, protein C. Vitamins, minerals, carbs, triglycerides, protein D. Carbs, triglycerides, proteins, vitamins, minerals, water
Alcohol, carbohydrates, triglycerides, and protein.
Critical nutrition concerns in children ages 2-11 years of age include: A. excessive intakes of dietary fat, especially saturated fats. B. decreased intakes of foods that are good sources of calcium, fiber, iron, vitamin E, folate, magnesium, and potassium. C. sedentary lifestyles. D. all of the above.
All of the above
Data reviewed for nutrition assessment is also reviewed during the following step: A. monitoring and evaluation B. nutrition diagnosis C. goal setting D. all of the above
All of the above
Symptoms associated with hypersensitivity to the ingestion of a food may stem from: A. Chemical contaminants B. Microbial contaminants C. Parasitic contaminants D. All of the above
All of the above
The Nutrition Care Process model consists of: A. Outcomes management systems B. Dietetics knowledge C. Critical thinking skills D. All of the above
All of the above
When changing a static patient menu to a cycled menu, it is important to work with the chef or production manager because the person in that role will have skills in which of the following areas? A. Usage of equipment B. Labor skill level C. Inventory and food usage D. All of the above
All of the above
Your patient has been newly diagnosed with T2DM. Which lab results will you review with your patient? A. Glucose and HbA1c B. Triglycerides C. Cholesterol panel, including HDL, LDL, VLDL D. All of the above
All of the above
Which of the following disease states may require a fluid restriction? A. Liver disease with ascites B. Chronic renal failure C. Congestive Heart Failure D. All of the above
All of the above Reason: All of the disorders mentioned feature abnormal levels of Na and K.
The chef preparing to make seasonal changes in the cafeteria menu and wants to make similar changes in the patient menu. How will this change help to control menu cost? A. Decrease food cost B. Decrease labor and/or production cost C. Optimize inventory and food usage D. All of the above
All of the above Reason: Whenever the cooking staff prepared similar foods for both the patients and the cafeteria, it results in all of the effects listed.
What gauge of stainless steel is most common in foodservice operations? A. 14 B. 16 C. 18 D. All of the above
All of the above: 14, 16, 18 Reason: The lower the gauge number, the thicker the metal is. The thicker the metal, the less likely it is to dent than other gauges (such as 20 and 22).
Which of the following can reduce overproduction? A. Accurate forecasting B. Small-batch cooking C. Freezing prepared items D. All of the above
All of the above: Accurate forecasting, Small-batch cooking, Freezing prepared items.
The chef is preparing to make seasonal changes in the cafeteria menu and wants to make similar changes in the patient menu. How will this change help to control the menu cost? A. It will decrease food cost B. It will decrease labor or production costs C. It will optimize inventory and food usage D. All of the above
All of the above: Decrease food cost, decrease labor and production cost, optimize inventory and food usage. Reason: Preparation of similar foods for both patients and cafeterias results in improvements in controlling menu cost.
Data reviewed for nutrition assessment are also reviewed during the following step: A. Monitoring and evaluation B. Nutrition diagnosis C. Goal setting D. all of the above
All of the above: Monitoring and evaluation, nutrition diagnosis, goal setting.
What is the significance of a safe work environment? A. Decreases cost through decreases use of workmen`s comp B. Demonstrates caring for employees C. Decreases cost through decreasing lost workdays D. All of the above
All of the above; Decreases cost through decreased use of workmans comp; Demonstrates caring for employees; Decreases cost through decreasing lost workdays.
Which of the following injuries are you most likely to see in a foodservice environment? A. Strains and sprains B. Slips and falls C. Cuts and burns D. All of the above
All of the above; Strains and sprains, slips and falls, cuts and burns.
Which nutrient additive might be added to food as a natural antioxidant? A. Biotin B. Alpha-tocopherol C. Calcium carbonate D. Pantothenic acid
Alpha-tocopherol
Which of the following groups of whole grains are gluten free? A. Spelt, rye, oats, quinoa, kamut, corn B. Amaranth, quinoa, millet, teff, buckwheat C. Bulgur, durum, farina, malt, orzo D. Corn, rye, seitan, kamut, barley
Amaranth, quinoa, millet, teff, buckwheat Reason: Gluten is found in wheat, rye, barley, and triticale. The whole grains listed above are the only ones that are gluten free.
Of all racial and ethnic groups in the United States, _____________ have the highest rate of prevalence of diabetes A. Chinese Americans B. American Indians and Alaskan Natives C. Jews D. Muslims
American Indians and Alaskan Natives
If the carb content of the diet is insufficient to meet the bodys needs for energy, which of the following can be converted to glucose? A. Acetyl CoA B. Fatty Acids C. Carbon Dioxide D. Amino Acids
Amino Acids Reason: ???
After protein digestion, what is the predominant product absorbed into circulation? A. AA B. AA and Oligopeptides C. AA and Dipeptides D. AA, Dipeptides, and Tripeptides
Amino Acids. Reason: Two main products of protein digestion are free amino acids and peptides (dipeptides and tripeptides). Predominant form absorbed is AA.
Which enzyme is responsible for starch digestion? A. Amylase B. Lipase C. Lactase D. Insulin
Amylase
Which of the following enzymes acts on complex carbs? A. Lactase B. Sucrase C. Maltase D. Amylase
Amylase. Reason: The other options all act on simple carbs; Lactase, Sucrase, Maltase.
In order to prevent back flow: A. A cross connection should be created B. An air-gap between the faucet and the flood rim of the sink should be created C. A physical link between the potable and contaminated water supply should be created. D. None of the above is correct.
An air-gap between the faucet and the flood rim of the sink should be created. Reason: Backflow refers to the reverse flow of contaminants through a cross-connection into a potable water supply. The ONLY way to prevent back flow is to have an air space (air-gap), to separate a water supply outlet from a potentially contaminated source.
To prevent back flow, A. A cross-connection should be created B. An air-gap between the faucet and the flood rim of the sink should be created C. A physical link between the potable and contaminated water supply should be created D. Multiple sources of water should be used to increase water pressure
An air-gap between the faucet and the flood rim of the sink should be created. Reason: Backflow is the unwanted, reverse flow of contaminants through a cross-connection into a potable water supply.
Which of the following individuals are most likely to present with Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome? A. A premature infant B. An alcoholic man C. A postmenopausal woman D. A disabled child
An alcoholic man Reason: Alcohol abuse leads to severe thiamin deficiency- Also known as WK syndrome.
Which of the following statements is valid regarding the use of nutrition labels in a restaurant? A. All items are now required to bear a Nutrition Facts label B. An item listed as "low fat" on the menu must be substantiated upon request C. Items at a restaurant are exempt from providing nutrition information D. Only restaurants with more than 10 establishments are required to provide nutrition information.
An item listed as low fat on the menu must be substantiated upon request. Reason: Substantiate means to prove evidence to support or prove the truth of.
In the NCP, where should dietetics professionals note the clients BMI? A. Food/Nutrition Related history B. Biochemical data, medical tests and procedures C. Anthropometric measurements D. Nutrition-focused physical exams
Anthropometric measurements
In order to prevent deterioration by slowing respiration, _____________ would be stored in modified-atmosphere packaging. A. Bottled water B. Apple slices C. Ground turkey D. OJ
Apple slices. Reason: This reduces the spoilage of apple slices which are more prone to browning as a result of oxidation.
To include formative evaluation in an instruction of breastfeeding techniques, the dietetics professional should _____. -ask participants several times during the class to share something that they have learned -determine the number of participants who breastfeed after attending the class -ask participants what else should have been included at the conclusion of class -determine what the participants remember from the class 3 to 6 months after attending
Ask participants several times during the class to share something that they have learned. Reason: Formative evaluation helps instructors find out if they are achieving goals and objectives in the formative stages of the project. Formative stages means early or during the course of education; often qualitative with data collection by observation, interviews.
A university operates food kiosks containing items that are purchased prepared and require minimal cooking before service. What name is given to this type of foodservice operation? A. Conventional B. Ready prepared C. Commissary D. Assembly/serve
Assembly/serve Reason: These kinds of foodservice operations are also called convenience- food foodservice or the minimal cooking concept.
When using the andragogy theory and strategy of learning, the nutrition professional should A. Arrange for those close to the clients to provide positive reinforcement B. Serve as a role model, for example, by selecting nutrient dense, lower energy foods form a buffet C. Carefully structure information about weight loss so that essential concepts are easy to identify D. Assist clients in identifying weight loss strategies that could work for them
Assist clients in identifying weight loss strategies that could work for them.
Which of the following is NOT an acceptable way to thaw food? A. In a refrigerator at a product temperature of 45*F or lower B. At room temperature for a max of 2 hours C. Under running potable water at a temp of 70*F or lower D. In a microwave as long as the food will be cooked within 24 hours
At room temperature for a max of 2 hours
A deficiency of Vitamin b12 in older adults is most likely due to A. Diverticulitis B. Fat malabsorption C. Atrophic gastritis D. Gallbladder disease
Atrophic gastritis Reason: This condition increases with age, there is reduced HCL acid secretion.
Leading questions are thought to be inappropriate because they A. Are time consuming B. Reveal the bias of the interviewed C. Supply unneeded information D. Misdirect the interviewee as to what information is desired
B
Which of the following foods contains approximately 15 g of carbohydrate? A. 1 English muffin B. 1/2 cup of mashed potato C. 4 cups popped popcorn D. 1 large banana
B Reason: equivalents to 15 g of carb are: 1/2 English muffin; 3 cups of popcorn; 1 small banana (4 oz).
Which of the following is the best example of a statement that reflects the components expected of an objective? A. Students enrolled in basic nutrition will score passing grades on all class quizzes this semester if they study prior to taking each quiz. B. Given the appropriate recipe, the cook will know how to prepare the quantity of beef stroganoff needed to serve 100 people within 24 hours. C. Individuals with diabetes will like the foods that they sample in their class of new diabetics. D. After watching the video, the trailing workers will portion foods carefully.
B. Reason: Objectives need to be SMART (Smart, Measurable, Attainable, Relevant, Time bound).
Intrinsic factor is required for the absorption of which vitamin? A. B2 B. B6 C. C D. B12
B12
Breastfed infants of mothers who consumed a vegan diet while pregnant would benefit from supplementation of what micronutrient? A. Niacin B. Calcium C. Vitamin B12 D. Vitamin A
B12. Reason: Deficiency of B12 can cause irreversible nervous system damage.
Which of the following growth charts is currently recommended by the CDC and Prevention to assess weight in relation to stature in children ages 2 to 20 years? A. BMI-for-age B. Length-for-age C. Weight-for-age D. Stature-for-age
BMI for age
A 58-year-old post menopausal female client presents to an ambulatory clinic with the following physical exam components: Blood pressure: 110/62; heart rate: 78; BMI: 30. Blood work: Fasting BG: 86 mg/dL; Total cholesterol: 182 mg/dL; LDL: 98 mg/dL; HDL: 50 mg/dL; TG: 132 mg/dL. Social hx: Married, smokes half a pack of cigarettes per day for the past 30 years; inactive. Family hx: cancer, CVD. Which risk factors are modifiable? A. BMI, Smoking, inactivity B. BMI, Family hx, fasting BG C. HDL, Triglycerides, fasting BG D. Smoking, Triglycerides, Inactivity
BMI, Smoking, inactivity.
Which of the following lunch menus reflect proper menu planning principles? A. Steamed haddock, rice, roasted cauliflower, vanilla frozen yogurt with fresh pineapple B. Baked pork chop, sauteed broccoli, rice pilaf, vanilla frozen yogurt with strawberries., C. Grilled chicken breast, mashed potato, steamed parsnips, lemon sorbet D. Meatballs, whole tiny potatoes, brussel sprouts, fresh bing cherries.
Baked pork chop; sauteed broccoli; rice pilaf; vanilla frozen yogurt with strawberries; Reason: Best use of color in a lunch meal, variety of flavors, textures, consistencies, and food shapes.
Which of the components of total energy expenditure accounts for the largest percentage of total energy expenditure? A. Thermic effect of food B. Physical activity C. Nonexercise activity thermogenesis D. Basal metabolism
Basal metabolism Reason: BMR can range form 45% for people who are physically active to 70% for those who are sedentary.
How should foods that do not hold well for long periods of time, such as broccoli, be prepared? A. Batch cooking B. Cook chill C. Combi-oven D. Steamed
Batch cooking Reason: Foods that do not hold well should be prepared as close to service as possible. Batch cooking means cooking foods as needed for service.
A foodservice operation has a 1.93 current ratio. This value indicates to creditors that the foodservice operation most likely will A. Not be able to meet long-term financial obligations B. Not be able to generate profit in relations to sales C. Be able to control expenses D. Be able to pay bills when due
Be able to pay bills when due Reason: Current ratio is calculated by dividing current assets by current liabilities. Current ratios that are greater than 1 indicate the organization will most likely be able to pay bills when due over and over the next 12 months.
The following programs are recommended as primary interventions in school-based child and adolescent overweight prevention programs: A. Food environment changes, homework/reading/computer use changes, media influences, nutrition education B. Food environment changes, nutrition education, physical activity education C. Behavioral counseling, nutrition education, physical activity education, parental/family involvement D. None of the above
Behavioral counseling, nutrition education, physical activity education, parental/family involvement. Reason: Research shows that obesity prevention programs should include behavioral counseling.
The dietetics professional has developed a weight loss program that includes encouraging participants to reward themselves with treats such as new clothes, going to a movie, or spending more time in a favorite pastime after they have lost 5 lbs. The learning behavior theory being applied is: A. Behavioral B. Social learning C. Cognitive D. Humanism
Behavioral.
Which additive is used as a bleaching agent? A. Benzoyl peroxide B. Citric acid C. Canthaxanthin D. Butylated hydroxyanisole
Benzoyl peroxide Reason: Benzoyl peroxide can be used as a flour treatment agent.
The breakdown of FA to yield acetyl-coa is called A. Glycolysis B. Lipolysis C. Ketogenesis D. Beta-oxidation
Beta-oxidation Reason: First step of FA catabolism is Beta-Oxidation.
Alcohol metabolism can cause decreased A. Uptake of fatty acid synthesis B. Fatty acid synthesis C. Lipogenesis D. Beta-oxidation
Beta-oxidation Reason: The shift in the NADH/NAD+ ratio inhibits beta-oxidation of fatty acids and promotes triglyceride synthesis.
In the NCP, which of the following is a category for Nutrition Assessment? A. Food and nutrient delivery B. Nutrition counseling C. Biochemical data, medical tests, and procedures D. Nutrition education
Biochemical data, medical tests, and procedures
Prior to freezing, vegetables must be _____ before freezing to stop the damaging actions of enzymes. A. Washed B. Peeled C. Blanched D. Dried
Blanched.
In order to meet body composition, the _____ machine determines body density by measuring the amount of air displaced. A. Bod Pod B. DEXA (Dual energy x-ray absorptiometry) C. MRI (Magnetic Resonance Imaging) D. Ultrasound
Bod Pod. Reason: Has been shown to be just as accurate as underwater weighing.
REE is most affected by A. Body comp B. Physical activity C. Time of day D. Food intake
Body composition. Reason: REE requires weight, height, age for calculation.
Which of the following statements is true regarding the potential benefits of dietary fiber? A. Lowers LDL cholesterol levels B. Reduces postprandial BG levels C. Increases gastric emptying D. Both A and B
Both A and B
Which of the following statements best describes the similarities between the Special Supplemental Nutrition Program for Women, Infants, and Children (WIC) and the Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program (SNAP)? A. Both programs are regulated by the USDA, provide referrals to healthcare and other social services providers, and are entitlement programs B. Both programs are regulated by the USDA, contain income eligibility guidelines, and are entitlement programs C. Both programs are regulated by the USDA, contain eligibility guidelines, are entitlement programs, and recipients must have a documented medical or nutritional risk. D. Both programs are regulated by the USDA and contain income eligibility guidelines.
Both programs are regulated by the USDA and contain income eligibility guidelines. Reason: WIC is not an entitlement program and SNAP is not based on nutritional risk.
The Emergency Food Assistance Program and the Disaster Feeding Program are examples of food distribution programs. Which of the followings statements best describes the similarities of the 2 programs? A. Both programs may serve children, adolescent, and other age groups and provide commodity foods to local food distribution and service agencies. B. Both programs may serve children, adolescent, and provide commodity foods to local food distribution and service agencies. C. Both programs serve low-income populations and supplemental food suppliers are either distributed to individual households or as meals served in congregate dining centers. D. Bothe programs serve children, adolescent, and other age groups and food suppliers are either distributed to individual households or as meals served in congregate dining centers.
Both programs may serve children, adolescent, and other age groups and provide commodity foods to local food distribution and service agencies.
Women with gestational diabetes typically require less carbohydrates at which meal, compared to the others? A. Breakfast B. Lunch C. Dinner D. Bedtime snack
Breakfast Reason: Many women with gestational diabetes are more insulin resistant in the early morning and therefore tolerate less carbs at breakfast.
Which of the following marketing channel distributors does not take title to goods being sold, yet receives a commission for negotiating between the buyer and the seller? A. Wholesaler B. Broker C. Manufacturers representative D. Special breed delegate
Broker
Which type of rice is whole-grain with only the outer hull removed? A. Brown B. White C. Wild D. Long grain
Brown Reason: White rice has been milled to remove the outer husk and layers of bran. Wild rice is not a true rice. Long grain rice just refers to the length of rice.
Fruits and vegetables that have not been blanched prior to freezing are more susceptible to which kind of deterioration? A. Fermentation B. Browning C. Biological spoilage D. Freezer burn
Browning
Fruits and vegetables that have not been blanched prior to freezing are more susceptible to which kind of deterioration? A. Fermentation B. Browning C. Biological spoilage D. Freezer burn
Browning.
Which food is most likely to deteriorate due to hydrolytic rancidity during storage at room temperature? A. Fish oil B. Soybean oil C. Olive oil D. Butter
Butter
Which of the following religious groups generally do not consume pork? A. Buddhists, Jews, Mormons, Muslims B. Roman Catholics, Hindus, Muslims, Agnostics C. Hindus, Jews, Muslims, Seventh-Day Adventists D. Buddhists, Mormons, Seventh-Day Adventists, Agnostics
C
Which of the following foods contain less than 20 kcal? A. 1 Tbsp peanut butter B. 1 Tbsp sunflower seeds C. 1 Tbsp ketchup D. 1 Tbsp reduced-fat mayonnaise
C Reason: 1 Tbsp PB: 86 kcal; 1 Tbsp sunflower seeds: 157 kcal; 1 Tbsp reduced fat mayo: 48 kcal.
Because insulin and _____ are secreted in the bloodstream in equal amounts, ____ can be used as a clinical indicator of endogenous insulin production A. Glucose B. C-peptide C. Glutamic Acid D. Cortisol
C-peptide Reason: Insulin is secreted as 2 polypeptide chains joined by disulfide bonds. C-peptide is released when the 2 chains separate.
Inventory turnover rate for 4 establishments are as follows: A: 2; B: 4; C: 6; D: 3. Which of these following are most likely to use the just in time purchasing system?
C. Reason: Just in time purchasing relies on minimum inventory and will therefore have a higher inventory turnover rate. The higher the inventory turnover rate, the less product held in storage.
What federal agency has established and used The Foodborne Diseases Active Surveillance Network, or Foodnet, to estimate the number of food borne illnesses to monitor trends in incidence of specific food borne illnesses over time, to attribute illnesses to specific foods and settings, and disseminates this information? A. FDA B. USDA C. FTC D. CDC and Prevention
CDC
Which federal agency is charged with tracking outbreaks of food borne illness? A. CDC B. FTC (Federal Trade Commission C. USDA D. WHO.
CDC Reason: FTC, USDA, WHO all monitor other health-related issues.
Which agency is responsible for reviewing safety information related to food ingredients and food packaging? A. CFSAN (Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition) B. IFIC (International Food Information Council) C. FSAP (Food Safety Alliance for Packaging) D. FDA
CFSAN Reason: This agency reviews safety information for ingredients and packaging.
Which might be added to some beverages as a natural stimulant? A. Vanillin B. Caramel C. Sodium benzoate D. Caffeine
Caffeine
Which of the following is the best option to serve unpasteurized eggs to older adults patients in a nursing home? A. Freshly cracked sunny side up B. Tiramisu C. Mousse D. Cake
Cake
Which preservative is often used as a fungicide and mold preventative in bakery products? A. Calcium propionate B. Calcium Carbonate C. Calcium Silicate D. Calcium Alginate
Calcium Propionate
For the needs of infants born prematurely, human milk is deficient in A. Potassium and Phosphorus B. Calcium and Phosphorus C. Sodium and Potassium D. Calcium and Sodium
Calcium and Phosphorus
Which of the following is a functional food that has been identified as having a qualified health claim for essential and gestational hypertension? A. Calcium supplement B. Green tea C. Selenium supplement D. Dried tomatoes
Calcium supplement Reason: According to the FDA, the claim regarding calcium supplements influencing hypertension, pregnancy-induced hypertension,and preeclampsia meets the general requirements for health claims.
The 4 most costly food borne bacteria pathogens are salmonella, e.coli, listeria, and A. S. aureus B. C. perfrigens C. C. botulinum D. Campylobacter jejuni
Campylobacter jejuni Reason: S. aureus and c. perfrigens are acquired via human contact; c. botulinum is contracted via improperly processed foods.
According to regulations, what is the most caffeine that can be in a 12-oz serving of soda pop? A. 21 mg B. 55 mg C. 71 mg D. 100 mg
Can NOT exceed 71 mg of caffeine Reason: Regulated by the FDA.
Which of the following is a valid statement regarding the use of structure/function on a dietary supplement? A. Can be used to describe how a nutrient prevents a dz B. ....How a nutrient alters the tx of dz C. ....How a nutrient affects normal boil function D. ....How a nutrient cures common ailments.
Can be used to describe how a nutrient affects normal body function.
The FDA would be most likely to issue a Class I recall if: A. A box of dates was mislabeled for country of origin B. The use-by-date was stamped February instead of March on boxes of dry cereal C. Canned carrots had been underfilled with 13.5 oz instead of 15 oz D. Canned green beans had been underprocessed
Canned green beans had been under processed Reason: This option is the only scenario that has the potential to be a health hazard. Class I recall- actions taken by a firm to remove a product from the market in a situation where there is reasonable probability that the use of or exposure to a violative product will cause serious adverse health consequences or death.
The oils that contain predominantly monounsaturated fatty acids include: A. Sunflower oil and Canola oil B. Safflower oil and corn oil C. Canola oil and olive oil D. Soybean oil and olive oil
Canola and olive oil Reason: Monounsaturated FA include vegetable oils; olive (9.8), canola (8.3 g), peanut, sunflower (7.7), safflower (10.1 g) and sesame oil.
Which would be added to a cola beverage as a natural colorant? A. Sodium benzoate B. Caffeine C. Caramel D. Vanillin
Caramel
In foodservice operations, what is the most common recycled item? A. Plastic B. Paper C. Cardboard D. Aluminum
Cardboard
Which of the following is often added to fat-free chocolate milk as a stabilizer and thickener to improve mouthfeel? A. Methylparaben B. Lecithin C. Carrageenan D. Calcium Silicate
Carrageenan. Reason: Prevents the large dense molecules of chocolate from sedimenting in fat-free chocolate milk.
Anthocyanin in turnips may change to a blue-black or red-brown color if heated excessively in all of the following type of pans except? A. Cast iron B. Stainless steel C. Porcelain D. Aluminum
Cast iron Reason: Metals such as iron, tin, and sometimes aluminum will turn the anthocyanin pigment into different shades of blue.
Anthocyanin in turnips may change to a blue-black or red-brown color if heated excessively in which type of pan? A. Cast iron B. Stainless steel C. Porcelain D. Aluminum
Cast iron Reason: metals such as cast iron, steel and sometimes aluminum may result in this color change.
Which food is most likely to lose turgor? A. Milk B. Celery C. Frozen peas D. Broiled pork chop
Celery. Reason: Turgor means the normal distention or rigidity of plant cells.
Which agency sets the mandated guidelines for meals in long-term-care facilities that receive Medicare and Medicaid funding? A. USDA B. Centers for Medicaid and Medicare Services C. Joint Commission D. Food and Nutrition Board of the National Research Council
Centers for Medicaid and Medicare Services
Meals that are assembled in one location and transported to another location in the facility define which type of foodservice systems? A. Decentralized meal assembly B. Centralized meal assembly C. Ready-prepared meal production D. Tray service
Centralized meal assembly. Reason: Decentralized meal assembly: menu items are produced in one location and then transported to others for assembly closer to the customers.
When reviewing 2 years of serial data on a CDC growth chart, a pediatric patient is identified to be at risk on nutritional screening when experiencing a A. Change in rate of growth B. Continuation on his or her line of growth C. Growth spurt D. Plateau in growth
Change in growth rate Reason: Look for change in rate of growth pattern overtime to determine potential risk; expect growth spurts and plateaus.
Collaborative planning sessions to gain input from all who might be affected by a new kitchen design are called A. Charrettes B. Conclaves C. Commissions D. Caucuses
Charrettes
Which of the following changes in eating pattern has research shown to most positively contribute to a decrease in energy consumption among children? A. Children participating in family-style meals at home B. Children being provided a child-special meal C. Parents or caregivers serving children on individual plates D. Parents or caregivers providing scheduled meals and snacks in the home
Children participating in family-style meals at home.
Tertiary prevention efforts in childhood weight management target: A. Children living within low-income urban or rural populations B. Children who are already overweight C. Children who typically live in areas classified as "food deserts" D. Children who participate in childcare environments or after school programs
Children who are already overweight
Which statement best describes the F component of the FADE performance improvement model? A. Choose a specific problem or process to improve B. Review data to better understand the current process C. Create a plan D. Complete a pilot study
Choose a specific problem or process to improve Reason: F (focus); A (analyze); D (develop); E (execute)
After a meal, most of the fat that travels from the intestines into the lymph system and eventually into the blood is in the form of particles known as: A. VLDL B. HDL C. LDL D. Chylomicrons
Chylomicrons
Which FDA class of recalls are for products that might cause a temporary health problem, or pose only a slight threat of a serious nature? A. Class I B. Class II C. Class III D. Class IV
Class II
Which of the following actions is believed to increase the effectiveness of an interviewer? A. Clearly defining the purpose of the interview to the interviewee. B. Clearly establishing the interviewers position of authority. C. Taking copious notes to aid in the recall of information later D. Developing an emotional attachment.
Clearly defining the purpose of the interview to the interviewee.
Which of the following is an element of the Chronic Care Model (CCM)? A. Inclusive team management B. Comprehensive data collection C. Clinical information systems D. Employee motivation at all levels
Clinical information systems
Which of the following bacteria is anaerobic and poses a threat to the safety of home-canned goods? A. Staph. Aureus B. Clostr. Perfringens C. Clostr. Botulinum D. Aspergillus Flavus
Clostridium botulism
Two fats that are high in saturated fat and solid at room temperature include A. Coconut oil and Safflower oil B. Corn oil and palm kernel oil C. Soybean oil and palm oil D. Coconut oil and palm kernel oil
Coconut oil and palm kernel oil. Reason: Coconut oil is 91% saturated fat; Palm oil is 51% saturated fat; soybean oil is 15% saturated fat; corn oil is 13% saturated fat; safflower oil is 10% saturated fat.
Which of the following oils is an adequate source of Medium-Chain Triglycerides (MCT)? A. Corn oil B. Coconut oil C. Safflower oil D. Soybean oil
Coconut oil. Reason: Rich sources of MCT are coconut oil and palm kernel oil.
Which of the following foods would you suggest limiting if your patient has diarrhea? A. Oatmeal B. Potatoes C. Banana D. Coffee
Coffee Reason: Coffee has been found to be an irritant to the digestive system and may worsen diarrhea.
Another name for irradiation is A. Cold pasteurization B. Ohmic heating C. Gamma bombarding D. Pulsed light
Cold pasteurization
Another name for irradiation is: A. Cold pasteurization B. Ohmic heating C. Gamma bombarding D. Pulsed light.
Cold pasteurization
Which USDA grade of beef is not purchased for general foodservice use? A. Choice B. Select C. Standard D. Commercial
Commercial Reason: Grades of beef from highest to lowest: prime, choice, select, standard, commercial, utility, cutter, canner. Commercial through canner are NOT purchased for general foodservice use due to poor taste quality.
The USDA grade of beef NOT purchased for general foodservice use is? A. Choice B. Select C. Standard D. Commercial
Commercial Reason: Grades that are not purchased for foodservice use include Commercial; Utility; Cutter; and Canner- due to their poor taste quality.
A school foodservice has centralized procurement and production facilities with distribution of prepared menu items to several remote areas for final preparation and service. What name is given to this type of foodservice operation? A. Conventional B. Ready prepared C. Commissary D. Assembly-serve
Commissary Reason: Conventional is when all of the production and service is in the same facility.
According to the CDR`s Essential Practice Competencies, graduates of accredited dietetics programs are required to have knowledge in 8 content areas; physical & biological sciences, social sciences, research, and ____________. A. Foodservice systems B. Communications. C. Public Policy. D. MNT.
Communications (Reason: The variety of topics expected to be studied by an RDN professional are supported by biological, physiological, behavioral, and communication.
According to the Essential Practice Competencies for the Commission on Dietetic Registrations Credentialed Nutrition and Dietetics Practitioners, graduates of accredited dietetics programs are required to have knowledge in 8 content areas, including physical and biological sciences, social sciences, research, and ______. A. Foodservice systems B. Communications C. Public Policy D. MNT
Communications. Reason: Topics involved in dietetics are supported by sciences: biological, physiological , behavioral, and communication.
In the NCP, estimated energy needs, estimated fiber needs, and recommended body weight/body mass index/growth are examples of: A. Anthropometric measurements B. Food/nutrition related history C. Physical activity and function measurements D. Comparative standards
Comparative standards
In the receiving process, which step should be taken first? A. Send items to storage B. Compare the purchase order and invoice C. Reject the items D. Inspect the items against the invoice
Compare the purchase order and invoice. Reason: This ensures that the products accepted were actually ordered.
Which of the following statements are true regarding human skills vs conceptual skills A. Conceptual skills are most important in upper levels of management B. Human skills are most important at lower levels of management C. Human skills are most important at upper levels of management D. Conceptual skills are most important at lower levels of management
Conceptual skills are most important at upper levels of management.
Rosa wants to plan a community nutrition program to encourage children ages 11-15 to consume healthier afterschool snacks. Her first step would be to: A. Identify funding sources B. Define program goals and objectives C. Conduct a community needs assessment D. Seek support from the parents and schools of intended participants
Conduct a community needs assessment Reason: This is the first step because it provides the information for the following steps.
A facility director is charged with evaluating whether it is worthwhile to complete a project. The best approach would be to: A. Conduct a productivity study. B. Determine the startup funds needed. C. Conduct a cost-benefit analysis. D. Determine the number of people involved.
Conduct a cost-benefit analysis.
In behavior change, which example demonstrates self-efficacy? A. Confidence in ability to consume breakfast daily B. Reading an article regarding regular physical activity and heart disease C. Doing research on family history on diabetes D. Perception that financial status will affect ability to eat recommended servings of fruits and vegetables
Confidence in ability to consume breakfast daily
What is the KEY element in disciplining employees? A. Identifying solutions to correct undesirable behavior B. Providing feedback C. Being consistent D. Identifying causes for unacceptable behavior
Consistency. Reason: Consistency allows an employee to feel that any other employee would receive the same discipline for committing the same offense.
Consider the following scenarios: 52 yr old male; weight: 163 lbs; Height: 5`11"; BMI: 22.7. Current Meds: Metformin: 1g; Saxtagliptin: 5mg; Glucotrol XL: 10 mg. Lab results: HbA1c: 13.9%; Fasting BG: 356 mg/dL; positive GAD test. Physician puts in a referral that states: " Patient needs diet instruction." Which of the following would be the best actions for the RD to take? A. Educate the patient about low carbohydrate foods to minimize glucose elevations. B. Contact the referring physician to consider insulin therapy. C. Emphasize meal spacing and carb consistency D. Negotiate a weight loss of 5 to 7% body weight loss.
Contact the referring physician to consider insulin therapy. Reason: Positive GAD test shows that patient has type I diabetes and will need insulin therapy.
In order to be labeled as "pure" vanilla, the US Food and Drug Administration requires that it: A. Be certified as an artificial flavor B. Contain the small black flecks from the vanilla pod C. Contain 35% alcohol by volume D. Contain 200 ppm vanillin.
Contains 35% alcohol by volume (Reason: pure vanilla extract is made by mixing vanilla beans in a solution of ethyl alcohol and water; FDA requires that it contains 35% alcohol by volume and 13.35 oz of vanilla bean per gallon).
Which of the following must be true for a food to be labeled "low fat"? A. Contains less than 0.5g per serving B. Contains less than 3g fat per serving C. Contains less than 25% less fat than the full fat food D. Contains less than 1/3 fewer calories or 50% less fat than the full-fat food.
Contains less than 3g fat per serving
What must be true for a food to be labeled "low sodium?" A. Contains less than 5 mg sodium per serving B. Contains no more than 35 mg of sodium per serving C. Contains no more than 140 mg sodium per serving D. Contains at least 25% less sodium than the regular food
Contains no more than 140 mg sodium per serving
Based on this clients statement, determine which stage of change he or she is in: "I know what you are going to say, and i know a lot about nutrition. I know what I need to do to lose weight, but I just can't do it. A. Precontemplation B. Contemplation C. Preparation D. Action
Contemplation
Which of the following statements about Intensive Behavioral Therapy (IBT) benefit for obese Medicare Part B beneficiaries is true? A. Coverage for the benefit is granted in most care settings B. In order to qualify the beneficiaries BMI must be greater than 40 C. Continued tx for obesity is contingent on weight loss assessed at the seventh month of tx. D. RDN`s may provide the service and bill Medicare using a unique physician ID.
Continued tx for obesity is contingent on weight loss assessed at the seventh month of tx.
An extended-care facility has one central kitchen in which foods are purchased in different preparation stages. Production, distribution, and service are completed on the same premises. What name is given to this type of foodservice operation? A. Conventional B. Ready prepared C. Commisary D. Assembly/serve
Conventional
Menu items that are partially cooked, rapidly chilled, held in chilled storage, and then heated just prior to service is an example of: A. Cook-chill B. Cook-freeze C. Rapid chilling D. Sous vide
Cook-chill
Which of the following does not help prevent allergic reactions when serving food to customers with food allergies? A. Cooking different types of food in the same fryer oil B. Washing, rinsing, and sanitizing cookware, equipment, and utensils before preparing food C. Identifying ingredients to the public, including any "secret" ingredients D. Assigning specific equipment for preparing food for customers with food allergies
Cooking different types of food in the same fryer oil.
Which of the following is one of four domains of Nutrition Intervention in the NCP? A. Client history B. Nutrition-focused physical findings C. Coordination of care D. Food/nutrition related history
Coordination of care Reason: the three other options are related to data gathering for the nutrition assessment step of the NCP.
Compared to a non-leader, which grouping of words best describes a leader? A. Copes with complexities, seeks to be understood, empowers B. Organizes, motivates, copes with complexities C. Seeks to be understood, perseveres, copes with change D. Copes with change, empowers, perseveres.
Copes with change, empowers, perseveres.
Which phrase best describes a leader? A. Copes with complexities, seeks to be understood, empowers B. Organizes, motivates, copes with complexities C. Seeks to be understood, perseveres, copes with change D. Copes with change, empowers, perseveres
Copes with change, empowers, perseveres.
Which of the following food allergens are exempt from the Food Allergen Labeling and Consumer Protection Act of 2004? A. Milk B. Eggs C. Crustacean Shellfish D. Corn
Corn.
Which decision-making process would be most appropriate for determining whether medication, consultations with a registered dietitian nutritionist, or some combo of the 2 is the best approach for lowering serum triglyceride levels? A. Decision tree B. Cost-effectiveness analysis C. Network chart D. Cost-benefit analysis
Cost-effectiveness analysis
Which of the following examples of a snack provided at a child care center would meet reimbursement guidelines and comply with USDA regulations for Child and Adult Care Food Program meals? A. Carrot sticks and 100% fruit juice B. Oatmeal, corn muffins, and water C. Apple slices and orange wedges D. Cottage cheese, mandarin oranges and water
Cottage cheese, mandarin oranges, and water Reason: Nutritional requirement for snacks: Must provide a combo of AT LEAST 2 items from the meat, milk, grains, F/V categories.
Which of the following is a physical link between safe water and dirty water, which can come from drains, sewers, or other wastewater sources? A. Air gap B. Backflow C. Vacuum breaker D. Cross connection
Cross connection Reason: This physical link is dangerous because it can let back flow occur. -Backflow is the reverse flow of contaminants through a cross-connection into a drinkable water supply. -Air gap is the space that separates a water supply outlet from a potentially contaminated water source. -Vacuum breaker is a mechanical device that prevents back siphonage.
When allergens are transferred from food containing an allergen to the food served to the customer, this is called A. Cross-contact B. Cross-contamination C. Cross connection D. Cross transfer
Cross-contamination
To prevent deterioration of canned sauces, which should be used? A. Pre-gelatinized starch B. High-amylose starch C. Resistant starch D. Cross-linked starch
Cross-linked starch Reason: By cross linking the starch, you get the following properties: shorter texture, stability at low pHs, and heat/shear stability.
Which quick freezing process incorporates very low temperatures (-140*F) with liquid nitrogen or carbon dioxide? A. Air blasting freezing B. Cryogenic freezing C. Plate or contact freezing D. Immersion freezing
Cryogenic freezing Reason: Requires temperatures below (-248*F). Typically uses helium-which is liquid state in extremely freezing temperatures.
Which quick freezing process incorporates very low temperatures (-140*F) with liquid nitrogen or carbon dioxide? A. Air blast freezing B. Cryogenic freezing C. Plate or contact freezing D. Immersion freezing
Cryogenic freezing Reason: Requires very low temperatures, generally below -248*F and relies on liquified gases such as helium.
_____ can be defined as the accumulation of a groups learned and shared behaviors in everyday life A. Ethnicity B. Culture C. Comportment D. Society
Culture
Which of the following business concepts represents marketing? A. Emphasis on product, sales-volume-oriented, needs of seller B. Customer wants, profit-oriented, future growth C. Sales-volume-oriented, customer wants, planning for today D. Profit oriented, future growth, needs of seller
Customer wants, profit oriented, future growth Reason: Successful businesses are those that focus on producing goods that customers want while forecasting future growth.
Which of the following sets of business terms represents marketing? A. Emphasis on product, sales-volume oriented, needs of seller B. Customer wants, profit-oriented, future growth C. Sales-volume oriented, customer wants, planning for today D. Profit oriented, future growth, needs of seller
Customer wants, profit oriented, future growth Reason: Successful marketing focuses on producing goods that customers want, forecasting future growth, and being profit oriented.
Which USDA grades of beef are missing from this list: prime, canner, select, choice, utility, and commercial A. Standard, Acceptable B. Good, Cutter C. Acceptable, Good D. Cutter, Standard
Cutter, standard. Reason: grades of beef from highest to lowest: prime, choice, select, standard, commercial, utility, cutter, canner.
To keep the menu interesting to students, The Parkway Foodservice menu items are rotated on a monthly basis. This type of menu is classified as: A. Static menu B. Single use C. School lunch program menu D. Cycle menu
Cycle menu
To keep the menu interesting to the students, The Parkway School Foodservice menu items are rotated on a monthly basis. This menu type is classified as a: a. static menu b. single use menu. c. school lunch program menu d. cycle menu.
Cycle menu
Management functions include which of the following? A. Recruiting and screening B. Hiring, orienting, screening C. Supervising and evaluating D. All of the above
D
The presence of fat in the intestines stimulates cells of the intestinal wall to release A. Gastrin B. Secretin C. Insulin D. Cholecystokinin
D
What government agencys funding supports the National School Lunch Program? A. Medicaid B. Health and Human Services C. CACFP D. USDA
D
Which of the following is an example of an open-ended question? A. Did you have breakfast this morning? B. Do you use cream/sugar in your coffee? C. Do you eat fast food often? D. What have you done in the past to try to increase your fiber intake
D
Which of the following questions would be appropriate for the dietetics practitioner to ask when hiring a new food production worker? A. Do you have any health problems or disabilities? B. Do you have child-care arrangements so that you can work the early morning shift? C. Are you married? D. Why do you want to work for us?
D
Which of the following statements characterizes Niacin deficiency? A. Diarrhea B. Dermatitis C. Dementia D. All of the above
D
Stacey has been asked to complete a formative evaluation of her community nutrition program designed to encourage more first-time mothers to breastfeed. To do this she should: a). determine the percentage of first-time mothers who breastfeed as a result of seeing a motivational DVD during prenatal checkups. b). calculate the increase in the number of first-time mothers who breastfeed after viewing a motivational DVD during prenatal checkups. c). choose a DVD that includes young mothers from varied ethnic backgrounds. d). pilot-test the motivational DVD she plans to use.
D.
Which of the following is NOT a component of meta analysis? A. Inclusion criteria are clearly defined B. Peer-reviewed data are preferred C. Studies must have a similar design D. Data are presented in a narrative manner
Data are presented in a narrative manner
Which of the following is a main component of continuous quality improvement (CQI)? A. Development of new products and services B. Data collection C. Grass-roots initiatives D. Identification of high performing areas
Data collection Reason: Additional components of CQI include the identification of need including areas of low quality, commitment of management, prioritization, planning, and organization
Which ratio would be used to examine an establishment's ability to meet its long-term financial obligations and its financial leverage A. Debt to assets B. Assets to liabilities C. Debt to liabilities D. Profit to losses
Debt to assets
After reviewing the results of menu engineering, what is the best way to manage a puzzle? A. Remove the item from the menu B. Decrease the menu item`s selling price C. Serve smaller portions of the menu item D. Give the item top priority on the menu
Decrease the menu items selling price
Altitude affects water bath canning processing times. This is due to the fact that as altitude increases, the temperature of boiling water _____ while processing times must be _____. A. Increases, shortened B. Increases, lengthened C. Decreases, shortened D. Decreases, lengthened
Decreases, lengthened Reason: The boiling point of water depends on the atmospheric pressure- the HIGHER the altitude, the LOWER the pressure, therefore the LOWER the boiling point of water. In summary, increased altitude results in a lower temperature for water to boil and therefore a longer cooking time. Cooking times increase in order to compensate for the lower temperature and to ensure safety of the food product.
During a snowstorm, the assistant cook (AC) can't get to work. The person working in the "salads" position is unable to take over all AC responsibilities but is somewhat confident and willing to assist the head cook in preparing items on the daily production schedule. To be most effective, which leadership style should the foodservice manager use? A. Provide specific instructions to the willing employee and closely supervise performance B. Define roles and tasks for the willing employee, provide opportunity for role clarification and questions, and give support C. Listen to the willing employee, share ideas, facilitate decision making, encourage, and praise. D. Turnover responsibility for decisions and implementation to the willing employee and head cook. Provide occasional recognition.
Define roles and tasks for the willing employee, provide opportunity for role clarification and questions, and give support.
Rosa wants to plan a community nutrition program to encourage children ages 11-15 to consume healthier afterschool snacks. She has reviewed the results of the community needs assessment, defined program goals and objects, and developed a program plan. Next, she would: A. Identify funding sources B. Define the management system C. Implement the program D. Seek support from the parents and schools of intended participants
Define the management system.
Quality in the foodservice system is [MGT:314] A. a program to eliminate defects. B. a radical redesign of business processes for dramatic improvement. C. a source of increasing costs. D. defined by the customer through his or her satisfaction.
Defined by the customer through his or her satisfaction
Calculating protein needs above 1.5 g/kg body weight in an elderly patient with stage III pressure ulcer and impaired renal function may cause A. Hyperglycemia B. Dyslipidemia C. Dehydration D. Increased wound healing
Dehydration Reason: Patients with compromised renal function require fluid monitoring with increased protein intake to ensure that fluids are not pulled from the system.
Which of the following conditions would most likely result in a slightly elevated albumin? A. Dehydration B. Cirrhosis C. Inadequate protein intake D. Stage IV pressure ulcer
Dehydration Reason: The other conditions would result in lower levels of albumin due to increased synthesis or unusual losses.
A manager always defers to her workers to reach an agreement among themselves, then she adopts the majority decision. Her leadership style is: A. Democratic B. Autocratic C. Consensus D. Participative
Democratic.
Which market segmentation variable consists of characteristics such as age, sex, race, ethnicity, income, education, and occupation? A. Geographic B. Demographic C. Psychographic D. Behavioristic
Demographic
In addition to having demonstrated CDR`s core competencies, all entry-level registered dietitian nutritionists must have A. Demonstrated additional competencies for at least one emphasis area B. A letter of reference from the director of the supervised practice program C. Demonstrated cultural competency D. Passed an exam documenting their knowledge of the Standards of Professional Practice
Demonstrate additional competencies for at least one emphasis area.
If the community nutritionist needed information about residents who are at least 65 years old, the best source of existing information would be the A. Department of Health and Human Services. B. Department of Agriculture. C. Department of Education. D. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention.
Department of Health and Human Services Reason: this department administers Social Security for individuals 65+.
Two federal agencies control alcoholic beverages. Where are the agencies house? A. FAO (Food and Agriculture Organization) B. USDC (US Department of Commerce) C. FTC (Federal Trade Commission) D. Department of the Treasury
Department of the Treasury.
The observed result or outcome of interest in a research project is the A. Dependent variable B. Independent variable C. Population variable D. Individual variable
Dependent variable. Reason: Indicates change and its the measurable outcome indicator.
Which term best describes overall space planning that includes defining the size, shape, style, and decoration? A. Design B. Layout C. Blueprint D. Scheme
Design
According to the Uniform Requirements for Manuscripts Submitted to Biomedical Journals, to be designated as an author, one must have made substantial contributions to A. Design or analysis and interpretation of data B. Selection and assignments of subjects C. Acquisition of funding and administration of the department D. General supervision of the research group.
Design or analysis and interpretation of data. Reason: Author should be involved in all aspects of the research.
In which step in the HACCP plan can you identify where hazards can be prevented, eliminated, or reduced to safe levels? A. Conduct a hazard analysis B. Determine critical control points C. Establish critical limits D. Identify corrective actions
Determine critical control points.
Which statement best describes the P component of the PDSA performance improvement model? A. Determine how changes will be implemented B. Implement the intervention C. Determine the impact of the intervention D. Implement and monitor the plan
Determine how changes will be implemented Reason: PDSA stands for the Plan-Do-Study-Act. P focuses on planning how changes will be implemented. D focuses on implementation of changes. S focuses on determining the impact of change. A focuses on reflecting on the plan and the outcomes.
When using the plan-to-study (PDSA) process, which of the following occurs during the "plan" phase? A. Determine how to collect data B. Train staff on the new process C. Evaluate the effectiveness of the project D. Reduce wait time for appointments
Determine how to collect data
Which statement best describes the "S" component of the PDSA performance improvement model? A. Determine how changes will be implemented B. Implement the intervention C. Determine the impact of intervention D. Maintain and continue improvement
Determine the impact of the intervention. Reason: "S" stands for Check the Results.
After defining the nutritional problem while conducting a community needs assessment, what is the next step? A. Identify community groups and their leaders B. Determine the purpose of the needs assessment C. Collect information on health and nutrition resources available in the community D. Review available data such as Census records
Determine the purpose of the needs assessment.
Which statement best describes the "O" component of the FOCUS-PDSA performance improvement model? A. Identify a process to improve B. Develop a team C. Explain the current process D. Recognize sources of variation
Develop a team. Reason: "O" stands for Organize a team that knows the process.
The five principles of motivational interviewing are: express empathy, avoid arguments, roll with resistance, support self-efficacy, and _____. A. Develop discrepancy B. Listen reflectively C. Demonstrate reassurring responses D. Provide evaluative replies
Develop discrepancy Reason: Allows the participant to realize that his or her current situation may not agree with values or future goals.
The third step in developing one`s professional portfolio to maintain status as an RDN or NDTR include A. Successfully passing the national exam established by the Commission on Dietetic Registration (CDR) B. Developing a learning plan that shows how the professional will meet established goals C. Reflecting on ones professional practice to document current areas of expertise D. Developing a learning plan that outlines how national goals for continuing professional education will be met.
Developing a learning plan that shows how the professional will meet established goals. Reason: Steps in developing a professional development portfolio include: Reflect on professional practice to establish professional goals; conduct a learning needs assessment to identify what you know now and what you need to learn to reach goals; develop a learning plan that shows how goals will be met; implement learning plan; evaluate learning plan outcomes.
Which of the following statements about lipids are true? A. Steroid hormones are made from one or more fat-soluble vitamins B. Digestion of triglycerides requires bile and lipases C. Triglyceride digestion is completed in the large intestine D. Insulin stimulates lipolysis and the mobilization of triglycerides
Digestion of triglycerides requires bile and lipases.
This emulsifier is manufactured by splitting a FA off triacylglycerol molecules and is useful in frozen desserts, shortening, and margarine. A. Lecithin B. EDTA (Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid) C. Diglycerides D. Glycerol
Diglycerides Reason: At high temperatures, triglycerides are capable of rearranging into monoglycerides and diglycerides. Diglycerides are used in the food industry as emulsifiers.
Which set of directives best describes the management process? A. Controlling, directing, transforming, planning, staffing B. Planning, staffing, establishing objectives, organizing, directing C. Planning, staffing, controlling, establishing objectives, transforming D. Directing, controlling, organizing, staffing, planning
Directing, controlling, organizing, staffing, planning.
What is ozone used for in food processing? A. Freezing food B. Modifying atmospheric packaging C. Blanching vegetables D. Disinfecting and sanitizing
Disinfecting and sanitizing. Reason: Ozone is a safe but powerful disinfectant used by the food industry that has the ability to disinfect microorganisms without adding chemical by-products to the food being treated.
With regard to staff members having and consuming food and beverage items in patient care areas, Joint Commission standards A. Require that all food and beverages be consumed in break areas B. Do not specifically address this issue C. Prohibit food and drinks if contamination might occur. D. Require that an environment of care risk assessment be performed to address potential patient safety issues
Do not specifically address this issue
Which area in a kitchen usually has the least amount of light? A. Dry-storage B. Utensil-storage C. Preparation D. Inside reach-in refrigerator
Dry-storage Reason: Dry storage requires a minimum of 10-foot candles. Utensil-storage and inside reach-in refrigerator requires a minimum of 20-foot candles. Preparation requires a minimum of 50-foot candles.
What is the correct order of digestion, proximal to distal, of the small intestine? A. Duodenum, Jejunum, Ileum B. Ileum, Jejunum, Duodenum C. Jejunum, Duodenum, Ileum D. Duodenum, Ileum, Jejunum
Duodenum, Jejunum, Ileum
Which dietary reference intake value estimates the nutrient needs to meet the requirements of at least half of individuals in a population? A. RDA B. AI C. EAR D. UL
EAR
Which additive might be useful as a sequestrant to maintain whiteness of canned potatoes? A. Disodium phosphate B. EDTA (Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid) C. Guar gum D. Dipotassium phosphate
EDTA Reason: Sequestrants can be added to food to react with trace metals in foods- this prevents the decomposition of foods.
Which agency determines the safety of new pesticides and sets a tolerance level for all pesticides and their residue in food? A. FSIS B. USDA C. FDA D. EPA
EPA
Which of the following federal agencies has food safety responsibilities. A. The Joint Commission B. Partnership for Food Safety Education C. EPA D. Academy for Nutrition and Dietetics
EPA. Reason: EPA is the only government agency compared to The Joint Commission, Partnership for Food Safety Education, Academy for Nutrition and Dietetics.
In classical management theory, the unity of command specifies that A. Each unit should have a coordinated approach toward the same objective B. Each individual should be accountable to only one supervisor C. Each facility should have only one manager D. Authority and responsibility flow vertically from high to low
Each individual should be accountable to only one supervisor.
What is ozone used for in food processing? A. Freezing food B. Modifying atmospheric packaging C. Blanching vegetables D. Effectively disinfecting and sanitizing
Effectively disinfecting and sanitizing Reason: ozone is a safe, powerful disinfectant used by the food industry because of its ability to disinfect microorganisms without adding chemical byproducts to the food being treated, to the food processing water, or to the environment in which food is stored.
What word best describes doing things correctly or getting the most output from the least amount of input: A. Efficient B. Effective C. Economical D. Expedient
Efficient
Which word best describes doing things correctly or getting the most output from the least amount of input? A. Efficient B. Effective C. Economical D. Expedient
Efficient
Which of the following foods must a child with phenylketonuria avoid? A. Egg B. Banana C. Rice D. French Fries
Egg Reason: Children with phenylketonuria are unable to metabolize phenylalanine to tyrosine. Protein needs to be limited and all high protein foods including eggs, milk, cheese, nuts, beans, and meat should be avoided.
Which of the following foods does not contain carbohydrate? A. Tortilla B. Broccoli C. Lentils D. Egg
Egg.
EHR is the acronym for A. Evolving human resources B. Electronic health record C. Electronic health review D. Essential human resources
Electronic health record
The following blood test result puts a patient at greatest risk for developing heart disease A. Elevated cholesterol B. Low triglycerides C. Elevated low-density lipoprotein (LDL)-buoyant particles of cholesterol D. Elevated LDL dense particles of cholesterol
Elevated LDL dense particles of cholesterol
Which of the following is considered an output of a foodservice system? A. Distribution and Service B. Policies and procedures C. Employee satisfaction D. Menu
Employee satisfaction Reason: desired outcomes of a foodservice system are employee satisfaction, customer satisfaction, and financial accountability.
The Campinha-Bacote Model of Cultural Competence includes the interdependent constructs of cultural awareness, cultural knowledge, cultural skill, cultural desire, and cultural ______ A. Understanding B. Communication C. Encounter D. Integration
Encounter
To honor client autonomy in motivational interviewing, the food and nutrition professional.... A. Identified which foods the client should consume in smaller quantities B. Encourages the client choose which foods to eat C. Gives the client sage advice regarding dietary changes D. Accepts responsibility for the clients success or failure in following the recommended diet
Encourages the client to choose which foods to eat.
A patient with acute renal failure will have a higher need of which nutrient compared with a similar patient with optimal renal function? A. Protein B. Potassium C. Fluid D. Energy
Energy Reason: Studies have shown a significant and strong negative correlation between creatinine clearance and resting metabolic rate, indicating that energy expenditure increases as kidney function decreases.
A patient with acute renal failure will have an increased need of _____ compared with a person with optimal renal failure? A. Protein B. Potassium C. Fluid D. Energy
Energy. Reason: Energy expenditure increases as renal function decreases.
Motivational interviewing is best described as a style of counseling that: A. Challenges clients to face their issues of denial B. Helps clients establish contracts and follow rules C. Enhances intrinsic motivation and is person-centered, directive method of counseling D. Identified stages of change and guides the client toward action.
Enhances intrinsic motivation and is a person-centered, directive method of counseling.
During the menu planning process, the first component of the menu that one should address is the choice of _____ to be offered. A. Side dishes B. Breakfast items C. Desserts D. Entrees
Entrees.
What decisional roles does a manager perform when committing an organization to specific courses of action and/or determining unit strategy? A. Disseminator, leader, disturbance handler, and/or negotiator B. Monitor, resource allocator, entrepreneur, and/or figurehead C. Liaison, spokesperson, monitor, and/or disseminator D. Entrepreneur, resource allocator, disturbance handler, and/or negotiator
Entrepreneur, resource allocator, disturbance handler, and/or negotiator Reason: Managers perform 10 different roles grouped into 3 categories: interpersonal, informational, decisional. Decisional roles include: entrepreneur, disturbance handler, resource allocator, and/or negotiator
The term for the study of the distribution and determinants of disease frequency is: A. Meta-analysis B. Prevalence C. Incidence D. Epidemiology
Epidemiology
Having the same or similar outputs result from different inputs is called: A. Dynamic equilibrium B. Equifinality C. Synergy D. Interdependency
Equifinality. Reason: -Dynamic equilibrium: Steady state, continuous response and adaptation to environment. -Synergy: Units working together may have greater impact than each operating separately. -Interdependency: Each part affects performance of other parts leading to integration and synergy.
Which of the following elements is part of the Institute of Medicines (IOM) framework for healthcare quality? A. Institution focused B. Equitable C. Responsive to change D. Focused on choosing a process to improve
Equitable Reason: The IOM defines healthcare quality as care that is patient centered, equitable (no disparities), timely, safe, effective, and efficient.
HACCP principles must be considered in order. Which of the following is the fourth principle? A. Establish critical limits B. Establish monitoring procedures C. Establish procedures for record keeping and documentation D. Verify that the system works
Establish monitoring procedures Reason: HACCP principles in order are as follows: 1). Conduct a hazard analysis. 2). Determine critical control points. 3). Establish critical limits. 4). Establish monitoring procedures. 5). Identify corrective actions. 6). Verify that the system works. 7). Establish procedures for record keeping and documentation.
The first step toward attaining cultural competence is for the dietetics professional to ______. A. Examine his/her own cultural background B. Study the relevant cultural norms, values, and practicalities of the daily lives of clients C. Identify cultural variations in family relationships D. Note culturally-specific health benefits and practices
Examine his/her own cultural background
What name is given to air that is removed from a workspace and building through an HVAC system? A. Supply B. Return C. Exhaust D. Makeup
Exhaust Reason: In a typical HVAC system, supply air is received from outside the building and return air is recirculated from the office space.
Which is an example of upwards communication in an organization? A. Exit interview B. Newsletter C. Pay insert D. Policy manual
Exit interview Reason: Effective upward communication provides employees with an opportunity to have a say in what happens in an organization and for managers to receive vital information from lower levels in organization.
In what marketing lifestyle group are consumers categorized if they are young, impulsive, and seek variety, excitement, and risky activities? A. Innovators B. Makers C. Achievers D. Experiencers
Experiencers Reason: Innovators are described as having high income and high self-esteem. Makers are described as having lower income, having a focus on self-sufficiency, and are family oriented. Achievers are successful individuals who also tend to have higher incomes.
Participants are randomly assigned to follow one of three specific diet plans for 7 weeks to assess the impact of varying amounts of high-fructose corn syrup consumption on serum triglyceride levels. What kind of study is this? A. Experimental B. Case-control C. Qualitative D. Descriptive
Experimental
Which leadership powers tend to be related to subordinate satisfaction and performance? A. Expert, referent B. Legitimate, referent C. Referent, reward D. Reward, Legitimate
Expert and referent Reason: Expert leadership powers are viewed as competent; Referent leadership powers are well-liked. Legitimate leadership powers is based on the position within the organization; Reward leadership power allows the leader to award others.
Which statement best describes the "C" component of the FOCUS-PDSA performance improvement model? A. Identify a process to improve B. Develop a team C. Explain the current process D. Recognize sources of variation
Explain the current process Reason: Specifically "C" stands for Clarify current knowledge of the process.
In the ETHNIC model of culturally competent care, the "E" stands for: A. Education B. Empathy C. Explanation D. Expectations
Explanation. Reason: ETHNIC stands for: Explanation; Treatment; Healers; Negotiate; Intervention; Collaboration.
What production forecasting method would be used if an assumption was made that actual occurrences follow an identifiable pattern overtime? A. Exponential smoothing B. Moving average C. Linear Regression D. Both A and B
Exponential smoothing & moving average (Reason: Gregoire and Spears identified that the frequently used time series forecasting model involves the assumption that actual occurrences follow an identifiable pattern overtime).
In order to ensure quality and consistency, this agency established standards of identity for common food products. A. FTC (Federal Trade Commission) B. CDC C. USDA D. FDA
FDA
Standards of identity that specify minimum and maximum ingredient requirements, optional ingredients, and prohibited ingredients in a food product are established by which federal agency? A. FTC B. CDC C. USDA D. FDA
FDA
Which agency approves the use of food additives in breakfast cereal? A. USDA B. EPA C. FDA D. FTC
FDA
Which agency enforces provisions of the FD&C act prohibiting the sale of products with false advertising? A. USDA B. FTC (Federal Trade Commission) C. FDA D. IRS
FDA
Which agency has accepted genetically engineered foods as posing no risk to health or safety and does not require mandatory labeling of GMO`s if the food is substantially equivalent to the original in nutritional value? A. USDA B. FSIS C. FDA D. EPA
FDA
Which agency regulates production of canned green beans that are marketed across state lines? A. USDA B. FDA C. USDC D. Department of Treasury
FDA
Which federal agency regulates wines with less than 7% alcohol? A. FTC B. USDC C. FDA D. Department of Treasury
FDA Reason: The Alcohol and Tobacco Tax and Trade Bureau is responsible for oversight and regulation of all other alcoholic beverages.
Which governmental agency administers the Interstate Travel Sanitation Program, which allows agents to inspect foodservice on interstate carriers such as boats , planes, and trains? A. USDA FSIS B. CDC C. DOT (Department of Transportation) D FDA
FDA Reason: The FDA has the jurisdiction to set standards and monitor and inspect foodservice on all interstate carriers.
What is the primary regulatory agency responsible for the safety of imported fish? A. EPA B. FDA C. USDA D. USDIC
FDA Reason: This agency regulates the safety of imported food products.
What is the primary regulatory agency responsible for the safety of imported fish? A. EPA B. FDA C. USDA D. USDIC (US Department of International Commerce)
FDA.
Which agency would regulate the manufacturing of chicken noodle soup? A. Food Safety and Inspection Service (FSIS) B. FDA C. US Department of Commerce (USDC) D. US Public Health Service (USPHS)
FSIS Reason: This agency is responsible for the inspection of meat and poultry, including products made from them.
The safety and quality of meat and poultry imported to the US are overseen by the A. FDA B. FSIS (Food Safety and Inspection Service) C. USCO (US Customs Office D. USDC (US Department of Commerce)
FSIS (Food Safety and Inspections Service).
When assessing a population of preschoolers for acceptability of menu items, the most commonly used measurement tool has been the A. Food frequency questionnaire B. Facial hedonic scale C. Self-reported consumption data D. Food preference survey
Facial hedonic scale
Any menu item can fit into all foodservice types. A. TRUE B. FALSE
False
The FDA provides a strict definition for functional foods A. True B. False
False Reason: Currently no legal definition exists for functional foods.
The Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics takes the position that pediatric overweight intervention programs require a combo of the following programs? A. School based multi-component programs and community based interventions B. Family based multi component programs and environmental interventions C. Community based interventions and environmental interventions D. Family based and school based multi component programs
Family based and and school based multi component programs.
A restaurant that serves food on platters for everyone to share and pass around the table, has what kind of service style? A. Self-serve B. French style C. Family style D. American style
Family style. Reason: American style: food is plated in the kitchen and then placed in front of the customer. French style: food is prepared at the table.
Which of the following situations best describes why an older adult may become dehydrated? A. Fear of incontinence B. Living alone C. Low income D. Poor intake of fruit
Fear of incontinence
The largest hunger-relief organization in the United States is A. UNICEF B. Feeding America C. Meals on Wheels Association of America D. The Hunger Project
Feeding America Reason: UNICEF and The Hunger Project are international organizations; Meals on Wheels Association of America is not as large as Feeding America.
_____ is the process of converting carbohydrates to carbon dioxide, acids, and alcohol by yeast or bacteria. A. Dehydration B. Intoxication C. Fermentation D. Gelatinization
Fermentation
The standards established by the FDA include standards of identity, standards of minimum quality, and standards of A. Production B. Processing C. Labeling D. Fill
Fill Reason: FDA established the three "content" standards to protect consumers from deceptive manufacturing practices: standards of identity; standards of minimum quality, and standards of fill of container for food.
The USDA does not give quality grade marks for A. Fish B. Chicken C. Beef D. Lamb
Fish
Which of the following financial terms includes accumulated depreciation? A. Fixed assets B. Owners equity C. Liability D. Gross profit
Fixed assets Reason: Accumulated depreciation is the total depreciation of an asset up to a given date. This is then subtracted from the original cost of the item.
Which dish machine would be most efficient and effective for use in high-volume foodservice operations? A. Two-tank rack conveyor B. Flight-type continuous conveyor C. Corner, single-tank, door-type D. Spray, three-tank rack, door-type
Flight type continuous conveyor
ABC Hospital Food and Nutrition Department prepares and delivers meals to other health care operations in a large metropolitan area. Other hospital foodservices in the metropolitan area have recently begun offering meal delivery service. ABC Hospital modified its service to offer home meal replacements to the health care staff in addition to its other meal delivery service. ABC Hospital is using A. Strategic analysis B. Competitive advantage C. Focus strategy D. Strategic implementaton
Focus strategy
Which of the following elements is NOT part of the Institutes of Medicines (IOM) framework for health quality? A. Patient-centered B. Equitable C. Timely D. Focused on choosing a process to improve
Focused on choosing a process to improve. Reason: IOM defines health care quality as care that is patient centered, equitable, timely, safe, effective, and efficient.
An elevated homocysteine level could be an indicator of which deficiency? A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin C C. Biotin D. Folate
Folate Reason: Role of folate is to breakdown homocysteine, without adequate folate, homocysteine accumulates.
Which agency regulates the manufacturing of cream of chicken soup that contains almost no meat? A. FSIS (Food Safety and Inspection Service) B. FDA C. USDA D. USPHS (US Public Health Service).
Food and Safety Inspection Service (FSIS) (Reason: This agency is responsible for the inspection of canned product manufacturing).
The FDA, Food Safety and Inspection Service, and CDC jointly publish this reference document for regulatory agencies responsible for overseeing food safety in retail outlets. A. Food code B. Food law C. Food net D. Food regulations
Food code Reason: Released every 4 years.
The practices and attitudes that influence an individuals food choices are known as A. Food preferences B. Food habits C. Food satisfaction D. Food connection
Food habits Reason: Food habits are the practices and associated attitudes that predetermine what and when a person will eat VS. Food preferences are the foods a person likes to eat.
What is the condition in which individuals lack adequate physical, social, or economic access to food? A. Hunger B. Malnutrition C. Food insecurity D. Nutrient deprivation
Food insecurity
Joint Commission standards require that "nutritional assessments are conducted for patients not consistently reaching glucose targets." The intent of this standard is to identify if A. Food intake is creating blood glucose levels outside of the established glucose targets B. Patients are experiencing frequent episodes of hyperglycemia C. Patients are receiving too little enteral nutrition support D. Food intake variations are resulting in elevated A1c levels.
Food intake is creating blood glucose levels outside of the established glucose targets
What is the name for the CDC and Prevention food borne disease prevention program? A. Food Code B. FoodNet C. Food Surveillance D. Food Break
FoodNet Reason: This program is a collaborative effort of the CDC, FDA, USDA, and state and local health departments. This program collects data to better understand how food borne illness outbreaks occur.
Which of the following programs was designed to determine the burden of food borne disease in the US, monitor trends of specific food borne illnesses overtime, attribute the burden of food borne illness to specific foods and settings, and develop and assess interventions to reduce the burden of food borne illness? A. PulseNet B. FoodNet C. EHS-Net D. FightBac!
FoodNet. Reason: The other options were also established by the Food Safety Initiative; PulseNet: database used to determine if an outbreak is occurring. EHS-Net: collaborative forum of environmental health specialists. Fightbac: provides consumer education.
All of the following statements are true regarding CVD and women, except: A. Heart disease is the #1 killer in women b. The highest rates of cardiovascular morbidity and mortality occur in black women. C. For primary prevention, all women older than 40 should take a baby aspirin daily. D. Specific nutrition recommendations for women include quantitative limits on the amount of sugar consumed per week.
For primary prevention, all women older than 40 should take a baby aspirin daily.
A worksite weight management program is being planned for use with small groups of employees. A long-term goal is to reduce health care claims. During a pilot series, participants are asked to rate and comment on the relevance of the visuals, handouts, and activities. Results will be used in revising the program before widespread implementation. This is an example of A. Outcome evaluation B. Income evaluation C. Formative evaluation D. Impact evaluation
Formative evaluation
A community nutritionist can best elicit opinions as to why a particular nutrition program is not working by A. Forming a focus group B. Examining the results of the pre and post-test C. Sharing the problem with similar agencies D. Redefining the target population
Forming a focus group Reason: A focus group would allow nutritionists to solicit opinions from members of a target group regarding perceived needs and barriers, or even why certain programs aren't working.
_____ is a process that uses sublimation to prepare high-quality preserved foods A. Pulsed light processing B. Ozonation C. Modified atmospheric packaging D. Freeze-drying
Freeze drying Reason: Sublimation is defined as the transition from the frozen state directly to the gaseous state without liquefaction.
This process uses sublimation to prepare high-quality preserved foods. A. Pulsed light processing B. Ozonation C. Modified atmospheric packaging D. Freeze-drying
Freeze-drying Reason: This method involves freezing the food and reducing the surrounding pressure to allow the frozen water in the food to "sublimate" directly from the solid phase to the gas phase.
Which kind of damage results from dehydration of a frozen breaded chicken patty due to extreme cold? A. Caking B. Contamination due to excessive additives C. Crystallization D. Freezer burn
Freezer burn. Reason: Occurs as a result of dehydration and oxidation to frozen foods, commonly induced by substandard (non-airtight) packaging.
Which food is likely to be irradiated to inhibit deterioration due to mold formation? A. Soda pop B. Fresh strawberries C. Poultry D. Ground beef
Fresh strawberries Reason: Fruits and veggies are prone to destruction by mold. Irradiation prolongs shelf life by reducing growth of spoilage bacteria and mold by inhibiting sprouting and maturation.
Which food would be most likely to contain propyl gallate? A. Gelatin dessert B. Nonfat dry milk dessert C. Frozen pork sausage D. Canned tomatoes
Frozen pork sausage Reason: Propyl gallate is an antioxidant added to foods to prevent the oxidation of of fats and oils in foods
"US Fancy" is a quality designation used for _____. A. processed cheese products. B. milk and dairy products. C. eggs. D. fruits and vegetables.
Fruits and vegetables Reason: US Fancy vegetables are of premium quality; more uniform shape with fewer defects.
"US Fancy" is a quality designation used for _____. A. processed cheese products. B. milk and dairy products. C. eggs. D. fruits and vegetables.
Fruits and vegetables Reason: US Fancy means premium quality; fewer defects and more uniform shape.
What decision making technique focuses on the highest gains with the smallest amount of losses, regardless of what the competitor does? A. Game theory B. Simulation C. Artificial intelligence D. Queuing theory
Game theory Reason: Simulation uses devices for imitating real-life occurrences and studying their properties, behaviors, and operating characteristics. Artificial intelligence attempts to duplicate the thought processes of experienced decision makers. Queuing balances the cost of waiting lines against the cost of preventing them by expanding facilities.
The hormone released by gastric cells in response to food in the stomach is A. Gastrin B. Secretin C. Cholecystokinin D. Chymotrypsin
Gastrin
Which additive derived from collagen might be used in a frozen dessert as a stabilizer, thickener, and texturized? A. Gum ghatti B. Modified food starch C. Gelatin D. Corn syrup
Gelatin
Which of the following gastrointestinal hormones has the effect of increasing appetite? A. Cholecystokinin B. Ghrelin C. Enterostatin D. Peripheral Hormone Peptide YY (PHP YY)
Ghrelin Reason: Ghrelin is produced by the epithelial cells lining the fundus of the stomach.
Which of the following gastrointestinal hormones has the effect of increasing the consumption of food? A. Cholecystokinin B. Ghrelin C. Enterostatin D. Peripheral Hormone Peptide YY
Ghrelin. Reason: Appetite stimulant but also a strong stimulant of growth hormone secretion from the anterior pituitary.
Of the following food borne microorganisms, which of the following is considered a parasite? A. Shigella B. Staph. aureus C. Hep. A D. Giardia duodenalis
Giardia duodenalis Reason: Hep A is a virus and Shigella and Staph aureus are bacterias.
Which of the following glucose-lowering medications would require patient education about treatment of hypoglycemia? A. Metformin (Glucophage) B. Sitagliptin (Januvia) C. Pioglitazone (Actos) D. Glimepride (Amaryl)
Glimepride (Amaryl) Reason: This is the only secretagogue - mechanism of action is stimulating the pancreas to make insulin, therefore resulting in the possibility of low blood sugar levels.
In order to absorb folate consumed from green leafy vegetables, what must occur? A. Phosphate groups must be removed by the action of alkaline phosphatase B. Glutamate must be transaminated to for alpha-ketoglutarate C. Glutamic acid molecules must be removed D. Glutamic acid molecules must be added
Glutamic acid molecules must be removed. Reason: Food folate contains multiple glutamic acid molecules whereas folic acid, the folate form found in supplements, contains only one glutamic acid.
Which of the following AA is classified as non-essential? A. Valine B. Lysine C. Glycine D. Threonine
Glycine Reason: Essential AA include: Histidine, Isoleucine, Leucine, Lysine, Methionine, Phenylalanine, Threonine, Tryptophan and Valine. (Acronym: HILL MVPTT)
Which of the following is not a sugar alcohol? A. Sorbitol B. Xylitol C. Mannitol D. Glycogen
Glycogen.
Evidenced Based Medicine (EBM) involves grading evidence to support clinical guidelines and guide practice recommendations. Which of the following statements is valid regarding the Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics system? A. Grade I indicates strong evidence to support a recommendation B. Grade I indicates minimal evidence to support a recommendation C. Grade I indicates expert opinion to support a recommendation D. Grade I indicates fair evidence to support a recommendation
Grade I indicates strong evidence to support a recommendation
Which of the following foods is considered a whole grain and meets the NSLP standards for whole grain? A. Pearled barley B. Graham flour C. Hominy D. Semolina
Graham flour Reason: All the other options have been milled while Graham flour is the only option that has not been milled.
Which is an example of a food preserved by lowering the water activity of the food by adding a solute? A. Canned corn B. Sun-dried tomatoes C. Frozen peas D. Grape jelly
Grape jelly Reason: solutes such as sugar are added to jams and jellies same as salt in cured meats, inhibits microbial growth by lowering water activity. -Canning does not lower water activity; Freezing only forms ice crystals; the low water activity of sun-dried tomatoes is a result of removing the water, not the addition of a solute.
In developing a community nutrition intervention, a logic model A. Graphically shows how various elements of planning lead to intended outcomes B. Provides a detailed budget that addresses various types of costs of the project C. Is used primarily for planning rather than implementation or evaluation D. Illustrates the underlying educational philosophies used in the intervention.
Graphically shows how various elements of planning lead to intended outcomes. Reason: The logic model is used in program planning, implementation, and evaluation.
Which of the following foods is likely to be consumed by a lacto-vegetarian? A. Scrambled eggs B. Tuna fish salad C. Hamburger D. Grilled cheese sandwich
Grilled cheese sandwich.
What financial information is obtained by subtracting cost of goods sold from total sales in a given period. A. Gross profit B. Net profit C. Final profit D. Operating costs
Gross profit. Reason: Net profit: expenses subtracted from gross profit; Final profit is another word for Net profit; Operating costs are just expenses.
Which of the following foods is least likely to pose a choking risk for toddlers? A. Ground beef B. Nuts C. Popcorn D. Round candy
Ground beef
The most influential perception factor in a persons selection of a particular food is A. Olfactory B. Mouthfeel and texture C. Visual D. Gustatory
Gustatory Reason: Meaning taste
What is the name of the substance that denatures protein in the stomach during digestion? A. Chymotrypsin B. Elastase C. Pepsin D. HCL
HCL Reason: Chymotrypsin: pancreatic digestive enzyme that catalyzes the hydrolysis of certain proteins in the small intestine into polypeptides and AA. Elastase: enzyme found in pancreatic juice that catalyzes the the hydrolysis of Elastin. Pepsin: digestive enzyme found in gastric juice that catalyzes the breakdown of proteins to peptides.
______ What is an acronym for essential AA, name them:
HILL MVP Try Thre: Histidine, isoleucine, leucine, lysine methionine, valine, phenylalanine, threonine, tryptophan.
To characterize the principles of motion economy, what term should be added to the following list: simultaneous, symmetrical, natural, rhythmic? A. Habitual B. Intermittent C. Minimize D. Idle
Habitual
The green radura indicates that a food A. Has been certified as organic B. Has been irradiated to lengthen shelf life C. Has been tested for hypoallergenic properties D. Has been wrapped in modified-atmospheric packaging
Has been irradiated to lengthen shelf life. Reason: This symbol usually is green and resembles a plant in a circle. Petals represent the food; central circle represents the radiation source; broke circle represents the rays from the energy source. Packages with these symbols must also contain wording as follows: "Treated with radiation or Treated by radiation."
It would be appropriate to recommend the use of meal replacements for weight loss to a client who: A. Has no more than 20 lbs. to lose B. Has difficulty with portion control C. Habitually eats late at night D. Does not engage in physical activity
Has difficulty with portion control
A report indicates that survivors of massive earthquake who are 24 months of age or younger have an RR for cholera of 3.3. This means that children who are 24 months of age or younger who are living in an earthquake devastated-area A. Are approximately 30% more likely to develop cholera than children of this age who live outside the post-earthquake area B. Have more than 3x greater risk of developing cholera than children of this age who live outside the post-eathquake area C. Have approximately 30% lower risk of developing cholera than children of this age who live outside the post-earthquake area D. Are one-third as likely to develop cholera as children of this age who live outside the post earthquake area
Have more than 3x greater risk of developing cholera than children of this age who live outside the post-earthquake area Reason: RR stands for Relative Risk. If RR>1.0, the exposed group are at greater risk of disease than the unexposed group.
Which of the following situations reduces a managers span of control? A. Managing less complicated work B. Having a greater geographical dispersion of workers C. Receiving expert advice from colleagues or superiors D. Using clear and comprehensive policies
Having a greater geographical dispersion of workers
Which of the following has been listed as an essential element in the provision of culturally competent community nutrition programming? A. Standardizing service delivery on the basis of understanding cultural diversity B. Having institutionalized cultural knowledge C. Minimizing the unplanned interactions of people from different cultures D. Having the capacity to avoid self-assessing the cultural diversity of others.
Having institutionalized cultural knowledge.
All of the following are criteria for the diagnosis of Diabetes, EXCEPT A. Fasting plasma glucose ≥125 mg/dL B. HbA1c ≤6.5% C. 2-hour plasma glucose ≥200 mg/dL during an oral glucose tolerance test D. A random plasma glucose ≥200 mg/dL in a person with classic symptoms of hyperglycemia or hyperglycemic crisis
HbA1c ≤6.5%
Encouraging pregnant mothers to attend a seminar on the benefits of breastfeeding and offering supportive counseling post-partum to continue breastfeeding are examples of A. Public health nutrition B. Health promotion C. Primary prevention D. Secondary prevention
Health promotion
The CDC and Prevention growth charts are appropriate for A. Healthy infants B. Children with cerebral palsy C. Children with Down Syndrome D. Premature infants weighing less than 1500 g at birth
Healthy infants
The CDC growth charts are appropriate for: A. Healthy infants B. Children with Cerebral palsy C. Children with Down Syndrome D. Premature infants weighing less than 1500 g.
Healthy infants.
When making omelets using induction - the use of electrical magnetic fields to excite the molecules of metal surfaces- you notice A. Heating is fast, even, and there is no flame B. Heating is fast, uneven, and there is an open flame C. Heating is slow, even, and there is an open flame D. Heating is slow, uneven, and there is no flame
Heating is fast, even, and there is no flame
Which of the following is a characteristic typically associated with the discussion method of teaching? A. Helps learners master higher level cognitive objectives. B. Appeals to several of the learners senses simultaneously. C. Works well for accomplishing objectives in the psychomotor domain. D. Provides the instructor with most control of the teaching-learning situation than most other methods.
Helps learners master higher-level cognitive objectives (Reason: Cognitive domain involves knowledge and the development of intellectual skills. This serves in the development of learning).
Oxidative rancidity occurs in foods that have a A. High saturated FA content B. High unsaturated FA content C. High protein content D. High moisture content
High unsaturated FA content Reason: Double bonds can undergo cleavage resulting in oxidative rancidity. Primarily occurs with unsaturated FA.
What toxin is commonly linked to tuna, bonito, mackerel, and mahimahi? A. Anisakis simplex B. Vibro vulnificus C. Histamine D. Ciguatoxin
Histamine Reason: Anisakis simplex is a parasite commonly linked with cod, halibut, mackerel, and pacific salmon. Vibe vulnificus is a bacteria commonly linked to oysters from contaminated water. Ciguatoxin is commonly linked to barracuda, grouper, jack, snapper.
Which of the following is an essential AA? A. Alanine B. Histidine C. Proline D. Tyrosine
Histidine Reason: HILL MVPTT
Commercial and onsite food service operations share many similarities in their subsystems. Some characteristics are unique to a type of operation. A commercial buffet restaurant and a school nutrition program are distinguished by: A. How food is distributed and served B. How food is procured C. How sanitation is maintained D. How food is produced
How food is distributed and served.
When considering cows milk vs. human breastmilk, which of the following is true? A. Human milk contains less protein B. Human milk provides more calcium C. Cows milk provides less potassium and sodium D. Cows milk contains a lower proportion of casein compared to whey protein.
Human milk contains less protein
Which of the following sets of resources is a core concept of management principles? A. Human, physical, financial B. Human, emotional, financial C. Financial, authoritative, physical D. Physical, authoritative, financial
Human, physical, financial
________ describes a process used to make fats and oils more solid at room temperature. A. Cold pressing B. Winterizing C. Polymerization D. Hydrogenation
Hydrogenation Reason: This process involves the addition of hydrogen atoms to carbon atoms; results in the conversion of oils containing unsaturated fats into those containing saturated fats.
The DASH diet has been shown to be beneficial for which medical condition? A. Diabetes B. Hypertension C. Heart failure D. COPD
Hypertension
A 72-year old woman with Chronic Heart Failure and symptomatic edema who is on enteral feeding is treated with thiazide medication. What would you expect her labs to reveal as a result of this medication and its delivery method? A. Hypokalemia B. Hypernatremia C. Hypocalcemia D. Hypoglycemia
Hypokalemia Reason: Thiazide is a diuretic that pulls potassium from the blood.
The one part of the brain that is critical to regulating hunger and satiety is A. Cerebral cortex B. Cerebellum C. Hypothalamus D. Medulla
Hypothalamus
Which statement best describes the F component of the FOCUS-PDSA performance improvement model? A. Identify a process to improve B. Develop a team C. Explain the current process D. Maintain and continue improvement
Identify a process to improve
The purpose of the nutrition diagnosis step in the NCP is to: A. Identify the medical diagnosis of the client B. Plan interventions to address the nutrition problem C. Determine interventions, goals, and expected outcomes D. Identify and label the nutrition problem
Identify and label the nutrition problem
The first step in conducting a community needs assessment is to: A. Describe the problem and state why a needs assessment is necessary B. Specify the data needed and design a plan for acquiring it C. Determine the purpose, goals, and objectives of the needs assessment D. Identify the target population and nutrition problem of concern
Identify the target population and nutrition problem of concern.
In which of the following circumstances does a product that was previously exempt from bearing a nutrition facts label lose this exemption? A. If the package design changes B. If a nutrition claim is made C. If the food is now given free to consumers or donated D. If the product provides no significant nutritional benefits
If a nutrition claim is made
What should you do when a food item is not at proper temperature when it is brought to the service line? A. Serve the food within an hour B. If it has been less than 2 hours since it was prepared, throw it out. C. If it has been less than 2 hours since it was prepared,reheat it to the proper temperature D. None of the above
If it has been less than 2 hours since it was prepared, reheat it to the proper temperature
The populations that experience the most serious consequences of food borne illnesses are: A. Immunocompromised individuals, due to medical conditions B. Teenagers C. Women of childbearing age D. Both A and C
Immunocompromised individuals, due to medical conditions.
If the community nutritionist questions whether the new educational activities provided for SNAP recipients are achieving the intended increase in fresh vegetable intake, the best approach would be to conduct a(n)_____ evaluation. A. Efficiency B. Process C. Structure D. Impact
Impact
If the community nutritionist is concerned that the new educational activities provided for SNAP recipients have been ineffective in increasing the amount of fresh vegetables consumed, the best approach would be to conduct which type of evaluation? A. Efficiency B. Process C. Structure D. Impact
Impact Reason: Impact evaluation assesses whether the programs methods and activities resulted in the desired changes for the client.
Which statement best describes the "D" component of the PDSA performance improvement model? A. Determine how changes will be implemented B. Implement the intervention C. Determine the impact of the intervention D. Maintain and continue improvement.
Implement the intervention.
Which of the following is completed as part of the third step in the NCP? A. Identifying whether or not intake is adequate or excessive compared to actual or estimated needs B. Assessing nutrition problems that relate to medical or physical conditions C. Interpreting lab data and tests D. Implementing appropriate nutrition interventions that are tailored to the patients needs
Implementing appropriate nutrition interventions that are tailored to the patients needs Reason: NCP comprises ADIME (Assessment, Diagnosis, Intervention, Monitoring and Evaluation).
The usual purpose of summative evaluation: A. Compare the extent of learning between and among learners B. Reduce the cost-benefit ratio of teaching and learning C. Improve the programs delivery and effectiveness D. Determine opportunities for expansion and enhancement of entrepreneurship in education
Improve the programs delivery and effectiveness
The best way to address the mortality rate associated with low-birthweight and preterm infants is by: A. Improving the birthweight of newborn infants B. Reducing the incidence of pica among pregnant women C. Improving the infant formulas for LBW and preterm infants D. Increasing the emphasis on breastfeeding on hospitals
Improving the birthweight of newborn infants Reason: Birthweight is directly correlated with infant mortality.
For Chinese Americans, challenges to dietary compliance typically include which of the following? A. Inability to control portion sizes B. Reliance on non-nutritive herbs for flavor and color C. Size of portions is dictated by status in the family and community D. Frequent fasting in association with religious holidays
Inability to control portion sizes Reason: The other options are not typical of Chinese American culture.
A research article describes the risk of developing obesity among African American youth in County A over 5 years. This is an example of what rate? A. Incidence B. Prevalence C. Epidemiology D. Hazard
Incidence. Reason: Incidence describes the rate of development a disease over a specific period of time.
Nutrition informatics: A. Involves solely the use and management of electronic health records B. Includes the function/activity that combines information, nutrition, and technology C. Refers to the industry for weight-loss smartphone apps D. Is the name of a menu software program
Includes the function/activity that combines information, nutrition, and technology.
The two financial statements primarily used by foodservice managers to analyze operational effectiveness are the A. Inventory valuation record and the budget B. Balance sheet and inventory valuation record C. Budget and income statement D. Income statement and balance sheet
Income statement and balance sheet Reason: The balance sheet is a list of assets, liabilities, and capital. The income statement is a financial statement that shows all operating results for a desired time period.
The objectives of a patient-centered counseling for dietary change are to increase awareness of diet-related risks, provide nutrition knowledge, enhance skills to promote long-term changes in intake, and _____. A. Reinforce patient values B. Increase confidence for making dietary changes C. Solicit social support from family members and friends D. Identify and maximize external barriers to change
Increase confidence for making dietary changes Reason: A,C,D are all for helping clients make changes.
The implementation of more liberal food choices in the menu planning process for long-term-care (LTC) settings has been associated with which of the following? A. Increased risk for obesity among LTC residents B. Increased nutrient and fluid intake among LTC residents C. Reduced nutrient and fluid intake among LTC residents D. Reduced customer satisfaction
Increased nutrient and fluid intake among LTC residents
As the time span and/or distance between the finishing point of food production and service to the customer increases, the needs and costs associated with distribution systems and equipment for successful service to the customer: A. Decreases B. Stays the same C. Increases D. Fluctuates
Increases.
What type of budget uses the existing budget as a base and projects changes for the ensuing year in relation to the current budget? A. Fixed B. Incremental C. Flexible D. Zero-based
Incremental Reason: Fixed budgets (or static budgets) do not change based on variations in business. Flexible budgets are able to change depending on business activity.
The variable that is manipulated in an experimental research study is the A. Dependent variable B. Independent variable C. Population variable D. Individual variable
Independent variable
The standards of Practice are structured to include the Standards, Rationales, Examples of Outcomes, and ______. A. Goals B. Targets C. Processes D. Indicators
Indicators Reason: These are measurable and quantifiable actions or statements.
In the Campinha-Bacote Model, cultural competence originates in the ______. A. Individual B. Family C. Community D. Society
Individual
The dominant force in how a patient views health care is likely to be A. Social hierarchy B. Race C. Individual experience D. Ethnicity
Individual experience
Which of the following is NOT included in the statin benefit group according to the 2013 American College of Cardiology (ACC)/American Heart Association (AHA) Guidelines on the treatment of Blood Cholesterol to Reduce Atherosclerotic Cardiovascular Risk in Adults? A. Individuals with elevations in LDL cholesterol >190 mg/dL B. Individuals 40-75 years of age with diabetes and LDL cholesterol between 70 and 189 mg/dL C. Individuals with clinical atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease (ASCVD) D. Individuals without ASCVD, diabetes metillus between the ages of 40 and 75 and who have a 10 year risk of 5.5%.
Individuals without ASCVD, diabetes metillus between the ages of 40 and 75 and who have a 10 year risk of 5.5%.
Which of the following population groups of children does research show to have a higher prevalence of iron deficiency? A. School-age children and children 3-5 years of age B. Infants and school-age children C. Infants and adolescents D. Children 3-5 years of age and adolescents
Infants and adolescents Reason: Children with high intakes of milk and who are experiencing a high rate of growth have a higher prevalence of iron deficiency.
Nutrition informatic is the intersection of: A. Agriculture, technology, and science B. Information, nutrition, and technology C. Dietetics, computer science, and medicine D. Dietetics, medicine, and technology
Information, nutrition, and technology
According to the NCP, if a client takes self-prescribed therapeutic doses of Vitamin C, this information should be recorded in the ____ section of the Nutrition Diagnosis A. Intake B. Clinical C. Behavioral-environmental D. Nutrition knowledge
Intake
When preparing a PES statement in situations where there are diagnosis from multiple domains, the dietetics professional should give preference to the diagnosis related to: A. Intake B. Physical conditions C. Knowledge D. Food safety
Intake
In the Nutrition Care Process, it is expected that all Nutrition Diagnoses will fall within one of three domains- clinical, behavioral-environmental, and ____. A. Social B. Ethnic/cultural C. Anthropometric D. Intake
Intake Reason: The three domains in the nutrition diagnoses area are: clinical, behavioral-environmental and dietary intake.
Which of the following statements is accurate concerning fruit juice? A. Intake of juice should be limited to 4-6 oz per day for children 1-6 years of age B. Juice may be introduced at 4 months of age C. juice should be given in the bedtime bottle to help infants sleep all night D. It is safe to give young children unpasteurized juice
Intake of juice should be limited to 4-6 oz per day for children 1-6 years of age
Which of the following characteristics is key to an efficient and effective system? A. Continuous response and adaptation to the system B. Flow of resources C. Interdependency of parts D. Achievement of subunit objectives
Interdependency of parts
What characteristic is KEY to an efficient and effective system? A. Continuous response and adaptation to the system B. Flow of resources C. Interdependency of parts D. Achievement of subunit objectives
Interdependency of parts.
Which of the following is designed to examine how effectively an organization is utilizing its assets? A. Assets to liabilities B. Debt to equity C. Inventory turnover D. Break-even point
Inventory turnover Reason: Assets to liability ratio calculates the percentage of assets provided by debt. The debt to equity ratio tells what percentage of the companys assets are funded by shareholders equity and debt. The breakeven point is where expenses and revenue are equal.
Which ratio is designed to examine how effectively an organization is utilizing its assets? A. Assets to Liabilities B. Debt to Equity C. Inventory Turnover D. Break-even point
Inventory turnover. Reason: The assets-to-liabilities ratio calculates the percentage of assets provided by debt. The debt to equity ratio calculates the percentage of the company`s assets are funded by shareholders equity and debt. The breakeven point is where expenses and revenue are equal.
To calculate food costs for a specific month, managers would add the costs of purchases to the value of the _____ at the beginning of the month and then subtract the value of the ____ at the end of the month. A. Accounts receivable, accounts payable B. Accounts payable, accounts receivable C. Gross sales, net sales D. Inventory, inventory
Inventory, inventory
The hydrolysis of sucrose with an acid to form a mixture that has equal amounts of fructose and glucose is known as A. Inversion B. Reversion C. Ripening D. Crystallization
Inversion Reason: this results when a sugar solution is boiled with the addition of an acid.
Currently, which of the following nutrients is determined to be the most deficient among children and adolescents in the US? A. Calcium B. Fiber C. Vitamin A D. Iron
Iron
During their peak growth spurt, adolescent males are at greatest risk for a deficiency of A. Protein B. Copper C. Iron D. Phosphorus
Iron
A 2 year old child who drinks large quantities of milk and very little solid food is at risk for A. Diabetes mellitus B. Food allergies C. Iron-deficiency anemia D. Short stature
Iron deficiency anemia
When introducing infants to solid food, which of the following is recommended to be given first? A. Iron-fortified rice cereal B. Iron-fortified oatmeal cereal C. Iron-fortified wheat cereal D. Pureed meats
Iron-fortified rice cereal
Resilient flooring A. Is able to withstand shock without cracking or breaking B. Is easily damaged by sharp edges C. Is curved with a sealed edge that eliminates sharp edges D. Is not slippery when wet
Is able to withstand shock without cracking or breaking
A supervisor noted that the quality of work produced by an employee was declining because of excessive tardiness. The best initial course of action would be A. Dismiss the employee for not working enough hours B. Report the employee to the facility manager C. Issue a verbal warning to the employee D. Transfer the employee to a flex-time position
Issue a verbal warning to the employee.
Which of the following describes the term validity? A. It refers to the consistency and accuracy with which a test measures something in the same way over time. B. It ensures that there is a blueprint that describes all aspects of instruction C. It indicates whether we are measuring what we intend to measure D. It is established through the inclusion of cognitive and affective objectives.
It indicates whether we are measuring what we intend to measure.
Choose the statement that best describes the function of Copper? A. It is involved in taste perception B. It is a component of the thyroid hormone C. It is necessary for the formation of hemoglobin D. It enhances insulin activity
It is necessary in the formation of hemoglobin.
Which of the following is a disadvantage of a cohort study? A. It is difficult to define characteristics of the participants B. It is difficult, if not impossible, to validate data C. It is rarely possible to study the mechanism of disease D. Incidence rates among participants cannot be calculated
It is rarely possible to study the mechanism of disease. Reason: -Case control studies: disadvantage is the ability to validate data.
For a food to be labeled as "healthy," what must be true for each serving? A. It provides at least 25% DRV for vitamins A and C B. It contains no more than 75 mg of cholesterol C. It contains no more than 140 mg of sodium D. It meets standards for low-fat and saturated-fat foods.
It meets standards for low-fat and saturated-fat foods.
Which of the following would be a characteristic of a flavor enhancer? A. It will be present at threshold levels B. It will be present at sub-threshold levels C. It must have an amino-acid-based compound D. It must have umami flavor
It will be present at sub-threshold levels Reason: A flavor enhancer is added to foods to enhance the products taste profile, without adding a recognizable flavor of its own. Adding an ingredient to a formula that can change the flavor profile without being noticeable is added at the sub-threshold level. (Ex: adding salt to increase the sweetness of a product, without being able to taste the salt). Flavor enhancers can be amino-acid compounds like MSG, salt, acids, sugars.
Which of the following is not true of Jewish food practices? A. Kosher means "blessed by a Rabbi" B. The food traditions of Ashkenazi jews are rooted in those of France, Germany, and Eastern Europe C. Jews keeping Kosher are permitted to eat dairy and meat items in the same meal D. According to Kosher laws, Jews may eat rabbit
Jews keeping Kosher are permitted to eat dairy and meat items in the same meal Reason: One of the major dietary laws for Kosher-observant Jews is that dairy and meat are not eaten in the same meal.
What organization created standards for cultural competence that resulted in the 2014 publication of a monograph to inspire hospitals to integrate cultural competence as well as other patient-and family-centered care concepts? A. The Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics B. US Department of Education C. USDHHS D. Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations
Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations
What name is given to the purchasing method that involves purchasing products as needed for production and immediate consumption without having to store and record products in inventory? A. Centralized B. Group C. Just-in-time D. Independent
Just-in-Time
Which of the following foods should a pregnant woman avoid? A. King mackerel B. Tuna C. Trout D. Shrimp
King mackerel. Reason: King mackerel has a high mercury content.
The MOST important fundamental key when menu planning is A. Knowing the audience B. Equipment C. Budget D. All of the above
Knowing the audience
What component of serum cholesterol do plant stannous/sterols lower? A. Total cholesterol B. HDL C. Triglycerides D. LDL
LDL Reason: Plant stannous are often utilized in place of stanins for lowering LDL for individuals who are unable to tolerate statins.
What valuation method is being used when inventory is valued by assuming that newer items are used before older items? A. FIFO B. LIFO C. Latest purchase price D. Weighted average
LIFO
Initially, a dietetics professional undertaking Nutrition Diagnosis as part of the Nutrition Care Process should identify and ___ a specific nutrition problem that he or she is responsible for treating independently. A. Manage B. Label C. Measure D. Coordinate
Label Reason: Purpose of Nutrition diagnosis is to LABEL the issue.
The pathway of glucose to pyruvate during anaerobic conditions results in A. Acetyl CoA B. Carbon Dioxide C. Fatty acids D. Lactic acids
Lactic acid. Reason: Aerobic conditions: Pyruvate → Acetyl Coa; Anaerobic conditions: Pyruvate → lactate
When utilizing support personnel in the delivery of customer-centered care, the Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics Standards of Professional Performance state that the registered dietitian nutritionist is expected to utilize support personnel in accordance with: A. Law, regulations, and organization policies B. Rules of ethical practice, Joint Commission standards, and effective outcomes C. Established practices, organizational needs, and rules of ethical practice D. Regulations, Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics standards, and established directives
Laws, regulations, and organization policies. Reason: According to Standard 3.5 of the AND SOPP for RD`s, dietitians are expected to "utilize support personnel appropriately in the delivery of customer-centered care in accordance with laws, regulations, and organization policies.
Which term best describes the detailed arrangement of kitchen equipment, floor, and counter space? A. Design B. Layout C. Product flow D. Traffic flow
Layout.
Which of the following foods would not be considered safe for consumption? A. Eggs cooked to 165*F B. Pasteurized cider C. Medium steak D. Leftovers reheated to 160*F
Leftovers reheated to 160*F Reason: Consuming undercooked foods that are not reheated to the proper temperature can result in food borne illness.
Public health policy is generally created by A. Legislators B. Judges and Magistrates C. Political action committees D. The president and the cabinet
Legislators
Which "leadership powers" appear to be most important for compliance A. Expert, referent B. Legitimate, expert C. Referent, reward D. Reward, legitimate
Legitimate, expert
Wheat does not contain enough lysine for humans to synthesize proteins from wheat alone. Thus, in wheat, lysine is considered to be a(n) _____. A. Incomplete protein B. Inadequate protein C. Nonessential protein D. Limiting amino acid
Limiting amino acid
The food and nutrition director and the food production manager discuss productivity of the tray line setup. The food production manager agrees to recognize the tray lines hot and cold food stations. This interaction is an example of A. Linking processes B. Control C. Coordinating elements D. Functional subsystems
Linking processes Reason: Linking processes of decision making, communication, and balance, are needed to coordinate the transformation from inputs to outputs. In this example- the food and nutrition director and food production manager discuss productivity (input) and the manager agrees to make the change (output)
Which of the following best represents transformation processes for a foodservice system? A. Following standards, communication, management functions B. Management functions, establishing goals and objectives, linking processes C. Linking processes, management functions, functional subsystems D. Functional subsystems, management functions, following standards
Linking processes, management functions, functional subsystems Reason: The transformation process for a foodservice system involves actions or activities used in changing inputs to outputs, and includes functional subsystems, management functions, and linking processes.
Which grouping of words best represents transformation processes for a foodservice system? A. Following standards, communication, management functions B. Linking processes, management functions, functional subsystems C. Management functions, establishing goals/objectives, linking processes D. Functional subsystems, management functions, following standards
Linking processes, management functions, functional subsystems.
Which FA are essential and must be obtained by eating foods containing these FA? A. Linoleic and alpha linolenic FA B. Cis monounsaturated FA C. Trans FA D. Saturated FA
Linoleic and alpha-Linolenic FA.
Which of the following ratios indicates an organizations ability to meet current financial obligations? A. Liquidity B. Operating C. Activity D. Profitability
Liquidity Reason: "Current" signifies within 12 months. Operating ratios: indicate an organizations success in generating sales and controlling expenses. Activity ratios: examine how effectively an organization utilizes its assets Profitability ratios: Measure an organizations ability to generate profit in relation to sales.
When a client is knowledgeable about a hyperlipidemia diet and is able to devise healthy meal plans, but has moderate readiness in independently following the Nutrition care plan. To be most effective in meeting the clients needs, what would be the RDN`s approach? A. Continue to provide dietary instructions to the client and closely monitor compliance B. Help the client gain confidence through listening, advising, and coaching C. Listen to the client. Encourage and support the skills the client has developed. D. Turn over the responsibility for nutrition care to the client.
Listen to the client. Encourage and support the skills the client has developed.
A foodborne illness often associated with deli meats that has an onset time of 3-7 days; causes nausea, vomiting, headache, chills, backache, and meningitis; and has a high fatality rate in the immunocompromised: A. C. perfrigens B. L. monocytogenes C. Shigella D. S. aureus
Listeria monocytogenes
Which of the following illnesses is most commonly linked to raw meat, unpasteurized dairy products, and ready-to-eat foods such as hot dogs, deli meats, and soft cheeses? A. Bacillus cereus B. Clostridium botulinum C. Clostridium perfringens D. Listeria monocytogenes
Listeria monocytogenes
Where in the body is Vitamin D hydroxylated to 25-hydroxyvitamin D? A. Kidney B. Liver C. Skin D. Blood
Liver Reason: It is first hydroxylated in the liver (25-hydroxylase) and then in the kidney (1a hydroxylase).
Glycogenolysis is the breakdown of glycogen into glucose. This occurs in the cells of the _____. A. Stomach and Small Intestine. B. Liver and Muscle C. Kidney and Brain D. Small intestine and Kidney.
Liver and muscle
A group of registered dietitian nutritionists meets with a member of the legislature to encourage her support for an important nutrition issue. This activity is known as: A. Lobbying B. Advocacy C. Sponsorship D. Petitioning
Lobbying Reason: Advocacy is when an individual or a group aims to influence political decisions. Sponsorship is when a legislator endorses and introduces a bill. Petitioning is when a group signs a written request asking for a legislator to pass a bill.
The best studied and most frequently recommended weight-loss dietary strategy is A. Low carb, high protein diet B. Low fat, high protein diet C. Low fat, reduced energy diet D. Low carb, reduced energy diet
Low fat, reduced energy diet
Vision problems in older adults may be due to dietary factors such as A. Excess intake of sodium B. Low intake of antioxidant nutrients C. Excess intake of fat and cholesterol D. Low intake of b-vitamins
Low intake of antioxidant nutrients Reason: Antioxidants repair cell damage
At what levels do leptin and ghrelin promote excess food intake? A. Low leptin, high ghrelin B. High leptin, low ghrelin C. Low leptin, low ghrelin D. High leptin, high ghrelin
Low leptin, high ghrelin.
Metabolic acidosis is characterized by what physiological changes? A. Low pH and low bicarbonate B. High Co2 and low pH C. High Co2 and normal HCO3 D. Normal pH and high bicarbonate
Low pH and low bicarbonate
Which of the following is NOT a defined nutrient content claim? A. Low fat B. Low sugar C. Low sodium D. Low calorie
Low sugar
Which of the following terms is not defined by the FDA for use on a food label? A. Sugar free B. Reduced sugar C. Low sugar D. Unsweetened
Low sugar
Which would be an appropriate food or beverage item to serve to your patient on postoperative day 1 following gastric bypass surgery? A. Ginger ale B. Sherbet C. Low-fat chicken broth D. Cranberry juice
Low-fat chicken broth Reason: Carbonated and caffeinated beverages are not permitted, sweetened foods and beverages are not permitted.
Regarding food-drug interactions, which food-drug combination requires client counseling? A. Warfarin and vitamin D-containing foods B. MAO inhibitors and tyramine-containing foods C. Prednisone and grapefruit juice D. Sibutramine and vitamin C-containing foods
MAO inhibitors and tyramine-containing foods.
Which statement best describes the "A" component of the PDSA performance improvement model? A. Determine how changes will be implemented B. Implement the intervention C. Determine the impact of the intervention D. Maintain and continue improvement.
Maintain and continue improvement Reason: "A" stands for Act to maintain and continue.
Which approach would be most appropriate for a manager to take when initiating several complex, stressful, and simultaneous changes within a short period of time? A. Consult with individual employees and use autocratic management for change B. Consult with the entire group of employees. Determine options for change. Conduct a vote and use the highest-ranking options as an approach for change. C. Make all decisions with available information and use autocratic management for change D. Discuss several predetermined options for change with the entire group of employees. Conduct a vote and use the highest ranking option as an approach for change.
Make all decisions with available information and use autocratic management for change Reason: In this situation, there is little time to consult individual employees or the entire group. This situation is considered highly unfavorable. In both high unfavorable and highly favorable situations -an autocratic leader seems to be most effective. In highly favorable situations, the group is ready to be directed and is willing to be told what to do. In highly unfavorable situations, the group welcomes the opportunity of having the leader take the responsibility for the decisions and giving directions. When a longer period of time is given to make changes, group decisions are beneficial.
Which of the following is true of dietetics management? A. Management is more critical in foodservice than in clinical areas of dietetics. B. The salaries of dietitians tend to be lower when they manage budgets and personnel C. The managers job is to see the organization as it is D. Management principles transcend disciplines and practice areas.
Management principles transcend disciplines and practice areas Reason: Management is equally important in foodservice and clinical areas. The salaries of dietitians tend to be higher when they manage budgets and personnel. The managers job is to see the organization as it could be.
When talking about program planning for community nutrition, what would the term "management" refer to? A. Controlling and providing oversight for financial resources B. Managing time effectively and efficiently C. Managing personnel and data systems D. Coordinating and classifying objectives
Managing personnel and data systems
Making homemade dried meat products such as jerky is a very popular home food preservation practice. Which of the following procedures would be considered appropriate and safe for this process, considering that the meat type has not yet been specified: A. Marinate the meat for directed amount of time in the recipe, then place in the dehydrator set at 130-140*F, process until dry B. Marinate the meat for the directed amount of time in the recipe, cook the meat in a preheated oven until the meat reaches an internal temperature of 165*F, move to the dehydrator set at 130-140*F, process until dry. C. Marinate the meat for the directed amount of time in the recipe, cook the meat in a preheated oven until the meat reaches an internal temperature of 160*F, move to the dehydrator set at 130-140*F, process until dry. D. Marinate the meat for the directed amount of time in the recipe, move to the dehydrator set at 130-140*F, process until dry, cook the meat in a preheated oven until the meat reaches an internal temperature of 160*F.
Marinate the meat for the directed amount of time in the recipe, cook the meat in a preheated oven until the meat reaches an internal temperature of 165*F, move to the dehydrator set at 130-140*F, process until dry.
All of the following are examples of foam EXCEPT for: A. Mayonnaise B. Latte C. Meringue D. Angel Food Cake
Mayonnaise Reason: Mayo is an emulsion.
Chin has written the following objective for her community nutrition program: "Women who are at least 60 years of age will perform at least 30 minutes of weight-bearing exercise three or more times per week." Which of the required components is missing from Chin's objective? A. Target population B. Time frame C. Action D. Measure of success
Measure of success
Chin has written the following objective for her community nutrition program: "Women who are at least 60 years of age will perform at least 30 minutes of weight-bearing exercise three or more times per week." Which of the required components is missing from Chin's objective? A. Target population B. Time frame C. Action D. Measure of success
Measure of success.
If a researcher creates a questionnaire so that extra emphasis is placed on certain questions, what type of errors will likely affect the findings? A. Sampling errors B. Measurement errors C. Non-response errors D. Errors of data distortion
Measurement errors Reason: The questionnaire- which is the measuring device in this study- is faulty and therefore measurement errors would occur.
The city manager wants to be sure that the tool the community nutritionist is using to collect data about the use of dietary supplements has validity. In order to ensure that the instrument is valid, the nutritionist needs to choose an instrument that: A. Has been used previously many times B. Contains words and phrases familiar to participants C. Measures accurately what is intended to be measured D. Yields primarily quantitative data
Measures accurately what is intended to be measured. Reason: Validity is identified by an instrument accurately measuring what it intends to.
An instrument to collect data on the use of dietary supplements would be viewed as valid if it A. Has been used previously many times B. Contains words and phrases familiar to participants C. Measures accurately what is intended to measure D. Yields primarily quantitative data
Measures accurately what is intended to measure
The USDA performs quantitative (yield) grading only for A. Produce B. Milk C. Eggs D. Meat
Meat Reason: Quantitative grading is done for some of the products listed, the USDA is responsible for overseeing all quality and yield standards and inspection for meats. The USDA conducts quality grading for eggs, sets quality standards for fruits and veggies, and other dairy products . The FDA oversees quality grading for milk.
In a foodservice operation, which of the following is the most critical point of control? A. Menu B. Overtime C. Quality D. Spoilage
Menu
What drives kitchen layout, staffing, and inventory? A. Food cost B. Menu C. Union contract D. Management style
Menu
When determining presentation of items on a printed menu, considerations are taken for their position on the menu. Items you wish to sell more of should be placed so that they are the first and/or last thing a customer sees. This positioning strategy is the science of A. Menu Design B. Menu Placement C. Menu Psychology D. Menu Structure
Menu Psychology Reason: This is defined as an examination of how to design a menu to influence what customers pick to eat.
Which foods represent the source of most food allergies A. Cheese, strawberries, and beef B. Fish, rice, and corn C. Milk, eggs, and peanuts D. Wheat, tomatoes, and chicken
Milk, eggs, and peanuts Reason: Most common food allergies: eggs (mostly in children); fish (older children and adults); milk (mostly children); peanuts (people of all ages); shellfish such as shrimp, crab, and lobster (all ages); soy (mostly in children); tree nuts (all ages); wheat (mostly in children)
Excessive intakes of phytates and oxalates can interfere with the absorption of A. Cholesterol B. Minerals C. Vitamins D. Fiber
Minerals. Reason: phytates in in grain fiber can limit absorption of some minerals by binding. Oxalates (oxalic acid) can depress the absorption of certain minerals.
The sentence "We will produce nutritious, high-quality food that meets our customers' needs for service within 30 minutes" is a A. Vision B. Mission statement C. Strategy D. Value
Mission statement
Which of the following two components of the NCP are performed in one step? A. Assessment and Intervention B. Monitoring and Diagnosis C. Monitoring and Evaluation D. Diagnosis and Intervention
Monitoring and Evaluation.
According to the Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics, each registered dietitian nutritionist is expected to promote public access and referral to credentialed dietetics practitioners for quality food and nutrition programs and services by A. Participating in public service or other mass media efforts to educate the citizenry. B. Monitoring support of food and nutrition programs and services for populations with special needs. C. Participating in interdisciplinary teams efforts and referring patients in a manner consistent with HIPAA rules for use and disclosure. D. Monitoring the effectiveness of referral systems and modifying them as needed to achieve desirable outcomes.
Monitoring the effectiveness of referral systems and modifying them as needed to achieve desirable outcomes.
What flavor enhancer from seaweed might be included in a recipe to provide "umami?" A. Monosodium Glutamate B. Magnesium Sulfate C. Carrageenan D. Calcium Alginate
Monosodium Glutamate
As the pH of a glass of OJ decreases, it becomes_____. A. Hydrophobic B. Hydrophilic C. More acidic D. More basic
More acidic
Irradiation of meat causes: A. Food to become radioactive B. Most harmful bacteria to be killed C. The flavor of food to change D. The food to be cooked to a safe temperature.
Most harmful bacteria to be killed.
Which of the following refers to McGregors theory X? A. Most people not only accept but seek responsibility B. Exerting physical and mental effort at work is as natural as play or rest C. Most people will exercise self control to achieve an organizational objective D. Most people dislike work and avoid it if possible
Most people dislike work and will avoid it if possible. Reason: Theory Y is described by the other options: Most people not only accept but seek responsibility; Exerting physical and mental effort at work is as natural as play or rest; Most people exercise self-control to achieve an organizational objective.
Which of the following is NOT an element of the Chronic Care Model (CCM)? A. Self-management support B. The community C. Clinical information systems D. Motivation
Motivation. Reason: The other options are all elements of the CCM: Self-management support; The community; Clinical information systems.
Where does carb digestion begin?
Mouth.
When baking muffins, which of the following is most likely to have a deeper brown crust? -Muffin made with baking powder and solid sugar -Muffin made with baking soda and solid sugar -Muffin made with baking soda, buttermilk, and solid sugar -Muffin made with baking powder and liquid sugar
Muffin made with baking soda and solid sugar Reason: The Maillard reaction is more likely to occur in the presence of an alkali environment. If an acid is not added, baking soda and solid sugar will result in a deeper brown crust.
Which of the following is NOT a main component of Continuous Quality Improvement (CQI)? A. Customer satisfaction B. Data collection C. Team involvement D. Multidisciplinary rounds
Multidisciplinary rounds.
What is the result of adding baking soda to green peas? A. Fading of green color B. Mushy texture C. Loss of starch D. Rancidity
Mushy texture. Reason: Alkaline solutions result in vegetables softening faster and causing them to go mushy.
What organization creates national standards for foodservice equipment? A. CDC B. FDA C. NSF D. OSHA
NSF (National Sanitation Foundation) Reason: NSF is accredited by the American National Standards Institute (ANSI).
Which of the following food programs is the largest federally funded child nutrition assistance program? A. Fresh fruit and Vegetable program B. Child and Adult care food program C. National School lunch program D. Summer food service program
National school lunch program
What have studies in the areas of literacy and special education shown about the use of drawings vs. photographs? A. Drawings are generally easier to grasp because of their simplicity B. Photographs are generally more preferred because of their accurate presentation of reality C. Neither is necessarily more effective than the other D. Both are problematic because they are two-dimensional
Neither is necessarily more effective than the other
Interpersonal communication models encourage dietetics practitioners to respond in certain ways. Which of the following approaches best describes the preferred response? A. Evaluative rather than descriptive B. Fixed rather than flexible C. Neutral rather than empathetic D. Problem-oriented rather than manipulative
Neutral rather than empathetic
Which classic vitamin deficiency is known for the 4 D`s: dermatitis; dementia; diarrhea; death. A. Thiamin B. Niacin C. Biotin D. Folic Acid
Niacin. Reason: These symptoms are of Pellagra disease- caused by niacin deficiency.
Which of the following is NOT important when facility menu planning? A. Staff B. Region C. Food Availability D. None of the above
None of the above
Which of the following viruses is the most common cause of sporadic cases and outbreaks of food borne illness? A. Hep A B. Hep B C. Rotovirus D. Norovirus
Norovirus.
After completing this step in the Nutrition Care Process, the dietetics professional can decide whether or not a nutrition diagnosis/problem exists A. Nutrition Assessment B. Nutrition Diagnosis C. Nutrition Intervention D. Nutrition Monitoring and Evaluation
Nutrition Assessment
Which of the steps in the NCP is a systematic method for obtaining, verifying, and interpreting data needed to identify nutrition-related problems? A. Nutrition Assessment B. Nutrition Diagnosis C. Nutrition Intervention D. Nutrition Monitoring and Evaluation
Nutrition Assessment
During which step in the NCP, is it important to evaluate the patient`s status compared to specified criteria? A. Nutrition Assessment B. Nutrition Diagnosis C. Nutrition Intervention D. Nutrition Monitoring and Evaluation
Nutrition Assessment Reason: In order to perform an assessment, patient`s data needs to be compared to a standard.
Which step in NCP involves the dietetics professional coordinating nutrition care with other health care providers, institutions, or agencies? A. Nutrition Assessment B. Nutrition Diagnosis C. Nutrition Intervention D. Nutrition Monitoring and Evaluation
Nutrition Intervention
Which step in the NCP involves the dietetics professional establishing goals jointly with the patient/client? A. Nutrition Assessment B. Nutrition Diagnosis C. Nutrition Intervention D. Nutrition Monitoring and Evaluation
Nutrition Intervention
Which of the Standards of Practice is being applied when the RD plans for care of a patient following discharge? A. Nutrition Assessment B. Nutrition Intervention C. Nutrition Monitoring and Evaluation D. Nutrition Diagnosis
Nutrition Monitoring and Evaluation
Which step in the NCP has as its purpose to quantify progress made by the patient/client in meeting nutrition care goals? A. Nutrition assessment B. Nutrition Diagnosis C. Nutrition Intervention D. Nutrition Monitoring and Evaluation
Nutrition Monitoring and Evaluation
What is the first step of the nutrition care process? A. Nutrition screening B. Nutrition assessment C. Nutrition diagnosis D. Goal setting
Nutrition assessment Reason: Steps of the Nutrition care process are as follows: Assessment, diagnosis, intervention, monitoring and evaluation
In the NCP, what should determine the dietetics practitioners selection of a Nutrition Intervention? A. Nutrition diagnosis and etiology B. Time and other available resources C. Clients history of compliance D. Practitioners level of education and experience
Nutrition diagnosis and etiology
Which of the following must be served in combo with a meat/meat alternate in order to meet the full meat/meat alternate requirement for a reimbursable school lunch? A. Nut butter B. Tofu C. Legumes D. Nuts
Nuts Reason: nuts must be combined and only used for half of the meat/meat alternate requirement.
Which of these acronyms requires compliance with safety standards? A. SDS B. OSHA C. HACCP D. MDS
OSHA
Which of these require compliance with safety standards? A. MSDS B. OSHA C. HACCP D. None of the above
OSHA. Reason: requires employers to comply with the Hazard Communication Standard-Requires employers to train employees on the safe use of chemicals.
The 2007 Expert Committee Recommendations for Prevention, Assessment, Treatment, and Recommendations for Pediatric Childhood and Adolescent Obesity defines BMI greater than the 95th %ile as: A. At risk of overweight B. Obese C. Overweight D. Severe childhood obesity
Obese
Studies suggest that the most serious and prevalent long-term consequences of childhood overweight is: A. Dyslipidemia and glucose intolerance B. Obesity and morbidity in adulthood C. Lowered self-esteem and increased depression as an adolescent D. Excessive bodyweight and hormonal imbalance before puberty leading to growth plate injuries.
Obesity and morbidity in adulthood
Julia is a 10-year-old fifth grader with ADHD who takes Adderall. Her BMI-for-age is less than the 5th percentile. The most appropriate nutrition intervention for her is to: A. provide snacks for her to eat during recess. B. offer her a high-calorie bedtime snack. C. send a lunch consisting of her favorite foods. D. have the teacher monitor her intake.
Offer her a high-calorie bedtime snack Reason: Eating a high energy snack at bedtime gives less time for her to burn off the energy consumed.
In 2013, changes were made to the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) that have resulted in RDN's needing to modify the way that they conduct business to remain compliant. These changes are collectively known as the A. Omnibus Rule B. HIPAA Addendum C. Client Security Rules D. Notification Addendum
Omnibus Rule
Which of the following types of adolescents is at greatest nutritional risk? A. One who drinks water instead of juice B. One who consumes more than 3 servings of fruit per day C. One who has irregular eating patterns D. One who consumes fast food more than 3 times per week.
One who consumes fast food three or more times per week.
No more than _____ of the National School Lunch Program (NSLP) weekly requirement of servings of fruit may be met by pasteurized full-strength, 100% fruit juice A. One-quarter B. One-third C. One-half D. Three-quarters
One-half Reason: NSLP standards specify that the requirement for fruit can be met with no more than 50% of the required servings from fruit juice.
For a food that contains less than 50% calories from fat, how many fewer calories should it contain to be considered a "light" or "lite" food? A. At least 25% few calories than the typical food. B. Less than 5 calories C. One-third fewer calories D. Up to 40 calories
One-third fewer calories Reason: The FDA`s rule is that "if less than 50% calories are from fat, fat must be reduced at least 50% or calories reduced at least 1/3 per RACC.
For a food to be labeled "light" or "lite," how many calories can it contain? A. At least 25% fewer calories than the regular food B. Less than 5 calories C. One-third fewer calories than the regular food D. No more than 40 calories
One-third fewer calories than the regular food
Your patient complains of a malodorous ileostomy and frequently eats each of the following foods. Which food would you advise that he limit? A. Yogurt B. Onions C. Banana D. Peanut butter
Onions Reason: Onions are the food with the strongest odor. Yogurt with active cultures may actually relieve odor.
The premise of the economic order of quality (EOQ) is to achieve cost balance based on what assumptions? A. Ordering costs decrease at a greater rate as size of order increases, and holding costs increase in direct relation to the size of the order B. Ordering costs increase at a greater rate as size of order increases, and holding costs increase in direct relation to the size of the order C. Ordering costs decrease at a greater rate as size of order decreases, and holding costs decrease in direct relation to the size of the order. D. Ordering costs decrease at a greater rate as size of order decreases, and holding costs increase in direct relation to the size of the order
Ordering costs decrease at a greater rate as size of order increases, and holding costs increase in direct relation to the size of the order
Strategic management of a foodservice system means A. Effectively responding to environmental threats B. Integrated systems thinking of internal and external events C. Evaluation of stakeholders and the competition D. Organization and environmental analysis to achieve goals
Organization and environmental analysis to achieve goals Reason: Strategic management process involves analysis of the company and its environment, creating and implementing strategies to move a company towards its goals and evaluating progress.
Which of the following is not a quality measure of eggs? A. Yolk appearance B. Albumen appearance C. Ounces per egg D. Shell appearance
Ounces per egg Reason: As compared to the other choices, ounces per egg is not a consideration during the quality evaluation of eggs.
Customer and employee satisfaction are both: A. Functions of management. B. Linking processes. C. Environmental factors. D. Outputs of the foodservice system.
Outputs of the foodservice system
What term is used to indicate the monetary value of a property or business beyond any amounts owed? A. Total assets B. Owner`s equity C. Long-term liabilities D. Gross profit
Owners equity Reason: Total assets are everything owned by the company including liabilities. Gross profit is the difference between net sales and the cost of the items or services sold.
The reaction H(2) --> (2H+) + (2e-) represents? A. Redox B. Reduction C. Oxidation D. Oxygenation
Oxidation. Reason: A reduction reaction is represented by: 1/2 O2 + 2H+ --> H2O.
When evaluating print and audio visual patient education material for understandability and "actionability," which of the following is the BEST tool? A. PEMAT (Patient Education Materials Assessment Tool) B. REALM (Rapid Estimate on Adult Literacy in Medicine) C. SMOG D. Ask Me 3
PEMAT Reason: REALM evaluates health literacy; SMOG is a measure of readability that estimates the number of years of education one needs to have to understand a piece of writing. Ask Me 3 is a patient education program designed to improve communication between patients and health care providers.
The evaluation tool that is used for effective planning and controls functions of management is called: A. PERT chart B. MIS processing C. HACCP D. Strategic planning
PERT chart Reason: MIS processing and HACCP are not associated with functions of management. Strategic planning is a management process of determining long term goals and the best approach to accomplishing them.
Which of the following is the evaluation tool used for effective planning and that controls functions of management? A. PERT chart B. MIS processing C. HACCP D. Strategic planning
PERT chart.
In the NCP, statements in the format of "(Nutrition problem) related to _____ as evidenced by ____" are classified as A. Intake critiques B. NCP links C. PES statements D. Nutrition concerns
PES statements
Which health education planning model demonstrates that lasting behavior change is voluntary and must include input from the client? A. PATCH B. The 10-step Planning Model C. PRECEDE-PROCEED D. CDCynergy
PRECEDE-PROCEED Reason: This is the only planning model out of the options that has the distinguishing characteristic of "behavior change is voluntary."
Which of the following guidelines are NOT allowable when preparing food? A. Chill utensils and ingredients before using them to prepare a salad B. Pool eggs whenever possible C. Prepare batters in small batches D. Package fresh juice on site for sale at later time without any special tx or approved HACCP plan.
Package fresh juice on site for sale at a later time without any special treatment or approved HACCP plan.
Which of the following would be covered by the FDA`s gluten-free labeling rule? A. Packaged seafood B. Processed egg products C. Alcoholic beverages D. Ground meat
Packaged seafood Reason: The FDA`s gluten-free labeling rule covers packaged foods, including supplements. It does not cover foods regulated by the USDA (processed egg products, poultry, meat), alcoholic beverages regulated by the Alcohol and Tobacco Tax and Trade Bureau, cosmetics, or medications.
When added to gelatin, fruit containing which of the following substances will keep the gelatin from forming a gel? A. Sucralose B. Papain C. Pectin D. Sorbitol
Papain. Proteolytic enzyme found in papaya; halts gelatins ability to form a gel.
Successful family-based group interventions programs that target reducing overweight in school-age children include: A. parent training, dietary counseling/nutrition education/physical activity counseling, and behavioral counseling. B. parent training, individual psychotherapy, dietary counseling/nutrition education. C. dietary counseling/nutrition education, physical activity counseling, behavioral counseling. D. low calorie diet plan, parent training.
Parent training, dietary counseling/nutrition education/physical activity counseling and behavioral counseling Reason: Most successful programs would train parents and the child, include a physical activity component, and address diet and behavior change.
Overeating and poorer self-regulation of energy intake in preschool-age children is associated with: A. Excessive soft drink consumption. B. Parents assuming control of food portions and coercing children to eat. C. Family-style meal service. D. Excessive food choices as family-style meals.
Parents assuming control of food portions and coercing children to eat.
Which of the following components comprise the core of motivational interviewing? A. Collaboration, empathy, autonomy, and patient centered-care B. Partnership, acceptance, compassion, and evocation C. Rolling with resistance, unconditional positive regard, empowerment, empathy D. Partnership, autonomy, setting smart goals, and evocation
Partnership, acceptance, compassion, and evocation
What is another name for high-pressure processing? A. Ohmic heating B. Irradiation C. Pulsed light D. Pascalization
Pascalization Reason: method of preserving and sterilizing food- results in the inactivation of certain microorganisms and enzymes in the food.
________ is a processing method used to extend shelf life of beverages such as milk and juice. A. Dehydration B. Canning C. Freezing D. Pasteurization
Pasteurization
Which type of eggs should be served to patients in a nursing home? A. Freshly cracked and sunny up B. Over easy C. Pasteurized scrambled eggs D. Pool cracked scrambled eggs
Pasteurized scrambled eggs. Reason: due to the immunocompromised systems of elderly, they require pasteurized and well cooked food to prevent the risk of food borne illness.
Medical anthropologists have developed Exploratory Models that address 5 major concerns about an illness episode. These models address: etiology, time and mode of onset of symptoms, course of sickness, treatment, and______ A. Exposure pattern B. Family history C. Pathophysiology D. Emotional response
Pathophysiology Reason: This allows one to understand changes associated with or resulting from diseases.
All of the following statements about patient centered medical homes (PCMH) are true, EXCEPT: A. The cost for chronic care is reduced B. Electronic medical records are essential C. Patients are responsible for access to care D. The team of providers changes as the health care needs differ.
Patients are responsible for access to care.
Which food is the leading cause of fatal or near-fatal food allergic reactions in the US each year? A. Egg B. Fish C. Peanut D. Butter
Peanut
Of the following foods, which can be safely processed in a boiling water canner? A. Carrots B. Pears C. Pumpkin D. Beets
Pears Reason: Acidic fruits such as pears and tomatoes can be safely processed in a boiling water canner. The higher the acid medium results in elimination of the risk or microbial growth. All other non-acidic vegetables, meats (including poultry and fish) and soup stocks must be processed in a pressure canner.
The primary substance required for the structure of gels in jams and jellies is A. Acid B. Sugar C. Pectin D. Water
Pectin
This additive is used to thicken jellies and jams
Pectin
Which pectic substance found in mature fruits loses its ability to form a gel? A. Pectic acid B. Pectinic acid C. Pectin D. Protopectin
Pectinic acid Reason: As fruit ripens, the maximum protopectin is present. Fruits ripen maturing from protopectin --> pectin --> pectinic acid and lastly pectic acid. Underripe fruit and ripe fruit contains the highest level of pectin; after that, pectin levels decrease.
Which of the following phrases is the best example of how dietetics practitioners should reiterate to the client information about his/her dietary intake of calcium? A. The amount of calcium you eat is low B. Your dietary intake of calcium increases your risk of developing osteoporosis C. You eat one serving of calcium rich food each day and the experts tell us to eat 3 D. People who eat one serving of calcium rich foods each day are at an increased risk of osteoporosis.
People who eat one serving of a calcium rich food each day are at an increase risk of osteoporosis.
Among the following groups of people, the population that would experience the most serious consequences from contracting a food borne illness is A. People with compromised immune systems B. Teenagers C. Women of childbearing age D. Smokers who are overweight
People with compromised immune systems
Which enteral feeding access device will deliver nutrition past the ligament of Treitz? A. Nasogastric B. Nasoduodenal C. Percutaneous Jejunostomy D. Percutaneous Gastrostomy
Percutaneous jejunostomy. Reason: Ligament of Treitz marks the separation of the duodenum and jejunum.
What is the best way to determine the type of nutrition program that will attract baby boomers who use a city recreation center? A. Give a nutrition knowledge pre and post-test to baby boomers who use the facility B. Determine what nutrition programs are successful with baby boomers in cities of similar size C. Offer several screening programs and see which one draws the biggest crowd of baby boomers D. Perform a needs assessment of baby boomers who use the facility
Perform a needs assessment of baby boomers who use the facility
The standards of professional ______ for dietetics professionals describes in general terms a competent level of behavior in the professional role. A. Practice B. Performance C. Preparation D. Proficiency
Performance (Reason: These standards describe competency levels of professional behavior by an individual).
____________ must be up to date and reflect consistent expectations A. Personnel policies B. Vacation schedules C. Equipment D. Menu
Personnel policies
______ Should be up to date and reinforced with strong supervision. A. Personnel policies B. Employee evaluations C. Schedules D. Employee morale
Personnel policies.
Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state, a rare condition that presents with extremely high blood glucose levels, elevated serum osmolality, extreme dehydration, and low amounts of ketones, usually occurs in A. Preterm infants B. Obese adolescents C. Adults aged 18 to 35 with hypertension D. Persons older than 65 years of age with T2DM
Persons older than 65 years of age with T2DM Reason: this rare condition occurs in people of the age and condition mentioned that have an infection or forget to take their medicines.
The chlorophyll in spinach degrades to an olive-brown compound known as _____ during the canning process. A. Chlorophyllin B. Chlorophyll B C. Choraphyllase D. Pheophytin
Pheophytin Reason: This compound can occur from chlorophyll by an acidic cooking environment or by prolonged cooking (longer than 5-7 minutes), as would occur in canning. Chlorophyllin occurs when chlorophyll is exposed to an alkaline cooking environment resulting in a bright green color. Chlorophyll B is the aldehyde group of chlorophyll resulting in a yellow-green color. Choraphyllase is a plant enzyme that splits off from chlorophyll to form chlorophyllide.
Refeeding syndrome is characterized by low serum concentrations of A. Phosphorus, Potassium, Magnesium B. Sodium, phosphorus, Magnesium C. Sodium, Potassium, Phosphorus D. Potassium, Magnesium, Sodium
Phosphorus, Potassium, Magnesium. Reason: Refeeding syndrome occurs when previously malnourished patients are fed with high carbohydrate loads; results in the rapid fall of phosphate, magnesium, potassium, and increase in Extracellular fluid volume. This results in complications such as arrhythmia and seizures.
Which inventory record is usually taken at the end of the month by counting and recording products in stock in all storage areas? A. Physical B. Perpetual C. Continual D. Periodic
Physical
Which of the following is an appropriate method to prevent aspiration during enteral feeding A. Use a fiber containing formula B. Elevate the head of the bed >15* C. Place a percutaneous gastrostomy D. Place a nasojejunal tube
Place a nasojejunal tube Reason: jejunal tubes are associated with lower risk of aspiration
Comprehensive menu planning is a data-supported process. A reliable quantitative method of assessing menu item acceptability is A. Observation B. Self-reported consumption C. Plate waste D. Patient surveys
Plate waste Reason: Plate waste is often weighed, therefore it is the most reliable quantitative method of assessing menu item acceptability.
Cultural competence has been described as a set of congruent attitudes, behaviors, and _____. A. Policies B. Models C. Values D. Interventions
Policies
A foodservice facility posted signs indicating that all employees must wash hands before returning to the production area after a break. This is referred to as a A. Single-use plan B. Procedure C. Policy D. Foodservice Law
Policy Reason: Policy indicates what should be done A procedure indicates how it should be done.
Which of the following is true of Mexican American culture? A. In general, it is better to ask questions about work than family B. It is generally preferable to address elders and leaders informally C. Nodding affirmatively usually means agreement D. Polite, agreeable, and respectful interactions are the cornerstone of culture.
Polite, agreeable, and respectful interactions are the cornerstone of the culture.
A group that is organized for the purpose of raising and spending money to elect or defeat political candidates is called a(n) A. political action committee. B. health advocacy organization. C. alliance. D. lobbying group.
Political action committee (PAC`s)
_______ describes the linking together of free fatty acids during frying, which makes the oil more viscous and prone to foaming. A. Polymerization B. Smoke point C. Flashing D. Hydrolytic rancidity
Polymerization Reason: This results in increased viscosity, decreased oil quality, sticky film on fryers and equipment.
When completing a physical assessment, inadequate hydration may present as A. Poor skin turgor B. Scaly appearance of skin C. Dull and thin hair D. Angular stomatitis
Poor skin turgor Reason: Inadequate hydration may exhibit physical findings such as: drop in systolic pressure upon standing, poor skin turgor, tongue dryness.
Muslims avoid eating ____ A. Yogurt B. Pork C. Legumes D. Goat
Pork
Which of the following food items are not identified by quality grading? A. Chicken B. Eggs C. Canned fruit D. Pork chops
Pork chops Reason: There is a grading system for pork, but only at the processing level. Pork is not graded with USDA quality grades as it is generally produced from young animals that have been bred and fed to produce more uniformly tender meat.
Table salt is fortified with this nutritive additive to prevent goiter. A. Ascorbic Acid B. Calcium Lactate C. Potassium Citrate D. Potassium Iodide
Potassium iodide.
A patient with a new diagnosis of iron-deficiency anemia has been referred to the dietetics practitioner. She did not know she was anemic, however, she admits to feeling tired lately. At which stage of change is this person? A. Prepared B. Contemplative C. Precontemplative D. Maintenance
Precontemplative Reason: Patient did not know she was anemic, therefore she was not thinking of changing her diet. Ignorance and denial are characteristics of the pre contemplative stage.
Inadequate weight gain and a low birth weight infant are of concern in which population? A. Pregnant adolescents B. Pregnant women over the age of 35 C. Overweight women who become pregnant D. Women with a history of gestational diabetes
Pregnant adolescents
ACEND requires dietetics education programs to offer an emphasis area in order to _____. A. Prepare each entry-level RDN for advanced practice. B. Prepare each entry-level RDN as a specialist C. Ensure that each entry-level RDN has had the opportunity to experience cutting-edge practice D. Prepare each entry-level RD to begin to develop the depth necessary for future proficiency in that area of dietetics practice
Prepare each entry-level RD to being to develop the depth necessary for future proficiency in that area of dietetics practice
Home canning is a very popular method of food preservation. To ensure safe foods, appropriate canning methods must be used. What is the safe and recommended method for canning foods above pH 4.5? A. Boiling water bath canning method B. Pressure canning C. Steam canning D. Oven method canning
Pressure canning Reason: Foods low in acid (pH>4.6) include veggies, meats, dried beans, and all soups.
Home canning is a very popular method of food preservation. To ensure safe foods, appropriate canning methods must be used. Which of the following is the safe and recommended method for canning foods above pH 4.5? A. Boiling water canning B. Pressure canning C. Steam canning D. Oven method canning
Pressure canning (Reason: Low acid foods with pH greater than 4.6 such as veggies, meats, dried beans, all soups, need to be preserved using a pressure canner. High acid foods with pH lower than 4.6 need to be preserved using a water bath canner).
The research article describes the number of new and existing cases of obesity in the US in 2001. This number is the ______ of obesity. A. Prevalence B. Incidence C. Specificity D. Sensitivity
Prevalence. Reason: Prevalence is an example of existing cases.
The Food Safety Modernization Act (FSMA) enables the FDA to better protect public health because it allows FDA to now focus more on: A. Preventing food safety problems B. Inspecting food production systems C. Scrutinizing the Importation of food D. Ordering prompt recalls of tainted foods and bevs.
Preventing food safety problems (Reason: FSMA was signed by Obama in January 4th 2011).
A community RDN develops an educational and awareness program to teach employees of a local industry to reduce the sodium in their diets. This is an example of A. Primary prevention B. Secondary prevention C. Tertiary prevention D. Workplace rehab
Primary prevention
Dietetic students finishing supervised practice should be able to utilize food and nutrition management systems, work with electronic health records, and: A. prescribe TPN formulas. B. create organizational mission statements. C. generate appropriate statistical analyses. D. print client educational materials.
Print client educational materials
In the Nutrition Care Process, the Nutrition Diagnosis should be _____ during nutrition intervention. A. Prioritized B. Promulgated C. Investigated D. Linked
Prioritized
When using the NCP, what does the dietetics professional use to describe alterations in the patients nutritional status? A. Cause/contributing risk factors B. Problem or nutrition diagnosis labels C. Signs/symptoms D. Knowledge, attitudes, and beliefs
Problem or nutrition diagnosis labels
Diagnosis is the second step in the Academys Nutrition Care process and model. Part of the diagnosis step is to document PES. PES stands for: A. Problem, Etiology, Signs and Symptoms B. Plan, Education, Significant results C. Proposal, Efficacy, Strategies D. Policy, Establish, Skills
Problem, Etiology, Signs and Symptoms
In the NCP, the PES statement consists of: A. Possibilities, effects, solutions B. Problem, etiology, signs/symptoms C. People, effort, satisfaction D. Probabilities, end products, significant information
Problem, etiology, signs/symptoms
What name is given to the chronological sequence of activities to carry out organizational behavior? A. Policy B. Procedure C. Method D. Rule
Procedure
Total Quality Management (TQM) is best described by which grouping of words? A. Processes, improvement, customer satisfaction B. Outcomes, meet standards, accreditation C. Proactive, empowerment, outcomes D. Prevention, standard procedures, diagnostic
Processes, improvement, customer satisfaction Reason: TQM is a philosophy where processes are refined with goal of improving performance in response to customer needs and expectations.
Which of the following describes Total Quality Management (TQM)? A. Processes, improvement, customer satisfaction B. Outcomes, meet standards, accreditation C. Proactive, empowerment, outcomes D. Prevention, standard procedures, diagnostic
Processes, improvement, customer satisfaction Reason: TQM is a philosophy of improving processes in response to customer needs and expectations. Terms such as: outcomes, meet standards, accreditation, prevention, standard procedures, and diagnostic- are associated with quality assurance.
Canned corn has more sodium and less potassium than fresh corn. This is a result of A. Processing B. Enrichment C. Fortification D. Disassociation
Processing
Yogurt manufacturers have branched out into Greek yogurt, high-fiber yogurt, bacteria-enhanced yogurt, and more because they believe customers prefer yogurt products. By doing so, which of the following marketing concepts are these manufactures applying? A. Product B. Selling C. Manufacturing D. Societal
Product Reason: Manufacturers are using the concept of product when they offer many different types and flavors of product.
In conducting a value analysis, the production manager should bear in mind that all of the following are true EXCEPT A. Price is only one factor to be considered B. Standards of quality may vary C. Product improvements are always cost effective D. Many factors may affect value
Product improvements are ALWAYS cost effective.
What elements comprise the marketing mix? A. Product, price, promotion, and place B. Price, product, popularity, process C. Product, promotion, position, and popularity D. Product, place, position, and process
Product, price, promotion, and place
In what era did manufacturers produce what could be made rather than what the consumer wants? A. Sales B. Production C. Marketing D. Technological
Production Reason: During the production era, manufacturers focused on mass production, in order to revitalize sales, marketing strategies shifted to various pricing techniques (sales era). Companies then shifted to marketing techniques (marketing era). Lastly, the technological era of marketing utilizes emerging technologies to reach potential customers.
What is the FDA definition of gluten free? A. Products containing <20 ppm of gluten B. Products are 95% free of wheat, rye, and barley C. The FDA has not defined this term D. Products 95% free of wheat, rye, barley, oats.
Products containing ≤20 ppm of gluten. Reason: Products can be labeled as gluten free if they are gluten free or if they do not contain ingredients that are a gluten-containing grain; derived from a gluten containing grain that has not been processed to remove the gluten; derived from a gluten containing grain that has been processed to remove gluten if the use of that ingredient results in the presence of 20 ppm or more gluten in the food.
Standards of professional performance (SOPP) for dietetics practitioners includes which of the following? A. Professional accountability B. Nutritional intervention C. Nutrition monitoring and evaluation D. Nutrition diagnosis
Professional accountability Reason: These standards refer to actions and accountability of the dietetic practitioner.
What ratio measures the ability of an organization to generate excess income in relation to sales? A. Profitability B. Solvency C. Liquidity D. Activity
Profitability
What measures the ability of an organization to generate excess income in relation to sales? A. Profitability B. Solvency C. Liquidity D. Activity
Profitability Reason: Solvency refers to an organizations ability to meet long-term debts. Liquidity refers to the organizations ability to meet short-term debts. Activity refers to the rate at which an organization transfers non-cash assets into cash assets.
The nutritionist employed by the local county wants her nutrition objectives for the next 5-7 years to reflect the goals of Healthy People 2020. Which of her goals listed below most closely reflects the goals of Healthy People 2020? A. Reduce among residents the severity of chronic diseases such as diabetes and heart disease B. Promote, across every stage of life, healthy behaviors that positively affect the nutritional status of residents. C. Improve the nutrition of residents by eliminating disparities in treatment plans D. Eliminate social and physical environments that threaten the nutrition of residents.
Promote, across every stage of life, healthy behaviors that positively affect the nutritional status of residents. Reason: Healthy people 2020 advocates for improvement in the health of all people across the life course.
The purpose of registration for dietitians and dietetic technicians is to _____. A. Protect the nutritional health, safety, and welfare of the public. B. Ensure a degree of uniformity in the way that dietetics practice is conducted throughout the US. C. Protect the scope of practice of dietetics and nutrition professionals D. Provide recognition for nutrition professionals so that they can provide services in federal health care systems such as Medicare.
Protect the nutritional health, safety, and welfare of the public.
Heat applied to a food will denature which of the foods components? A. Vitamins B. Proteins C. Carbohydrates D. Fats
Proteins
If the tool that the dietitian is using to measure food intake is reliable, it means that the tool ______. A. Produces a cost-benefit ratio that is higher than the established limits. B. Offers the amount of factual information needed C. Provides consistent and accurate results each time it is used. D. Produces a cost-benefit ratio that is within the defined parameters.
Provides consistent and accurate results each time it is used.
Which of the following techniques offers the least constructive information to someone being disciplined? A. Providing advice B. Focusing on behavior C. Providing alternatives D. Focusing on observations
Providing advice
You are developing a heart disease prevention program for a worksite and need to locate several nutrition research articles. The best database to use is: A. PubMed B. Merck Index Online C. Scopus D. The Cochrane Library
Pubmed Reason: Merck Index Online is an encyclopedia of chemical substances. Scopus has limited search engines. The Cochrane Library includes systematic reviews for evidenced based practice.
What name is given to the purchasing document that is completed by the buyer and given to the supplier? A. FOB origin B. Purchase Requisition C. Invoice D. Purchase order
Purchase order
You want to conduct a research project that evaluates food habits among adults with a BMI >30 who eat at buffet-style restaurants at least once a month. You are going to conduct a focus group. What type of research study is this? A. Meta-analysis B. Qualitative C. Quantitative D. Experimental
Qualitative Reason: A focus group is a form of qualitative research.
Which of the following best defines that USDA quality grading system? A. All meat and poultry must meet strict quality standards to be sold in the US marketplace. B. Quality grading of meat and poultry is a voluntary process. C. Quality grading and inspection for wholesomeness are both mandatory for meat to enter into the marketplace. D. Quality grading is a free service provided by the USDA.
Quality grading of meat and poultry is a voluntary process (Reason: Inspection for wholesomeness is MANDATORY; grading for quality is VOLUNTARY).
Which of the following flooring materials would be best suited for high-traffic cooking areas? A. Ceramic tiles B. Quarry tiles C. Concrete D. Rubber
Quarry tiles Reason: Quarry tiles are wear resistant and nonporous
Which of the following are appropriate for your patient with celiac disease to eat? A. Quinoa and tapioca B. Couscous and corn C. Oatmeal and buckwheat D. None of the above
Quinoa and tapioca
Which of the following types of study has the potential to prove cause and effect? A. RCT B. Qualitative Survey C. Case-control D. Cohort
RCT
Which set of dietary intake values establishes a goal for dietary intake that will meet the needs of nearly all healthy people? A. Estimated Average Requirement (EAR) B. Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA) C. Adequate Intake (AI) D. Tolerable Upper Intake Level
RDA. Reason: The EAR is the intake that meets the needs of half of the individuals in a specific group. AI is an estimate of the average requirements when evidence is not available to establish the RDA.
All of the following statements about Intensive Behavioral Therapy (IBT) benefit for obese Medicare Part B beneficiaries are true, EXCEPT: A. Coverage for the benefit is granted only in the primary care setting B. In order to qualify, the beneficiary must be >30 BMI. C. Continued treatment for obesity is contingent on weight loss assessed at the 7th month of treatment. D. RDN`s may provide the service and bill Medicare using a unique physician identification number.
RDN`s may provide the service and bill Medicare using a unique physician ID number.
Which of the following is more characteristic of quantitative research than of qualitative research? A. Nonstatistical analysis B. Random sampling C. Smaller sample size D. Context-rich data
Random sampling Reason: Characteristics of quantitative data include statistical analysis, large sample sizes, and random sampling. Characteristics of qualitative data include context-rich data, smaller sample size, and non-statistical analysis.
Which of the following study design types is characterized as "the most powerful design for evaluating practices and medical treatments"? A. Qualitative research B. Prospective studies C. Randomized trials D. Cohort studies
Randomized trials
BMI is a better indicator of obesity than body weight because BMI is the: A. Ratio of height to weight B. Ratio of weight to height C. Determined by indirect calorimetry D. Determined by direct calorimetry
Ratio of weight to height. Reason: BMI is calculated by weight (kg)÷ height (m²)
If raw and ready-to-eat products must be stored in the same refrigerator, how would the items be stored correctly? A. Raw meat placed above fresh broccoli B. Raw whole cuts of beef placed above raw fish C. Raw poultry placed above raw whole cuts of beef D. Raw fish placed above raw poultry
Raw fish placed above raw poultry Reason: The order of placement is based on the minimum internal cooking temperature of each food.
Which of the following is a true statement regarding organic foods? A. Raw or processed agricultural products in the organic category may contain up to 5% non-organic ingredients allowed per the national list B. Some operations are exempt from certification, including organic farmers who sell organic foods or crops worth $10,000 or less C. Raw of processed agricultural products in the "100% organic" category must contain ingredients that are at least 90% certified organic D. A product labeled as "Made with" organic may use the USDA organic seal if no more than three ingredients are not certified.
Raw or processed agricultural products in the organic category may contain up to 5% non-organic ingredients allowed per the national list
What type of foodservice operation is sous vide? A. Conventional B. Ready prepared C. Commissary D. Assembly serve
Ready prepared Reason: This option is classified as ready-serve. Sous-vide involves chilling and sometimes freezing menu items.
A medical center produces and chills menu items until heated for serving. What name is given to this type of foodservice operation? A. Conventional B. Ready-prepared C. Commissary D. Assembly/serve
Ready-prepared
An RDN who is responsible for procuring food and non-food dietary supplies performs what activities? A. Inventory control, receiving, pre-preparation, budgeting B. Budgeting, purchasing, storage, inventory control C. Receiving, purchasing, inventory control, storage D. Pre-preparation, purchasing, inventory control, storage
Receiving, purchasing, inventory control, storage Reason: Within the subsystem of procurement are purchasing, receiving, storage, and inventory control.
Which statement best describes the "U" component of the FOCUS-PDSA performance improvement model? A. Identify a process to improve B. Develop a team C. Explain the current process D. Recognize sources of variation
Recognize sources of variation (Reason: F stage: identify a process to improve; O stage: develop a team; C stage: explain the current process).
Which of the following verbs is the best choice when writing a performance objective? A. Know B. Appreciate C. Recommend D. Understand
Recommend. Reason: Performance must be measurable; Recommend is the only verb that is qualitatively measurable.
A manager who encourages qualified people to apply for existing or anticipated job openings is performing what act? A. Selection B. Recruitment C. Human resource planning D. Development
Recruitment Reason: Selection is the process of comparing applicant knowledge, skills, and abilities to those required of a position and choosing the applicant most qualified. Human resource planning is designed to ensure that the organizations labor requirements are met and involves both forecasting staffing needs and analyzing labor market conditions. Development refers to the process of improving the technical, human, and conceptual skills of employees.
Which of the following reflects long-term folate status? A. Serum folate B. RBC folate C. Homocysteine concentration in the blood D. Serum methylmalonic acid
Red blood cell folate.
One of the primary goals of WIC food supplements is A. Increasing income for participating grocery stores B. Reducing or preventing iron deficiency anemia in infants and children C. Providing low-cost lunches to school-age children D. Increasing the number of women who get prenatal care
Reducing or preventing iron deficiency anemia in infants and children
Daily values are nutrient standards derived from the Daily Reference Values and the A. Reference Daily Intakes B. Recommended Dietary Intakes C. Reference Dietary Allowances D. Recommended Daily Allowances
Reference Daily Intakes
A child who consistently plots at the 5th percentile on the weight-for-length/stature CDC and Prevention growth chart: A. demonstrates a negative pattern of growth. B. demonstrates failure to thrive. C. has a thin body habitus. D. reflects a change in growth velocity.
Reflects a thin body habitus Reason: It is important to look for pattern consistency; the child is most likely small for age given the consistency in these measurements.
Which of the following foods should be avoided in treatment of gout? A. Low-fat yogurt B. Rye bread C. Banana D. Regular soft drinks
Regular soft drinks
When using a nutrient database to calculate nutrient data for a recipe, a "blank" associated with a nutrient generally means: A. Reliable data has not yet been collected B. The food contains a negligible amount C. The food does not contain any amount of that nutrient D. The amount of the nutrient varies significantly from serving to serving
Reliable data have not been collected.
What should be done to avoid carryover cooking?
Removing the food from the heat source prior to it reaching its goal temperature. Cooking occurs even after the food is removed from its heat source.
The foodservice manager has completed instructing new hires regarding the safe handling of knives. During the session, the manager talked about how to use knives responsibly, determined what the new hires already knew about knife safety, demonstrated how to handle knives safely, and encouraged questions. What else should the manager have included so that all four steps in "How to Instruct" were covered? A. Share data about the number of injuries that have occurred. B. Develop interest in learning about knife safety C. Summarize knife safety again in a second session. D. Require the new hires to explain key points while handling knives.
Require the new hires to explain key points while handling knives. Reason: 4 steps on "How to Instruct": 1). Prepare the learner and find out that the individual knows about the job. 2). Present the operation by tell, show, and illustrate. 3). Try out performance by having the learner explain key points and do the job. 4). Follow-up and designate where to obtain help and supervise the independent work of the learner and reinforce key concepts as necessary.
Which if the first document used in the purchasing process? A. Invoice B. Requisition C. Purchase order D. Inquisition
Requisition Reason: The requisition is an internal form used by the foodservice manager to request items from the purchasing manager or department within his/her facility. The purchase order comes second and it is written by the purchasing manager and given to the supplier. The supplier invoices the purchasing manager for the shipment.
Which of the following actions would likely be the result of systems thinking? A. Select a product vendor who could deliver high-quality produce twice daily? B. Reschedule kitchen staff to prepare more foods from scratch to meet customer expectations C. Develop a catering menu for department meetings to generate revenue for equipment purchases D. Select cleaning materials that do not harm the environment
Reschedule kitchen staff to prepare more foods from scratch to meet customer expectations
Systems thinking is the management approach to considering the entire organization when making decisions or allocating resources. Which is an example of systems thinking? A. Select a produce vendor who could deliver high quality produce 2x/day B. Reschedule kitchen staff to prepare more foods from scratch to meet customer expectations C. Develop a catering menu for department meetings to generate revenue for equipment purchases D. Select cleaning chemicals that do not harm the environment.
Rescheduling kitchen staff to prepare foods from scratch to meet customer expectations.
Which of the following is NOT a source of bias in a clinical trial? A. Selection bias B. Assessment bias C. Statistical bias D. Response bias
Response bias Reason: Bias may occur during selection, assessment and statistical analysis.
What term signifies obligation to perform an assigned activity? A. Authority B. Responsibility C. Accountability D. Capability
Responsibility
A client's estimated energy needs should be based on: A. resting metabolic rate. B. basal metabolism. C. physical activity level. D. body composition.
Resting Metabolic Rate Reason: RMR should be measured using indirect calorimetry; if RMR can not be measured, the Mifflin St. Jeor equation using the actual weight is the most accurate for estimating RMR for overweight and obese individuals.
A study that looks back in time to reconstruct exposures and resulting health outcomes for a group of people free of the disease or condition being studied is termed as: A. Retrospective cohort study B. Correlational study C. Prospective cohort study D. Prevalence study
Retrospective cohort study Reason: A retrospective study looks back while a cohort is the group of people studied to see who develops the characteristics of interest and who do not.
A preventative cardiology clinic sees patients who come to their clinic without initial coronary heart disease. Five years after the clinic opened, the physician conducts a chart review of these patients to compare the development of coronary heart disease among 2 groups: all patients and patients who were referred to the registered dietitian nutritionist. This is a: A. Retrospective cohort study B. Correlational study C. Prospective cohort study D. Prevalence study
Retrospective cohort study Reason: A retrospective cohort study looks at data from the past on a group of people after they have developed the outcome of interest. a prospective cohort study follows a group of people before any of the subjects have developed the outcome of interest.
Which statement best describes the "A" component of the FADE performance improvement model? A. Choose a specific problem or process to improve B. Review data to better understand the current process C. Create a plan D. Implement and monitor the plan
Review data to better understand the current process.
Which of the following would be considered a low allergen food? A. Milk B. Soy C. Wheat D. Rice
Rice
Which of the following foods is not a common pediatric foods allergen? A. Cow`s milk B. Rice C. Wheat D. Peanuts
Rice. Reason: Rice is commonly the first grain introduced to infants.
Which of the following does the Braden Scale measure? A. Risk factors that may lead to undernutrition B. Medical conditions that affect the ability to feed oneself C. Risk assessment for pressure ulcers D. Appetite stimulants in the patient or clients environment
Risk assessment for pressure ulcers Reason: this risk assessment is conducted according to total scores of 6 criteria: sensory perception; moisture; activity; mobility; nutrition; and friction
Which grouping of established USDA standards contains the correct relationship? A. Round inspection stamp B. Grade shield, quality, mandatory process C. Round inspection stamp, quality, voluntary process D. Grade shield, wholesomeness, voluntary process
Round inspection stamp, wholesomeness, mandatory process. Reason: The round inspection stamp indicates that meat and poultry has been inspected for wholesomeness- this is mandatory; Grading is voluntary.
A handwashing station must be equipped with the following terms: A. Running hot and cold water, soap, single-use paper towels, waste container, and signage indicating that employees should wash their hands before returning to work. B. Running hot water, soap, a warm hand dryer, waste container, and signage indicating that employees should wash their hands before returning to work. C. Running hot and cold water, soap, hand sanitizer, towel to dry hands, waste container, and signage indicating that employees should wash their hands before returning to work. D. Running hot water, hand sanitizer, single-use paper towels, waste container, and signage indicating that employees should wash their hands before returning to work.
Running hot and cold water, soap, single-use paper towels, waste container, and signage indicating that employees should wash their hands before returning to work. Reason: 5 components of a hand washing station: 1). hot and cold running water. 2). soap. 3). a means to dry hands. 4). waste container. 5). signage indicating that employees should wash their hands before returning to work.
According to the Joint Commission, which of the following is fundamental to cost-effective performance improvement? A. Safety B. Professional Expertise C. Technology D. Employee Motivation
Safety
Which of the following fats/oils have the highest smoke point, making it ideal for high heat cooking? A. Peanut oil B. Olive oil C. Shortening D. Safflower oil
Safflower oil. Reason: smoke points in order of highest to lowest: Safflower; peanut; olive oil; shortening.
A foodborne illness often associated with poultry and egg products that has an onset of 6-48 hours and causes abdominal pain, headache, nausea, vomiting, fever, and diarrhea is: A. L. monocytogenes B. Salmonella C. Shigella D. S. aureus
Salmonella
The food borne illness often associated with poultry, eggs, and produce that has an onset of 6-48 hours, causing abdominal pain, headache, nausea, vomiting, fever, and diarrhea is: A. Listeria monocytogenes B. Salmonella C. Shigella D. Staphylococcus aureus
Salmonella
Freezing is both a simple and successful method of food preservation. To ensure high quality results, it is recommended to keep salt content of prepared foods to a minimum. The reason for this is: A. Freezing intensifies flavor and the food will taste saltier when reheated B. Salt accelerates the rancidity of fats within the food C. Salt increase the risk for microbial growth when foods are thawed. D. Salt accelerates the freezing process and reduces the shelf life of food.
Salt accelerates the rancidity of fats with foods.
The loss of muscle mass that occurs with aging is termed: A. Cachexia B. Sarcopenia C. Dystrophy D. Myotonia
Sarcopenia Reason: Cachexia refers to wasting; Dystrophy refers to defective nutrition and metabolism; Myotonia refers to muscle spasms.
Which of the following foods is the best source of omega-3 FA? A. Olive oil B. Shrimp C. Avocado D. Sardines
Sardines Other sources of Omega-3 FA: Fatty fish; salmon, tuna, halibut.
When using the Nutrition Care Process, what three things do dietetics practitioners do in completing Nutrition Monitoring and Evaluation? A. Prioritize nutrition diagnoses, consult the Academy's evidence-based nutrition practice guidelines, and determine patient-focused expected outcomes. B. Scrutinize, measure, and assess the changes in nutrition care indicators. C. Confer with patient/client/caregivers, define a nutrition plan and strategies, and determine time and frequency of care. D. Identify resources needed, communicate the nutrition care plan, and implement the plan.
Scrutinize, measure, and assess the changes in nutrition care indicators.
This type of menu provides two or more choices for each category of food offered. A. Single-use B. Static menu C. Cycle menu D. Selective menu
Selective menu Reason: -Static menu offers same choices each meal -Cycle menu repeats menus on a predetermined basis
During a snowstorm, the assistant cook (AC) can't get to work. The person working in the "salads" position is unable to take over all AC responsibilities but is somewhat confident and willing to assist the head cook in preparing items on the daily production schedule. To be most effective, which leadership style should the foodservice manager use? A. Telling B. Selling C. Participating D. Delegating
Selling. Reason: Hershey, Blanchard, and Johnsons leadership effectiveness model indicates that when the salad person has low to moderate readiness, the manager needs to use selling leadership style.
If 100 patients with a disease are tested but only 96 test positive for the disease, that means the test has a ______ of 96%. A. Sensitivity B. Specificity C. Positive predictive value D. Negative predictive value
Sensitivity.
If an emulsion like mayonnaise is heated, what deterioration is most likely to occur? A. Precipitation of protein B. Hydrolytic rancidity C. Dehydration D. Seperation of water and oil
Seperation of water and oil
One of a teacher's functions in andragogy is to _______. A. Serve as a role model B. Structure content C. Serve as a facilitator D. Arrange for reinforcement
Serve as a facilitator Reason: Andragogy means that instruction for adults needs to focus more on process and less on content being taught.
After reviewing the results of menu engineering, what is the best way to manage a plowhorse? A. Remove the item from the menu B. Decrease the menu items selling price C. Serve smaller portions of the menu item D. Give the item top priority on the menu
Serve smaller portions of the menu item
When practicing as a foodservice buyer, which practice would be the most acceptable? A. Servings as the legal agent for the organization B. Sharing quotes between bidders in order to get the lowest price possible C. Attending vendor-sponsored parties D. Giving one supplier confidential information from another supplier.
Serving as the legal agent for the organization.
After defining the nutrition problem, which of the following is the correct sequence of steps a community nutritionist should follow in assessing the needs of the community? A. Set the parameters of the assessment, collect data, analyze and interpret the data, share the findings, and set the priorities. B. Set priorities, collect data, set the parameters of the assessment, analyze and interpret the data, share the findings. C. Choose a plan of action, collect the data, set the parameters of the assessment, share the findings, analyze and interpret the data D. Collect the data, analyze and interpret the data, set the parameters, share the findings, and set the priorities.
Set the parameters of the assessment, collect data, analyze and interpret the data, share the findings, and set priorities.
Which of the following is a contraindication to enteral nutrition support in an elderly patient? A. Dysphagia B. Severe acute pancreatitis C. Advanced osteoporosis D. Oncologic disease
Severe acute pancreatitis Reason: The other options do not affect gut function. Gut rest is appropriate for patients with pancreatitis, therefore enteral feeds are contraindicated.
A key factor in reaching populations with low literacy is _____. A. Simplicity B. Repetition C. Providing examples D. Providing scenarios
Simplicity
An employee finds the job tasks to be too demanding. To enhance the employee's performance, which of the following solutions should a manager consider first? A. Provide assistance, equipment, and raw materials as deemed appropriate B. Simplify tasks, lessen the work load, and reduce time pressures C. Provide guidance concerning expected goals and standards D. Redesign the job to match the employee's needs
Simplify tasks, lessen the work load, and reduce time pressures
Cultural _____ is the ability to collect culturally relevant information from clients and perform culturally based assessments and interventions. A. Knowledge B. Awareness C. Desire D. Skill
Skill.
The greatest number of employee injuries in kitchens is from A. Burns B. Contusions C. Sharp knives D. Slippery floors
Slippery floors
Which food processing method has been linked to cancer in laboratory animals? A. Smoke curing B. Pickling C. Freeze-drying D. Irradiation
Smoke curing
Which of the following is a secondary characteristic of culture? A. Occupation B. Age C. Gender D. Socioeconomic status
Socioeconomic status
Which additive is in baking powder and reacts with the sodium bicarbonate to produce carbon dioxide gas? A. Sodium aluminum sulfate B. Sodium alginate C. Sodium nitrite D. Sodium propionate
Sodium aluminum sulfate. Reason: Baking powder usually consists of sodium bicarbonate and sodium aluminum sulfate. Sodium bicarbonate releases carbon dioxide at low temperatures.
Which additive would inhibit mold in soda pop? A. Sorbitol B. Sodium benzoate C. Caramel D. Propyl gallate
Sodium benzoate Reason: Sodium benzoate is a preservative that is bacteriostatic and fungistatic under acidic conditions.
Which additive used in smoked and cured meats forms a color pigment that may oxidize to an undesirable yellow or greenish color when exposed to oxygen or light? A. Sodium Hydroxide B. Propyl Gallate C. Potassium Alginate D. Sodium Nitrate
Sodium nitrate.
Which foods should not be consumed by people with compromised immune systems? A. Eggs cooked to 165*F B. Pasteurized cider C. Rare Steak D. Soft Cheeses such as brie or feta
Soft cheeses such as feta or brie. Reason: Because these cheeses contain live mold; not safe for someones immune system if its compromised.
Which of the following foods is most appropriate for a level 2 dysphagia, mechanically altered diet? A. Soft pancakes with extra syrup B. Pineapple C. Licorice candy D. Sausage
Soft pancakes with extra syrup Reason: Moist, soft-textured, easily formed into a bolus; moist, tender ground or diced meats, soft cooked veggies, soft or canned fruits. Soft pancake okay. No bread, rice, cheese cubes.
Of the following, which is the type of skill that must develop within and be nurtured in both the personal and professional life of a manager? A. Hard B. Soft C. Networking D. Communication
Soft skills. Reason: Hard skills can be taught; soft skills can be developed and nurtured within our personal and professional lives.
Which additive would add sweetness, act as a stabilizer and thickener, and retain moistness in a muffin? A. Sorbitol B. Sodium Acetate C. Sodium Bicarbonate D. Saccharin
Sorbitol. Reason: Acts as a humectant.
The Food Allergen and Labeling and Consumer Protection Act of 2004 requires that labels must clearly identify the food source names of all ingredients that are- or contain any protein derived from- the 8 most common food allergens. Which of the following foods is one of eight most common food allergens? A. Corn B. Lentils C. Rye D. Soybean
Soybean
Which fat would be more susceptible to flavor reversion due to oxidative rancidity? A. Butter fat B. Coconut oil C. Soybean oil D. Olive oil
Soybean oil
When counseling patients diagnosed with Celiac disease, which of the following would you recommend they avoid? A. Hominy grits B. Sherbet C. Special K D. Fresh ground beef
Special K
The primary safeguard of foodservice quality is adherence to_____. A. Menus B. Purchase orders C. Specifications D. HACCP Standards
Specifications
To comply with Joint Commission certification standards, who should perform documentation of nutrition screening? A. Registered dietitian nutritionists on staff at the hospital B. Registered dietitian nutritionists or nutrition and dietetic technicians registered C. Staff selected at discretion of the hospital D. Food and nutrition services department managers
Staff selected at discretion of the hospital
Which of the following is a technical specification? A. Outlets are to be 120 volt, 15 amperes B. Stainless steel, 18 gauge C. Maximum RMM = 1550 D. KitchenAid Mixer, model #KUDP230BO
Stainless steel, 18 gauge Reason: Technical specifications indicate quality by objective test results.
The NCP includes A. Recommended goals B. Required courses of treatment C. Consistent expected outcomes D. Standardized language
Standardized language
What does the NCP provide to facilitate more effective comparison of nutrition assessment findings? A. Research opportunities B. PES Statements C. Information sharing technologies D. Standardized language
Standardized language
The average contribution margin (CM) per item on a menu is $6.74 and the menu mix (MM) percentage that is considered to be high is 12. A menu item with a contribution margin of $6.93 and a menu mix of 11, what menu engineering term would be used to describe this menu item? A. Plowhorse B. Puzzle C. Dog D Star
Star Reason: CM indicates profitability; menu mix determines an items popularity relative to other menu items. Plow horses are items that are popular but not very profitable; Puzzles are items that are profitable but not very popular; Dogs are items that are neither profitable or popular.
Which agency enforces food safety in a restaurant? A. CDC and Prevention B. State or local regulatory agency C. FDA D. USDA
State or local regulatory agency
Which agency enforces food safety in a restaurant? A. FDA B. Public Health Service C. CDC and Prevention D. State or local regulatory authority
State or local regulatory authority
In the systems model, tranformation depends on the requirements of the functional subsystems. Which resource would be most important for the distribution and service subsystem of a school cafeteria? A. Steam table B. Storeroom C. School nutrition staff D. Vendor delivery schedule
Steam table Reason: Functional subsystems are classified according to their purpose and may include procurement, production, distribution and service, and sanitation and maintenance. Distribution and service subsystems of the cafeteria include steam table because storeroom and delivery do not fit that subsystem.
Which of the following managerial terms describes the continuous and systematic process in which decisions are made about intended future outcomes, how outcomes are to be accomplished, and how success is measured and evaluated? A. Accountability B. Effectiveness C. Organizing D. Strategic Planning
Strategic Planning Reason: Accountability is the state of being responsible to ones self, to some organization, or even to the public. Effectiveness is "doing the right things." Organizing is the management function of grouping activities, delegating authority, and coordinating relationships horizontally and vertically.
A continuous and systematic process in which decisions are made about intended future outcomes, and how success is measured and evaluated is known as: A. Accountability B. Effectiveness C. Organizing D. Strategic Planning
Strategic planning
A dietary supplement with the statement "Vitamin K helps support normal blood clotting" on the label is making a A. Health claim B. Nutrient claim C. Structure/function claim D. Qualified health claim
Structure/function claim
A storeroom staffed with a full-time employee would be considered a ______ of a university residence hall foodservice. A. Input B. Subsystem C. Interface D. Technical core
Subsystem Reason: A subsystem is a complete system unto itself (such as a storeroom) that is part of a larger system (university residence hall foodservice).
Which of the following food additives does NOT have generally recognized as safe (GRAS) status? A. Sodium chloride B. Plant Sterols C. Allspice D. Sucralose
Sucralose.
Which of the following is the most effective and efficient tool for gathering information on consumption of locally grown foods by community residents? A. Health risk appraisal B. Screening tool C. Focus group D. Survey
Survey Reason: Surveys are the least expensive and systematic studies of a cross section of individuals. Health-Risk appraisals characterizes a populations general health. Screening tool represents a preventative health activity. Focus groups are an expensive way of obtaining information.
Which is the best tool for the community nutritionist to use to learn what locally grown food residents consume most frequently? A. Health Risk Appraisal B. Screening C. Focus Group D. Survey
Surveys. Reason: least expensive systematic study of a cross-section of individuals.
Consider the following statement from a patient during a nutrition consult: "I really want to improve my lunch choices by packing my own lunch, but I am afraid ill miss the social time with my coworkers." In the setting of motivational interviewing, this is an example of: A. Change talk B. Sustain talk C. Developing discrepancy D. Resistance
Sustain talk
Purchasing locally grown produce, using permanent ware (plates, flatware, etc), and reducing solid waste particles that support a ______ program. A. Hazard analysis and critical control points B. Food safety C. Sustainability D. Risk management
Sustainability
Which of the following fish contains a higher level of methyl mercury and therefore should be avoided during pregnancy? A. Salmon B. Pollack C. Swordfish D. Tilapia
Swordfish
The separation of a liquid from a gel- for example, when whey collects on the surface of yogurt-is known as: A. Condensation B. Syneresis C. Retrigradation D. Geltinization
Syneresis
______ is when a starch gel contracts and may leak water. A. Dextrinization B. Syneresis C. Cold pressing D. Gelatinization
Syneresis
To generate revenue, the bakery department produces a photo sheet of its decorated cakes and distributes it to all units in the hospital. The cafeteria bundles the decorated cake service with a discounted coffee service. This is an example of: A. Tranformation B. Output C. Synergy D. Permeability of boundaries
Synergy Reason: This option means working together to create greater outcomes than would be possibly working individually.
The astringent taste of F/V is the result of the following component: A. Anthocyanin B. Tannin. C. Carotene. D. Monosodium Glutamate
Tannins
In a taste test evaluation, which of the following foods would have notable "astringency" as part of its "flavor" profile? A. Lemons B. Grapefruit C. Tea D. Coffee
Tea Reason: Astringency is a taste sensation most often associated with the tannins in food. It has a puckering and dry sensation in mouth and it is found in tea, wine, chocolates, certain fruits (mostly underripe fruit). It is not to be confused with bitter or sour taste.
When working with disabled adults, it is suggested that the dietetics professional A. Use the my plate for kids because it contains pictures B. Speak initially to the guardian rather than the client C. Limit options presented to prevent confusing the client D. Teach rather than test
Teach rather than test
Nutrition informatics includes any function or activity that combines nutrition, information, and ____. A. Measurable objectives B. Technology C. Patient-centered goals d. Data monitoring
Technology
The Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics has published a number of documents to assist and guide the RDN and NDTR in his/her practice. Included among these practice standards documents are: A. The Academy`s position and practice papers and nutrition services coverage coding and billing information. B. The scope of practice decision tool and nutrition care manual C. The Academy`s Code of Ethics and Scopes of Practice for the RDN and NDTR. D. The Evidence Analysis Library and definition of terms
The Academy`s Code of Ethics and Scopes of Practice for the RDN and NDTR.
Which of the following statements is true regarding the Codex Alimentarius Commission (CAC)? A. The CAC is funded by the Food and Agricultural Organization of the United Nations (FAO) and the World Health Organization (WHO). B. The CAC develops international standards and codes to promote growth of industry. C. The United States is required by international law to abide by Codex Standards D. The Codex lacks a standard for labeling of prepackaged foods
The CAC is funded by the FAO and the WHO.
Upon quarterly audit, the accountant found an error: The beginning inventory for the month of January was overstated. How would this effect the cost of goods sold (COGS) and net income for the month of January? A. The COGS for January would be MORE than it actually was, and the net income would be less than it actually was. B. The COGS for January would be LESS than it actually was, and the net income would be less than it actually was. C. The COGS for January would be MORE than it actually was, and the net income would be more than it actually was. D. The COGS for January would NOT be affected, and the net income for February would be less than it actually was.
The COGS for January would be MORE than it actually was, and the net income would be LESS than it actually was.
The distinction between a franchise quick service restaurant (QSR) located in a shopping mall and the same franchise QSR located in a medical facility is that A. The shopping mall QSR is the only one allowed to make a profit B. The medical facility QSR is expected to operate at a loss C. The QSR in the hospital serves a secondary purpose while the QSR in the shopping mall serves as the primary purpose D. The QSR in the shopping mall satisfies a level 1 customer-driven need while the QSR in the hospital does not.
The QSR in the hospital serves a secondary purpose while the QSR in the shopping mall serves as the primary purpose
The Academy has published Standards of Practice (SOP) in Nutrition Care and Standards of Professional Performance (SOPP) for registered dietitian nutritionists and nutrition and dietetic technicians, registered. What is the difference between the 2 sets of standards? A. The SOP in Nutrition Care apply only to credentialed registered dietitian nutritionists working in acute care and the SOPP apply only to practitioners working as consultants. B. The SOP in Nutrition Care vary based on state law; the SOPP do not. C. The SOP in Nutrition Care apply only to RDN`s and the SOPP apply to both RDNS`s and NDTR`s. D. The SOP in Nutrition Care are based on the 4 steps of the Nutrition Care process and the SOPP are based on the 6 domains of professionalism.
The SOP in Nutrition Care are based on the 4 steps of the Nutrition Care process and the SOPP are based on the 6 domains of professionalism.
Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding the Codex Alimentarius Commission (CAC)? A. The CAC is funded by the FAO (Food and Agricultural Organization of the United Nations and the WHO B. The CAC develops international standards and codes to protect consumers C. The US is required by international law to abide by Codex standards. D. The Codex has a standard of labeling of prepackaged foods.
The US is required by international law to abide by Codex standards. Reason: The rest of the options are true: The CAC is funded by the FAO and WHO; The CAC develops international standards and codes to protect consumers; The Codex has a standard for labeling of prepackaged foods.
Which of the following must be included in the program evaluation review technique (PERT)? A. The amount of time needed to complete an activity B. The total cost associated with each activity C. The impact on labor cost if the project is delayed D. The degree of acceptance by customers
The amount of time needed to complete an activity.
During a review of customer feedback cards, Jill Simmons, RDN, noted a pattern of dissatisfaction with the consistency of the quality of the beef stew. She also noted a correlation to production data that reported running short of the beef stew during service. The most likely cause for these two problems would be: A. The servers were not using the appropriate size dishes when plating the stew B. The cooks are not using the standardized recipe C. The quality of the beef used in the stew is not consistent of the specifications D. Beef stew is a very popular item on the menu.
The cooks are not using standardized recipes.
In a community needs assessment report, the passage " ....southeast region of Essex County, including the adjoining municipalities of Kardon, Greenwalt, and Addison....," is an example of A. The target population B. The lead organizations C. The definition of the community D. The stakeholders
The definition of the community
Which of the following social or economic trends is thought to have the most important consequences for future community nutrition practice? A. The segment of the US population growing most rapidly is children aged 12 years and younger B. Different generations in the US having similar values and attitudes about health C. The deteriorating global environment indicators such as climate change, degradation of topsoil, and increased use of many chemical pollutants D. The food purchasing practices and preferences in the US that indicate a desire for an extensive variety of value-added, pre-prepared foods.
The deteriorating global environment indicators such as climate change, degradation of topsoil, and increased use of many chemical pollutants Reason: Other options are incorrect because the fastest growing segments of the US population is those older than 65; there is generational diversity in health-related values and attitudes, and purchasing practices indicate a desire and awareness of locally grown and fresh food.
Dietetics professionals may apply basic educational principles to program design. Which of the following is the best example of the application of consonance? -Even though the basics of a heart-healthy meal plan are being explained in a group setting, each participant is given the opportunity to have personal questions answered. -The successes that clients have had when following a reduced-sodium meal pattern are rewarded by the dietetics professional who gives away samples of salt-free seasoning packets. -The dietetics professional explains and demonstrates proper procedures for portioning hot entrees for the tray line. -The professional provides clients newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus a way of monitoring the progress they are making with regard to controlling blood sugar levels.
The dietetics professional explains and demonstrates proper procedures for portioning hot entrees for the trayline. Reason: Consonance is the fit between the program and the expected outcomes based on the objectives.
Carbon footprint, as related to sustainability, is a measure of: A. The impact on the environment based on the amount of greenhouse gases generated B. The amount of organic foods receiving certification C. The amount of disposable wares that are recycled D. The size of a piece of equipment used in foodservice operations
The impact on the environment based on the amount of greenhouse gases generated
Which of the following is an example of positive correlation? A. The amount of weight gained by pregnant women during the first trimester has been found to decrease as the number of episodes of nausea and vomiting increase. B. The incidence of T2D increases as central adiposity increases C. Consuming calories in excess of those needed results in an increased generalized adiposity. D. Blood pressure in certain genetic groups appears to decrease as the consumption of dietary sodium is reduced.
The incidence of T2D increases as central adiposity increases.
Conflict between nursing personnel and food and nutrition personnel over responsibility of patient tray service occurs because A. The two subsystems are not not the same level of hospital hierarchy B. Systems boundaries have been crossed C. Dynamic equilibrium of the system has not been established D. The interface between subsystems is often marked by tension
The interface between subsystems is often marked by tension
A foodservice director using a systems approach to evaluate the effect of a new tray delivery service on the dishroom and the nurses stations is considering A. The internal and external environments B. Equifinality of the system C. Dynamic equilibrium of the system D. Managerial feedback
The internal and external environments Reason: Environmental factors are components outside the system that can affect the operation system- in this example- the tray delivery service.
There are four National School Lunch Program menu planning options: NuMenu, Assisted NuMenu, Enhanced FoodBased, and Traditional FoodBased. When compared, there are similarities as well as differences. Which of the following components is specific to the NuMenus planning option? A. Menus will meet dietary guidelines for Americans B. There is greater flexibility with menu planning C. Compressive nutritional data are both quickly and readily available D. The school district must have computer hardware and USDA nutrient analysis software
The school district must have computer hardware and USDA nutrient analysis software
Many professions have a scope of practice. What is the definition of a "scope of practice"? A. The scope of practice determines how much education a practitioner needs to perform a service. B. The scope of practice typically describes the practitioners range of roles, activities and regulations within which nutrition and dietetics practitioners perform. C. The scope of practice defines payment for the services provided by the practitioner. D. The scope of practice specifies the education and training the practitioner must have before providing a service.
The scope of practice typically describes the practitioners range of roles, activities and regulations within which nutrition and dietetics practitioners perform.
Irrespective of whether a substance is deemed to be GRAS or if its safety is established through a premarket approval process, the safety determination is always limited to: A. The substance`s intended conditions of use B. Widely known data and information about the use of a substance C. Information gathered exclusively by FDA D. Universally established dosing standards
The substances intended conditions of use
Which of the following statements about patient-centered medical homes (PCMH) is true? A. The cost for chronic care remains consistent B. Traditional medical records are essential C. patients are responsible for access to care D. The team of providers changes as the healthcare needs differ
The team of providers changes as the healthcare needs differ
One disadvantage to adding baking soda to green beans or broccoli is that: A. The texture becomes mushy and soft B. Loss of fat-soluble vitamins C. Loss of color; dull D. Taste will be altered to be extremely salty
The texture becomes mushy and soft Reason: Color would be enhanced due to the reaction between chlorophyll and baking soda. Baking soda does destroy water soluble vitamins and has a softening effect, resulting in mushy vegetables.
Which of the following is true regarding illness from seafood toxins like scombroid and ciguatera fish poisoning? A. The toxin is easily destroyed by proper cooking and freezing B. Good hand washing practices can prevent illness C. The toxin is not destroyed by proper cooking and freezing D. Cross contamination is the major cause of illness.
The toxin is not destroyed by proper cooking and freezing.
What word best describes secretly taking something, planned and knowingly, without force, permission, or right? A. Theft B. Pilfering C. Robbery D. Embezzlement
Theft Reason: Pilfering is when an employee takes steals some meat to take home.
Which of the following is true of additives categorized as GRAS? A. They are generally recognized, among qualified experts, as having been adequately shown to be safe under the conditions of its intended use B. An ingredient approved as GRAS for one use is considered GRAS for all users C. Typically, an ingredient used to impart color is classified as GRAS. D. Establishment of GRAS additives is the prerogative of the FTC.
They are generally recognized, among qualified experts, as having been adequately shown to be safe under the conditions of its intended use
Which of the following is true of the Academys standards of practice in nutrition care? A. They are common to all dietetics professionals B. They are supported by data contained in the Academys evidence based library C. They evolved following the granting of Medicare Medical Nutrition Therapy Benefit Provider status to RDN`s D. They evolved independently of the Accreditation Council for Education in Nutrition and Dietetics core educational competencies
They evolved following the granting of medicare Medical Nutrition Therapy Benefit Provider status to RDN`s.
Which of the following micronutrients should be supplemented in a patient with history of alcoholism? A. Thiamin and folic acid B. Folic acid and Magnesium C. Calcium and Thiamin D. Calcium and Magnesium
Thiamin and folic acid
Which category of oral hyperglycemic medication would NOT be appropriate for a client with CHF? A. Sulfonylureas B. Biguanides C. Meglitinides D. Thiazolidinediones
Thiazolidinediones Reason: These kinds of medications can worsen CHF by prompting weight gain/edema.
Which of the following is an example of an FDA-authorized health claim? A. "This product reduced LDL cholesterol by 4% and increases HDL cholesterol by 10% in 6 weeks." B. "This product contains omega-3 fatty acids, which inhibit the growth of tumors." C. "Three grams of soluble fiber from oatmeal daily in a diet low in saturated fat and cholesterol may reduce the risk of heart disease. This product contains 2 mg per serving." D. "Consuming at least 3 or more ounce-equivalents of whole grains per day reduces the risk of several chronic diseases."
Three grams of soluble fiber from oatmeal daily in a diet low in saturated fat and cholesterol may reduce the risk of heart disease. This product contains 2 mg per serving. Reason: FDA guidelines for approved health claims require the use of the word "may."
The facility is planning a kitchen upgrade and the chef requests a number of pieces of equipment that would best allow for flexibility in menu item preparation methods. Soups, stews, and pasta dishes are very popular menu items. The concern is that there is limited space to work with. Which of the following pieces of equipment would best serve the facility in terms of functionality and space? A. Combo oven B. Steam-jacketed kettle C. Eight-burner cook top D. Tilting skillet
Tilting skillet
If a food manufacturer wanted to include an additive to color the glaze white, which would be best? A. Turmeric B. Sodium citrate C. Silicon dioxide D. Titanium dioxide
Titanium dioxide
What is the intended purpose of Healthy People 2020? A. To guide the efforts of health professionals who provide care for individuals with chronic diseases. B. To guide the allocation of federal money intended to promote wellness C. To establish a set of national goals and objectives designed to guide health promotion and disease prevention efforts D. To establish nationally approved guidelines for improving food selection behaviors among the population.
To establish a set of national goals and objectives designed to guide health promotion and disease prevention efforts.
A typical feeding/eating pattern for infants is A. To require apple juice at 4 months to regulate stooling B. To require cereal at bedtime after 3 months to sleep through the night C. To require only breastmilk or iron-fortified formula for the first 6 months of age D. Hard to predict since their interest in eating is so variable
To require only breastmilk or iron-fortified formula for the first 6 months of age
Which of the following is an example of a climacteric fruit? A. Grapefruit B. Melons C. Pineapple D. Tomato
Tomato Reason: Climacteric fruit ripens post-harvest. Other examples include: pears, peaches, bananas, apricots, and apples.
Nanotechnology refers to any usage of or technological development at the atomic, molecular, or macromolecular range between 1 and 1000 nanometers A. True B. False
True
When the diet is adequate in protein, the body can synthesize niacin from which amino acid? A. Phenylalanine B. Valine C. Tyrosine D. Tryptophan
Tryptophan Reason: Tryptophan is an amino acid that is converted to niacin in the liver; 1 mg niacin is made from the ingestion of 60mg Tryptophan.
Which of the following would be an example of a sol? A. Balsamic vinaigrette B. Egg white meringue one a pie C. Turkey gravy D. Flan
Turkey gravy Reason: A sol is a colloidal dispersion of a solid in a liquid and has flow properties. Egg white meringue is a foam; Flan is a gel that does not flow; vinaigrette is an example of an emulsion.
Which natural colorant might be added to pickles? A. Acetic acid B. Calcium chloride C. Turmeric D. Tragacanth gum
Turmeric
Phenylalanine is a precursor to which amino acid?
Tyrosine.
An example of a conditionally indispensable amino acid is A. Tryptophan B. Tyrosine C. Alanine D. Leucine
Tyrosine. Reason: Conditionally indispensable AA are defined as requiring a dietary source when endogenous synthesis cannot meet metabolic need. Indispensable AA are: arginine, cysteine, glutamine, glycine, proline, tyrosine.
The National School Lunch Program receives funding from the A. CMS B. CDC C. CACFP D. USDA
USDA
Which agency would certify that a package of potato chips labeled "organic," is in fact organic? A. FDA B. FSIS C. USDA D. USDC
USDA
Which federal department is responsible for administering and regulating the National Organic Program (NOP) A. FDA B. USDA C. FSAP (Food Safety Alliance for Packaging) D. CFSAN (Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition)
USDA
Which of the following government agencies is responsible for setting the quality of standards for fresh fruits and vegetables, meat, dairy, eggs? A. USDC B. USDA C. USPHS D. FDA
USDA
What government branch is responsible for yield grades and defining the term "organic" as it relates to farming practices? A. FDA B. USDA C. NSIP D. NMFS
USDA Reason: The FDA is responsible for ensuring that foods that are sold in the US are safe, wholesome, and properly labeled. NSIP (Nutrition Services Incentive Program) is responsible for rewarding state agencies and Indian tribal organizations that efficiently deliver nutritious meals to older Americans. NMFS (The National Marines Fisheries Service) regulates commercial and recreational ocean fishing and manages marine species.
Which US federal agency oversees the National School Lunch Program? A. Federal Committee on School Lunch B. USDA`s Food and Nutrition Services C. Department of Health and Human Services D. FDA
USDA`s Food and Nutrition Services
Which entity oversees the National School Lunch program? A. Federal Committee on School Lunch B. USDA`s Food and Nutrition Services C. US Department of Health and Human Services (USDHHS) D. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
USDA`s Food and Nutrition Services
Which of the following agencies oversees voluntary inspection and grading of fish and fish products? A. Department of Treasury B. FDA C. USDC (US Department of Commerce) D. USDA
USDC
This agency oversees voluntary inspections and grading of fish and fish products. A. Department of Treasury B. FDA C. US Department of Commerce (USDC) D. USDA
USDC Reason: The USDC is responsible for overseeing the inspection of fish and fish products which are not subject to mandatory grading.
Which of the following is a limitation of 24-hour recalls? A. Not useful if diet pattern varies considerably B. Requires literacy C. Recording process may influence food intake D. Underreporting or overreporting occurs
Underreporting or overexerting occurs
Using behavioral learning theory can be problematic in a foodservice environment because one of its tenets is that ______. A. Positive reinforcement is used B. Its use requires that there be a good role model C. Learners have to be permitted to ask questions D. Undesirable behaviors are ignored
Undesirable behaviors are ignored Reason: Behavioral learning theory uses conditioning to learn new information and behaviors. Chaotic environments can give the wrong impression; foodservice can be considered a chaotic environment.
Using behavioral learning theory can be problematic in a foodservice environment because one of its tenets is that ______. A. Positive reinforcement is used B. Its use requires that there be a good role model C. Learners have to be permitted to ask questions D. Undesirable behaviors are ignored
Undesirable behaviors are ignored.
A 56-year-old male presents to the ambulatory clinic for a team visit. Physical exam reveals: Height: 5`9"; Weight: 223 lbs; BMI: 33; BP: 168/96; Heart rate: 74. Pertinent laboratory results: HbA1c: 7; TSH (thyroid-stimulating hormone): 2.0 micro/L. Medications: Metformin (Glucophage 1000 mL daily); Hydrochloricthiazide: 25 mg; Lisinopril: 20 mg. Review of symptoms: Positive for daytime sleepiness; wife complains of loud snoring. Mood: affects appear to be good. Despite excellent adherence to DASH diet meal plan, BP continues to be elevated. What is the best explanation for his elevation in BP and daytime somnolence? A. A drug/drug interaction of hydrochlorothiazide and Metformin B. Untreated thyroid disease C. Undiagnosed obstructive sleep apnea D. Untreated depression
Undiagnosed obstructive sleep apnea.
What name is given to standard methods of accounting and presentation of financial statements that provide comparability of financial data within an industry? A. Public accounting B. Internal auditing C. Uniform systems of accounts D. Cost accounting
Uniform systems of accounts Reason: Public accounting encompasses a wide range of accounting roles. Internal auditing examines a companys financial records- ensuring their quality and legality.
To avoid contracting Listeria monocytogenes, pregnant women should avoid A. Unpasteurized milk and cheese B. Any processed meats C. Large ocean fish D. Unwashed fruits and veggies
Unpasteurized milk and cheese Reason: Listeria can be killed with pasteurization.
What is the definition of a low sodium food for the food label?
Up to 140 mg sodium per serving.
The Joint Commission outlines patient safety goals annually. Which of the following are patient safety goals in an outpatient setting? A. Use medications safely, identify patients correctly, prevent infections B. Follow written safety procedures, prevent falls, individualize care C. Manage cases individually, record patient progress, encourage follow-up D. Demonstrate individual practitioner competence, administer medications accurately, post all safety measures.
Use medications safely, identify patients correctly, prevent infections. Reason: Correct identification of patients using at least 2 patient identifiers decreases the risk of wrong-patient errors. National patient safety goals also include prevention of infections.
The management functions of planning, organizing, and staffing are A. Linked directly to transformation of inputs to outputs B. Used to coordinate subsystems to achieve objectives C. Linking processes for communication and decision making D. Used to maximize employee satisfaction
Used to coordinate subsystems to achieve objectives Reason: Goal of management is to achieve objectives.
Sustainability efforts in a foodservice operation include A. Using running water for rinsing B. Keeping lights on in all foodservice areas C. Breaking down cardboard boxes D. Using locally grown produce
Using locally grown produce
Dietetics students finishing supervised practice should be able to: A. Develop a virtual learning environment B. Use project management tools C. Use computer application for advanced statistical analysis D. Utilize an electronic health record and food and nutrition management systems and print educational materials for clients.
Utilize an electronic health record and food and nutrition management systems and print educational materials for clients.
What term is used to describe the methodical investigation of all components of an existing product or service with the goal of discovering and eliminating unnecessary costs without interfering with the effectiveness of the product or service? A. Make-or-buy decision B. Can cutting C. Value analysis D. Value-added research
Value analysis Reason: Value analysis maintains the effectiveness of quality of a product or service and at the same time decreases unnecessary costs. Make-or-buy decisions help in determining whether to produce the product or buy it prepared. Can cutting can help in determining the quality of various products such as canned fruit. Value-added research is used to estimate or quantify negative or positive effects.
One of the key differences in value analysis and value added is A. Value analysis strives to reduce cost whereas value added strives to bundle components B. Value analysis seeks to reduce cost whereas value added seeks to increase market value. C. Value analysis seeks to reduce costs whereas value added seeks to add quality component. D. Value analysis seeks to change the value of the product whereas value added seeks to reduce cost.
Value analysis seeks to reduce cost where added seeks to increase market value
Which of the following dietary lipids is the most heart healthy? A. Vegetable oil in squeezable bottle B. Margarine in a tub C. Vegetable oil in stick form D. Whipped margarine
Vegetable oil in a squeeze bottle. Reason: The most heart healthy dietary lipids are plant oils in liquid form.
A diagnosis of hypersensitivity to food requires A. Conducting a food challenge without restricting the suspected food B. Documented atopi dermatitis C. Using an elimination diet for 3 weeks D. Verifying the food that causes an adverse reaction and excluding other causes of adverse reactions
Verifying the food that causes an adverse reaction and excluding other causes of adverse reactions
A family is having difficulty providing food for all its members. The father skips meals occasionally and the mother eats very little to ensure that the children have enough to eat. Using established categories of food security status, this family would be classified as having A. High food security B. Marginal food insecurity C. Low food security D. Very low food security
Very low food security Reason: Very low food security is defined as: times during the year, eating patterns of one or more household members were disrupted and food intake reduced because the household lacked money and other resources for food.
A foodservice director who has determined that ready-prepared production will occur in a new foodservice facility being built should then consider which of the following as the next step? A. Meeting with equipment manufacturers B. Reading trade journal articles for layout and design ideas C. Attending seminars and trade shows D. Visiting similar facilities to see equipment, workflow, and service
Visiting similar facilities to see equipment, workflow, and service Reason: Once the type of production system is determined, it is vital to visit similar facilities before you meet with equipment manufacturers.
Older adults are more vulnerable to toxicity of A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin C C. Vitamin D D. Vitamin K
Vitamin A
Which of the following nutrients is required to be included as a Percent Daily Value on food labels? A. Vitamin A B. Potassium C. Vitamin D D. Iodine
Vitamin A
Which of the following nutrients should a pregnant woman avoid the excessive intake of? A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin B6 C. Folic Acid D. Iron
Vitamin A
A pregnant woman should avoid excessive intake of which of the following nutrients? A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin B6 C. Folic acid D. Iron
Vitamin A Reason: Excessive intake may result in birth defects. B6 is water soluble. Folic acid and iron should be increased during pregnancy.
Consumption of high levels of folate supplements can mask a(n) _____________ deficiency A. Niacin B. Vitamin B6 C. Iron D. Vitamin B12
Vitamin B12
After gastric bypass surgery, a patient has an increased risk for deficiency of which of the following? A. Vitamin C B. Potassium C. Vitamin B12 D. N-3 fatty acids
Vitamin B12 Reason: Vitamin B12 deficiency occurs in as many as 30% of bypass patients.
A patient presents with lesions in the gums and pinpoint hemorrhages on the skin. What vitamin is this patient most likely deficient in? A. Thiamin B. Magnesium C. Vitamin C D. Selenium
Vitamin C
Which micronutrient enhances the absorption of nonheme iron?
Vitamin C Reason: Vitamin C in amounts ≥75 mg can increase the absorption of nonheme iron.
Which set of nutrients and/or food components are associated with the formation of cataracts in older adults? A. Vitamin C, Vitamin E, Carotenoids B. Thiamin, Riboflavin, Niacin C. Vitamin C, Vitamin E, Phytosterols D. Calcium, Zinc, Magnesium
Vitamin C, Vitamin E, Carotenoids. Reason: Carotenoids are high oxidants and oxidative stress.
Which vitamin enhances iron absorption?
Vitamin C.
Researchers are identifying the impact of differing levels of Vitamin D intake on HbA1c values among postmenopausal women with diabetes. What is the independent variable? A. Vitamin D intake B. Postmenopausal women C. Diabetes status D. HbA1c values
Vitamin D intake.
Rickets is a result of which vitamin deficiency? A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin C C. Vitamin D D. Vitamin K
Vitamin D.
Employees should be excluded from working in any type of foodservice establishment if they have any of the following symptoms: A. N/V/D B. Vomiting, Jaundice, Coughing C. Sore throat, Vomiting, Diarrhea D. Vomiting, Diarrhea, Jaundice
Vomiting, diarrhea, jaundice
Which of the following is a good indicator of central adiposity? A. Hip circumference B. Basal metabolic rate C. Waist circumference D. Body Weight
Waist circumference
Which of the following measures of obesity correlate best with obesity associated disease risk? A. BMI B. Skinfold Thickness C. Abdominal Body Shape Index D. Waist Circumference
Waist circumference
One of the key features of andragogy is that adults_____. A. Expect learning to be subject-centered B. Want learning that is relevant to their needs C. Desire external sources of motivation D. Learn what others think is important
Want learning that is relevant to their needs Reason: 4 principles of andragogy are: 1). Adults need to be involved in the planning and evaluation of their instruction. 2). Experience provides the basis of learning activities. 3). Adults are most interested in learning subjects that have immediate relevance to their job or personal life. 4). Adult learning is problem centered rather than content oriented.
Which of the following would be considered an antecedent in the ABC framework used by behavioral scientists? A. Eating an extra large container of popcorn at the movies B. Enjoying the company of others while eating out C. Sampling most of the items at a restaurant that serves buffet style D. Watching a TV commercial advertising burgers
Watching a TV commercial advertising burgers. Reason: Antecedent is events or environments that trigger a specific behavior or response.
Which nutrient is most susceptible to loss in foods? A. Water soluble vitamins B. Fat soluble vitamins C. Carbs D. Proteins
Water soluble vitamins
Which of the following is not a risk determinant for metabolic syndrome? A. Waist circumference B. Blood pressure C. Triglycerides D. Weight
Weight Reason: Metabolic syndrome is a commonly encountered clinical phenotype presenting as concurrent metabolic abnormalities, including central obesity, dysglycemia, dyslipidemia, and hypertension. Weight is not necessarily a consideration.
Which of the following statements is INCORRECT regarding the concept of weight bias? A. Weight bias is more prevalent among registered dietitian nutritionists than mental health workers. B. Weight bias is more common than sexual orientation bias C. Weight bias is comparable to racial discrimination D. Weight bias does not exist among registered dietitian nutritionists who often work with obese clients.
Weight bias does not exist among registered dietitian nutritionists who often work with obese clients.
Which of the following are the correct CDC growth charts to use in a child care center for assessing the growth of a 6 year old boy? A. Weight for age and length for age B. Weight for age and stature for age C. Stature for age and weight for stature D. Length for age and weight for stature
Weight for age and stature for age Reason: 2-5 year olds: weight for stature charts are used; Infants and toddlers (birth-36 months): length for age and weight for age charts are used.
When performing nutrition screening for pediatric patients, which of the following would identify a patient at risk according to the CDC and Prevention growth chart? A. BMI of 80th percentile B. Length/height for age of 75th percentile C. Weight for age of 25th percentile D. Weight for length/height below the 3rd percentile
Weight for length/height below the 3rd percentile Reason: Weight for height is the most accurate indicator of risk.
The CDC and Prevention growth chart that is used to determine if a child is underweight or overweight plots A. Height for age B. Length for age C. Weight for age D. Weight for stature
Weight for stature Reason: This measurement is used to determine if a child is over/underweight. These measurements are not based on age.
Which of the following lists of side effects of contraceptive injections is accurate and complete? A. Weight loss, decreased blood levels of HDL-cholesterol, and decreased bone density B. Weight gain and increased blood levels of LDL cholesterol and insulin C. Weight gain, increased blood levels of LDL cholesterol and insulin, decreased blood levels of HDL cholesterol, and decreased bone density. D. Increased blood levels of LDL-cholesterol and insulin, weight loss, and decreased blood levels of HDL-cholesterol.
Weight gain, increased blood levels of LDL cholesterol and insulin, decreased blood levels of HDL cholesterol, and decreased bone density.
Which of the following is the best example of an open-ended question? A. Why would you want to follow that meal plan? B. Do you use skim milk or whole milk? C. What are some of the challenges faced in your weight loss journey? D. Do you feel positive or negative about your weight loss goal?
What are some challenges that you've faced on your weight loss journey?
If a client exploring readiness for change rates confidence as a "4" and importance as a "10", which of the following questions/comments would lead to the most productive conversation about change? -"Why aren't you more motivated?" -"What can I do to help you?" -"What would need to happen in order for your confidence to increase to a '6'?" -"It's encouraging that the importance rating is so high."
What would need to happen in order for your confidence to increase to a "6"
CDR`s Essential Practice Competencies specify what every RDN should be able to do A. Prior to beginning supervised practice B. Before graduating from an accredited DPD C. When completing a supervised practice experience D. Following completion of the first 3 years of professional experience
When completing a supervised practice experience. Reason: Individuals are expected to develop competence to practice dietetics through a supervised practice component in programs accredited or approved by ACEND.
In which of the following situations does Joint Commission require the performance of a nutritional assessment or screen? A. During emergency room visits B. During visits to hospital owned physician offices C. When a patient is seen in an outpatient setting D. When warranted by the patients needs and conditions
When warranted by the patient needs and conditions
Providing advice and information can be a component of a successful patient interaction. Under what circumstances is it appropriate to provide advice or information? A. When you asked for permission from the client or if the client requests it B. When you have limited time in your nutrition session C. When you have a talkative client and you need to direct the focus of the interview D. After you've established rapport and the client is ready to set goals
When you asked for permission from the client or if the client requests it
The group of people that best exemplifies the term "target population" are those A. With similar nutrition and fitness goals B. With common characteristics or a common bond C. Who will conduct a community needs assessment D. Who are the focus of a community needs assessment
Who are the focus of a community needs assessment
In the Cajun and Creole culture, the traiteur is the one _____. A. Who provides valued health and wellness information B. Who is considered the most revered member of the community C. Who blesses the food before it is consumed D. Who believes he or she possesses a divine gift for healing
Who believes he or she possesses a divine gift for healing Reason: Similar to a "shaman" in other cultures.
The formula for determining value analysis is V=Q/P; where P=price, V=value, Q=quality. If P increases, there is no change in Q, then V A. Will remain the same B. Will most likely increase C. Changes as much as P D. Will most likely decrease
Will most likely decrease
Which of the following is true about cutting boards? A. Only synthetic cutting boards are ever allowed to be used. B. Only wooden cutting boards are ever allowed to be used. C. Wooden cutting boards should be made from hardwood such as maple or oak D. It is permissible to use the same cutting board for ready-to-eat and raw foods as long as you use different sides of the cutting board
Wooden cutting boards should be made from hardwood such as maple or oak Reason: Cutting boards should be either from synthetic materials or wood that is non-absorbable so that the odor or taste of the food does not transfer.
Which of the following is least likely to be documented? A. Work related advice provided by the supervisor to the employee B. Employee appearance C. Employee availability D. Employee conduct
Work-related advice provided by the supervisor to the employee.
This fungus is able to ferment sugars and is used in producing food products such as bread and alcohol. A. Mold B. Yeast C. Prion D. Bacteria
Yeast
The NDTR receives information from the patients about food temperatures. The line cooks receive information from the RDN about recipe modifications. The health inspector provides an assessment of the dishroom. Are these interactions examples of feedback? A. No, because feedback is only from the external environment B. No, because feedback flows from the bottom to the top of the organization C. Yes, because feedback can be from the internal and external environments D. Yes, because feedback moves in all directions throughout an organization
Yes, because feedback can be from the internal and external environments Reason: In this example all 3 levels are interacting and giving internal feedback, the health inspector is providing external feedback.
A client comes in unsure on what fruits to eat on his diabetic meal plan. Which of the following is the best example of a reflective statement/question to ask? A. You're uncertain about how to choose foods? B. You're interested in your health? C. Do you want a diabetic meal plan? D. Im happy you've come in today.
You're uncertain on how to choose foods?
As a manager, you were instructed to prepare a budget without relying on the figures from previous years. This is known as a A. Top-down budget B. Bottom-up budget C. Baseline budget D. Zero-based budget
Zero-based budget. Reason: Top down budget: prepared by top management and given to each operating units; Botton up budget: individuals prepare their own budget that is sent to upper management; Baseline budget starts with the previous budget and adjusts to current conditions.
Which of the following nutrients is essential for growth and sexual maturation in adolescents? A. Calcium B. Selenium C. Zinc D. Iron
Zinc Reason: Zinc deficiency is the hallmark sign of growth retardation and sexual immaturity.
The term for a menu style that has all components of a meal priced individually is __________.
a la carte
A menu style that has all components of a meal priced individually is known as A. Prix fixe B. Table d^hote C. A la carte D. Family style
a la carte Reason: Table d`hote and prix fixe menu is a complete meal at a fixed price.
Children on strict vegan diets may be deficient in: A. Vitamin B6 B. Magnesium C. Vitamin B12 D. Iron
b12
Which of the following foods would you expect to empty from the stomach most quickly? A. French Fries B. Oatmeal C. Orange Juice D. Scrambled eggs
fruit juice.
Which of following does not provide a significant source of vitamin D A. Egg yolk B. Kale C. Sardines D. Fortified milk
kale.
A thermometer used to measure the temperature of food must be accurate to what temperature? A. ±8*F B. ±6*F C. ±4*F D. ±2*F
±2*F
Freezing foods at _____ is the least damaging to the food's original flavor, nutrient content, and texture compared to most other preservation methods. A. ≤10*F B. ≤32*F C. ≤0*F D. ≤20*F
≤0*F Reason: Temperatures above 0*F, food quality is lost quickly and both flavor and texture are compromised.
Freezing foods at ______ is the least damaging to the foods original flavor, nutrient content, and texture compared to more other preservation methods A. ≤10*F B. ≤32*F C. ≤0*F D. ≤20*F
≤0*F Reason: Temperatures above this *F, food quality is quickly lost, and flavor and texture is compromised.
A child's weight is plotted at the 50th percentile on the growth chart. This means that the child's weight is: A. ≥ half of the children of the same gender and ethnicity. B. ≥ half of the children of the same age. C. ≥ half of the children of the same ethnicity. D. ≥ half of the children of the same gender and age.
≥ half of the children of the same gender and age
How much water needs to be removed from food if dehydration is used as a method of food preservation? A. ≥80% B. ≥85% C. ≥90% D. ≥95%
≥80% Reason: When the moisture content of food is reduced by 80-95%, food can be preserved and remain shelf stable when kept in airtight containers.
How much water needs to be removed from vegetables if dehydration is used as a method of food preservation? A. ≥80% B. ≥85% C. ≥90% D. ≥95%
≥95%. Dehydrated veggies have 95% of their water removed; Dehydrated fruits have 80% of their water removed.