Emergency Management Questions, Volume 1
List the elements that make up the installation DRF
(1) Crisis action team. (2) CAT support staff. (3) Emergency operations center. (4) Unit control centers. (5) Emergency communications center. (6) Incident commander. (7) First responders. (8) Specialized and support/recovery teams .
What is the RTF?
A DOD response force appropriately staffed, trained, and equipped to coordinate all actions necessary to control and recover from a nuclear weapon accident or incident.
2. What is a hazard assessment?
A DOD, command, or unit-level evaluation (assessment) used to identify hazards and associated risk to person, property, and structures and to improve protection from natural, man-made, or technological disasters or hazards. 7
What is one of the first steps an installation commander takes in establishing a single, installation- wide emergency management program?
Appointing, in writing, an installation emergency manager.
What percentage of US search and rescue mission are conducted by the CAP?
Approximately 90 percent.
What are some factors that affect the probability of control of an incident?
Area involved, threat to life and property, political sensitivity, organizational complexity, jurisdictional boundaries, values at risk, weather, strategy and tactics, and agency policy.
3. Reconnaissance vehicles can include what?
Armor protection, enhanced navigation and communications, enhanced optics, limited firepower, collective protection, meteorological data.
3. How are deployable manpower authorizations that cannot be described by or do not fit an existing standard deployable UTC postured?
As an A-UTC.
3. List the items relating to CBRN that the initial entry element should be looking for when conducting an initial survey observation.
Containment, processing equipment, waste disposal, signs of release, safety equipment.
(017) Which team performs decontamination on assets under the control of their functional area for wartime operations? a. Contamination control team. b. Wartime decontamination team. c. Critical asset decontamination team. d. Chemical, Biological, Radiological, and Nuclear (CBRN) reconnaissance team.
Contamination control team.
3. (408) In what area of the contamination control station (CCS) do the CCS team personnel conduct radiological monitoring? a. Hot line. b. Contamination control line (CCL). c. Contamination removal zone. d. Contamination reduction area (CRA).
Contamination reduction area (CRA)
3. (408) Which option is not a principal element of a contamination control station (CCS)? a. Hot line. b. Contamination control line (CCL). c. Contamination removal zone. d. Contamination reduction area (CRA).
Contamination removal zone.
3. (430) Who ensures protected cargo is secure and under surveillance at all times during the deployment movement? a. Aircrew. b. Couriers. c. Prime Base Engineer Emergency Force (BEEF) manager. d. Unit deployment manager (UDM).
Couriers
(017) Which team is used to recover aircraft and to support the investigation of the interim and safety accident investigative boards of an aircraft accident? a. Crash recovery team. b. Search and recovery team. c. Incident management team. d. Emergency management support team.
Crash recovery team.
(012) Which installation function is activated to provide command, control, and communication link to higher headquarters and civilian agencies and coordinates the incident response needs when installation resources are exceeded? a. Command post. b. Crisis action team. c. Unit control center. d. Emergency operations center.
Crisis Action Team
Which element of the installation DRF is a staff formed by the installation commander to plan, direct, and coordinate forces in response to contingencies, crises, natural/manmade disasters, or wartime situations?
Crisis action team .
3. (401) In the Recovery phase of the Air Force Incident Management System (AFIMS), who identifies the Recovery Operations Chief (ROC)? a. Incident Commander (IC). b. Civil Engineer (CE) commander. c. Director of Operations. d. Emergency Operations Center (EOC) Director.
Emergency Operations Center Director
(001) What directive required the federal government to establish a single, comprehensive approach to domestic incident management? a. The National Preparedness Goal. b. Presidential Policy Directive-8, National Preparedness. c. Homeland Security Presidential Directive-8, National Preparedness. d. Homeland Security Presidential Directive-5, Management of Domestic Incidents.
Homeland Security Presidential Directive-5, Management of Domestic Incidents.
2. What do support agreements define?
How and when the agreements are to be implemented, who performs what and how, who pays for specific services, how long the agreement is in effect, how the agreements are terminated, and who administers the agreements.
2. What is the first thing you must consider before building a training schedule?
How many people need training and how much training the flight is capable of providing. .
2. (223) What was developed and adopted to assist Air Force emergency managers in the development process of their respective Installation Emergency Management Plan (IEMP) 10-2? a. CPG 101. b. IEMP 10-2 Planning Tool. c. AF "Be Ready" Awareness Campaign. d. All Hazards Risk Management Process.
IEMP 10-2 Planning Tool.
Who monitors incident operations and advises the IC on all matters relating to operational safety, including the health and safety of emergency responder personnel?
ISO.
3. When are decontamination operations generally not cost-effective?
If lifesaving is not an issue and a reduction in MOPP will not occur.
3. When a CBRN incident occurs, the first and most important activities are the procedures associated with what level of decontamination?
Immediate or personal decontamination.
3. (412) Which level of decontamination is conducted by a unit, with or without external support, to reduce contamination on personnel, equipment, materiel, and/or work areas? a. Immediate. b. Operational. c. Thorough. d. Clearance.
Immediate.
3. (412) Which level of decontamination is conducted by an individual shortly after becoming contaminated? a. Immediate. b. Operational. c. Thorough. d. Clearance.
Immediate.
3. (408) A nuclear weapons accident undergoes a high-order detonation causing radioactive contamination to spread downwind over 3 miles. Hundreds of civilian personnel start to show up at your contamination control station (CCS). Unfortunately, you have only four personnel and a limited number of radiation, indication, and computations (RADIAC) to operate your CCS. Your CCS is completely overwhelmed by the number of people needing to process. Given these circumstances, what is the best action to take? a. Implement initial CCS procedures. b. Implement standard CCS procedures. c. Direct the civilians to a holding area until the response task force (RTF) arrives. d. Separate the civilians into several large groups and conduct a spot monitor of only a few in each group. If the few are clean, then release the rest.
Implement Initial CCS
2. How did the Air Force comply with adopting NIMS?
In January 2007, the CSAF implemented the Air Force's version of NIMS called the Air Force Incident Management System (AFIMS).
2. How should units identify and mark training equipment?
In accordance with equipment TOs.
How are specialized teams trained?
In accordance with functional guidance.
3. Under what circumstances would you use the cloverleaf CBRN location technique?
In restricted access or terrain or so that sites for high-value facilities (mission command centers) are free of contamination.
3. The human eye is capable of detecting chemical agent droplets of what size?
In the 200-micron range under normal lighting conditions; 100 microns is achievable under the best light.
3. (401) What is the planning mechanism used throughout an incident to codify and distribute the tactical objectives and support activities required for one operational period? a. Installation Emergency Management Plan (IEMP) 10-2. b. Contingency Response Plan. c. Incident Response Plan (IRP). d. Incident Action Plan (IAP).
Incident Action Plan
(024) Which Incident Command System (ICS) location is mandatory for executing primary command functions? a. Base. b. Camp. c. Staging area. d. Incident command post.
Incident command post.
(016) Who is the trained and experienced responder who provides tactical on-scene control by initiating the incident command system using subject matter experts and support from other functions? a. Incident commander. b. Installation commander. c. Crisis Action Team director. d. Emergency Operation Center director.
Incident commander.
(017) Which team is a comprehensive team that includes all components and functions of the command and general staff of the Incident Command System (ICS) structure? a. Search and recovery team. b. Incident management team. c. Incident command support team. d. Emergency management support team.
Incident management team.
(024) Under the Incident Command System (ICS), who monitors incident operations and advises the Incident Commander (IC) on all matters relating to operational safety, including the health and safety of emergency responder personnel? a. Emergency Operation Center director. b. Operations section chief. c. Installation commander. d. Incident safety officer.
Incident safety officer.
2. What does the IEMP 10-2 planning tool help to eliminate?
Inconsistency and irrelevancy of installation IEMP 10-2's throughout the Air Force.
What functions make up the ECC?
Independent fire, security forces, and medical dispatch centers.
What three major categories of federal disaster aid provided by FEMA?
Individual assistance, public assistance, and hazard mitigation.
What is a single resource?
Individual personnel and equipment items and the operators associated with them.
Who fills the FCO position, and what qualification does this person require?
The FCO is a senior FEMA official trained, certified, and well experienced in emergency management and specifically appointed to coordinate federal support in the response to and recovery from emergencies and major disasters.
Who comprises the command staff of the ICS?
The IC and the staff positions of public information officer, incident safety officer, liaison officer.
2. Which section of the IEMP 10-2 outlines the shelter-related steps required for a natural, man-made, or technological incident?
The IEMP 10-2 Hazard-Specific Appendix.
7. Which planning principle, more than any other plan element, enables unity of effort and consistency of purpose among the multiple groups and activities involved in executing the plan?
The clear definition of the mission and supporting goals.
Define incident type (also known as incident complexity).
The combination of involved factors that affect the probability of control of an incident.
What functions as the installation's essential C2 node?
The command post.
When notification of an incident is received, who activates the INWS, notifies all base organizations, and notifies off-base agencies supported by the installation?
The command post.
2. Who is responsible for establishing a unit ancillary training schedule?
The commander or agency chief for each installation agency.
What is the composition and function of the CAT?
The composition and function of the CAT is largely mission driven and therefore a MAJCOM or installation commander's prerogative.
2. The training element must maintain training attendance data for all training conducted by the flight for what time period?
The current and previous year.
3. What do readiness C-levels show?
The degree to which units are capable of performing their wartime mission.
3. What does an EXORD direct when preceded by a detailed ALERTORD or PLANORD?
The deployment and/or employment of forces.
2. What is the most common pitfall in planning?
The development of lengthy, overly detailed plans that those responsible for their execution do not read.
(026) Who ensures that the state is prepared to deal with large-scale emergencies and is responsible for coordinating the state response in any incident? a. Elected officials. b. The state's governor. c. The state's department of public safety. d. The director of the state Emergency Management agency.
The director of the state Emergency Management agency.
Who is responsible for ensuring the state is prepared for large-scale emergencies and coordinating the state response in any incident?
The director of the state emergency management agency.
2. (201) What emergency management (EM) career field emblem was approved for use in 1966 by the US Army Institute of Heraldry, graphically symbolizes the components that make up the response elements, and is still in use today? a. The base civil engineer (BCE) emblem. b. The disaster control group (DCG) emblem. c. The disaster response force (DRF) emblem. d. The EM emblem.
The disaster response force (DRF) emblem.
2. What emblem approved for use in 1966 by the US Army Institute of Heraldry is still in use today?
The disaster response force emblem.
Which section of the ICS structure is responsible for gathering and disseminating information critical to the incident, unless the IC places the function elsewhere?
The planning section.
Who leads the federal government's response efforts?
The president.
2. What pieces of equipment are used for both operational and training purposes?
The protective mask, web belt, canteen, canteen cap, helmet, body armor, and M8/M9 paper.
2. How are requests for special allowances made?
The request is made to the base supply EMS on AF Form 601, Equipment Action Request, or input online into the AFEMS.
UCCs vary depending on what?
The resources, capabilities, and mission of a respective group or squadron on the installation.
2. IMAs should be trained to what level of competence?
The same level of competence as the rest of your personnel.
(027) Who is the principal federal official for domestic incident management? a. The president. b. The secretary of Homeland Security. c. The secretary of Department of the Interior. d. The director of Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA).
The secretary of Homeland Security.
(031) Who assigns military missions? a. The president. b. The secretary of defense (SecDef). c. Each service's respective chief of staff. d. The chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff.
The secretary of defense (SecDef).
2. What is the sole purpose of corresponding tools for the hazard, capability, and vulnerability assessements?
To enhance the installation's Office of Emergency Management's ability to conduct the hazard, capability, and vulnerability assessments thereby ensuring an accurate risk assessment for the installation.
3. Name one of the most important JRAC responsibilities.
To ensure adequate CBRN defense.
2. Why must senior leaders be included throughout the planning process?
To ensure both understanding and approval.
2. What responsibility does the R&EM flight have in developing the hazardous waste collection and disposal plan?
To ensure that all contaminated waste is handled and disposed of safely.
What is the objective of the US government through HSPD-5?
To ensure that all levels of government can effectively and efficiently work together using a national approach to domestic incidents.
2. What is the goal of the units' supporting checklists to IEMP 10-2?
To ensure that all tasks are documented and carried out so that nothing is left to chance when it is time to respond.
What is the purpose of the installation EMWG?
To ensure the installation has the capability to respond and recover from incidents and enable mission execution.
3. Why do you use a CBRN 1 with FLASH precedence for reporting the first enemy use of CBRN weapons (first nuclear, first biological, or first chemical)?
To ensure the senior leadership obtains the information as quickly as possible; it could change the level of the entire war.
2. What are support agreements used for?
To establish an agreement between parties and documents proof of the agreement and its contents.
What is the primary purpose of the SMR?
To liaison with media and outside agencies during high visibility incidents or to support the IC.
What is the primary mission of the S&R team?
To locate and recover remains after an accident or incident.
2. What is the goal of CPG 101?
To make the planning process routine across all phases of emergency management and for all homeland security mission areas.
3. How are swing stocks positioned?
To maximize flexibility to support multiple theaters.
3. What is the purpose of WRM?
To meet planned defense objectives.
3. State the purpose of a CCS.
To minimize (attempting to eliminate) the spread of radiological contamination and to serve as a focal point for entry to and exit from the accident site.
3. What is the primary mission of the EOC?
To monitor and direct preattack and transattack survival actions and post-attack recovery actions.
3. What is the goal of posturing?
To posture the maximum number of manpower authorizations into standard deployable UTCs that are made available in the UTC Availability database.
2. Why do installations implement work rest cycles?
To prevent heat exhaustion, heat stroke, and heat cramps.
3. What is the purpose of collective protection?
To produce a temperature-controlled, TFA where operations, rest and relief, and medical treatment, to name a few, can continue without protective equipment.
3. What is your goal in conducting a MOPP analysis advice to commanders?
To provide a full description of the risks as well as the benefits of using (or not using) various levels of MOPP .
What is the goal of having an integrated ECC?
To provide an enhanced COP
(015) What is the goal of the integrated emergency communications center? a. To provide an enhanced common operating picture (COP). b. To direct all resources needed by the incident commander. c. To provide a collocated location for medical and fire dispatch. d. To manage communications between the emergency operations center (EOC) and crisis action team (CAT).
To provide an enhanced common operating picture (COP).
Why is the CAT activated?
To provide command, control, and communication link to higher headquarters, civilian agencies, and coordinates the incident response needs when installation resources are exceeded.
3. Why would you want to know the type of hazards specific to each different chemical agent?
To provide insight into the type (if any) and extend of decontamination required.
2. What is the Air Force goal regarding TOs?
To provide real-time availability of current TOs electronically through a single point of access, viewable at the point of use using electronic tools.
What was the primary reason the DHS was established?
To provide the unifying core for the vast national network of organizations and institutions involved in efforts to secure our nation.
What are crash recovery teams used for?
To recover aircraft and to support the investigation of the interim and safety accident investigative boards of an aircraft accident.
What is the specific purpose of the RTF?
To recover weapons and provide radiological accident assistance.
3. What is the goal of personnel removing their clothing (anti-contamination suits) in the CRA?
To remove the clothing in such a way that the radiological dust/solid contaminants do not fall onto the individual's inner clothing or skin and cause contamination.
What is the fundamental role of NATO?
To safeguard the freedom and security of its member countries by political and military means.
What is the primary mission of the Air Force EM Program?
To save lives, maintain and restore operational capability, and minimize the loss or degradation of resources in an all-hazards environment at Air Force installations worldwide.
What is JTF-CS's purpose?
To save lives, prevent injury and provide temporary critical life support during a CBRNE situation in the US or its territories and possessions. JTF-CS is the only military organization dedicated solely to planning and integrating DOD forces for consequence management support to civil authorities in such a situation.
Why was HSPD-8 issued?
To strengthen the preparedness of the US to prevent and respond to threatened or actual domestic terrorist attacks, major disasters, and other emergencies.
What is the primary mission of FEMA?
To support citizens and first responders to ensure that as a nation we work together to build, sustain, and improve our capability to prepare for, protect against, respond to, recover from, and mitigate all hazards.
What is the WMD-CST's mission?
To support civil authorities at domestic CBRNE incident sites by identifying CBRNE agents and substances, assessing current and projected consequences, advising on response measures, and assisting with appropriate requests for additional support.
What is the ancillary mission of the Air Force EM Program?
To support homeland defense and civil support operations and to provide support to civil and host nation authorities.
What is the mission of the IRF?
To take immediate lifesaving actions and establish safety and security controls at the accident scene.
2. What was the ABC program's primary focus?
To train selected deployable Air Force personnel on ABC defense measures.
2. In-house training provides an opportunity for EM personnel to do what?
To update and maintain their technical and professional skills.
3. What is the purpose of collecting a background sample?
To use as a comparison sample.
3. For which UTCs are the non-deployable status reserved?
Those UTCs used to register a unit in SORTS. Nondeployable UTCs will not be used to posture capability into the UTC Availability database and cannot be used in TPFDDs.
What do critical infrastructures include?
Those assets, systems, networks, and functions, physical or virtual, so vital to the US that their incapacitation or destruction would have a debilitating impact on security, national economic security, public health or safety, or any combination of those matters.
3. Define CBRN reconnaissance operations.
Those operations undertaken to obtain, by visual observation or other detection methods, information on the potential or actual CBRN hazards and threats in an area of operations.
3. How many 463L pallet nets are in a set?
Three, two side nets and one top net.
3. How many operational decon packets are contained in the RSDL wallet-like-sleeve?
Three.
2. How can the impact of a tsunami be mitigated?
Through community preparedness, timely warnings, and effective response.
3. How does CBRN R&S implement contamination avoidance?
Through detection, identification, and quantification of CBRN hazards
2. How can a bioweapon be recognized?
Through identification of a credible threat, the discovery of weapons materials (dispersion devices, raw biological material, or weapons laboratories), and correct diagnosis of affected humans, animals, or plants.
2. How can most deficiencies be addressed after an exercise?
Through improved training, developing or improving existing checklists/processes, or obtaining required equipment.
2. How does the EM section execute the installation EM program?
Through the establishment of core EM mission sets.
How is information on domestic incident management shared with EOCs?
Through the homeland security information network (HSIN).
2. What factors define the starting point where planners apply appropriate concepts and methods to create solutions to particular problems?
Time, uncertainty, risk, and experience.
Having distinct titles for individuals with primary responsibility positions provides what benefit to the ICS structure?
Titles provide a common standard for all users and are a part of the common terminology of communication.
2. What is the PR subsystem of the ACES designed to do?
To aid R&EM flights in day-to-day operations of the flight.
3. What is the purpose of the CBRNWRS?
To verify enemy use of CBRN weapons for the president and inform US forces, allies, and friendly governments of the impending or actual use of CBRN weapons by an enemy.
3. List the primary functions of the EOC.
To assess damage reports, establish priorities, dispatch and control response forces, support the IC, and inform the CAT on the status of installation's infrastructure and airfield.
2. Why was the IEMP 10-2 planning tool developed?
To assist Air Force Emergency Managers in the development process of their respective IEMP 10-2.
3. Why are MOPP options authorized by the commander?
To balance the probability of receiving casualties in order to prevent heat-related casualties and accomplish mission.
3. What is the purpose of placing down a large sheet of plastic or drop cloth along the processing line and underneath all of the support equipment associated with the CCS?
To collect the contamination that could fall off of personnel as they process out of the accident scene in addition to allowing the CCS to rapidly decontaminate the line as necessary.
What is the operations section responsible for?
To conduct actions to reduce the immediate hazard, establish situational control, and restore normal operations.
3. What is the purpose of area reconnaissance?
To confirm or deny the presence of potential or suspected CBRN threats/hazards or contamination within a given area.
3. Why does the CCS employ the use of plastic bags?
To contain the particulate radiological contamination.
2. What do installations use support agreements for?
To define responsibilities, document the services and resources to exchange, and define mutual understandings between agencies that have similar roles in differing jurisdictions.
3. What is the purpose of CBRN surveys?
To define the boundaries of contaminated areas.
2. Why should the logistics element regularly review EM-related allowance standards?
To determine if authorizations for accountable equipment items have been added, deleted, or changed.
3. What is the most important decontamination principle?
To determine your objective of decontamination operations and assess the likelihood of success.
What is the objective of a senior leader's installation emergency management program immersion briefing?
To educate and equip the senior leader with the guidance and tools necessary to effectively implement the installation's emergency management program at their level.
Why was HSPD-5 issued?
To enhance the ability of the US to manage domestic incidents by establishing a single, comprehensive national incident management system.
2. (226) What is the nickname for the area of the US that consistently experiences a high frequency of tornadoes each year? a. Tornado Row. b. Tornado Alley. c. Tornado Corner. d. Tornado Central.
Tornado Alley.
What are some examples of NGO and volunteer contributions?
Training and managing volunteer resources; identifying shelter locations and needed supplies; providing critical emergency services to those in need, such as cleaning supplies, clothing, food and shelter, or assistance with post-emergency cleanup; identifying those whose needs have not been met and helping coordinate the provision of assistance.
2. (217) Which of the following is not a factor that will affect the size of the emergency management support team (EMST)? a. 24-hour operations. b. Mutual aid agreements. c. Training requirements. d. Installation's initial response capability.
Training requirements
What is the minimum size for a PAR team?
Two people; one to watch for hazards, provide security, and call for assistance when needed and one to conduct the area survey.
3. What is the minimum personnel requirement for a sample collection team?
Two personnel.
3. At least, how many background samples should be taken, and where should they be taken?
Two samples of soil, water, air, or vegetation from areas that are approximately 500 meters upwind of an alleged incident.
3. What is the minimum amount of personnel required for an initial entry element?
Two.
(022) Which incident type is the most complex, requiring extensive national resources to effectively manage the incident? a. Type 1. b. Type 2. c. Type 3. d. Type 5.
Type 1.
Which type of incident is the most complex and requires the most resources?
Type 1.
(022) Which incident type extends beyond the installation's resource capabilities for response, requiring local, state, and federal response resources to effectively manage the incident? a. Type 1. b. Type 2. c. Type 3. d. Type 4.
Type 2
(022) Which incident type requires resources that exceed the initial response and includes incidents such as an aircraft crash, a hostage situation with several hostages, or a flood? a. Type 2. b. Type 3. c. Type 4. d. Type 5.
Type 3.
(022) Which incident type may require several response resources and are usually limited to one operational period (12 hours or less)? a. Type 1. b. Type 2. c. Type 3. d. Type 4.
Type 4.
Which type of incident is the least complex and requires the least amount of resources?
Type 5.
3. What list is used to get a firm grasp on personnel available for duty?
UPMR combined with the list of those on leave or quarters
2. The use of chemical weapons in World War I led to the creation of what?
US Army Gas Service.
(031) Which combatant command defends America's homeland—protecting our people, national power, and freedom of action? a. US Transportation (USTRANSCOM). b. US Central Command (USCENTCOM). c. US Southern Command (USSOUTHCOM). d. US Northern Command (USNORTHCOM).
US Northern Command (USNORTHCOM).
(031) Which combatant command develops and directs the Joint Deployment and Distribution Enterprise to globally project strategic national security capabilities? a. US Transportation (USTRANSCOM). b. US Central Command (USCENTCOM). c. US Southern Command (USSOUTHCOM). d. US Northern Command (USNORTHCOM).
US Transportation (USTRANSCOM).
Which unified combatant command is responsible for homeland defense?
USNORTHCOM.
2. Who reviews and coordinates requests to change mobility equipment allowances?
UTC pilot unit.
3. What type of classification do CBRN reports have unless the reports contain operational information such as effects on troops?
Unclassified.
3. (407) What is the most critical factor for sound mission oriented protective posture (MOPP) analysis? a. Initial training required. b. Warning and reporting information. c. Gathering of post attack information. d. Work rate and rest cycle implementation.
Gathering of post attack information
3. (408) What rank is a Response Task Force (RTF) Commander? a. Major. b. Colonel. c. General. d. Civilian.
General
3. What is the conceptual basis of the CCS?
Get contamination off of the personnel.
3. When dealing with CBRN warfare environments, AFI 48-137 does not apply to which operations and devices?
Government-owned, contractor-operated operations and military-unique respiratory protection devices designed for use in CBRN warfare environments.
3. Which sample technique is the basic and preferred collection technique?
Grab technique.
3. (420) Which sample collection technique is the basic and preferred sample collection method? a. Composite. b. Discrete. c. Surface. d. Grab.
Grab.
3. (407) Which is not a standard mission oriented protection postures (MOPP) option? a. Ventilation. b. No-Airman basic uniform (ABU) or flight suit. c. Mask-only. d. Hood open.
HOOD OPEN
Name two computer modeling programs in which DTRA provides support.
HPAC and CATS.
(020) Which Homeland Security Presidential Directive was issued to enhance the ability of the United States to manage domestic incidents by establishing a single, comprehensive national incident management system? a. HSPD-5. b. HSPD-8. c. HSPD-9. d. HSPD-12.
HSPD-5.
(020) Which Homeland Security Presidential Directive was issued to strengthen the preparedness of the United States to prevent and respond to threatened or actual domestic terrorist attacks, major disasters, and other emergencies? a. HSPD-5. b. HSPD-8. c. HSPD-9. d. HSPD-12.
HSPD-8.
3. What do CTKs contain?
Hand tools.
3. When using the RSDL kit, what do you decontaminate first—your face, hands, or neck?
Hands
3. As a CCS team member working in the CRA, you should pay close attention to what areas on the individuals you are inspecting?
Hands, feet, and mask (if applicable).
2. (214) What is the first step in establishing an effective "Be Ready" Awareness Campaign? a. Identify requirements. b. Plan for execution. c. Budget for items. d. Hazard analysis.
Hazard analysis
2. What are the steps used in setting up an effective "Be Ready" Awareness Campaign?
Hazard assessment, identify and procure resources, create a campaign execution plan, and evaluate the campaign.
2. What are the three assessments conducted as part of the all-hazards risk management process?
Hazard, capability, and vulnerability assessments.
2. (219) Which is the most important assessment tool in the risk management process for an installation's emergency management (EM) program? a. Hazards assessment. b. Capability assessment. c. Efficiency assessment. d. Vulnerability assessment.
Hazards assessment
What two NATO working groups/party in which the Air Force is a member?
Headquarters NATO CBRN working groups and on NATO's Air and Space Interoperability Working Party 84.
2. What does proper documentation of in-house training provide?
Helps to evaluate training issues by considering topics previously covered, thus overcoming the urge to teach favorite topics and neglect other critical areas. The documentation also serves as a memory jogger, when you can't remember if you were in the training session or on leave.
2. What are some of the effects of a tropical cyclone?
High wind projectile damage; large accumulations of rain resulting in flash floods, bridge, and road closures; wind-driven storm surges; coastal flooding; and disruptions to electrical power, water, and sewage.
2. (228) Which of the following is not one of the three primary mechanisms by which terrorists can use radiation to carry out an attack? a. Detonation of a nuclear bomb. b. Dispersal of radiological material. c. Hijacking an aircraft with nuclear weapons. d. Attacking a facility housing nuclear material.
Hijacking an aircraft with nuclear weapons.
Which Act specifically authorized the president to use the armed forces to help restore public order but states that the Office of Homeland Security cannot engage in warfighting, the military defense of the US, or other military activities?
Homeland Security Act of 2002.
Which directive required the federal government to establish a single, comprehensive approach to domestic incident management?
Homeland Security Presidential Directive 5.
3. When taking a biological surface sample, document the sample with what required data?
Unique number or identifier, collection area, sample type, collection date and time, name of person collecting sample, size of the area sampled, and map of sample area.
2. Who is responsible for establishing procedures for shelter operations?
Unit commanders, in conjunction with facility managers.
What role does an LEPC have?
LEPCs work to understand chemical hazards in the community, develop emergency plans in case of an accidental release, and look for ways to prevent chemical accidents. LEPCs are made up of emergency management agencies, responders, industry and the public.
Who is the point of contact for representatives of other governmental agencies?
LNO.
What is a MAJCOM's focus regarding the Air Force EM Program?
MAJCOM's focus is on the installations that it is responsible for as well as championing MAJCOM and/or installation requirements to the HA
2. (216) Who determines which installation will train and equip geographically separated units (GSU) units in compliance with the emergency management (EM) program? a. HQ USAF. b. MAJCOMs. c. Unit commanders. d. Installation commanders.
MAJCOMs
2. Who can require a minimum quantity per installation and authorize purchases above the quantity allowed in the standard?
MAJCOMs.
Who is responsible for determining which host installation will support GSUs and provides guidance to train and equip its units in compliance with the EM program?
MAJCOMs.
3. (407) Installations located in chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) medium- and high-threat areas use standard mission-oriented protective postures (MOPP) levels. When personnel wear the over garment and mask carrier, the installation is operating under a. MOPP 0. b. MOPP 1. c. MOPP 2. d. MOPP 3.
MOPP 1
3. If VX was released over an airbase, what would be the protective measures 28 hours later for a small car?
MOPP 2 with gloves.
Which publications provide standardized references that have been coordinated and approved by all branches of service for service commanders at the tactical level?
Multiservice Tactics, Techniques, and Procedures (MTTP).
3. Which NFPA standard for design and testing criteria must SCBAs meet?
NFPA 1981.
What do NGOs provide?
NGOs provide sheltering, emergency food supplies, counseling services, and other vital support services to support response and promote the recovery of disaster victims.
3. Which agencies must certify all US manufactured SCBAs for IDLH environments?
NIOSH and MSHA.
2. What exercises facilitated the development of DOD 3150.8-M and the NETOP course?
NUWAX.
3. (428) In reference to mission capability (MISCAP), what are the required skill level(s) on an emergency management (EM) installation management team? a. One 9-level. b. Two 5-levels. c. One 5- and one 7-level. d. One chief master sergeant (3E900).
One chief master sergeant (3E900
What is the minimum team size for emergency operations and rest and relief shelters used for CBRN protection during wartime operations?
One shelter manager, one exposure control monitor, and one CCA supervisor for each shift.
What are some specific duties of the WIT?
Providing inputs for scenario development, inspecting assigned areas/functions, evaluating scenarios, participating in the hot wash, and providing inputs to the inspection report.
What is the JFO's primary focus?
Providing support to on-scene efforts and conducting broader support operations that may extend beyond the incident site.
2. Planning for wildfires must include what provisions?
Provisions for the protection or evacuation of personnel and equipment within the incident area as well coordination of support efforts with federal, state, local, or host nation officials for area fire suppression support or mutual assistance..
2. (210) Which of the following would not be found in an allowance standard? a. Vehicles. b. Communication equipment. c. War reserve material (WRM). d. Chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) equipment.
War reserve material (WRM)
List the four types of activation of the EOC.
Warm status, initial, partial, and full.
Which type of EOC activation simply means that the lights, computers, communication and other key components are turned on and operational in preparation for a higher level of activity?
Warm status.
3. (433) What kind of installation deployment orders establishes a tentative C-day (day deployment operations will begin)? a. Deployment. b. Planning. c. Warning. d. Alert.
Warning
2. When does hypothermia begin to occur?
When a person's body temperature drops to 3 °Fahrenheit below its normal temperature.
(017) Which teams are formed from existing installation and unit personnel resources to support emergency response operations? a. Specialized and support/recovery teams. b. Response and recovery teams. c. Emergency support teams. d. Special support teams.
Specialized and support/recovery teams.
3. What DEFCON information is classified?
Specific actions associated with DEFCON levels.
In regards to the SMT, what must each commander when he or she is responsible for a shelter?
Staff and train the team to provide 24-hour coverage in the shelter.
3. What type of staffing should the alternate EOC use?
Staffing that is sufficient to permit operations to continue until complete manning arrives.
3. When does an air defense emergency exist?
When attack upon the continental United States, Alaska, Hawaii, Canada, or US installations by hostile aircraft, missiles, or space vehicles is considered probable, imminent, or is taking place.
3. (428) What type of unit type code (UTC) provides the most detail to Air Force national military strategy planners and are used to the greatest extent possible? a. Associate. b. Non-deployable. c. In-place requirement. d. Standard deployable.
Standard deployable
(032) What agreement is written to ensure North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) members operate in the same manner? a. Free Trade Agreements. b. Mutual Aid Agreements. c. Standardization Agreements. d. Status of Forces Agreements.
Standardization Agreements.
3. What must be in place for you to quantify the desired results and ascertain the effectiveness of your decontamination operations?
Standards of decontamination.
3. Which survey technique gets CBRN R&S elements in and out of the contaminated area in shortest possible time?
Star survey
2. Listen two steps you should follow when running a meeting?
Start on time and follow your agenda.
3. What type of WRM is used to meet requirements until resupply can begin?
Starter stock.
(026) Where does state multiagency coordination occur? a. State Incident Command Center (ICC). b. State Unit Control Center (UCC). c. State Emergency Control Center (ECC). d. State Emergency Operations Center (EOC).
State Emergency Operations Center (EOC).
2. Who determines the specific infrastructure threshold requirements for natural disaster shelters?
State and local jurisdictions.
3. What do you use in the CBRN control center to rapidly update, assess, and brief the current situation?
Status boards.
3. What does the EOC use to help keep track of the condition of the base, unit status, and the recovery effort?
Status boards.
2. What are the three critical factors that affect how you store your equipment?
Storage facilities, weather conditions, and mission response requirements.
2. What are the three tiers of planning?
Strategic planning, operational planning, and tactical (incident scene) planning.
3. (432) What is not considered war reserve materiel (WRM)? a. Rations. b. Vehicles. c. Subsistence items. d. Consumable items.
Subsistence items
What is the state's role to support local governments as it relates to a disaster?
Supplement local efforts before, during, and after incidents.
3. What is the primary objective of the installation EM program?
Support Air Force war and contingency plans by minimizing the loss of operational capability during contingencies; the highest priorities are force survivability and mission continuation.
2. (221) What establishes an agreement between parties and documents proof of the agreement and its contents? a. Support plans. b. Assistance plans. c. Support agreements. d. Assistance agreements.
Support agreements.
2. EM operations primarily involve providing what?
Support in the EOC, CBRN Control Center, UCC, and/or on-scene as required.
2. What is the role of the EM section?
Supports the cross-functional EM program integrating preparedness, response, recovery, and mitigation activities in an all-hazards physical threat environment to help commanders maintain and restore mission capability.
3. What is the process of wiping surfaces with an approved material that will capture the suspected contamination?
Surface sample collection.
2. (225) Which agency monitors ocean waves after any Pacific earthquake with a magnitude greater than 6.5? a. National Weather Service (NWS). b. United States Geological Survey (USGS). c. System (ITInternational Tsunami WarningWS). d. National Meteorological & Hydrological Services (NMHS).
System (ITInternational Tsunami WarningWS).
3. (420) When samples are taken at predetermined intervals it is considered what type of collection strategy? a. Periodic. b. Random. c. Systematic. d. Judgmental.
Systematic.
2. Why should the logistics element stagger equipment maintenance and calibration? . TO and TM libraries, either digital or hard copy, are maintained in accordance with which publication?
TO 00-5-1, Air Force Technical Order System. To ensure enough equipment is available for immediate response.
2. As an EM technician, you will primarily focus on planning at which level?
Tactical level.
2. What should you do if you find a deficiency when conducting an EM program review?
Take the time to recommend the best way to correct the deficiency.
2. (213) Which component of the simple, attainable, measurable, and task-oriented (SMART) approach to developing exercise objectives encourages developers to focus on specific operations or tasks to be completed? a. Simple. b. Attainable. c. Measurable. d. Task-oriented.
Task-oriented.
3. What are the names of the positions within the CBRN control center?
Team chief, plotter, and recorder.
Which unit within the planning section contains technical specialists that may report directly to the planning section chief, to any function in an existing unit, or may form a separate technical unit within the planning section?
Technical unit.
Which hazard category would an outage of energy, power, or utilities fall under?
Technologically-caused hazards.
3. (419) Sample collection teams should bring enough sample collection equipment and consumables to take a minimum of how many samples of a necessary type? a. Four. b. Six. c. Eight. d. Ten.
Ten
3. Using CCOR, approximately how big are small objects, and list examples.
Ten square meters or less of metal and/or glass surfaces. Examples include AGE, munitions trailers, munitions, and vehicles such as pick-up trucks, high mobility multipurpose wheeled vehicles (HMMWV), and one and one-half ton stake-bed trucks.
3. What does ready to deploy indicate?
That a UTC record is sufficiently manned, trained, and equipped to meet the MISCAP of the UTC.
3. What does the schedule of events provide?
The "big picture" of who, what, where, and when your tasked UTCs will deploy to meet tasking requirements.
2. What two nuclear weapons accidents led the Air Force to develop the ATRAP?
The 1966 Palomares, Spain, and 1968 Thule, Greenland, Broken Arrow accidents.
What US Army command was established to provide a single organization to effectively train, integrate, coordinate, deploy, and manage the Army's specialized CBRNE technical assets?
The 20th Support Command.
What air component executes AFCENT's Air Force missions, serves as headquarters for AFCENT, and serves as the air component for a 27-nation area within the USCENTCOM's area of responsibility?
The 9th Air Force, located at Shaw Air Force Base, South Carolina.
2. What is the primary system for maintenance of CE personnel and work center assignments?
The ACES Personnel and Readiness subsystem. 3.
2. What was the EM division's predecessor at AFCESA?
The AFDPRC.
What provides the Air Force with an incident management system that is consistent with the single, comprehensive approach to domestic incident management while adhering to the military unique mission requirements?
The AFIMS.
2. Who is responsible for monitoring our nation's 170 active volcanoes?
. USGS.
2. The operations element develops localized EM program review checklists based on whose guidance?
MAJCOM guidance.
2. Who is responsible for providing security for a shelter?
The owner/user of the shelter.
Define emergency responder.
DRF members that deploy to the accident scene after the first responders to expand the ICS and perform support functions.
3. Which document consolidates all deployment tasking requirements for a particular contingency, exercise, or deployment?
DRMD
What might a CE R&EM flight coordinate on with an EPLO?
DSCA contact information, DSCA plans, and your installation's CEMP 10-2.
. Required members of the installation EMWG will vary from installation to installation based on what factors?
Mission requirements and threats.
2. What is the first step in developing objectives for an exercise?
First define the capabilities that will be evaluated.
2. What are the R&EM flight's two unique roles when it comes to day-to-day operations?
First, the R&EM flight is responsible for managing the installation's EM Program for the installation commander. Second, the flight supports the Civil Engineer Squadron, and the Base Civil Engineer, by managing the Prime Base Engineer Emergency Force (BEEF) Program as well as the squadron's EM Program
2. (204) Who supervises the readiness and emergency management (R&EM) flight and analyzes the local threat of natural, technological, or man-made hazards? a. Flight chief. b. Superintendent. c. The highest ranking 3E9. d. Civil engineering squadron (CES) commander.
Flight chief.
2. (205) Who is responsible for ensuring unit emergency management (EM) programs are managed according to AFMAN 32-1007 and AFI 10-2501? a. EM section. b. Flight leadership. c. Planning element. d. Operations element.
Flight leadership.
3. (425) Missile maintenance would arrive at a bare base force deployed location with which force deployment team? a. Advance echelon (ADVON). b. Follow-on force. c. Initial force. d. Cadre.
Follow-on force
What does DTRA's operations/reachback center serve as?
For CBRNE reachback, which is reinforced by its ability to reach subject matter experts while providing a robust computer and communications network.
3. Dismounted reconnaissance is best performed in what type of areas?
For areas in which the size is conducive to military personnel operating on foot.
When is the CAT activated?
For specific incidents to command, control, and coordinate required support or at the discretion of the installation commander.
(017) Who manages the search and recovery (S&R) teams? a. Civil engineer squadron. b. Force support squadron. c. Emergency operations center. d. Emergency support function (ESF) 5.
Force support squadron.
Which squadron manages the S&R team?
Force support squadron.
2. Why can issues exist to interoperability with foreign governments?
Foreign governments do not have to follow AFIMS or NIMS guidance.
3. How many sizes is the M45 protective mask available in? Name them.
Four sizes; extra small, small, medium, and large.
2. Who was the first officer in the newly created AFSC 051X and what rank did he attain?
Fredrick J. Riemer; colonel.
Describe a full activation of the EOC.
Full activation of the EOC requires recalling all the members of the EOC, all ESF offices of primary responsibility, and supporting office of collateral responsibility participants.
3. (429) Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) C-level ratings are based on a five-point scale reflecting the degree to which a unit's resources meet prescribed levels of all of the following except a. Equipment. b. Personnel. c. Funding. d. Training.
Funding.
3. In reference to sample collection operations, what is "sample media"?
The physical states of the samples being collected.
2. Chemical weapons are created for what sole purpose?
Killing, injuring, or incapacitating people.
2. Who must the R&EM flight leadership coordinate installation EM support with?
MAJCOM A7 functional staffs.
3. Who creates the model load and packing lists for each cargo increment/pallet?
The pilot unit.
2. What are plant and agriculture epidemics?
. New diseases, emerging diseases, reemerging diseases, threatening diseases, and chronic/spreading diseases.
2. Most public health facilities throughout the world are designed to accommodate what kind of caseloads?
. Non-crisis patient caseloads.
2. Which weapons are the most difficult to develop or acquire?
. Nuclear weapons.
2. When is a lightning watch cancelled?
. Only when the potential for lightning within the next 30 minutes is no longer forecasted.
2. Which R&EM flight element develops and implements the EM program review?
. Operations element.
2. What are biological weapons used for?
. To cause illness, injury, or death in humans, livestock, or plants.
2. When planning supply and resupply actions to support extended shelter operations, how many days should you plan for after nuclear fallout peaks?
14 days
2. In what year did the career field name change from "Readiness" to "Emergency Management"?
2006.
2. When was the EM career field occupational badge approved by the CSAF?
2007.
What does an EPLO do?
An EPLO serves as the Air Force liaison between civil and military authorities during declared national security emergencies and critical events.
What is a sunset provision?
An alert that indicates an individual threat alert is issued for a specific time period and then automatically expires.
What is an elevated threat alert?
An alert that warns of a credible terrorist threat against the US.
What is an imminent threat alert?
An alert that warns of a credible, specific, and impending terrorist threat against the US.
2. What is the IEMP 10-2?
An all hazards plan designed to support pre-incident preparedness, mitigation, emergency response, and recovery.
(013) Which Emergency Support Function (ESF) is responsible for oversight of communications procedures, equipment, and capabilities? a. ESF 2. b. ESF 5. c. ESF 7. d. ESF 10.
ESF 2
Which mission area of the Air Force EM Program includes the capabilities necessary to protect the installation against terrorism and man-made or natural disasters?
Protection.
How many FEMA regions are there?
10.
3. What is the useable surface area of a 463L cargo pallet?
84" by 104".
What is a unified combatant command?
A unified combatant command has a broad, continuing mission and is comprised of forces from two or more military departments.
2. What does the flight chief in R&EM flight do?
Assists the flight chief and/or the EMFO in all aspects of flight management.
3. What are the only types of orders used to deploy personnel?
CED orders.
3. Who marshals all UTC cargo, including weapons and munitions?
Cargo/pallet build-up teams.
3. What should you do between each sample that you collect?
Change your gloves.
3. Which DEFCON indicates war?
DEFCON 1.
3. What color does the M61 time patch assembly turns when it has expired and needs to be replaced?
Dark blue.
Who acts as the day-to-day base defense operations center?
ECC controllers and on duty security forces leadership.
When an incident impacts the nation or multiple states, and multiple JFOs are established, what type of command is established to oversee the JFOs?
A unified command.
Which hazard category would a HAZMAT spill or release fall under?
Human-caused (man-made) hazards
2. What is the IEMP 10-2?
IEMP 10-2 planning tool developed by AFCEC/CXR.
3. Where are all funded manpower authorizations postured?
In the UTC Availability database.
3. What is the basic shape of a standard CBRN marking sign?
Right-angled isosceles triangle.
What is the key to how large the ICS structure will be?
Span of control
2. Who provides maintenance and calibration for chemical and radiological instruments?
TMDE PMEL.
2. Planning is only as good as what?
The information on which it is based.
3. What are defense conditions?
A uniform system of progressive alert postures used by the JCSs, commanders of unified and specified command, and military services.
2. How often should your flight conduct a self-inspection using the MAJCOM's EM program review checklist to determine the health of your program?
Once a year.
3. What are the two patterns that are commonly used for conducting wipe samples?
S-pattern and decreasing concentric squares.
2. TOs are published under whose authority?
SAF in accordance with AFPD 21-3.
3. What module of LOGMOD automates the scheduling system?
SCHEDULE
3. After processing through technical decontamination, who does the reconnaissance leader brief?
Sample collection element members.
2. Who may specify a specific agenda for the EMWG?
Your MAJCOM.
3. Name the SCBA used in the EM career field.
the MSA FireHawk® M7 Responder
2. What risk has the interconnectedness of the global internet caused?
. A collapse of a portion of a network anywhere in the world could result in total collapse of the entire system.
3. The "sample collector" and "assistant sample collector" are also referred to as what respectively?
Sampler or dirty person; assistant sampler or clean person.
2. Economic failure is caused by what?
. A collapse or serious downturn in the ability of a country, region, or community to sustain economic solvency, can result in a wide spectrum of disastrous consequences.
2. What are mudslides?
. A common type of fast-moving landslide that tends to flow in channels.
2. Earthquake risk assessment requires measuring what factors?
. The likely damage, casualties, and costs of earthquakes within a specified geographic area over certain periods of time.
2. What is a food shortage?
. The situation that exists when available food supplies do not meet the energy and nutrient requirements of the affected population can have disastrous consequences
2. The wind speed of a tornado is the sum of what factors?
. The sum of rotational speed and translational speed.
2. What are biological hazards?
. The umbrella grouping for all hazards that cause or are related to disease in plants, animals, and humans.
2. How is terrorism described?
. The unlawful use or threatened use of force or violence against people or property to coerce or intimidate governments or societies, often to achieve political, religious, or ideological objectives.
2. Who ensures unit materiel, including materiel in bulk storage, is stored in facilities that provide security, accessibility, and protection from fire, extreme weather, temperature, dust, and humidity?
. Unit commanders.
2. What are WMD?
. Weapons designed specifically for causing mass casualty harm to humans and, often, significant property damage as well.
2. What is the difference between hurricanes, cyclones, and typhoons?
. There is no difference. They are all the same weather phenomenon. In the Atlantic and Northeast Pacific, the term "hurricane" is used. The same type of disturbance in the Northwest Pacific is called a "typhoon", while in the South Pacific and Indian Ocean we use the term "cyclone".
2. When are installations required to issue a lightning watch?
. When lightning is observed or detected within 5 nautical miles of the airfield.
2. What is an intentional man-made hazard?
. Those hazards that are not due to accident or "act of God," but are a result of the conscious decision of man to act in an antisocial or anti-establishment manner.
2. What are some of the hazards associated with large explosive eruptions?
. Widespread ash fall (fine glass particles), pyroclastic flows (mixtures of hot gases and pumice blocks), and massive lahars (volcanic mud or debris flows).
2. What phenomenon has changed the nature of wildfire firefighting in significant ways?
. Wild/urban interface.
2. The intensity of damage of tornado is related to what factors?
. Wind speed, windborne debris, and type of construction.
2. What is one of the primary concerns in dealing with winter weather?
. Winter weather's ability to knock out heat, power, and communications services to homes and offices, sometimes for days at a time
2. What are the goals of the USGS volcano alert-notification system?
. To (1) communicate a volcano's status clearly to non-volcanologists, (2) help emergency response organizations determine proper mitigation measures, and (3) prompt people and businesses at risk to seek additional information and take appropriate actions.
2. Which meteorological hazard appears as a rotating, funnel-shaped cloud that extends from a thunderstorm to the ground with whirling winds that can reach 300 miles per hour?
. Tornado.
2. Which bioweapon generally elicits an immediate response?
. Toxins.
2. When can flash floods occur?
. Within a few minutes or hours of excessive rainfall, a dam or levee failure, or a sudden release of water held by an ice jam.
2. Why is documentation important for an EMWG program review?
.Documentation provides an indication of the EM program's status. It also makes it possible to follow up on issues that require additional work or attention from your flight or other base agencies.
2. What year was the first enlisted AFSC for ABC instructors created?
1951.
2. In what year did the career field name change to Disaster Preparedness?
1969.
2. In what year were airmen given the opportunity to cross-train into the DP career field and who was the first airman to cross-train?
1976; A1C Larry Hull.
3. Using figure 1-10, what is the emergency notification signal for Active Shooter?
"Lockdown, Lockdown, Lockdown" and location repeated 3 times.
The NIMS provides a core set of concepts, principles, terminology, and technologies. What is included in this core set?
(1) Incident Command System (ICS). (2) Multiagency Coordination System (MCS). (3) Training, qualifications, and certification. (4) Resource identification and management, including systems for classifying types of resources. (5) Incident information collecting, tracking, and reporting. (6) Incident resources collecting, tracking, and reporting.
3. What are the three main functions of the ESL?
(1) It lists all individual and team items (expendable and nonexpendable) a CE unit must requisition and maintain for each UTC. (2) It provides helpful information. (3) It is the baseline document for calculating equipment availability for SORTS reporting.
3. What are three primary limitations to APRs?
(1) Limited life of filters or canisters (2) Need for constant monitoring of the contaminated atmosphere. (3) Need for a normal oxygen content of the atmosphere before use.
2. In what year did the DP career field and program move from a base-level organization to a flight within the CE squadron and the AFSC change from 242X0 to 3E9X1?
1991.
At a minimum, what must a unit's EM continuity folder contain?
(1) A copy of the unit quarterly EM program report. (2) Current and previous year program review reports and self-inspection reports. (3) Copies of correspondence concerning EM program review report and self-assessment report observations and corrective actions. (4) Copies of EMWG meeting minutes for the past 12 months. (5) Copies of EM exercises reports with unit deficiencies and corrective actions identified.
What are the four HSPD-5 criteria that define when DHS will assume overall federal incident management coordination responsibilities?
(1) A federal department or agency acting under its own authority has requested DHS assistance. (2) The resources of state and local authorities are overwhelmed and federal assistance has been requested. (3) More than one federal department or agency has become substantially involved in responding to the incident. (4) The secretary has been directed by the president to assume incident management responsibilities.
What two AFPDs have a direct impact on the EM program?
(1) AFPD 10-25, Emergency Management. (2) AFPD 10-26, Counter-Chemical, Biological, Radiological, and Nuclear Operations.
3. What are two cornerstones in the decontamination process?
(1) Agent detection. (2) The quantification of hazards.
What are the five primary Air Force doctrine documents that directly impact the EM mission?
(1) Air Force Doctrine Volume 4, Operations Annex 3-27, Homeland Operations. (2) AFDD 3-10, Force Protection. (3) AFDD 3-27, Homeland Operations. (4) AFDD 3-40, Counter-Chemical, Biological, Radiological, and Nuclear Operations. (5) AFDD 3-72, Nuclear Operations.
2. List some ways to develop and train your flight's EMFO.
(1) Attend the EMFO Course. (2) Develop a position specific OJT plan to target what your EMFO needs to know. (3) Read through the 3E951 CDCs. (4) Complete specific FEMA independent study courses that are required for the 5 and 7 level upgrade in the 3E9X1 CFETP. (5) Develop a section immersion program by having your EMFO work in each section for a few days to get a feel for the section's day-to-day operations and responsibilities.
3. Name the five functions performed within the C2 process.
(1) Collect information. (2) Process information. (3) Make decisions. (4) Direct actions. (5) Monitor effectiveness of actions through feedback.
2. What are the seven steps to planning a meeting?
(1) Decide if a meeting is appropriate. (2) Define the meetings purpose. (3) Decide who should attend the meeting. (4) Decide where and when the meeting should occur. (5) Plan for capturing meeting information. (6) Send out an agenda. (7) Remember - Meetings can be cancelled.
3. Name the three most common types of SCBA open-circuit designs.
(1) Demand. (2) Pressure-demand. (3) Positive-pressure.
3. List the seven major requirements of the CBRN control center.
(1) Detection. (2) Identification. (3) Surveying. (4) Marking. (5) Plotting. (6) Predicting. (7) Reporting.
2. What are the steps for preparing for and conducting an EMWG meeting?
(1) Determining meeting topics. (2) Conducting the meeting or briefing. (3) Preparing documentation. (4) Conducting follow-up.
3. List some examples of host-nation CBRN support you receive or provide that should be included in host-nation agreements.
(1) Exclusive or shared use of CBRN attack and warning systems. (2) Common alarm signals. (3) Individual protective postures. (4) Reporting methods.
3. During a wartime contingency, the EOC receives reports from several sources. Name three of these sources.
(1) Headquarters or other installations. (2) Unit control centers. (3) Specialized teams.
3. Name the three elements of a CCS.
(1) Hot line. (2) CRA. (3) CCL.
What are the five distinct roles that private-sector organizations play?
(1) Impacted organization or infrastructure. (2) Regulated and/or responsible party (3) Response resource. (4) Partner with state/local emergency organizations. (5) Components of the nation's economy.
List the unified combatant commands.
(1) US Central Command (USCENTCOM). (2) US European Command (USEUCOM). (3) US Joint Force Command (USJFCOM). (4) US Northern Command (USNORTHCOM). (5) US Pacific Command (USPACOM). (6) US Southern Command (USSOUTHCOM). (7) US Strategic Command (USSTRATCOM). (8) US Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM).
When a major disaster occurs, what steps take place for a federal response to occur?
(1) Local government responds, supplemented by neighboring communities and volunteer agencies. If overwhelmed, it turns to the state for assistance. (2) The state responds with state resources, such as the National Guard and state agencies. (3) Damage assessment by local, state, federal, and volunteer organizations determines losses and recovery needs. (4) A major disaster declaration is requested by the governor, based on the damage assessment, and an agreement to commit state funds and resources to the long-term recovery. (5) FEMA evaluates the request and recommends action to the White House based on the disaster, the local community and the state's ability to recover. (6) The president approves the request or FEMA informs the governor it has been denied. This decision process could take a few hours or several weeks depending on the nature of the disaster.
3. List two examples of carriers of chemical hazards that you must dispose of following an attack.
(1) M8 paper. (2) Decontamination kits.
3. Name eight factors you use in conducting a MOPP analysis.
(1) Mission. (2) Threat environment. (3) Type and amount of agent. (4) Weather. (5) Work rate. (6) Time to accomplish the mission. (7) Warning. (8) Training.
What two NATO STANAGs does our career field utilize?
(1) NATO STANAG 2103, Allied Tactical Publication 45D, NATO Reporting Nuclear Detonations, Biological and Chemical Attacks, and Predicting and Warning of Associated Hazards and Hazard Areas. (2) NATO STANAG 2150 and Air Standardization Coordinating Committee (ASCC) Air Standard 84/8, Initial, Continuation, and Unit NBC Training Standards.
What are the three main hazard categories?
(1) Natural (2) Human-caused (man-made). (3) Technological.
Name the eight DOD combating WMD missions.
(1) Offensive operations. (2) Elimination. (3) Interdiction. (4) Active defense. (5) Passive defense. (6) Consequence management. (7) Security cooperation and partner activities. (8) Threat reduction cooperation.
3. Name the three types of APRs.
(1) Particulate-removing. (2) Vapor- and gas-removing. (3) Combination particulate-removing and vapor- and gas-removing.
3. What are the three types of resources?
(1) People. (2) Equipment. (3) Materiels.
3. What are the four general categories of Prime BEEF mobility equipment and supplies?
(1) Personal gear. (2) Team equipment. (3) Force protection items. (4) Pallet preparation materiels.
3. List the steps the entry element should take when approaching an item of interest.
(1) Photograph/document undisturbed item. (2) Determine if the item is recognizable. (3) Move toward the item. (4) Watch for dangers. (5) Record all actions with the item. (6) Initiate detection procedures.
Define each of the five phases of incident management.
(1) Prevention includes broad categories of activities such as intelligence collection and analysis, active defense, proliferation prevention, fire prevention, disease prevention and contamination prevention. (2) Preparedness includes actions such as planning training, and exercises. Developing installation response plans, conducting base populace training, and conducting major accident response exercises are all considered preparedness actions. (3) Response includes actions to respond to an incident which could include deploying the installation's DRF, implementing response plans and checklists, and initiating the installation notification and warning system. (4) Recovery includes operations such as implementing casualty treatment, unexploded ordnance safing, personnel and resource decontamination, airfield damage repair, and facility restoration. Recovery planning and actions begin as soon as possible to ensure sustainment of crucial missions and restoration of normal operations. (5) Mitigation is an ongoing process and is considered, to some degree, a part of every phase of incident management. In a global sense, mitigation includes all activities designed to reduce or eliminate risks to persons or property or to lessen the actual or potential effects or consequences of an incident.
3. What are the five phases of Incident Management under the AFIMS construct?
(1) Prevention, (2) preparedness, (3) response, (4) recovery, and (5) mitigation.
What are the five mission areas of the Air Force EM Program?
(1) Prevention. (2) Protection. (3) Response. (4) Recovery. (5) Mitigation.
What are the Air Force interlinked operational pillars of C-CBRN operations?
(1) Proliferation prevention. (2) Counterforce. (3) Active defense. (4) Passive defense. (5) Consequence management.
3. List five items that unit control centers manage during contingency operations.
(1) Resources. (2) Status of forces. (3) Sheltering of personnel. (4) Passive defense measures. (5) Specific wartime mission taskings.
What four key capabilities is the DOD passive defense operations organized around?. Define each of them.
(1) Sense - The ability to provide continuous information about the CBRN situation (2) Shape - The ability to characterize CBRN hazards to understand the current situation and predict future events. (3) Shield - The ability to protect from the hazard. (4) Sustain - The ability to continue to operate in a contaminated environment.
3. When an attack is imminent, list (in priority order) what type of cover you should seek.
(1) Surrounding cover. (2) Overhead cover. (3) Protection from conventional weapons effects.
What are the four units of the finance and administration section of the ICS? Describe the responsibilities of each.
(1) Time unit. The time unit is primarily responsible for ensuring proper daily recording of personnel time in accordance with the policies of the relevant agencies. (2) Procurement unit. The procurement unit administers all financial matters pertaining to vendor contracts. (3) Compensation and claims unit. The compensation and claims unit handles injury compensation and claims. (4) Cost unit. The cost unit provides cost analysis data for the incident and ensures that equipment and personnel for which payment is required are properly identified; obtains and record all cost data; analyzes and prepare estimates of incident costs; provides input on cost estimates for resource use to the planning section; and maintains accurate information on the actual costs of all assigned resources.
3. When taking stone samples, stones are no bigger than what size, and what is the total volume collected?
1⁄4 to 1⁄2 inches; 200 to 300 milliliters.
3. List the disadvantages of using the SCBA-type respiratory protection.
(1) Weight of the unit. (2) Limited air-supply duration. (3) Change in profile that may hinder mobility because of the configuration of the harness assembly and the location of the air cylinder. (4) Limited vision caused by face piece fogging. (5) Limited communications if the face piece is not equipped with a microphone or speaking diaphragm
3. Match Column A ____ (1) Identifies deficiencies in UTC capabilities. ____ (2) Submitted when there are individual qualification issues. ____ (3) Sent when personnel deploy for contingencies or exercises from home station. ____ (4) Submitted only for personnel tasked to support a PID. ____ (5) Provides crucial information for monitoring the initial buildup of contingency forces, reception processing, beddown and mission accomplishment at the TDY site. Column B a. Departure report. b. Processing discrepancy report. c. Personnel identification and travel itinerary report.
(1) b. (2) b. (3) a. (4) c. (5) a.
3. Match Column A ____ (1) An objective strategy where samples are taken at predetermined intervals. ____ (2) A subjective strategy where areas are selected based on the assessment or determined by the sample collection R&S element. ____ (3) A nonsystematic sample collection of the target or portion of the target when the specific area of concentration is unknown.
(1) b. (2) c. (3) a.
9. Match the units of the logistics section in Column B to the correct description in Column A. Items in Column B may be used once. Column A ___ (1) Provides medical services to incident personnel. ___ (2) Completed by several of the ESF functions within the EOC, primarily ESF-1 (Transportation) and ESF-7 (Resources). ___ (3) Orders, receives, stores, and processes all incident- related resources. ___ (4) Develops the communications plan; operates and maintains all communications equipment; supervises and operates the incident communications center; and distributes and recovers communications equipment. ___ (5) Maintains and services vehicles and mobile equipment. ___ (6) Sets up, maintains, and demobilizes all facilities used in support of incident operations. ___ (7) Provides foods for the entire incident, including all remote locations such as camps and staging areas. Column B a. Communications Unit b. Medical Unit c. Food Unit d. Supply Unit e. Facilities Unit f. Ground Support Unit g. Maintenance Unit
(1) b. (2) f. (3) d. (4) a. (5) g. (6) e. (7) c.
3. Match Column A ____ (1) Is restricted to specific parts of operationally essential equipment. ____ (2) Permits the partial or total removal of protective equipment and maintains operations with minimum degradation. ____ (3) Provides the decontamination of equipment and personnel to a level that allows unrestricted transportation, maintenance, employment, and disposal. ____ (4) Are actions to minimize casualties, save lives, and limit the spread of contamination.
(1) b. (2) c. (3) d. (4) a.
3. Match: Column A ____ (1) Constructs the plot. ____ (2) Maintains a CBRN strike log. ____ (3) Maintains a record file for meteorological and CBRN reports. ____ (4) Briefs the EOC. ____ (5) Directs other teams such as CBRN reconnaissance. ____ (6) Passes information to the alternate CBRN control center. Column B a. Team chief. b. Recorder. c. Plotter.
(1) c. (2) b. (3) b. (4) a. (5) a. (6) b.
3. Match Column A ____ (1) Chemical, biological, and radiological defense materials, such as antidote kits, decontamination equipment, detection gear, and protective equipment. ____ (2) Bulk agents (contents of drums, barrels, final laboratory products). ____ (3) Environment samples (soil, liquid, vegetation, and air) from areas where alleged chemical, biological, and radiological incidents have occurred.
(1) c. (2) a. (3) b.
3. Match: Column A ____ (1) White flag, black writing. ____ (2) Blue background, red lettering. ____ (3) Yellow background, red lettering.
(1) c. (2) b. (3) a.
3. Match: Column A ____ (1) Expedient. ____ (2) Partial Integration. ____ (3) Shelter-In-Place. ____ (4) Full Integration. ____ (5) Secondary Enclosure. Column B a. Class I. b. Class II. c. Class III. d. Class IV . e. Class V .
(1) c. (2) b. (3) e. (4) a. (5) d.
3. Match: Column A ____ (1) Date-time of attack or detonation and attack end. ____ (2) Location of attack. ____ (3) Hazard area location for weather period. ____ (4) Flash-to-bang time. ____ (5) Stabilized cloud measured at H+10 minutes. ____ (6) Predicted attack and hazard area. ____ (7) Nuclear burst angular cloud width measured at H+5 minutes. ____ (8) Position of observer. ____ (9) Type of nuclear burst. ____ (10) Delivery and quantity information. ____ (11) Actual weather conditions. ____ (12) Release information on biological/chemical agent attacks or ROTA events. ____ (13) Strike serial number. Column B a. Alpha. b. Bravo. c. Delta. d. Fox-trot. e. Golf. f. Hotel. g. India. h. Juliet. i. Lima. j. Mike. k. Oscar. l. Papa Alpha. m. Sierra. n. Papa X-ray. o. X-ray Alpha. p. Zulu.
(1) c. (2) d. (3) n. (4) h. (5) j. (6) l. (7) i. (8) b. (9) f. (10) e. (11) p. (12) g. (13) a.
3. Match Column A ____ (1) Applies when an incident occurs or intelligence has received information that some form of terrorist action against personnel and facilities is imminent. ____ (2) Applies when a general threat of possible terrorist activity exists, but warrants only a routine security posture. ____ (3) Applies when an increased and more predictable threat of terrorist activity exists. ____ (4) Applies in the immediate area where terrorist attack has occurred or when intelligence has been received that a terrorist action against a specific location or person is likely. ____ (5) Applies when there is a general threat of possible terrorist activity against personnel and facilities, the nature and extent of which are unpredictable. Column B a. NORMAL. b. ALPHA. c. BRA VO. d. CHARLIE. e. DELTA.
(1) d. (2) a. (3) c. (4) e. (5) b.
29. Match the description in Column A to the correct ICS incident type in Column B. Items in Column B may be used once. Column A ___ (1) Temporary locations within the general incident area that are equipped and staffed to provide food, water, rest, and sanitary services to incident personnel ___ (2) Mandatory location at which primary command functions are executed. ___ (3) Where parking, fueling, maintenance, and loading of helicopters occur. ___ (4) The single location where primary logistics and administrative functions are coordinated and administered. ___ (5) A temporary location at an incident where helicopters can safely land and take off. ___ (6) Temporary locations located near an incident where personnel and equipment are kept while waiting for tactical assignments. Column B a. Incident command post. b. Base c. Staging area. d. Camp. e. Helispot. f. Helibase.
(1) d. (2) a. (3) f. (4) b. (5) e. (6) c.
2. SIP operations should not exceed how many hours?
2
3. Match: Column A ___ (1) Food necessary to feed one person for one day. ___ (2) Durable items that can be used over and over. ___ (3) Air transportable assets that support fueling operations. ___ (4) Fire trucks and materiel handling equipment. ___ (5) Items expended by their use. Column B a. Vehicles. b. Equipment. c. Fuels mobility support equipment. d. Rations. e. Consumables.
(1) d. (2) b. (3) c. (4) a. (5) e.
3, Match Column A ____ (1) GD penetrates in 29 minutes. ____ (2) Provides at least 2 hours of protection against GD. ____ (3) Provides at least 3 hours of protection against GD. ____ (4) GD penetrates in 2 minutes.
(1) d. (2) c. (3) b. (4) a.
Match the description in column A with the correct incident type in column B. Answers in column B may only be used once. Column A ___ (1) These incidents are the most complex type of response, requiring extensive national resources to effectively manage the incident. ___ (2) These incidents require resources that exceed the initial response. ___ (3) Can typically be handled with one or two installation response resources. ___ (4) These incidents may require several response resources. ___ (5) These incidents extend beyond the installation's resource capabilities for response, requiring local, state, and federal response resources to effectively manage the incident. Column B a. Type 5. b. Type 4. c. Type 3. d. Type 2. e. Type 1.
(1) e. (2) c. (3) a. (4) b. (5) d.
3. Match Column A ____ (1) A report used for passing information on areas of actual contamination. ____ (2) A report used for passing evaluated data. ____ (3) A report used for passing detailed information on chemical or biological attacks. ____ (4) A report used for immediate warning of predicted contamination and hazard areas. ____ (5) An observer's initial report giving basic data. ____ (6) A report used for passing monitoring and survey results. Column B a. CBRN 1. b. CBRN 2. c. CBRN 3. d. CBRN 4. e. CBRN 5. f. CBRN 6.
(1) e. (2) b. (3) f. (4) c. (5) a. (6) d.
Match the ESF in column A with the appropriate title in column B. Each item in column B will be used only once. Column A ___ (1) ESF 1 ___ (2) ESF 2 ___ (3) ESF 3 ___ (4) ESF 4 ___ (5) ESF 5 ___ (6) ESF 6 ___ (7) ESF 7 ___ (8) ESF 8 ___ (9) ESF 9 ___ (10) ESF 10 ___ (11) ESF 11 ___ (12) ESF 12 ___ (13) ESF 13 ___ (14) ESF 14 ___ (15) ESF 15 Column B a. Communications. b. Fire fighting. c. Resource support. d. External affairs. e. Energy. f. Transportation. g. Urban search & rescue. h. Emergency management. i. Oil & HAZMAT response. j. Public works & engineering. k. Mass care, housing, and human services. l. Public safety and security. m. Agriculture and natural resources. n. Long-term community recovery and mitigation. o. Public health and medical services.
(1) f. (2) a. (3) j. (4) b. (5) h. (6) k. (7) c. (8) o. (9) g. (10) i. (11) m. (12) e. (13) l. (14) n. (15) d.
3. Match Column A ____ (1) All IPE items are worn. Overgarment and hood openings are closed. ____ (2) IPE is issued to the individual, prepared for use, and kept readily available. ____ (3) All IPE items, except gloves, are worn. Carry or keep gloves at hand. ____ (4) The overgarment, helmet, and footwear covers are worn. Carry or keep remaining IPE at hand. ____ (5) All IPE is stored and available for use within the prescribed time determined by the installation commander. ____ (6) The overgarment and helmet are worn. Other IPE items are carried or kept at hand. Column B a. MOPP 0. b. MOPP 1. c. MOPP 2. d. MOPP 3. e. MOPP 4. f. MOPP Ready.
(1)e (2)a (3)d (4)c (5)f (6)b
3. (414) Which formula is used to transform 50 pounds of super tropical bleach (STB) with 30 percent chlorine available into a liquid solution with 5 percent chlorine content? a. (30 ÷ 8) × (50 - 5) ÷ 5. b. (50 ÷ 8) × (30 - 5) ÷ 5. c. (30 ÷ 5) × (50 - 5) ÷ 5. d. (50 ÷ 5) × (30 - 5) ÷ 5.
(50 ÷ 8) × (30 - 5) ÷ 5.
2. What are the seven steps for effective communication?
. Analyze Purpose and Audience. Research Your Topic. Support Your Ideas. Organize and Outline. Draft. Edit. Fight for Feedback and Get Approval.
2. What is another name for a radiological dispersion device?
. "Dirty bomb".
2. What does the USGS alert-notification system need to do to be effective?
. (1) Accommodate the various sizes, styles, and durations of volcanic activity; (2) work equally well during escalating and deescalating activity; (3) be equally useful to both those on the ground and those in aviation; and (4) retain and improve effective existing alert-notification protocols. 21.
2. Recent earthquakes around the world show a pattern of steadily increasing damages and losses that are due primarily to what two factors?
. (1) Significant growth in earthquake-prone urban areas and (2) vulnerability of older buildings, including buildings constructed within the past 20 years.
2. How long can blizzard conditions be expected to last?
. 3 hours or longer.
2. What are some factors that might cause a power failure?
. A breakdown in the power generation and/or distribution grid, or by an accident or preceding disaster that somehow damages the grid.
2. What is the difference between a local source tsunami warning and a distance source tsunami warning?
. A local source warning occurs when an earthquake is felt and personnel immediately head for higher ground. A distant source warning happens when an earthquake occurs in another part of the world and the resulting waves can be tracked and used to provide advanced warning to personnel in affected areas.
2. What does the planning process use to help address the complexity and uncertainty inherent in potential hazards or threats?
. A logical and analytical problem-solving process.
2. What is a Class A mishap?
. A mishap in which the resulting total cost of damages to the government and other property is $2 million or more; a DOD aircraft is destroyed; or an injury or occupational illness results in a fatality or permanent total disability.
2. What is the difference between a severe thunderstorm watch and a severe thunderstorm warning?
. A severe thunderstorm watch is issued when the potential exists for the development of thunderstorms which may produce large hail or damaging winds. A severe thunderstorm warning is issued when a severe thunderstorm is occurring or is imminent based on Doppler radar information.
2. What do installation and community based plans provide?
. A starting point for operations, adjusting as the situation dictates and as facts replace planning assumptions.
2. What is an earthquake?
. A sudden, rapid shaking of the earth caused by the breaking and shifting of rock beneath the earth's surface.
2. Lightning watches and warning are mandatory in accordance with what regulation?
. Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) Standard 91-100, Aircraft Flightline Ground Operations and Activities
2. What is a major accident?
. An accident involving DOD materiel or DOD activities that is serious enough to warrant response by the installation DRF.
2. What is cyberterrorism?
. An attack against information, computer systems, computer programs, and data which results in violence against non-combatant targets by sub-national groups or clandestine agents can cause severe economic damage or result in a loss of critical services.
2. What is an active shooter?
. An individual actively engaged in killing or attempting to kill personnel in a confined and populated area.
2. What is a mass casualty incident?
. Any large number of casualties produced in a relatively short time, usually as the result of a single incident that exceeds local logistic support capabilities.
2. Why does the NWS refer to winter storms as the "deceptive killers"?
. Because most deaths are indirectly related to the storm.
2. Why are conventional explosives the most troubling WMD?
. Because of their ability to effectively disperse chemical, biological, or radiological agents.
2. What are the three main processes by which nuclear weapons cause damage to property and harm to life?
. Blast, thermal radiation and fallout.
2. How can the risks that earthquakes pose to society, including death, injury, and economic loss, be reduced?
. By better planning, construction, and mitigation practices before earthquakes happen and providing critical and timely information to improve response after they occur.
2. How does the operations element support the EOC manager?
. By establishing processes and procedures to: • Identify primary and alternate EOC locations. Ensure the EOC and alternate EOC can be activated within the timeframe mandated by local policies and guidance. • Develop and maintain applicable EOC quick reaction checklists (QRCs) in support of the IEMP 10-2. • Assist EOC representatives in developing and reviewing function-unique response checklists used in the EOC. • Monitor pre-incident activities until the EOC is activated. • Activate the EOC and alternate EOC when directed. • Maintain EOC staff rosters. • Work with EOC members to support the EOC Director and IC. • Work with the Communications Squadron to ensure the EOC has interoperable communication systems with all base agencies and civil authorities.
2. What do terrorists use to achieve a synergistic effect?
. Combined hazards.
2. Infrastructure hazards are primarily related to what?
. Critical systems of utilities, services, and other assets that serve the public.
3. List some tasks that the EMST may be required to do.
. Decontamination operations at the CCS or CCA; assisting ESF-5 in the EOC; assisting the CBRN Control Center; working at the ICP; EOC administration duties; and other EM support duties.
2. What are the four primary mechanisms by which terrorists can use radiation to carry out an attack?
. Detonation of a nuclear bomb, dispersal of a radiological material, fixed point radiation emission, and attack on a facility housing nuclear material.
2. When do tsunamis occur?
. During any season of the year and at any time, day or night.
4. EMST members should not be assigned to what kind of duties?
. Duties that conflict with their EMST duties.
2. Who is more likely to become victims of excessive heat?
. Elderly people, young children, and those who are sick or overweight
2. What are livestock epidemics?
. Epidemics that affect the life of any animal other than humans.
2. What are the two broad types of volcanic eruptions?
. Explosive and quiet.
2. What are the two types of conventional explosives?
. Explosive or incendiary.
2. A breach of a gas line can have what results?
. Fire, environmental pollution, injury, and death.
2. Why would a situation in which a terrorist uses explosives to deliver chemical or biological weapons present such a dangerous scenario for responders?
. Trauma resulting from the explosion will demand immediate attention from responders, who may enter a contaminated attack scene without first recognizing or taking the time to check if a biological or chemical agent is present.
2. The process by which a disturbance forms and strengthens into a tropical cyclone depends on what three conditions?
. First, a disturbance gathers heat and energy through contact with warm ocean waters. Next, added moisture evaporated from the sea surface powers the infant tropical cyclone like a giant heat engine. Third, the tropical cyclone forms a wind pattern near the ocean surface that spirals air inward.
2. What are the four major food shortage factors?
. Food production crises, social/cultural, political/economic, and environmental.
2. What are human epidemics?
. Illnesses caused by single pathogenic sources that affect a quantity of people rising at a rate faster than the disease is being controlled.
2. Which installations must maintain a snow and ice control plan and form a snow and ice control committee?
. Installations with over 6 inches (150 millimeters) of average annual snowfall.
2. What are the two key elements that contribute to flooding?
. Intensity and duration.
2. What is a tsunami?
. Large ocean waves generated by major earthquakes beneath the ocean floor or major landslides into the ocean.
2. What do all thunderstorms produce?
. Lightning.
2. What are biological agents?
. Live organisms—bacteria, viruses, or toxins—generated by living organisms.
2. For GSUs, who determines the host installation that will provide guidance to train and equip its units in compliance with the EM program?
. MAJCOM.
2. Mass casualty incidents can be the result of what kind of hazards?
. Natural hazards, man-made incidents, or technological incidents.
2. What is most common type of flooding event and when does it occur?
. Overland flooding; it occurs when waterways such as rivers or streams overflow their banks as a result of rainwater or a possible levee breach and cause flooding in surrounding areas. It can also occur when rainfall or snowmelt exceeds the capacity of underground pipes or the capacity of streets and drains designed to carry flood water away from urban areas.
2. What two ways can bioweapons be dispersed?
. Overtly or covertly.
2. Which EM section element serves as the OPR for CBRN passive defense and consequence management planning?
. Planning element.
2. What are the ingredients for a tropical cyclone?
. Pre-existing weather disturbance, warm tropical oceans, moisture, and relatively light winds.
2. What are some factors that might cause a dam failure?
. Prolonged periods of rainfall and flooding, inadequate spillway capacity, internal erosion, improper maintenance, improper design, negligent operation, failure of upstream dams on the same waterway, landslides into reservoirs, high winds, sabotage or terrorism, and earthquakes.
2. What kind of mitigation operations can be done in response to potential landslide and mudslide threats?
. Securing sewage lift stations and potable water distribution points and evacuating low lying areas, trailer parks, and family camps.
2. What are meteorological hazards?
. Severe and extreme weather and climate events that occur naturally in all parts of the world, although some regions are more vulnerable to certain hazards than others.
2. What are aftershocks?
. Smaller earthquakes that follow the main shock and can cause further damage to weakened buildings.
2. What is narcoterrorism?
. Terrorist groups that fund their activities through the global drug trade including cultivation, production, transport, distribution, and sales.
2. Whose mission is to save lives, mitigate property loss, and improve economic efficiency by issuing the best watches, warnings, forecasts, and analyses of hazardous tropical weather and by increasing understanding of these hazards?
. The National Hurricane Center.
2. Which agency serves as the operational center for the tsunami warning system (TWS) of all coastal regions of Canada and the United States, except Hawaii, the Caribbean, and the Gulf of Mexico?
. The National Tsunami Warning Center in Palmer, Alaska.
2. Which agency serves as the operational center for the TWS of the Pacific, issuing bulletins and warnings to participating members and other nations in the Pacific Ocean area of responsibility?
. The Pacific Tsunami Warning Center (PTWC) in Ewa Beach, Hawaii.
2. Who issues a tornado watch?
. The Storm Prediction Center (SPC) in Norman, Oklahoma.
2. Who issues warning to installations and forces located in coastal flood plain areas threatened by tsunamis?
. The West Coast/Alaska Tsunami Warning Center or the Pacific Tsunami Warning Center.
2. When can you wear the basic, senior, and master badges and what stipulation is there to wearing the badge?
. The basic badge is awarded upon successful completion of the EM apprentice course. The senior badge is awarded upon successful completion of all 7-level upgrade requirements. The master badge is awarded to Master Sergeants or above with 5 years in the specialty from award of the 7-skill level. When the EM occupational badge is worn, it must be worn above and with the CE occupational badge.
2. Explain the badges heraldry and basic design.
. The basic insignia, two crossed beakers or retort behind the benzene ring, for the badge was originally adopted in 1917 for the US Army Chemical Service. In 1921, this insignia was approved for the Army Chemical Warfare Service. The elements of the design allude to our chemical related functions. The benzene ring is the starting point for the method of indicating diagrammatically a molecular composition of the chemical combination. It has six points, one for each atom of carbon and hydrogen since the formula for benzene is C6H6. The retort is the basic container other than the test tube used for laboratory experiments.
2. What is the center of a hurricane called?
. The eye.
2. Who performs and documents the risk management process?
. The installation's EMWG.
2. List some examples of man-made accidental incidents.
.HAZMAT (such as explosives, flammable liquid, flammable gas, flammable solid, oxidizer, poison, radiological, corrosive) spill or release; an explosion or fire; transportation accidents; building or structure collapses; energy, power, or utility failures; fuel or resource shortages; air or water pollution or contamination; dam, levee, or other water control structure failures; financial issues including economic depression, inflation, financial system collapse; communication system interruption; misinformation, etc.
3. (405) Which defense condition (DEFCON) indicates war? a. 1. b. 3. c. 5. d. 7.
1
2. (226) When is hurricane season in the Atlantic, Caribbean, and Gulf of Mexico as well as in the Central Pacific basin? a. 1 January to 31 March. b. 1 March to 30 June. c. 1 June to 30 November. d. 1 July to 31 October.
1 June to 30 November.
2. When is hurricane season in the Atlantic, Caribbean, and Gulf of Mexico as well as in the Central Pacific basin?
1 June to 30 November.
3. List the precautions that you take before using an APR or PAPR.
1) Know what chemical/air contaminant in the air. (2) Know how much of the chemicals/air contaminants are in the air. (3) Make sure the oxygen level is between 19.5% and 23.5%. (4) Make sure the atmospheric hazards are below IDLH conditions.
3. What questions should responders be able to answer before deciding to use APRs for protection at an incident?
1) What is the hazard? (2) Is the hazard a vapor or a gas? (3) Is the hazard a particle or dust? (4) Is there some combination of dust and vapors present? (5) What concentrations are present?
3. What considerations should be incorporated into the planning for contaminated waste collection?
1. Establishing unit waste disposal points. 2. Establishing installation waste disposal point. 3. Marking contaminated waste areas. 4. Training installation personnel on disposal point locations. 5. Training installation personnel contaminated waste site hazards. 6. Determining disposal options (open storage, burning, and burying).
3. (413) During decontamination operations, you let the reactive skin decontamination lotion (RSDL) remain on your skin for at least how many minutes? a. 1. b. 2. c. 3. d. 4.
2
3. How many M295 decon mitts does it take for a complete decontamination operation?
2
3. How long do you allow the RSDL to remain on the skin?
2 minutes.
2. Match the hazard assessments in column A to the correct step in column B. Items in column B may be used only once. Column A ____ (1) Evaluate each hazard for severity and frequency. ____ (2) Integrate threat information prepared by the intelligence community in liaison with federal, state, and local law enforcement as appropriate and in accordance with restraints and procedures identified in DODD 5200.27 or DOD 5240.1-R. ____ (3) Identify and characterize the hazards or threats. ____ (4) Estimate the impact of the hazard and/or threat. ____ (5) Consider the full range of know a. step 1, b, step 2, c. step 3, d. step 4, e. step 5
1.d, 2.c, 3.a, .4. e. 5. b
3. (409) Droplet clouds from ground bursts typically reach full deposition within how many minutes? a. 1. b. 5. c. 10. d. 60.
10
3. How long will chemical droplets from ground bursts and airbursts typically take to reach full deposition?
10 minutes and 60 minutes respectively.
2. List the objectives of the capability assessment?
11. 1) Analyze the installation's hazard assessment and vulnerability assessment. 2) Capture information on the specific installation. 3) List installation resources by type to provide an asset capability report. 4) List mission-essential installation personnel task responsibilities for EM. 5) Identify shortfalls: equipment, resources, and personnel. 6) Report shortfalls and develop funding requirements as necessary.
3. When taking fabric samples, what size should a carpet sample be?
11⁄2 inches by 11⁄2 inches.
3. (401) In the Air Force Incident Management System (AFIMS), during the Response phase of an incident, an Incident Action Plan (IAP) is established for a certain operational period. How long is a normal operational period for an IAP? a. 6 or 12 hours. b. 12 or 24 hours. c. 24 or 48 hours. d. 48 or 72 hours.
12 or 24 hours
3. What is the usual operational period for an IAP?
12 or 24 hours.
3. (413) In an attempt to extend the wear time of the battle dress over garment (BDO) after exposure to agents other an VX, you should use the M291/M295 kit on your over garment no longer than how many minutes ? a. 3. b. 7. c. 10. d. 15.
15
How many emergency support functions make up the EOC?
15.
2. According to AFMAN 32-1007, flight personnel require at least how many hours of in-house training each month?
16 hours.
2. (210) Temporarily required items are items needed for a period of a. 45 calendar days or less. b. 89 calendar days or less. c. 180 calendar days or less. d. 364 calendar days or less.
180 calendar days or less
3. (421) The specific requirements outlined in AFI 48-137 are based on 29 Code of Federal Regulations (CFR)? a. 1910.134 requirements. b. 1910.120 requirements. c. 1918.134 requirements. d. 1918.120 requirements.
1910.134 requirements
2. (216) Each emergency management (EM) program review should be coordinated with the unit EM representative and commander at least how many weeks before the visit? a. 4. b. 3. c. 2. d. 1.
2.
2. Name the automated system that is used to manage all equipment at retail and wholesale levels throughout the Air Force to meet peacetime and wartime mission requirements.
2. Air Force Equipment Management System (AFEMS).
3. RSDL kits come in boxes. How many pouches/packets does each box contain?
20 pouches/60 packets.
3. During the zigzag mounted CBRN location technique, what is the distance that should be maintained between vehicles?
200 meters
3. (419) When taking an environmental sample, what is the total volume of stones that should be taken? a. 100 to 200 milliliters. b. 200 to 300 milliliters. c. 300 to 400 milliliters. d. 300 to 400 milliliters.
200 to 300 milliliters
2. (202) The Air Force Chief of Staff (CSAF) approved the emergency management (EM) career field occupational badge in a. 2001. b. 2003. c. 2005. d. 2006.
2006.
(029) Which command is the Army's command and control headquarters responsible for providing Chemical, Biological, Radiological, and Nuclear (CBRNE) forces, in a variety of operational team configurations, to respond, assess, exploit, and eliminate CBRNE hazards worldwide? a. 9th Support Command. b. 16th Support Command. c. 20th Support Command. d. 51st Support Command.
20th Support Command.
3. The M50s mask filters provide over how many hours of protection against CB agents and radioactive particulate matter?
24 hours.
3. What is the operational life of RSDL once issued?
24 months.
3. (420) What is the recommended sample collection size for a biological liquid sample? a. 10 to 25 milliliters. b. 25 to 50 milliliters. c. 50 to 75 milliliters. d. 75 to 100 milliliters.
25 to 50 milliliters
3. (431) What is the weight of an empty 463L pallet? a. 65 pounds. b. 290 pounds. c. 355 pounds. d. 463 pounds.
290 pounds
3. (419) When taking an environmental sample, what is the surface area of a soil sample that should be taken? a. 3 1⁄2 inches by 3 1⁄2 inches. b. 21⁄2 inches by 21⁄2 inches c. 11⁄2 inches by 11⁄2 inches d. 1⁄2 inches by 1⁄2 inches
3 1⁄2 inches by 3 1⁄2 inches
3. (420) What is the recommended sample collection size for a chemical vegetation sample? a. 2 leaves or 2 handfuls of grass. b. 2 leaves or 1 handful of grass. c. 3 leaves or 1 handful of grass. d. 3 leaves or 3 handfuls of grass.
3 leaves or 3 handfuls of grass.
2. When planning supply and resupply actions to support extended shelter operations in emergency or disaster shelters, how many days should you plan for?
3 to 7 days
2. What are the four basic steps of a simple inventory management process?
5. Determining requirements, accounting for equipment on-hand, maintaining the equipment available, and actively addressing the shortfalls and overages.
2. (209) Checklists for readiness and emergency management (R&EM) flight equipment must be prepared within how many days after the new equipment is received? a. 30 days. b. 60 days. c. 120 days. d. 365 days.
30 days.
3. Soil samples should be taken from an area of what size and depth?
31⁄2 inches by 31⁄2 inches to a depth of no more than 1⁄2 inch.
(033) Which specialty is assigned to the combined air operations center (CAOC) on every Air Expeditionary Force (AEF) rotation to lead and manage 3E9s in the Southwest Asia (SWA) area of responsibility (AOR)? a. 3E991. b. 3E971. c. 3E951. d. 3E931.
3E991.
3. (412) Covering chemical agents with at least how many inches of earth will give protection provided the area is not disturbed? a. 1 inch. b. 2 inches. c. 3 inches. d. 4 inches.
4 Inches
3. How many packets come in each M295 wallet?
4 packets.
3. (414) During contamination control area (CCA) processing, what is the preferred decontaminate for masks, protective gloves, and footwear covers. a. Dry powder. b. 5 percent liquid chlorine solution. c. 30 percent super tropical bleach (STB). d. 50 percent BK powder and Lo-Bax.
5 percent liquid chlorine solution.
3. What is the preferred decontaminant for use within CCAs?
5 percent liquid chlorine solution.
3. What is the micron size of the majority of chemical agents?
40 to 60 microns.
3. (430) Which allowance standard (AS) contains identifiers for Rapid Engineer Deployable Heavy Operations Repair Squadron Engineers (RED HORSE) and Prime Base Engineer Emergency Force (BEEF) unit type codes (UTC)? a. 429. b. 456. c. 459. d. 660.
429
3. (428) Which emergency management equipment unit type code (UTC) provides initial equipment for chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) personnel decontamination capability for an installation with up to 3,300 personnel? a. 4F9WM - EN HLD Response Equipment. b. 4F9WS - EN CBRN personnel DECON equipment. c. 4F9WL - EN active CBRN response equipment. d. 4F9WP - EN CBRN detection augmentation equipment.
4F9WS - EN CBRN personnel DECON equipment
2. How many volcano observatories does the USGS operate?
5
2. R&EM flight leadership submit the written EM program review assessment to the CE commander within how many duty days after the out-brief?
5
2. (216) Readiness and emergency management (R&EM) flight leadership will submit the written EM program review assessment to the civil engineering (CE) commander within how many duty days after the out-brief? a. 5 duty days. b. 10 duty days. c. 15 duty days. d. 20 duty days.
5 duty days.
3. (417) During an initial area survey, while in the structure, an initial entry element conduct radio checks with command every a. a minutes b.5 minutes. c. 10 minutes. d. 15 minutes.
5 minutes
3. (414) The disposal point for contaminated waste should be located at least how many feet away from the entrance to the contaminated control area (CCA)? a. 25. b. 30. c. 40. d. 50.
50
2. (216) How long after the most recent emergency management (EM) program review should the unit EM representatives perform a self-assessment using the EM program review checklist? a. 3 months. b. 6 months. c. 9 months. d. 12 months.
6 months
2. When should unit EM representatives use the EM program review checklist to perform self-assessments?
6 months after the last EM program review and 2-to-4 weeks prior to next scheduled program review.
2. Units must develop and/or update implementing instructions within how many days of an IEMP 10-2 publication?
60 days.
2. (223) Units must develop and/or update implementing instructions within how many days of publication of an Installation Emergency Management Plan (IEMP) 10-2? a. 30. b. 45. c. 60. d. 90.
60.
2. (224) When planning supply and resupply actions to support extended shelter operations, how many days should you plan for after the onset of chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) contamination? a. 3 consecutive days. b. 5 consecutive days. c. 7 consecutive days. d. 9 consecutive days.
7 consecutive days
2. When planning supply and resupply actions to support extended shelter operations, how many days should you plan for after the onset of CBRN contamination?
7 days
2. Explain each component of SMART objectives?
7. Simple - The objective should be straightforward and easy to understand. Measurable - The objective should be specific with an observable indicator of progress. Attainable - The objective must be achievable during the exercise timeframe. Realistic - Objectives should expect results that can realistically be achieved and reflect actual goals of time, personnel, and resources. Task-oriented - The objectives should focus on specific operations or tasks to be completed.
3. (431) What are the usable surface dimensions of a 463L cargo pallet? a. 84" by 104". b. 84" by 108". c. 88" by 108". d. 88" by 104".
84" by 104"
3. What are the dimensions of a 463L cargo pallet?
88" wide by 108" long by 21⁄4" thick.
2. You must complete the AETC Web-based Automated TO System course within how many days of being assigned as the TODA representative?
90
2. (210) Members appointed as technical order (TO) distribution account (TODA) representatives must complete training within how many days of assignment? a. 10 days. b. 30 days. c. 60 days. d. 90 days.
90 days.
3. What are the three levels of filtration available for a particulate-removing APR filter?
95, 99, and 99.97 percent.
2. What is the difference between a BSI and an ISB? 8.
A BSI is a military installation within the US, its territories, or possessions controlled by any service or agency, in or near an actual or projected domestic emergency operational area. ISBs are facilities that support FEMA incident response operations and logistics, which are frequently military installations, designated after request to the DOD.
3. What type orders are used to prepare forces to deploy or deploy forces without approving the execution of a plan or OPORD?
A DEPORD.
When would a JTF be established to support DOD involvement at an incident and where would it be collocated?
A JTF is established based on the complexity and type of incident and the anticipated level of DOD resource involvement. The C2 element of the JTF will be collocated with the senior on-scene leadership at the JFO.
3. Briefly define a WARNORD and what is established by it.
A WARNORD initiates COA development and applies to the supported command and supporting commands. The WARNORD establishes command relationships (designating supported and supporting commanders) and provides the mission, objectives, and known constraints.
3. What is a "hot line"?
A barrier separating the contaminated area from the uncontaminated area.
The CAT support staff is normally comprised of which individuals?
A compilation of knowledgeable operations personnel designated by units across the installation to serve in the CAT during 24/7 operations or when directed by the installation commander.
2. Successful risk management depends on what?
A comprehensive all-hazards risk assessment process.
2. What is risk management?
A comprehensive process and a critical planning element of your installation's EM program.
What is an IMT?
A comprehensive team that includes all components and functions of the command and general staff of the ICS structure.
2. Effective risk management depends on what?
A consistent comparison of the hazards a particular installation faces.
What does AFIMS include?
A core set of concepts, principles, terminology, and technologies covering the incident command, EOCs, training, identification and management of resources, qualification and certification, and the collection, tracking, and reporting of incident information and incident resources.
2. What is an allowance standard?
A document that provides basic allowances of equipment normally required by Air Force activities and individuals in accomplishing the assigned mission, tasks, or duties.
3. A typical positive-pressure SCBA consists of what components?
A face piece, pressure regulator, compressed air cylinder, harness assembly, and end-of-service-time indicators (low-air supply or low-pressure alarms).
2. When accomplished properly what does planning provide to an installation?
A methodical way to engage the whole installation and community in thinking through the life cycle of a potential crisis, determining required capabilities, and establishing a framework for roles and responsibilities.
2. What is a geological hazard?
A natural geologic event that can endanger human lives and threaten human property.
2. Temporarily required items are items that are needed for how long?
A period of 180 calendar days or less.
2. What is SIP?
A protective action used during a natural, man-made, or technological emergency condition to provide limited protection for unprotected personnel or casualties.
What must every Air Force installation have to quickly disseminate emergency information such as watches, warning, evacuation routes, and protective actions?
A rapid and effective notification and warning system.
3. Define atmosphere-supplying respirator.
A respirator that provides air from a source other than the surrounding atmosphere.
What is the National Preparedness Goal?
A secure and resilient nation with the capabilities required across the whole community to prevent, protect against, mitigate, respond to, and recover from the threats and hazards that pose the greatest risk.
3. What innovation does the M50s mask filters have for protection during filter exchange?
A self-sealing valve.
3. When surveying a building or structure, what mark does the entry element place on a door to indicate they have entered through that doorway?
A slash (/).
2. Items not in an allowance standard, but required by an organization to perform its mission, may be obtained as what?
A special allowance.
3. What is the JRA?
A specific land area within the joint forces commander's operational area.
What is a DOD IRF?
A tailored force dispatched from the closest military installation by the SecDef or by the Chairmen of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, through the Deputy Director of Operations, National Joint Operations and Intelligence Center immediately upon notification of a US nuclear weapon incident or nuclear or radiological incident.
What is a SSR team?
A team formed from existing installation and unit personnel resources to support emergency response operations.
What is an IC?
A trained and experienced responder who provides tactical on-scene control by initiating the ICS using SMEs and support from other functions
3. What are the two types of CCOR?
Advanced and simplified.
3. What is the product of multiple aerospace capabilities?
Aerospace power.
2. Define lockdown.
An announced emergency protocol used as a security measure to confine and restrict movement during an active shooter incident.
3. What does each packet of the RSDL skin decontaminating kit contain?
An applicator pad impregnated with decon lotion.
3. What is the meaning of alarm "yellow"?
An attack is probable.
Which publication outlines the Air Force EM Program roles and responsibilities; explains the program structures; provides a framework for planning and preparedness; outlines the risk management process and elements of the installation emergency management plan; logistical requirements; emergency response actions; and personnel education and training?
AFI 10-2501, Air Force Emergency Management Program.
2. The R&EM flight training element coordinates installation EM training according to which Air Force Instruction?
AFI 10-2501.
2. What system do units use to view and schedule classes provided by the R&EM flight?
ACES-PR unit scheduler.
2. Which ACES subsystem provides capability to manage all CE equipment requirements?
ACES-PR.
2. What system is used to maintain accountability and inventory of all UTC and high-value non-UTC assets?
ACES-RM
3. What team is the first to arrive to a deployed location?
ADVON.
2. What form can you use to sign flight-level equipment out to other functions?
AF Form 1297, Temporary Issue Receipt.
3. What form is used to send evidence samples that were collected?
AF Form 1880.
2. Who centrally hosts the IEMP 10-2 planning tool for management, compliance, and insight into progression of the IEMP 10-2 process?
AFCEC/CXR and the MAJCOMs.
2. (211) The readiness and emergency management (R&EM) flight's training element develops and maintains master lesson plans for instructor-led courses using available instructor guides created by a. AF/A7CV. b. AF/A7CXR. c. AFCEC/CXR. d. AFCEC/CXX.
AFCEC/CXR.
2. Who creates the instructor guides that the R&EM flight training element uses to develop and maintain master lesson plans for instructor-led courses?
AFCEC/CXR.
What does AFDD 3-27 provide guidance on for the Air Force?
AFDD 3-27 provides guidance for organizing and employing air and space forces at the operational level in the conduct of military operations within the homeland. This includes the full spectrum of potential military operations, to include civil support prior to a terrorist incident, civil support to contend with the consequences of an event, and extraordinary homeland defense or civil support operations.
What does AFDD 3-40 provide guidance on for the Air Force?
AFDD 3-40 provides guidance for the Air Force to conduct C-CBRN operations to detect, deter, disrupt, deny, or destroy an adversary's CBRN capabilities and to minimize the effects of an enemy's CBRN attack.
What does AFDD 3-72 provide guidance on for the Air Force?
AFDD 3-72 provides guidance for Air Force nuclear operations.
Which instruction provides guidance for ensuring the continuity of essential operations of the Air Force across a wide range of potential emergencies?
AFI 10-208, Air Force Continuity of Operations Program (COOP)
3. (425) What team is the first to arrive at a deployed location? a. Advance echelon (ADVON). b. Follow-on force. c. Initial force. d. Cadre.
Advance echelon (ADVON)
What guidance does AFI 10-2604 provide the Air Force?
AFI 10-2604 provides guidance for installations to develop a comprehensive disease containment plan (DCP) and supports the Air Force Counter-Biological Warfare Concept of Operations. It incorporates existing DOD guidance from the Smallpox Response Plan, the Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome (SARS) Medical Preparation and Response Guidance, and the Pandemic Influenza (PI) Preparation and Response Planning into a single document for disease containment planning.
2. Where can you find information about the IMA program?
AFI 36-2629, Individual Reservist Management.
3. Which AFI contains the minimum elements required to implement an acceptable installation-level respiratory protection program?
AFI 48-137.
Which AFMAN provides the Air Force with the AFIMS coordinating structures, processes, and protocols required to integrate its specific authorities into the collective framework of federal departments and agencies for action to include mitigation, prevention, preparedness, response, and recovery activities?
AFMAN 10-2502, AFIMS Standards and Procedures.
2. What regulations does the R&EM flight leadership use to manage CBRN passive defense and consequence management activities?
AFMAN 10-2503, AFI 10-2501, and applicable AFTTPs.
Which AFMAN integrates operational approaches to conventional and irregular warfare passive defense and consequence management operations using CBRNE materials?
AFMAN 10-2503, Operations in a CBRNE Environment.
Which publication describes the responsibilities and processes of the Air Force R&EM flight?
AFMAN 32-1007.
What is the mission of AFNSEP?
AFNSEP facilitates and coordinates Air Force DCSA for natural and man-made disasters/emergencies. It advises and consults with SecDef, combatant commands, joint staff director of military support, and all levels of civil/military authorities on DSCA issues.
3. What organization is responsible for samples or evidence that must be transmitted to the FBI?
AFOSI.
Which AFPD establishes a single, integrated EM program to address physical risks, threats, and passive defense measures?
AFPD 10-25, Emergency Management.
Which AFPD outlines policy to ensure the Air Force plans, organizes, trains, and equips personnel to conduct C-CBRN operations across the operation spectrum?
AFPD 10-26, Counter-Chemical, Biological, Radiological, and Nuclear Operations.
2. What series of labels is used to clearly identify equipment as having a radioactive source?
AFTO Form 9 series.
Which AFTTP serves as a foundation for developing multiservice and service-specific manuals, standard operating procedures, and response standards and for refining existing training support packages, mission training plans, training center and unit exercises, and service school curricula?
AFTTP 3-2.42, CBRN Operations.
Which AFTTP is the primary MTTP used for conducting CBRN reconnaissance operations?
AFTTP 3-2.44, CBRN Reconnaissance & Surveillance.
Which AFTTP provides background information and properties of chemical warfare agents, military chemical compounds, biological agents, and toxic industrial chemicals?
AFTTP 3-2.55, Potential Military Chemical/Biological (CB) Agents & Compounds.
Which AFTTP is used for plotting operations?
AFTTP 3-2.56, CBRN Contamination Avoidance.
Which publication outlines the minimum responsibilities of the EMWG?
AFTTP 3-2.82, Installation Emergency Management.
3. (408) While conducting monitoring on personnel processing out of the accident site through the contamination control station (CCS), which probe should you hold in place for 10 seconds? a. Alpha. b. Beta. c. Gamma. d. Beta/gamma.
ALPHA
3. What is a powered APR called?
APAPR
2. Effective risk management requires the support of what agencies?
AT, Occupational Safety, Environmental Health, Public Works, Security, Information Technology, Logistics, Intelligence, Medical, FES, EM, and, as appropriate, state, local, and tribal governments; other military services; and/or host-nation partners in the local community.
Why is stability within specialized teams important?
Adequate team experience and proficiency require a significant training investment.
2. Why did the Air Force create AFSC 242X0, Disaster Control NCO?
After responding to several nuclear accident situations, natural disasters (like Hurricane Camille), and other major aircraft accidents, the Air Force began to realize that dedicated professionals must have the breadth and experience to ensure preparation, response, and recovery were properly addressed.
3. What factors affect decontamination requirements?
Agent toxicity, persistency, specific hazards to personnel, types of contaminated surfaces, extent of contamination, weather conditions, and equipment limitations.
(029) Which function provides education and research to present and future leaders of the Air Force by helping them better prepare to combat an adversary's weapons of mass destruction (WMD) threat? a. Civil Air Patrol. b. Air Force Counterproliferation Center. c. Emergency Preparedness Liaison Officer. d. Air Force Northern National Security Emergency Preparedness Directorate.
Air Force Counterproliferation Center.
Which policy requires the Air Force to conduct emergency hazardous materials (HAZMAT) operations without regard to location; perform post emergency operations, site cleanup and remediation; and comply with training and certification requirements?
Air Force Policy to 29 Code of Federal Regulation (CFR) 1910.120, Occupation Safety and Health Standards, Hazardous Waste Operations and Emergency Response.
What does AFDD 3-10 provide guidance on for the Air Force?
Air Force force protection.
3. (429) Which product is used as a baseline to compare actual available personnel when compiling the status of resources and training system (SORTS) report? a. Designed operational capability (DOC) statement. b. Unit type code (UTC) Availability record. c. Air Force personnel desire list (AFPDL). d. Deployment requirements manning document (DRMD).
Air Force personnel desire list (AFPDL)
3. (427) Which element is one of the five essential elements of a deployment requirements manning document (DRMD)? a. Departure date. b. Air Force specialty code. c. Aircraft types and numbers. d. Personnel selected for deployment.
Air Force specialty code
3. List the five general classifications of sample media?
Air, water, soil, bulk, and surface samples.
3. Name the two types of protective breathing equipment used by first/emergency responders at a CBRN/HAZMAT incident.
Air-purifying respirators and atmosphere-supplying respirators.
3. While deployed to a contingency situation, you hear a 1-minute warbling tone from a siren that consists of 3 seconds on and 1 second off. Using figure 1-10, what is the meaning of this tone?
Alarm "Red"; attack is imminent or in progress.
3. What units are measured (tracked) in SORTS?
All combat, combat support, or combat service support units including Reserve, ANG, and active units sourced to an OPLAN, a CONPLAN, the SIOP, or a service war planning document.
Which subgroup of the EMWG reviews and refines incident response protocols to develop the IEMP 10-2?
All hazards response planning team
2. Who is required to comply with the lock-down direction?
All military uniformed services, federal employees, contractor personnel, dependents, as well as visitors on the installation as a guest.
3. During which phases of incident management does mitigation takes place?
All phases.
2. What should the capability assessment describe?
All resources and capabilities available both on and off the installation for incident response and recovery.
2. What is the sole basis for the authorization and procurement of equipment items for mobility requirements?
Allowance Standard
2. (210) What document provides basic allowances of equipment normally required by Air Force activities and individuals for accomplishing the assigned mission, tasks, or duties? a. Allowance standard. b. Program element code. c. Equipment authorization. d. Equipment supply listing (ESL).
Allowance standard.
3. What does the SecDef approve and transmit to the supported commander and JPEC announcing the selected COA?
An ALERTORD.
Who serves as the Air Force representative to the DCO, FEMA's RRCC, JFO, and JTFs?
An Air Force EPLO.
Who is assigned to the CAOC on every AEF rotation to lead and manage 3E9s in the SWA AOR?
An Air Force Emergency Manager (3E991).
3. (429) What is the status of resource and training system (SORTS)? a. A system of electromagnetic phone lines connected with modems to the endpoint computer. b. An external management tool comprised of a family of computer data bases and a reporting system to update them. c. A system of electromagnetic phone lines with multiplexers that are attached to the endpoint laptop computer system. d. An automated reporting system that function as the central registry of all operational units for the US armed forces and certain foreign organizations.
An automated reporting system that function as the central registry of all operational units for the US armed forces and certain foreign organizations.
3. What two items act as the catalyst for fulfilling the primary objective of your EM program?
An effective C2 system and a sound OPLAN IEMP 10-2.
What does the NRF require to enable effective and efficient domestic incident management?
An incident command system (ICS).
The command and general staffs are collectively referred to as what type of team?
An incident management team.
(022) What do we call an occurrence (natural, man-made, or technological) that requires some level of a response to protect life, property, or the environment? a. An accident. b. An incident. c. An emergency. d. A major disaster.
An incident.
3. What is the M45's unique capability?
An interchangeable nosecup—five sizes.
What is the definition of an incident?
An occurrence, natural, man-made, or technological, that requires some level of a response to protect life, property, or the environment.
2. When the hazard, capability, and vulnerability assessments conducted and validated?
Annually as well as prior to any update or review of the IEMP 10-2.
2. How often should the training element view and update lesson plans?
Annually or when guidance, such as publications or Technical Orders (TOs), changes.
2. (213) How often must the installation Disaster Response Force's (DRF) ability to respond to adversarial/human-caused, technological/accidental, and natural threats outlined in the Installation Emergency Management Plan (IEMP) 10-2 be exercised? a. Every quarter. b. Twice a year. c. Annually. d. Every 2 years.
Annually.
2. (219) How often are the assessments associated with the risk management process conducted? a. Monthly. b. Quarterly. c. Annually. d. Biannually.
Annually.
2. How often will the installation commander conduct exercises to assess the installation DRF's ability to respond to adversarial/human-caused, technological/accidental, and natural threats outlined in the IEMP 10-2?
Annually.
2. You should base the levels of equipment and spare parts your office maintains in stock on what?
Anticipated consumption during scheduled maintenance, operations, training, and exercises.
2. Support agreements should be made with what agencies?
Any agency that provides response or recovery resources to the installation.
What is a task force?
Any combination of resources assembled in support of a specific mission or operational need.
3. Define shelter.
Any facility or structure that is used to provide rest and relief for personnel in a contaminated environment.
Define "major disaster" as it relates to a presidential major disaster declaration.
Any natural catastrophe (including any hurricane, tornado, storm, high water, wind driven water, tidal wave, tsunami, earthquake, volcanic eruption, landslide, mudslide, snowstorm, or drought), or, regardless of cause, any fire, flood, or explosion, in any part of the US, which in the determination of the president causes damage of sufficient severity and magnitude to warrant major disaster assistance under the Robert T. Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency Assistance Act, 42 U.S.C. §5121 et seq., to supplement the efforts and available resources of states, local governments, and disaster relief organizations in alleviating the damage, loss, hardship, or suffering caused thereby.
Define "emergency" as it relates to an emergency declaration.
Any occasion or instance for which, in the determination of the president, federal assistance is needed to supplement state and local efforts and capabilities to save lives and to protect property and public health and safety, or to lessen or avert the threat of a catastrophe in any part of the US.
3. Collective protection simply defined is what?
Any system that protects those inside a building, room, shelter, or tent against contamination through the combination of impermeable structural materials, air filtration equipment, air locks, and overpressurization.
2. (213) Who is responsible for exercising the ability to conduct deployed combat operations? a. All AF units. b. AF units in overseas areas. c. Any unit with a wartime mission. d. AF units identified by the Chairman, Joint Chiefs of Staff (CJCS).
Any unit with a wartime mission.
2. Who is responsible for maintaining the currency of downloaded TO files?
Anyone who downloads TO files from the source.
2. What is the key to developing in all hazards plan for protecting lives, property and the environment?
Applying the principles of EM planning.
What does each unit commander do to manage and coordinate his/her unit's EM requirements?
Appoint a unit EM representative
What must the EOC director do before leaving the EOC?
Appoint and brief a competent replacement.
(008) Which action is one of the first steps an installation commander takes in establishing a single, installation-wide emergency management program? a. Appointing a crisis action team director. b. Establishing an emergency operations center. c. Appointing an installation emergency manager. d. Establishing an emergency management working group.
Appointing an installation emergency manager.
3. (402) Which item best describes the catalyst for fulfilling the primary objective of an Emergency Management (EM) program? a. Shelter management teams. b. Contamination control teams. c. An effective command and control (C2) system. d. A survival recovery center co-located with the installation command post.
As an effective command and control system.
3. Where are CCAs established?
As part of an existing shelter or in an open-air environment.
3. You are deployed to a high threat area and the installation commander declares alarm "yellow." Using figure 1-9, what action does the base populace take in keeping with the Air Force standardized alarm signals?
Assume MOPP 2 unless otherwise directed and go to shelter or seek overhead cover.
How many CCA supervisors are needed per shift?
At least one per shift.
3. Where are home station field training sets authorized?
At locations where Prime BEEF teams are postured.
(025) How must local incidents be managed? a. At the highest possible jurisdictional level. b. At the lowest possible jurisdictional level. c. At whatever level the governor dictates. d. By the closest military installation.
At the lowest possible jurisdictional level.
3. Define air defense warning red.
Attack by hostile aircraft, missiles, or space vehicles is imminent or in progress.
3. Define air defense warning white.
Attack by hostile aircraft, missiles, or space vehicles is not considered probable.
3. Define air defense warning yellow
Attack by hostile aircraft, missiles, or space vehicles is probable.
3. Using figure 1-9, what is the meaning of alarm "black"?
Attack is over and CBRN contamination and/or UXO hazards are suspected or present.
2. (213) Which component of the simple, attainable, measurable, and task-oriented (SMART) approach to developing exercise objectives encourages developers to remember that exercises are conducted during a limited timeframe and objectives must be able to be met during that time? a. Simple. b. Attainable. c. Measurable. d. Task-oriented.
Attainable.
3. Name the three types of tests you use to evaluate an alert warning and notification system.
Audible, visual, and informational.
2. (211) When emergency management (EM) training is completed the readiness and emergency management (R&EM) flight's training element updates a. Automated Civil Engineer System - Personnel Readiness (ACES-PR). b. Automated Civil Engineer System - Resource Module- ACES-RM). c. ACES-PM Unit Scheduler. d. ACES-PR Unit Scheduler.
Automated Civil Engineer System - Personnel Readiness (ACES-PR).
2. What are the additional factors to consider when developing a training schedule?
Availability of instructors, classroom capacity, peak leave/vacation periods, unit deployments and other scheduled events such as wing exercises, inspection, air and space expeditionary force (AEF) rotation, etc.
3. CBRN R&S directly support what three principles of CBRN defense?
Avoidance of CBRN hazards, Protection of individuals, units, and equipment from unavoidable CBRN hazards, and decontamination to restore operational capability
2. What do the design and colors of the disaster response force emblem represent?
Blue for the skies; black for the search to which we return; a red cross for the immediate lifesaving actions; and gold/yellow for the natural and acquired knowledge gained to perform our tasking. The triangle incorporates the knowledge into one uniform disaster control force and is used as the international civil defense symbol.
3. Which survey technique is used to determine the general dimensions of a contaminated area?
Box survey.
3. What effect does standing water on concrete prior to a chemical attack have on chemical agents, and why?
Chemical agents remain in areas that have standing water because the absorption process cannot take place.
2. What are the four categories of WMD?
Chemical, Biological, Radiological/Nuclear, and Explosives.
3. What equipment is used for beddown and recovery?
BEAR.
2. (205) Who do senior readiness and emergency management (R&EM) flight personnel directly report to? a. Major command (MAJCOM). b. Wing commander. c. Base civil engineer. d. Mission support group (MSG) commander.
Base civil engineer.
2. (224) Who is responsible for identifying and evaluating installation facilities that may be used for shelters? a. Base civil engineer. b. Installation commander. c. American Red Cross personnel. d. Readiness and emergency management (R&EM) flight personnel.
Base civil engineer.
(015) Which function serves as the focal point for base security and defense command and control (C2)? a. Crisis action team. b. Emergency operations center. c. Base defense operations center. d. Post attack reconnaissance team.
Base defense operations center.
3. Your unit is deployable to a high threat area. What should you consult in order to determine the local alert warning system at this high threat area location?
Base or joint support plans.
(024) Which unit is not one of the units of the logistics section? a. Food b. Medical c. Base support d. Maintenance
Base support
How are ICS positions filled?
Based on expertise and experience.
How are incidents categorized?
Based on their complexity.
2. What are the major sections of functional format of the IEMP 10-2?
Basic Plan, Functional Annexes, Hazard-Specific Appendices, and Support Appendices.
3. Why does an amount of a pure chemical agent in liquid form contain approximately twice the amount of toxic material as the same amount of dusty agent?
Because of the surface size and weight of the nontoxic material used as sorbent material for dusty agent production.
3. Why is the size of your area of observation normally 50 kilometers?
Because the maximum downwind hazard distance for simplified chemical plotting is 50 kilometers.
Why are exercises critical to a plan's success and a successful response?
Because they show whether what appears to work on paper actually does work in practice.
3. When is CBRN reconnaissance conducted in reference to the marking of contamination?
Before forces must move into or through or occupy an area of unknown CBRN contamination, when boundaries of a known contaminated area must be identified and marked, and when, at the time of survey, identification of a route or other key terrain as uncontaminated is required.
2. (228) Which weapons are used to cause illness, injury, or death in humans, livestock, or plants? a. Chemical. b. Biological. c. Radiological. d. Conventional.
Biological
3. (410) What colors are used for the background and writing on chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) marking signs to indicate biological contamination? a. Blue background; red writing. b. Red background; blue writing. c. Yellow background; red writing. d. Red background; white writing.
Blue background; red writing.
(027) Which is not one of the major categories of disaster aid made available through Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA)? a. Individual assistance. b. Public assistance. c. Hazard mitigation. d. Business continuity.
Business continuity.
2. How does the operations element support the development of duty rosters?
By identifying all EM section personnel and EMST members as emergency responders, forecasting and posturing personnel in order to execute emergency response for at least one full operational period during and after duty hours, and identifying qualified personnel to fill required response positions based on the threat/mission and IEMP 10-2.
2. How does the EM section support installation exercises?
By providing evaluators and training.
3. (404) You are deployed to a contingency situation fulfilling the role of a chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) control center team member. Chemical agents have not been used thus far in the theater of operations. The enemy attacks your installation. Several CBRN reconnaissance teams report a positive indication that the enemy used a chemical warfare agent. What North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) CBRN report must the installation CBRN generate to the theater CBRN cell? a. CBRN 1. b. CBRN 2. c. CBRN 4. d. CBRN 5.
CBRN 1
3. (429) The degree to which a unit meets standards within the four measured resource areas and an overall unit assessment is indicated by a five-point scale called a. A-levels. b. C-levels. c. M-levels. d. P-levels.
C-levels
What capabilities does the CBRN control center provide and coordinate?
CBRN C2, reconnaissance, plotting, prediction, and warning and reporting
2. The planning element is responsible for what portions of the installation risk management process?
CBRN and EM portions.
3. Ideally, what other C2 functions should the EOC be adjacent to or collocated with?
CAT, installation command post.
3. What material can be used for the collection of volatile solvents from surfaces?
Charcoal-impregnated pads.
3. What are the key components of the response phase?
C2, support activity integration, communication, and resource management.
3. Besides detectors, what other general resources are needed in the CCA?
Containers, decontaminants, and mask servicing parts.
2. (218) The readiness and emergency management (R&EM) flight planning element is responsible for assisting with what portions of the installation risk management process? a. Chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) and force protection. b. Force protection and emergency management (EM). c. Anti-terrorism and force protection. d. CBRN and EM.
CBRN and EM.
3. Who conducts plotting, predicting, and reporting requirements?
CBRN control center's staff.
3. Who oversees the CBRN reconnaissance teams in accomplishing detection, identification, surveying, and marking of CBRN hazards?
CBRN control center.
3. What are the three forms of CBRN surveillance?
CBRN point, CBRN area, and CBRN medical surveillance.
3. CBRN R&S directly supports which CBRN passive defense operational element?
CBRN sense.
3. What are the four CBRN passive defense operational elements?
CBRN shape, CBRN sense, CBRN shield, CBRN sustain.
Who is the designated, trained person responsible for CCA management?
CCA supervisor.
Who activates and manages the CCA teams?
CCA teams are activated by the EOC and managed by the CBRN control center.
CCA training is categorized under which course?
CCA training is categorized under the SMT course.
Who activates and manages the CCS team?
CCS teams are activated by the EOC and managed by the CBRN control center
2. What are the ACES-PR Personnel module's six options?
CE Personnel, Availabilities, Additional Duties, Recall Roster, Work Center Assignments, and Reference Tables.
What are the elements of the CERFP and what do they do?
CERFP's elements are search and extraction, decontamination, medical, and command and control. The CERFP command and control team directs the overall activities of the CERFP and coordinates with the JTF-State and JTF-Incident Command. The CERFP search and extraction element mission is assigned to an Army National Guard engineering battalion, the decontamination element mission is assigned to an Army National Guard chemical battalion, and the medical element mission is assigned to an Air National Guard medical group.
3. (415) Which option is not one of the four operational elements of chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) passive defense? a. CBRN shape. b. CBRN sense. c. CBRN shield. d. CBRN supply.
CNRN supply
2. (220) Which of the following is the foundation for state, territorial, tribal, and local emergency planning in the United States and is the standard for emergency management (EM) planning used within the Air Force EM Program? a. CPG 101, Developing and Maintaining Emergency Operations Plans. b. AFI 10-2501, Air Force EM Planning and Operations. c. AFI 10-2502, AFIMS Standards and Procedures. d. DODI 6055.17, Installation EM Program.
CPG 101, Developing and Maintaining Emergency Operations Plans.
2. (220) Which publication provides Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) guidance on the fundamentals of planning and developing emergency operations plans? a. CPG 101, Developing and Maintaining Emergency Operations Plans. b. AFI 10-2501, Air Force EM Planning and Operations. c. AFI 10-2502, AFIMS Standards and Procedures. d. DODI 6055.17, Installation EM Program.
CPG 101, Developing and Maintaining Emergency Operations Plans.
2. (220) Which approach to planning focuses on a jurisdiction's capacity to take a course of action? a. Scenario-based planning. b. Function-based planning. c. Operations-base planning. d. Capabilities-based planning.
Capabilities-based planning.
2. (219) Which risk management assessment describes all resources and capabilities available both on and off the installation for incident response and recovery? a. Hazards assessment. b. Capability assessment. c. Efficiency assessment. d. Vulnerability assessment.
Capability assessment.
2. (219) Which risk management assessment identifies shortfalls (procedural or programmatic) and steps taken to either mitigate or eliminate the shortfalls through procurement, developing support agreements, developing or revising plans/procedures, accepting the risk, or some other method? a. Hazards assessment. b. Capability assessment. c. Efficiency assessment. d. Vulnerability assessment.
Capability assessment.
2. After the hazard assessment, which hazard assessment is completed next?
Capability assessment.
3. (434) Where is cargo weighed and measured and the cargo documentation validated? a. Cargo deployment function (CDF). b. Deployment control center (DCC). c. Marshaling yard. d. Personnel deployment function (PDF).
Cargo deployment function (CDF).
2. (208) Which function of the Automated Civil Engineer System-Personnel and Readiness (ACES-PR) Personnel module allows the user to add and modify records; view personnel history and/or move records to history; view, assign, and or delete additional duties; and assign personnel to work center positions? a. Readiness. b. Recall Roster. c. Organization table. d. Civil Engineering (CE) personnel.
Civil Engineering (CE) personnel.
2. What do Air Force TOs provide?
Clear and concise instructions for safe and reliable operation, inspection, and maintenance of centrally acquired and managed Air Force systems and commodities.
3. The initial entry element moves through a structure in what type of movement?
Clockwise (left to right)
3. Into which two categories does NIOSH classify SCBAs?
Closed-circuit and open-circuit.
3. (416) Which chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) location technique is primarily used in restricted access or terrain or so that sites for high value facilities are free of contamination? a. Cloverleaf. b. Grid. c. Lane. d. Zigzag.
Cloverleaf
What does the WMD-CST OPCEN do?
Collects information from appropriate sources, identifies all pertinent data, and evaluates information to determine the mission threat including hazards, risks, possible adversary courses of actions, potential targets, the probability of an attack, the severity or level of the threat, and target vulnerability.
3. (429) Which units are measured (tracked) in status of resource and training system (SORTS)? a. Offensive or defensive. b. Skills or grades needed. c. Combat or combat support. d. Requisitions or requirements.
Combat or combat support.
(012) Which function serves as the essential command and control node for the installation? a. Command post. b. Crisis action team. c. Incident command system. d. Emergency operations center.
Command Post
Who is responsible for overall management of the incident?
Command staff.
What are the five major functional areas of the ICS?
Command/IC, finance and administration, logistics, operations, and planning.
2. What topics should the written EM program review assessment include?
Commendable areas, improvement areas, problems identified, suggested solutions, assistance provided, and MAJCOM guidance.
2. Which document provides FEMA guidance on fundamentals of planning and developing emergency operation plans?
Comprehensive Preparedness Guide (CPG) 101, Developing and Maintaining Emergency Operations Plans.
3. The M45 is not effective in what types of environments?
Confined spaces when the oxygen content of the air is too low.
(034) What term is given to those assets, systems, networks, and functions, physical or virtual, so vital to the US that their incapacitation or destruction would have a debilitating impact on security, national economic security, public health or safety, or any combination of those matters? a. Critical infrastructure. b. Vital nation resources. c. Critical nation assets. d. Key resources.
Critical infrastructure.
3. State the two types of emergency conditions.
Defense emergency and air defense emergency.
2. In planning using a team or group approach helps organizations to do what?
Define the role they will play during an operation.
2. (220) Which of the following is not one of the planning tiers? a. Tactical. b. Strategic. c. Deliberate. d. Operational.
Deliberate.
Which unit within the planning section ensures personnel are formally released and departure is authorized and documented by the appropriate authority?
Demobilization unit
Which directive gives federal military commanders, heads of DOD components, and/or responsible DOD civilian officials immediate response authority?
Department of Defense Directive (DODD) 3025.18, Defense Assistance to Civil Authorities (DSCA).
3. Which DEFCON indicates normal day-to-day operations?
DEFCON 5.
What DOD manual provides a concept of operations as well as functional information necessary to execute a comprehensive and unified response to a nuclear weapon accident?
DOD 3150.8-M, Nuclear Weapon Accident Response Procedures (NARP)
(002) Which Department of Defense (DOD) publication provides a concept of operations as well as functional information necessary to execute a comprehensive and unified response to a nuclear weapon accident? a. DODI 2000.16, DOD Antiterrorism (AT) Standards. b. DODI 3150.10, DOD Response to Nuclear Weapons Incidents. c. DOD 3150.8-M, Nuclear Weapon Accident Response Procedures. d. DODD 3150.08, DOD Response to Nuclear and Radiological Incidents
DOD 3150.8-M, Nuclear Weapon Accident Response Procedures.
Which directive establishes policy and assigns responsibilities for the DOD consequence management response to US nuclear weapon incidents and other nuclear or radiological incidents involving materials in DOD custody in accordance with the guidance in National Security Presidential Directive 28, the NRF, and the NIMS?
DODD 3150.08, DOD Response to Nuclear and Radiological Incidents.
What part of the DOE is responsible for responding to nuclear and radiological emergencies?
DOE's National Nuclear Security Administration (NNSA).
Who is the principal link between the DOS and DOD?
DOS Bureau of Political-Military Affairs.
Define first responder.
DRF members that deploy immediately to the incident to provide initial C2, to save lives, and to suppress and control hazards/threats.
What is DTRA's CMAT and what does it provide?
DTRA's CMATs are deployable task-organized teams of 2 to 20 personnel that provide CBRNE advice and assistance.
What DTRA service would you use to obtain information on nuclear and conventional weapon topics?
DTRIAC.
3. (423) When the M61 filter time patch assembly expires and must be replaced, its center color changes from white to a. black. b. green. c. dark blue. d. dark green.
Dark Blue
What function do CCTs perform?
Decontamination on assets under the control of their functional area for wartime operations.
(001) Which department's primary mission includes preventing terrorist attacks within the United States; reducing the vulnerability of the United States to terrorism; and minimizing the damage and assisting in the recovery from terrorist attacks that occur within the United States? a. Department of State. b. Department of Defense. c. Department of the Interior. d. Department of Homeland Security.
Department of Homeland Security.
2. (221) For Defense Support to Civil Authorities (DSCA) response within the US, its territories, and possessions, who coordinates response activities for federal agencies if the incident affects areas outside the installation's boundaries? a. Department of Homeland Security. b. Installation commander. c. Secretary of defense. d. Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff.
Department of Homeland Security.
2. For DSCA response within the US, its territories and possessions, who coordinates response activities for federal agencies if the incident affects areas outside the installation's boundaries?
Department of Homeland Security.
What department was created when the Homeland Security Act of 2002 was signed into law and what was this department's mission?
Department of Homeland Security. The primary mission includes preventing terrorist attacks within the US; reducing vulnerability of the US to terrorism; and minimizing the damage, and assisting in the recovery, from terrorist attacks that occur in the US.
(003) What department has primary responsibility to protect United States citizens and interests abroad? a. Department of State. b. Department of Defense. c. Department of Foreign Affairs. d. Department of Homeland Security.
Department of State.
Who has primary responsibility to protect US citizens and interests abroad?
Department of State.
Who is the lead federal agency for all US support to a host nation?
Department of State.
3. What is an associate or A-UTC?
Deployable authorizations that cannot be described with or do not fit into an existing standard deployable UTC.
3. (427) Which document lists all deployment tasking requirements for a particular contingency, exercise, or deployment? a. Deployment requirements manning document (DRMD). b. Unit personnel manning roster (UPMR). c. Unit manpower document (UMD). d. Unit type code (UTC).
Deployment requirements manning document (DRMD).
3. (433) What kind of installation deployment orders does the Secretary of Defense (SecDef) issue to prepare forces to deploy? a. Deployment. b. Planning. c. Warning. d. Alert.
Deployment.
3. (412) Which decontamination technique is not conducted during the operational level of decontamination? a. Spot decontamination of areas that must be touched or used. b. Mission-oriented protection posture (MOPP) gear exchange. c. Detailed equipment decontamination (DED). d. Equipment wash down.
Detailed equipment decontamination (DED)
3. List the 10 key tasks (in priority order) of an initial area facility/site survey?
Determine oxygen levels, monitor for UEL and LEL, determine VOC levels, determine radiological levels, determine and reevaluate the appropriate IPE/PPE, reevaluate protective posture for entry element, identify all structures in the area that are to be assessed, determine priority of effort, prepare an area sketch to include determining the GPS coordinates and other location identifying information, designate buildings by numbers and rooms by letters.
2. What does the AFEMS enable the Air Force to do?
Determine, authorize, account for, and report the types and quantities of equipment required to accomplish Air Force missions.
3. (418) During two-person sample collection operations, who exercises overall control of sample collection? a. Clean person. b. Dirty person. c. Recorder. d. Incident commander (IC).
Dirty person.
3. What are the four sample collection techniques?
Discrete, composite, grab, and surface.
3. Which sample technique is used when the sample medium is soil?
Discrete.
What is the difference between a branch and a division?
Divisions are established to divide an incident into physical or geographical areas of operation. Groups are established to divide the incident into functional areas of operation.
What codifies how the Air Force will employ Air and Space Power?
Doctrine
(004) Which term is defined as "our codified practices on how best to employ air and space power"?a. Policy. b. Doctrine. c. Guidance. d. Regulations.
Doctrine.
Which unit within the planning section maintains accurate and complete incident files?
Documentation unit.
3. When wearing the M50 mask, what occurs during exhalation?
During exhalation, the positive pressure created inside the mask closes the inlet valves and opens the outlet valve housed in the front module main body assembly. The nose cup channels the moist expired air directly through the outlet valve to the outside environment.
3. When wearing the M50 mask, what occurs during inhalation?
During inhalation, the negative pressure created inside the mask opens the inlet valves and pulls filters air into the mask. The air deflectors and nose cup guide the airflow across the eye lens to enable defogging. Air then passes through the vent in the top of the nose cup and into the warfighter's respiratory tract.
3. What arrives with the initial force?
First aircraft squadron with limited operations, maintenance, and support functions; mobility equipment; and spare kits.
2. (204) Who is the key emergency management (EM) representative for the senior AF authority and will perform the duties necessary to properly train and educate airmen on AF specific requirements such as chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) passive defense? a. EM section. b. Operations element. c. Civil Engineer squadron. d. Readiness and emergency management (R&EM) flight.
EM section.
2. What did the Full Spectrum Threat Response Program name change to in 2006?
EM.
What are the training requirements for members of the EMST?
EMST members must complete individual knowledge based training, demonstration performance training, as well as participating in annual exercises.
2. Who approves the requirements for the EMST and who is the personnel request sent to?
EMWG; Augmentation Review Board.
Who provides oversight for the installation commander to support and prioritize IC incident resources requested at the incident site?
EOC director
(013) Who provides the incident commander all the support requested to manage the incident, restore mission capabilities, and sustain response and recovery activities? a. Emergency Operations Center (EOC) manager. b. Operations section chief. c. Installation commander. d. EOC director.
EOC director.
(013) Which Emergency Support Function (ESF) is responsible for hazardous material (HAZMAT) response? a. ESF 4. b. ESF 5. c. ESF 10. d. ESF 13.
ESF 10
(013) Which Emergency Support Function (ESF) is responsible for energy infrastructure assessment, repair, and restoration? a. ESF 7. b. ESF 9. c. ESF 11. d. ESF 12.
ESF 12
(013) Which Emergency Support Function (ESF) is external affairs? a. ESF 1. b. ESF 9. c. ESF 14. d. ESF 15.
ESF 15
(015) Which Emergency Support Function (ESF) is responsible for managing the Chemical, Biological, Radiological, and Nuclear (CBRN) Control Center? a. ESF 4. b. ESF 5. c. ESF 9. d. ESF 10.
ESF 5
The CBRN control center is managed under which ESF in the EOC?
ESF 5 - Emergency Management.
(035) The American Red Cross is a supporting agency to the mass care functions of which Emergency Support Function (ESF)? a. ESF 4. b. ESF 5. c. ESF 6. d. ESF 7.
ESF 6.
3. (403) Which Emergency Support Function (ESF) monitors, tracks, and reports financial impacts, reimbursable expenditures, and claims resulting from the chemical, biological, radiological, nuclear, and high-yield explosives (CBRNE) incident? a. ESF-8. b. ESF-7. c. ESF-6. d. ESF-5.
ESF-5
2. The logistics elements stocks R&EM flight UTC and mobility equipment in accordance with what requirements?
ESL requirements.
Who must participate in the Air Force EM program?
Each Air Force unit
How is a WMD-CST staffed and organized?
Each WMD-CST is commanded by a Lt Col and is staffed with 22, 7 officers and 15 enlisted Title 32 USC, full-time NG, AGR, Army, and ANG personnel. They are organized into six sections: command, operations, administration/logistics, communications, medical/analytical, and survey sections.
Which element of the installation EM program provides individuals and teams the requisite knowledge and skills to efficiently and effectively prevent, prepare for, respond to, and recover from natural and man-made hazards?
Education and training.
2. (210) What is the key to logistics? a. Carefully planning your budget. b. Effective inventory management. c. Determining equipment requirements. d. Ensuring you stock enough spare parts.
Effective inventory management
2. What is the key to logistics?
Effective inventory management.
2. (219) Which of the following is not one of the three assessments required to be completed as part of the risk management process? a. Hazards assessment. b. Capability assessment. c. Efficiency assessment. d. Vulnerability assessment.
Efficiency assessment.
3. (418) During three-person sample collection operations, who exercises overall control of sample collection? a. Sample collector. b. Assistant sample collector. c. Element leader. d. Incident commander (IC).
Element leader
3. Using the three-person sample collection method, what is the third person's title, and what does this person do?
Element leader (recorder); exercises overall control of sample collection, maintains control of the sample collection kit, completes sample log notebook, assists the assistant sample collector, maintains the sample log notebook, documents the collection effort with still photography and video recordings, is responsible for QA/QC.
(028) Which alert warns of a credible terrorist threat against the US? a. Elevated threat. b. Imminent threat. c. Sunset provision. d. Wireless emergency.
Elevated threat.
(001) What two incident levels were established by the Stafford Act? a. Emergencies and non-emergencies. b. Emergencies and major disasters. c. Natural disasters and major disasters. d. Natural disasters and man-made disasters
Emergencies and Major disasters
2. What are the two sections of the R&EM flight?
Emergency Management and Expeditionary Engineering.
What two incident levels does the Stafford Act establish? Define each.
Emergency and Major Disaster. Emergency means any occasion or instance for which, in the determination of the President, federal assistance is needed to supplement state and local efforts and capabilities to save lives and to protect property and public health and safety, or to lessen or avert the threat of a catastrophe in any part of the United States. Major disaster means any natural catastrophe (including any hurricane, tornado, storm, high water, wind driven water, tidal wave, tsunami, earthquake, volcanic eruption, landslide, mudslide, snowstorm, or drought), or, regardless of cause, any fire, flood, or explosion, in any part of the United States, which in the determination of the President causes damage of sufficient severity and magnitude to warrant major disaster assistance under this Act to supplement the efforts and available resources of States, local governments, and disaster relief organizations in alleviating the damage, loss, hardship, or suffering caused thereby
(015) Which function provides emergency call taking, alarm monitoring, sensor monitoring, video monitoring, control, communications support, channel and frequency assignments, allocation, and emergency notification responder reachback capability during emergencies as well as notification of an emergency to the receiving medical treatment facilities and hospitals? a. Unit control centers. b. Emergency operations center. c. Post attack reconnaissance team. d. Emergency communications center.
Emergency communications center.
What is considered a core obligation of local leaders?
Emergency management efforts.
Which SSR team augments the R&EM flight?
Emergency management support team.
(017) Who will activate the contamination control station teams? a. Crisis action team. b. Incident commander. c. Installation commander. d. Emergency operations center.
Emergency operations center.
Which element of the installation DRF is the C2 support element that coordinates information and resources to support the installation's actions before, during, and after an incident at the operational level, and is the focal point for the development and coordination of the follow-on operations and recovery plan?
Emergency operations center.
2. What kind of shelters are used after a natural, man-made, or technological incident requiring temporary housing to be provided to personnel?
Emergency or disaster shelters.
Who is considered to be an emergency responder?
Emergency responders include follow-on firefighters, security personnel, emergency medical personnel, EOD personnel, EM personnel, the public health emergency officer, bioenvironmental engineer personnel, mortuary affairs personnel, and other specialized and support/recovery team members.
(016) Which Disaster Response Force (DRF) members deploy to the accident scene after the first responders to expand the ICS and perform support functions? a. First responders. b. Follow-on responders. c. Secondary responders. d. Emergency responders.
Emergency responders.
What entity provides support, resources, program implementation, and services most likely to be needed during an incident?
Emergency support functions
The AFIMS requires an ICS designed to do what?
Enable effective and efficient incident response and recovery management by integrating a combination of facilities, equipment, personnel, procedures, and communications operating within a common organizational structure.
3. The M50 mask is not intended for use in what types of areas?
Enclosed spaces or other areas where the air may be oxygen deficient.
How many members should be appointed to the SSR teams?
Enough team members for 24-hour-a-day operations
What are the EPA's three special teams?
Environmental response team, radiological response team, and national decontamination team.
2. The ACES-PR Readiness module allows the user to manage what functions?
Equipment, Mobility, EM Program, and Stats.
3. (406) Prior to deploying to a high threat environment, you find out that the location you are deploying to does not use the Unites States Air Force (USAF) standardized alarm signals for areas subject to chemical, biological, radiological, nuclear, and high-yield explosives (CBRNE) attack. What best describes the action the Readiness and Emergency Management flight takes? a. Establish a pre-deployment information program to inform base populace personnel of the deployed location's warning system. b. Establish an information program at the deployed location to inform base populace personnel of the deployed location's warning system. c. Establish an information program that disseminates the deployed location's warning system prior to deployment and as personnel arrive at the deployed location. d. Work with the deployed location to change the warning system to mirror the USAF standardized alarm signals for areas subject to CBRNE attack.
Establish an information program at the deployed location to inform base populace personnel of the deployed location's warning system.
2. (210) Which of the following is not one of the four basic steps to the inventory management process? a. Determining requirements. b. Accounting for equipment on-hand. c. Establishing equipment turn-in procedures. d. Actively addressing the shortfalls and overages.
Establishing equipment turn-in procedures.
2. What is the last step in establishing an effective "Be Ready" Awareness Campaign?
Evaluate the campaign's effectiveness.
2. How often must the IEMP 10-2 be reviewed?
Every 2 years or if there has been a significant mission change or change to the threats affecting the base.
What does the force protection program consider every Airman to be regardless of his or her specialty?
Every Airman is a sensor.
2. (204) Which section is responsible for ensuring the civil engineer squadron accomplishes all Prime BEEF program requirements in accordance with AFI 10-210, Prime BEEF Program, and Air Force Pamphlet (AFPAM) 10-219, Volume 8, Prime BEEF Management? a. Planning section. b. Operations section. c. Emergency management section. d. Expeditionary engineering section.
Expeditionary engineering section.
(024) What factors determine how Incident Command System (ICS) positions are filled? a. Rank. b. Individual on site first. c. Expertise and experience. d. Recommendation from the installation commander.
Expertise and experience.
3. You are working in the CBRN control center. A chemical attack occurs against your installation. Through your estimations, the vapors emitting from the attack may affect an agency outside of your installation C2 system. What type of responsibility do you fulfill if you provide warning information to the agency that may be affected?
External.
3. (424) The M45 land warrior mask comes in what sizes? a. Small, medium, large. b. Short, medium, long. c. Extra small, small, medium, large. d. Extra short, short, medium, long.
Extra small, small, medium, large
3. (405) What terrorist force protection condition (FPCON) applies when an incident occurs or intelligence has received information that some form of terrorist action against personnel and facilities is imminent? a. FPCON ALPHA. b. FPCON BRAVO. c. FPCON CHARLIE. d. FPCON DELTA.
FPCON CHARLIE
2. After AFI 10-2501 was published in 2002, what was the DP program name changed to?
FSTR.
2.. (229) According to the World Food Programme, what is the greatest worldwide threat to health? a. Water contamination. b. Contagious diseases. c. Natural radiation. d. Famine.
Famine.
(028) What agency has the mission is to protect and defend the US against terrorist and foreign intelligence threats, to uphold and enforce the criminal laws of the US, and to provide leadership and criminal justice services to federal, state, municipal, and international agencies and partners? a. Department of State. b. Department of Defense. c. Federal Bureau of Investigation. d. Department of Homeland Security.
Federal Bureau of Investigation.
2. (222) At the national level, who is responsible for Emergency Management (EM) within the continental United States (CONUS)? a. The president. b. Joint director of military support. c. Department of Homeland Security (DHS). d. Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA).
Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA).
2. Who is responsible for EM within the CONUS?
Federal Emergency Management Agency.
Which section of the ICS is established when agencies involved in an incident require finance and other administrative services?
Finance and administration section.
What response elements does an IC normally come from?
Fire, medical, or security forces.
Who is considered to be a first responder?
Firefighters, security forces personnel, and key emergency medical personnel.
3. (402) What is the upward flow of attack information within the installation C2 structure? a. Individual through Unit Control Center to the Emergency Operations Center. b. Individual through Emergency Operations Center to the Unit Control Center. c. Emergency Operations Center through Unit Control Center to the individual. d. Unit control center through the Emergency Operations Center to the individual.
Individual through Unit Control Center to the Emergency Operations Center.
2. Who is most susceptible to hypothermia?
Infants and elderly people.
3. You have deployed to a high-threat area that does not use the standardized alarm signals. What action must you take?
Inform the base populace.
2. What information does the vulnerability assessment use?
Information garnered by the hazard assessment and capability assessment tools.
(024) Which unit is not a unit under the planning section of the Incident Command System (ICS)? a. Situation. b. Technical. c. Resources. d. Information.
Information.
3. Using the three-person sample collection organization is optimum because it allows for what?
Initial QA/QC and efficient documentation of the sample collection operations.
(018) Which response team is a tailored force dispatched from the closest military installation by the Secretary of Defense (SecDef) or by the Chairmen of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, through the Deputy Director of Operations, National Joint Operations and Intelligence Center immediately upon notification of a United States nuclear weapon incident or nuclear or radiological incident? a. Response task force. b. Initial response force. c. Disaster response force. d. Incident management team.
Initial response force.
(018) Which response team's mission is to take immediate lifesaving actions and establish safety and security controls at the accident scene? a. Response task force. b. Initial response force. c. Disaster response force. d. Incident management team.
Initial response force.
3. At what stage of deployment are Air Force personnel and resources most vulnerable to attack?
Initial.
3. During an accident involving nuclear weapons, your CCS is completely overwhelmed by the number of civilian personnel in the cordon when the accident occurred. What type of CCS could you use in this situation?
Initial.
3. (415) Which option is not a form of chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) reconnaissance operation? a. Route. b. Area. c. Installation. d. zone.
Installation
(013) Who activates the Emergency Operations Center (EOC)? a. EOC director. b. EOC manager. c. Incident commander. d. Installation commander.
Installation Commander
3. 411) Who is responsible for establishing a shelter plan for protection and recovery from chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) attacks? a. Civil Engineer (CE) Commander. b. Mission Support Group (MSG) Commander. c. Installation Commander. d. Individual Units.
Installation Commander.
Which group determines which specialized teams are required to support the installation EM program and what the composition of each team will be?
Installation EMWG.
2. (223) Which plan provides comprehensive guidance for an emergency response to physical threats resulting from natural, man-made, or technological hazards? a. Installation Emergency Management Plan (IEMP) 10-2. b. Civil Engineering (CE) Contingency Response Plan. c. National response framework. d. Base support plan.
Installation Emergency Management Plan (IEMP) 10-2.
2. (223) Who approves the Installation Emergency Management Plan (IEMP) 10-2? a. Readiness and emergency management (R&EM) flight chief. b. Mission support group (MSG) commander. c. Installation commander. d. MAJCOM commander.
Installation commander.
Who activates the EOC?
Installation commander.
Who approves the installation EMWG's charter?
Installation commander.
2. Who must store and maintain pre-positioned materiel for additive forces according to theater reinforcement plans, base support plans, and joint support plans?
Installation commanders in CBRN threat areas.
2. (210) In chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) threat areas, who must store and maintain pre-positioned materiel for additive forces according to theater reinforcement plans, base support plans, and joint support plans? a. Installation commanders. b. MAJCOM commanders. c. Unit commanders. d. Individual flights.
Installation commanders.
It is the EOC director's responsibility to ensure the entire staff is populating current incident information through what capability?
Installation's COP.
2. (219) Which group performs and documents the risk management process? a. Readiness and emergency management (R&EM) flight's emergency management (EM) section. b. Installation's Emergency Management Working Group (EMWG). c. Installation's Threat Working Group (TWG). d. Emergency operations center.
Installation's Emergency Management Working Group (EMWG).
What function can be established as needed by the IC and is used for the collection, analysis, and sharing of information developed during intelligence investigation efforts?
Intelligence and investigation function.
3. (403) After an attack against your installation involving chemical warfare agents, the chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) control center provides advice to the Emergency Operations Center (EOC) commander pertaining to agent persistency. What type of CBRN control center responsibility does this action best represent? a. Internal. b. External. c. Coordination. d. Exposure determination.
Internal
3. Into what two types of activities can CBRN control center responsibilities be divided?
Internal and external.
How is the installation EM program organized?
Into two main elements; a strategic planning and management staff and a disaster response force (DRF) to manage or conduct emergency response operations.
2. Equipment maintenance consists of what four separate activities?
Issue, storage, marking, and maintenance.
3. What does an APR contain, and how does it work?
It contains an air-purifying filter, canister, or cartridge that removes specific contaminants found in ambient air as it passes through the air-purifying element.
2. What is the benefit of planning for all threats and hazards?
It ensures that, when addressing emergency functions, planners identify common tasks and those responsible for accomplishing the tasks.
What does JTF-CS do when it deploys?
It establishes C2 of DOD forces supporting the PFA in order to reduce the harmful effects of a CBRNE situation.
2. What is the expeditionary engineering section responsible for?
It is charged with ensuring the resources and training required to undertake a unit's wartime mission(s) are consistent with tasked DOC Statement and the unit commander's priorities. This section is responsible for ensuring the Civil Engineer Squadron accomplishes all Prime BEEF program requirements in accordance with AFI 10-210, Prime BEEF Program, and AFPAM 10-219, Volume 8, Prime BEEF Management.
2. How does the "Be Ready" program meet EM education requirements?
It provides emergency managers a standardized method to disseminate information spanning major topic areas like basic planning, natural disasters, man-made events, and what to do after a disaster. It enhances the R&EM flight's ability to publicize their installation's EM program in a professional and affordable manner. And, it markets the capabilities of the AF EM Program.
What purpose does the HSOC serve?
It serves as the nation's nerve center for information sharing and domestic incident management - dramatically increasing the vertical coordination between federal, state, territorial, tribal, local, and private sector partners to help deter, detect, and prevent terrorist acts.
Why should your installation's emergency manager develop a relationship with neighboring city and county emergency managers?
It will ensure your installation is not operating in a vacuum and is engaged with the local communities' efforts to plan, respond, mitigate, and recover from a disaster.
3. What items are not considered WRM?
Items not critical to the supported plan: comfort and morale items; items readily available commercially; substance items other than operational rations; items with a limited shelf life; and items that are out of date.
3. What is your installation's best chance of mitigating the effects of chemical contamination?
Its ability to accurately evaluate the situation, decide on an overall course of action, and direct an educated base populace to accomplish a variety of tasks.
What is the name of the JTF when the 20th Support Command headquarters deploys?
JTF-Elimination of WMD (JTF-E)
2. (210) Which system is a cross-service Web-enabled automated tracking system designed to initiate, process, and track equipment deficiency reports from the warfighter through the investigation process? a. Joint Deficiency Reporting System (JDRS). b. Air Force Equipment Management System (AFEMS). c. Automated Civil Engineer System - Personnel Readiness (ACES-PR). d. Joint Acquisition Chemical, Biological, Radiological, and Nuclear (CBRN) Knowledge System (JACKS).
Joint Deficiency Reporting System (JDRS).
2. Who is responsible for processing requests for DOD assistance and preparing an execution order, if required?
Joint Director of Military Support.
(027) Which agency is the primary federal incident management field structure? a. Joint Field Office. b. Office of Management. c. Bureau of Land Management. d. Infrastructure/Geophysical Division.
Joint Field Office.
(030) Which agency is the principal advocate and single point of contact for all Chemical, Biological, Radiological, and Nuclear (CBRN) detection, vaccine, and medical diagnostic acquisition efforts? a. Joint Task Force-Civil Support. b. Defense Threat Reduction Agency. c. National Guard CBRNE-Enhanced Response Force Package. d. Joint Program Executive Office for Chemical and Biological Defense.
Joint Program Executive Office for Chemical and Biological Defense.
(030) Which agency's purpose is to save lives, prevent injury, and provide temporary critical life support during a Chemical, Biological, Radiological, Nuclear and High-Yield Explosives (CBRNE) situation in the US or its territories and possessions? a. Joint Task Force-Civil Support. b. Defense Threat Reduction Agency. c. National Guard CBRNE-Enhanced Response Force Package. d. Joint Program Executive Office for Chemical and Biological Defense.
Joint Task Force-Civil Support.
3. What requires Air Force units to integrate operational and support activities within the framework of joint organizations and host-nation agreements?
Joint doctrine.
3. What is the best method for minimizing exposure to personnel?
Keep personnel out of contaminated zones and establish and maintain an exposure control program.
2. (227) Which level of hazardous materials (HAZMAT) response is conducted when the hazard is confined to a small area that can be controlled by first responders, does not require evacuation beyond the involved structure, and poses no immediate threat to life or property? a. Level I. b. Level II. c. Level III. d. Level IV.
Level I.
2. (227) Which level of hazardous materials (HAZMAT) response is conducted when the hazard poses a potential threat to life or property? a. Level I. b. Level II. c. Level III. d. Level IV.
Level II.
How do exercise types vary?
Level of realism, complexity, and stress levels
2. (206) Which of the following would not be included in the meeting agenda? a. Location. b. Date/Time. c. Purpose of meeting. d. List of people attending.
List of people attending.
What does the state EOC support?
Local EOCs.
2. Who must the R&EM flight leadership coordinate local EM policies and procedures with?
Local civilian EM counterparts.
Who determines the number of personnel needed to support CCA operations and how is that requirement determined?
Local commanders determine the number of personnel needed to support CCA operations. Personnel requirements depend on the CCA size, design, number of shifts, and processing rate.
(017) Who determines the number of personnel needed to support Contamination Control Area (CCA) operations? a. Crisis action team. b. Local commanders. c. Emergency operations center. d. Emergency management working group.
Local commanders.
3. Local alerting system signals the installation commander use must be compatible with what?
Local, host-nation, or theater systems.
2. (224) Which announcement is an emergency protocol used as a security measure to confine and restrict movement during an active shooter incident? a. All clear. b. Lockdown. c. Evacuation. d. Shelter-in-place.
Lockdown.
2. Which R&EM flight's EM section element is responsible for the flight's equipment?
Logistics element.
WWhat unit must have wartime threat-based CCTs?
Logistics readiness squadron, maintenance, munitions, medical, and civil engineers.
2. The logistics element establishes and maintains equipment accounts through which squadron?
Logistics readiness squadron.
Which section of the ICS provides all logistical support to the incident, including ordering resources from off-incident locations?
Logistics section.
2. (209) Which element of the readiness and emergency management (R&EM) flight is responsible for regularly reviewing EM-related allowance standards to determine if authorizations for accountable equipment items have been added, deleted, or changed? a. Operations. b. Logistics. c. Planning. d. Training.
Logistics.
2. (209) Which emergency management (EM) section element is responsible for all Readiness and Emergency Management (R&EM) flight equipment? a. Planning. b. Training. c. Logistics. d. Operations.
Logistics.
3. What are some disadvantages to mounted CBRN reconnaissance?
Loss of stealth due to the visual, noise, and thermal signatures of vehicles; loss of accuracy to pinpoint actual contamination; higher probability of false positives; higher probability of false negatives; decontamination requirements for personnel and vehicles; increased decontamination and disposal requirements; CBRN reconnaissance vehicles are often not equipped with dismounted reconnaissance capabilities for buildings or other places not accessible by vehicles.
3. What are some of the solutions for Class IV Secondary Enclosure type of collective protection?
M20/M28 Liner System, Interim Transportable Collective Protection System, and Joint Transportable Collective Protection System erected inside structures.
3. (412) What decontamination kit is made with reactive sorbent powder? a. RSDL. b. M291. c. M295. d. M256.
M295
3. (423) Which model of the joint service general purpose mask (JSGPM) does the Air Force ground crew personnel use? a. M50. b. M51. c. M52. d. M61.
M50
3. (407) Installations located in chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) medium- and high-threat areas use standard mission-oriented protective postures (MOPP) levels. When personnel wear all individual protective equipment (IPE) items, the installation is operating under a. MOPP 1. b. MOPP 2. c. MOPP 3. d. MOPP 4
MOPP 4
3. If HD was released over an airbase, what would be the protective measures 20 hours later for an aircraft?
MOPP 4 within 50 feet.
3. Which document is used at some locations to identify UTC requirements that are not OPLAN specific?
MRRR.
(005) When using Multi-service Tactics, Techniques, and Procedures (MTTP) what factor must you remember? a. MTTPs are directive in nature. b. MTTPs are not directive in nature. c. MTTPs provide standardized references to service commanders at the strategic level. d. MTTPs provide standardized references to service commanders at the operations level.
MTTPs are not directive in nature.
2. Refresher training courses are designed to do what?
Maintain currency, to revisit subject areas in which students are deficient, and to acquaint personnel with changes in procedures and the use of new EM material.
2. What does the ACES PR function focus on?
Maintenance of personnel actions and data.
2. (204) What determines the number of 3E9s assigned to a flight? a. MAJCOM. b. Size of the installation. c. Manpower authorizations. d. Installation threats/hazards.
Manpower authorizations.
3. List the three MOPP options.
Mask-only option., No-ABU or flight suit option., Ventilation option.
3. How do increases in temperature and/or wind speed affect dusty agents?
May resuspend the agent and make it difficult for people to remain in full protective gear.
3. The triangles for CBRN signs can be made out of what type of material(s)?
Metal, wood, plastic, composition board, adhesive material, or any adequate material available.
3. What have the M50 mask and M61 filters been tested and verified to protect against?
Military CB agents, select TICs, and radiological particulates.
2. As a minimum response maps must support what system?
Military Grid Reference System.
3. (419) During sample collection operations, how many water samples should be taken? a. Minimum of two (1 sample, 1 control). b. Minimum of three (2 sample, 1 control). c. Minimum of four (3 sample, 1 control). d. Minimum of four (2 sample, 2 control).
Minimum of four (3 sample, 1 control)
(013) Who serves as the Emergency Operations Center (EOC) director? a. Incident commander. b. Installation commander. c. Mission support group commander. d. Force support squadron commander.
Mission support group commander.
(021) Which phase of incident management is an ongoing process and is considered, to some degree, a part of every phase of incident management? a. Recovery. b. Response. c. Mitigation. d. Preparedness.
Mitigation.
Which mission area of the Air Force EM Program comprises the capabilities necessary to reduce the loss of life and property by lessening the impact of future disasters?
Mitigation.
3. How many gallons of water are required to mix with a solid chlorine source (100 pounds of STB) to produce a 5 percent chlorine solution?
Mix the 100 pounds of STB with 62.5 gallons of water, calculated as follows: Gallons of water = (100 ÷ 8) × (30 - 5) ÷ 5 = (12.5) × (25) ÷ 5 = 12.5 × 5 = 62.5 NOTE: STB weight of chlorine container is 100 pounds and percentage of available chlorine is 30 percent.
3. (402) What is the primary mission of the Emergency Operations Center (EOC)? a. Monitor and direct active defense measures. b. Pass attack information to the base populace and direct defensive measures. c. Monitor and direct pre- and trans-attack survival actions and post-attack recovery operations. d. Assess damage reports, establish priorities, dispatch and control response forces, and inform the command post on the status of base facilities.
Monitor and direct pre- and trans-attack survival actions and post-attack recovery operations.
3. Using CCOR, approximately how big are large objects, and list examples.
More than 10 square meters of metal and/or glass surfaces. Examples include 44-passenger buses, fuel trucks, P-19 fire trucks, and all aircraft.
(030) Which of the following is a regional response capability to support a state's governor? a. Joint Task Force-Civil Support. b. Defense Threat Reduction Agency. c. National Guard CBRNE-Enhanced Response Force Package (CERFP). d. Joint Program Executive Office for Chemical and Biological Defense.
National Guard CBRNE-Enhanced Response Force Package (CERFP).
2. (226) Which agency issues coastal tropical cyclone watches and warnings for the United States and its Caribbean territories and provides watch and warning recommendations to other World Meteorological Organization Region IV meteorological services? a. National Hurricane Center (NHC). b. National Weather Service (NWS). c. National Meteorological & Hydrological Services (NMHS). d. National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA).
National Hurricane Center (NHC)
2. (202) After the terrorist attacks on 11 September 2001, a significant change to emergency management and response was the implementation of the a. Joint Task Force-Civil Support (JTF-CS). b. Full Spectrum Threat Response (FSTR). c. National Incident Management System (NIMS). d. Chemical Biological Incident Response Force (CBIRF).
National Incident Management System (NIMS).
(001) What presidential directive provides a nationwide template that enables federal, state, local, tribal governments, and private-sector and non-governmental organizations to work together effectively and efficiently to prevent, prepare for, respond to, and recover from domestic incidents regardless of cause, size, or complexity? a. National Preparedness Goal. b. National Response Framework. c. National Disaster Response Framework. d. National Incident Management System.
National Incident Management System.
What policy provides the DOD with guidance and a strategic framework for combating WMD?
National Military Strategy to Combat Weapons of Mass Destruction
(007) Diseases that impact humans or animals are classified as which hazard category? a. Natural hazard. b. Technological. c. Human-caused. d. Terrorist action.
Natural hazard
Which hazard category would an outbreak of smallpox fall under?
Natural hazards.
3. List the six CBRN survey techniques.
Nearside-farside, box, star, bounce-and-bypass, course leg, and preselected dose rate.
3. What is very important for responders to know about APRs' canisters, filters, or cartridges?
No single canister, filter, or cartridge protects against all chemical hazards.
3. In regard to UTC prioritization, list the terms used by MAJCOM functional area managers when determining what types of UTCs to posture in addition to the use the functional area prioritization and sequencing instructions.
Non-deployable, deployable, available to deploy, ready to deploy, in place requirement, employed at home station, deployable within assigned theater only.
(035) What group has a key feature that is their inherent independence and commitment to specific sets of interests and values? a. Coalition forces. b. Combatant commands. c. Private-sector organizations. d. Non-governmental organizations.
Non-governmental organizations
(006) What essential elements are contained in the response mission area of the Air Force Emergency Management Program? a. Notification, response, and protective actions. b. Save lives, protect property, and mitigate the effects of an incident. c. Casualty treatment, unexploded explosive ordnance (UXO) safing, decontamination, and facility restoration. d. Passive defense, consequence management, and incident response measures.
Notification, response, and protective actions
3. During a major accident or natural disaster, the response phase can be broken down into what three phases?
Notification, response, and withdrawal or evacuation.
(017) Which factor is not used in determining personnel requirements to run the Contamination Control Area (CCA)? a. CCA size. b. CCA design. c. CCA processing rate. d. Number of CCAs on the installation.
Number of CCAs on the installation.
3. Vehicle maintenance annotates vehicle contamination into what system?
OLVIMS.
(004) Which operation is not one of the five operational pillars of C-CBRN operations? a. Counterforce. b. Offensive operations. c. Proliferation prevention. d. Consequence management.
Offensive operations
What entities comprise the EM planning and management structure at the installation level?
Office of Emergency Management, unit EM representatives, EMWG, and the wing inspection team.
What CDC office is of particular interest to EM specialists and why?
Office of Public Health Preparedness and Response (PHPR). PHPR has primary oversight and responsibility for all programs that comprise the CDC's public health preparedness and response portfolio.
How are unified combatant command organized?
On a geographical and functional basis.
3. List the suggested maps you should have in the EOC for collecting information.
On-base grid map, off-base grid map, CBRN maps (1:100,000, 1:250,000, and 1:50,000 scale), and a map of the airfield pavements.
(017) What is the minimum team requirement for natural disaster shelters? a. One shelter manager, one monitor for registration/accountability of the shelter occupants, and one security person. b. One shelter manager, two monitors for registration/accountability of the shelter occupants, and two security personnel. c. One shelter manager, one monitor for registration/accountability of the shelter occupants, one security person, and one person for logistics. d. One shelter manager, two monitors for registration/accountability of the shelter occupants, two security personnel, and two people for logistics.
One shelter manager, one monitor for registration/accountability of the shelter occupants, one security person, and one person for logistics.
What is the minimum requirement team size for natural disaster shelters?
One shelter manager, one monitor for registration/accountability of the shelter occupants, one security person, and one person for logistics.
2. What should the base emergency preparedness orientation training be tailored to include?
Only the threats and unique requirements of the installation.
3. What are the three options for contaminated waste disposal/storage?
Open-storage, burn, burial
2. (215) Which element of the readiness and emergency management (R&EM) flight ensures emergency support function (ESF)-5 has the ability to provide core management functions in the emergency operations center (EOC)? a. Planning. b. Training. c. Logistics. d. Operations.
Operations
2. Which element's activities support C2, advise installation leadership and provide on-going support to the installation EM program?
Operations element.
(024) Under the Incident Command System (ICS), who is responsible for the direct management of all incident tactical activities? a. Incident commander. b. Planning section chief. c. Installation commander. d. Operations section chief.
Operations section chief.
(024) Under the Incident Command System (ICS), which section is responsible to conduct actions to reduce the immediate hazard, establish situational control, and restore normal operations? a. Logistics. b. Command. c. Operations. d. Finance and administration.
Operations.
2. (203) Providing support in the emergency operations center (EOC), chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) control center, and unit control center (UCC) fall into what readiness and emergency management (R&EM) flight mission set? a. Planning. b. Prevention. c. Operations. d. Preparedness.
Operations.
3. An IAP can be communicated in what two ways?
Oral and Written.
3. APRs do not supply what from a separate source?
Oxygen or air.
Who has primary responsibility for releasing information to the public?
PIO.
3. What type order is sent to the supported commander and JPEC to direct execution planning before a COA is formally approved by the SecDef and POTUS.
PLANORD.
3. (434) Which logistics module (LOGMOD) report, created through the Schedule module, shows suffix items within an item assigned to an increment? a. Movement summary. b. Hazard code list. c. Packing list. d. Load list.
Packing list.
3. What material is generally used for the collection of metals?
Paper filters.
List some of the duties the EMST may be required to perform.
Perform CBRNE monitoring, contamination control station, and CBRNE control center tasks, or major accident response including MEOC support.
3. What type of enhancements do thickened chemical agents have over near agents?
Persistency and ability to stick to whatever it touches.
3. What resource areas are tracked and measured through SORTS?
Personnel, equipment and supplies on hand, equipment condition, and training.
2. (208) The Work Center Assignments option falls under which module of Automated Civil Engineering System-Personnel and Readiness (ACES-PR)? a. Readiness. b. Personnel. c. Recall Roster. d. Additional Duties.
Personnel.
3. (417) When approaching an item of interest during an initial area survey, the initial entry element will take what step first? a. Determine if the item is recognizable. b. Move toward the item. c. Photograph the undisturbed item. d. Initiate detection procedures.
Photograph the undisturbed item.
3. As a CCS team member, what action do you take to inform all personnel that the CCS is up and running and ready to process personnel?
Place the CCL down on the ground.
3. (433) What kind of installation deployment orders is sent to the supported commander and joint planning and execution community (JPEC) to direct execution planning before a COA is formally approved by the Secretary of Defense (SecDef) and President of the United States (POTUS)? a. Deployment. b. Planning. c. Warning. d. Alert.
Planning
2. What are the four elements of the EM section?
Planning, operations, logistics, and training.
2. What are the three mission sets of the R&EM flight?
Planning, preparedness, and EM operations.
2. (218) Which element of the readiness and emergency management (R&EM) flight serves as the OPR for chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) passive defense and consequence management planning? a. Planning. b. Training. c. Logistics. d. Operations.
Planning.
HSPD-8 was issued as a companion to HSPD-5 and established what?
Policies to strengthen the preparedness of the US to prevent and respond to threatened or actual domestic terrorist attacks, major disasters, and other emergencies by requiring a national domestic all-hazards preparedness goal, establishing mechanisms for improved delivery of federal preparedness assistance to state and local governments, and outlining actions to strengthen preparedness capabilities of federal, state, and local entities.
3. Which SCBA type affords the highest level of protection against airborne contaminants, and why?
Positive-pressure SCBA; because any face piece leakage generally forces air outward and pushes contaminants away.
(021) Which phase of incident management includes actions such as planning training and exercises? a. Recovery. b. Response. c. Mitigation. d. Preparedness.
Preparedness.
2. (203) Which activities should include training and education as well as exercises, personnel qualifications, equipment certification, and the integration of planning and procedures? a. Planning. b. Prevention. c. Operations. d. Preparedness.
Preparedness.
What are the five phases of incident management?
Prevention, preparedness, response, recover, and mitigation.
3. (401) An installation's primary method of notifying first responders, emergency responders, airfield personnel, and other disaster response force (DRF) elements during an emergency is through the a. commanders' notifications. b. primary and secondary crash nets. c. disaster response force recall. d. Emergency Operations Center (EOC).
Primary and Secondary Crash nets
3. (429) Who ensure all Prime Base Engineer Emergency Force (BEEF) team members are organized, trained, and equipped to perform their contingency roles and all equipment is on-hand and ready to deploy? a. Readiness and Emergency Management Flight commander. b. Logistics Readiness Squadron commander. c. Unit Deployment manager. d. Prime BEEF manager.
Prime BEEF manager
What essential role do private-sector organizations play?
Private-sector organizations play an essential role in protecting critical infrastructure systems and implementing plans for the rapid restoration of normal commercial activities and critical infrastructure operations in the event of disruption.
Who must provide for the welfare and protection of their employees in the workplace?
Private-sector organizations.
(034) Which type of organization plays an essential role in protecting critical infrastructure systems and implementing plans for the rapid restoration of normal commercial activities and critical infrastructure operations in the event of disruption? a. Fundraising. b. Private-sector. c. Human service. d. Non-governmental.
Private-sector.
3. (427) What product is used by deployed commanders to identify deficiencies in unit type code (UTC) capabilities? a. Personnel identification and travel itinerary report. b. Mobility requirements/resources roster. c. Processing discrepancy report. d. Departure report.
Processing discrepancy report
2. Each exercise must be designed to do what?
Produce tangible results for the improvement of procedures, to identify or correct problem areas, and to increase proficiency of the base population and/or DRF.
2. What project was established to provide protective suits and masks for all Air Force personnel?
Project Constant Shelter.
2. (212) What can help to evaluate training issues by considering topics previously covered, thus overcoming the urge to teach favorite topics and neglect other critical areas when conducting in-house training? a. Proper documentation. b. A rigid training schedule. c. Selecting instructors that are already experts on the topic being covered. d. Selecting instructors that are not experts on the topic and challenging them to research the topic.
Proper documentation.
2. The Air Force "Be Ready" Awareness Campaign is designed to do what?
Provide emergency managers at every Air Force installation a standardized, yet diverse method to disseminate hazard and basic awareness information.
(006) Which action is not part of the primary mission of the Air Force Emergency Management Program? a. Save lives. b. Maintain and restore operational capability. c. Provide support to civil and host-nation authorities. d. Minimize the loss or degradation of resources in an all-hazards environment
Provide support to civil and host-nation authorities.
3. As personnel first approach the CCS, what should the CCS team members do?
Provide them instructions.
(024) In addition to the incident commander (IC), which positions make up the command staff? a. Time, procurement, compensation and claims, and cost units. b. Finance/administration, logistics, operations, and planning. c. Public information officer, incident safety officer, liaison officer. d. Document, situation, demobilization, resources, and technical units.
Public information officer, incident safety officer, liaison officer.
(023) What general staff functions fall under the command section of the Incident Command System (ICS)? a. Finance/administration, logistics, operations, and planning. b. Incident commander, operations section chief, and associated units. c. Public information officer, liaison officer, and incident safety officer. d. Incident commander, Emergency Operations Center (EOC) director, and Crisis Action Team (CAT) director.
Public information officer, liaison officer, and incident safety officer.
(024) Under the Incident Command System (ICS), who has the primary responsibility for releasing information to the public? a. Emergency Operation Center (EOC) director or manager. b. The Crisis Action Team (CAT) or EOC director. c. Public information officer. d. Incident commander.
Public information officer.
3. What can you do with an item that urgently requires out processing through the CCS?
Put the item in a clear plastic bag, monitor the item ensuring it is "clean," and pass it on to the CCL.
(011) At a minimum, how often does the installation Emergency Management Working Group meet? a. Annually. b. Quarterly. c. Bi-weekly. d. Semiannually.
Quarterly
How often does the installation EMWG meet?
Quarterly.
3. Describe the uses of the RSDL and M295 decontamination kits.
RSDL allows operators to decontaminate their skin through the neutralization of persistent chemical agents. The M295 decontamination kit provides decontamination for small pieces of equipment or areas.
3. Are your RSDL and M295 kits effective against dusty agents?
RSDL and M295 kits have not been tested against agents in dusty form.
3. What should you use to decontaminate yourself prior to entering a Class V Shelter-In-Place facility?
RSDL, M295 decontamination kit or 5 percent bleach solution
3. Collective protection might not offer sufficient shielding from what type of contaminations without modifications?
Radiation
3. (411) A collective protection shelter may not provide sufficient shielding from what form of contamination without modification? a. Radiological. b. Chemical. c. Biological. d. Chlorine.
Radiological
2. (228) A dirty bomb is another name for what kind of weapon? a. Chemical agents. b. Biological agents. c. Conventional explosives. d. Radiological Dispersion Device.
Radiological Dispersion Device.
3. (432) What category of war reserve materiel (WRM) includes food necessary to feed a person for one day? a. Rations. b. Equipment c. Consumables d. Fuels mobility support equipment.
Rations
2. (208) Which module of Automated Civil Engineer System-Personnel and Readiness (ACES-PR) allows the user to manage equipment, mobility, the Emergency Management (EM) Program, and stats? a. Readiness. b. Personnel. c. Reference table. d. Organization table.
Readiness
Who does the installation commander appoint as the installation emergency manager?
Readiness and Emergency Management Flight Chief, Emergency Management Superintendent, or the most senior Emergency Management Technician.
(013) Which person would be appointed as the Emergency Operations Center Manager by the installation commander? a. Fire chief. b. Mission support group commander. c. Civil engineer squadron commander. d. Readiness and emergency management (R&EM) flight superintendent.
Readiness and emergency management (R&EM) flight superintendent.
What type of exercise must be executed to test and evaluate the effectiveness of the Air Force EM Program and the installation EM program, education and training efforts?
Realistic exercises that demonstrate the level of proficiency required for a response to actual contingencies or emergencies.
2. (228) What is the primary defense against biological weapons? a. Detection. b. Recognition. c. Immunizations. d. Decontamination.
Recognition.
(009) Which action is not a major element of the installation emergency management program? a. Planning. b. Equipping. c. Organizing. d. Recovering.
Recovering.
3. (405) Which air defense warning condition color indicates that attack by hostile aircraft, missiles, or space vehicles is imminent or in progress? a. White. b. Yellow. c. Red. d. Black.
Red
3. What does host nation support agreements enable the Air Force to do?
Reduce its support and transportation requirements.
3. What must a well-equipped communication system in the EOC have built into the system?
Redundancy.
What does FEMA use to coordinate federal regional response efforts?
Regional Response Coordination Centers (RRCC).
CAT operations should be composed of which representatives?
Representatives from functional areas needed in a major emergency or contingency operation.
(023) Which factor is the key in determining how large the Incident Command System (ICS) structure will become? a. Span of control. b. Size of the incident. c. Size of the installation. d. Mission of the installation.
Span of control.
2. If your installation is chosen as a BSI, what might you be expected to provide?
Resources such as marshaling and lay-down areas, security forces, personnel and equipment reception/staging areas and facilities, personnel support, billeting, transportation, material handling equipment, maintenance, general supply and subsistence support, contracting support, communications support, and medical services.
Which unit within the planning section is responsible for ensuring assigned personnel and other resources are accounted for at the incident scene?
Resources unit.
2. EM exercises must evaluate the installation's capability to do what?
Respond to incidents using an all-hazards approach.
(017) Which team is not one of the primary emergency response support teams that are part of the Disaster Response Force (DRF)? a. Shelter management team. b. Contamination control team. c. Response and recovery team. d. Emergency management support team.
Response and recovery team.
(019) Which DOD response force is appropriately staffed, trained, and equipped to coordinate all actions necessary to control and recover from a nuclear weapon accident or incident? a. Response task force. b. Initial response force. c. Disaster response force. d. Incident management team.
Response task force
(019) Which team may be activated by the National Military Command Center or the Secretary of Defense (SecDef) to support a nuclear weapons accident or incident of a weapon in DOE custody or an incident under Department of Justice lead? a. Response task force. b. Initial response force. c. Disaster response force. d. Incident management team.
Response task force.
(021) Which phase of incident management includes implementing response plans and checklists? a. Recovery. b. Response. c. Mitigation. d. Preparedness.
Response.
2. What is used to authorize a required item that is not in an allowance standard but is already on hand?
Retention authority (ASC 048).
2. (210) What is used to authorize a required item that is not in an allowance standard but is already on hand? a. Reprieve request. b. Retention authority. c. Special allowance request. d. Equipment authorization request.
Retention authority.
2. What must you do prior to starting any task?
Review all applicable TOs for familiarization with the latest procedures. 25
2. (210) What must you do prior to starting any equipment task? a. Review all applicable technical orders (TO) for familiarization with the latest procedures. b. Request the latest copy of the TO for the specific equipment item you are using. c. Complete an operations check and document any discrepancies. d. Review the equipment operations checklist.
Review all applicable technical orders (TO) for familiarization with the latest procedures.
3. How do you check materiel availability in CE?
Review the IWIMS.
3. DODI 60DODI 6055.17 identifies what procedures/actions as Incident Management preparedness phase activities? 55.17 identifies what procedures/actions as Incident Management preparedness phase activities?
Risk management, establishing interim and long-term actions to reduce and/or eliminate identified hazards and/or threats to the installation, establishing interim and long-term actions to reduce the impact of hazards and/or threats that cannot be eliminated, training, exercises, interagency coordination, and equipping response forces.
2. List the activities that DODI 6055.17, DOD Installation Emergency Management, identifies as preparedness activities.
Risk management; establishing interim and long-term actions to reduce and/or eliminate identified hazards and/or threats to the installation; establishing interim and long-term actions to reduce the impact of hazards and/or threats that cannot be eliminated; training; exercises; interagency coordination; and equipping response forces.
2. Planning is fundamentally a process to manage what?
Risk.
3. What technique should you use to remove plastic barriers after an attack?
Rolling.
3. (418) Which item is not defined in a sample collection plan? a. Purpose and scope of operations. b. Priority of sample collection. c. Sample collection parameters. d. Route of entry to facility.
Route of entry to facility.
(017) Which reason is not valid for the installation commander or a designated representative to approve releasing a trained member from a specialized team? a. Retirement. b. Routine leave. c. Medical disqualification. d. Permanent change of station.
Routine leave.
What is the FSRT specifically trained and equipped to handle?
S&R operations in a CBRN environment and with multiple commingled remains.
2. (220) Planners typically use which approach to develop planning assumptions primarily for hazard- or threat-specific annexes to a basic plan? a. Scenario-based planning. b. Function-based planning. c. Operations-base planning. d. Capabilities-based planning.
Scenario-based planning.
2. (207) After determining briefing topics, what is the next step in preparing for an Emergency Management Working Group (EMWG) meeting? a. Conduct follow-up. b. Prepare documentation. c. Send out meeting minutes. d. Schedule the time and place for the meeting.
Schedule the time and place for the meeting.
3. In the absence of dedicated collective protection systems, what features of facilities offer some protection?
Sealed and closed structures.
(028) Who is the president's principal foreign policy advisor? a. Attorney General. b. Secretary of State. c. Secretary of Defense. d. Secretary of Commerce.
Secretary of State.
2. Who designates the BSI?
Secretary of defense.
(010) At a minimum, how often does the major command (MAJCOM) Emergency Management Working Group meet? a. Annually. b. Quarterly. c. Bi-weekly. d. Semiannually.
Semiannually
How often does the MAJCOM EMGW meet and who chairs the MAJCOM EMWG if it is not combined with another working group?
Semiannually; the MAJCOM/A7C (civil engineer)
3. Who directs MOPP levels and variations?
Senior Air Force commander.
In today's world, what is required to build the foundation for an effective response?
Senior officials and emergency managers.
What is a strike team?
Set numbers of resources of the same kind and type that have an established minimum number of personnel.
(017) Which team is established by installations when there is a requirement for extended sheltering of base personnel during natural disasters or man-made incidents? a. Shelter-in-place team. b. Emergency shelter team. c. Shelter management team. d. Base support and recovery team.
Shelter management team.
2. (224) What is used during a natural, man-made, or technological emergency condition to provide limited protection for unprotected personnel or casualties? a. Lockdown. b. Shelter-in-place. c. Collective protection. d. Extended operations shelters.
Shelter-in-place.
2. Exercise objectives must be SMART. What does SMART mean?
Simple, measurable, attainable, realistic, and task-oriented.
Which unit within the planning section collects, processes, and organizes ongoing situation information; prepares situation summaries; and develops projections and forecasts of future events related to the incident?
Situation unit.
3. How many steps are in the IAP process?
Six.
3. The M50 mask comes in what sizes?
Small, medium, and large.
3. The M50 nosecup comes in what sizes?
Small, medium, and large.
3. What are bulk samples?
Solids, liquids, and powders taken from containers, tubs, and drums. Bulk samples are not to be confused with water or soil samples.
What working groups support the EM planning and management structure at the HAF level?
The Air Force Civil Engineer (AF/A7C); the AF Emergency Management Working Group (EMWG); the AF Counter-CBRN (C-CBRN) Council; the AF C-CBRN Policy Working Group; the AF C-CBRN Modernization Working Group; the AF C-CBRN Education, Training, Exercise Working Group; the Mission Assurance Committee and the Mission Assurance Steering Group.
What Air Force center provides a wealth of information on NBC and missile proliferation threats?
The Air Force Counterproliferation Center.
Who is responsible for ensuring that the Air Force has established a single EM program to mitigate the effects of natural, technological, and man-made hazards have on Air Force personnel, resources, and operations?
The Air Force civil engineer
(017) Which factor is a limitation of the fatality search and recovery team? a. The Army will not accept contaminated human remains from the team. b. The Air Force does not have the capability to dispose of human remains. c. The Navy is the only service that can accept contaminated human remains. d. The Air Force does not have the capability to decontaminate human remains.
The Air Force does not have the capability to decontaminate human remains.
What limitation does the Air Force have when dealing with human remains?
The Air Force does not have the capability to decontaminate human remains.
How does the Air Force view the execution of Force Protection?
The Air Force views the execution of FP as an integrated application of offensive and defensive actions that deter, detect, preempt, mitigate, or negate threats against Air Force air and space operations and assets, based on an acceptable level of risk.
What NGO is a support agency for ESF 6?
The American Red Cross.
Which DOS bureau is the principle link to the DOD?
The Bureau of Political-Military (PM) affairs.
Who do you contact to request CAP support?
The CAP national operations center at Maxwell Air Force Base, Alabama.
Who manages the activities that could affect the unit's mission and directs required actions contained in unit support plans and levels of support to the IC through the EOC director during major accident and natural disaster actions based on mission needs, acceptable levels of risk, and commander's intent?
The CAT director.
3. The amount of containers and plastic bags you require for a CCA depends on what?
The CCA's design and processing rates.
3. What separates the CRA from the clean area?
The CCL.
What does the CCS team accomplish?
The CCS team will establish an area used at a nuclear weapons accident scene or radiological incident location where responders will be monitored for radiological contamination and decontaminated as appropriate
Who is appointed to serve as the EOC manager?
The CE R&EM flight officer or superintendent
2. In 1974, what prompted the CSAF to initiate a review on the status of the Air Force NBC defense program and what were the results?
The CSAF was not confident in the DP program and was unsure of the Air Force's capabilities based on a growing Soviet and Warsaw pact threat against NATO and an accelerated chemical/biological program. This was reinforced by Soviet forces using chemical warfare equipment during the Arab-Israeli War. The results of the study led to an accelerated program to equip and train Air Force personnel to survive and operate in a chemical environment.
What Marine Corps unit can deploy to a CBRNE incident worldwide?
The Chemical, Biological Incident Response Force (CBIRF).
What are the two FBI HAZMAT/CBRN capabilities?
The Chemical, Biological, Radiological, and Nuclear Sciences Unit (CBRNSU) and the Hazardous Evidence Response Team Unit (HERTU).
2. (201) What career field award recognizes the best Readiness and Emergency Management (R&EM) flights annually? a. The 1Lt Joseph Terry award. b. The SrA John L. Levitow award. c. The General Eugene Lupia award. d. The Colonel Fredrick J. Riemer award.
The Colonel Fredrick J. Riemer award.
2. What career field award annually recognizes the best R&EM Flights?
The Colonel Fredrick J. Riemer award.
What role does the DCO fulfill?
The DCO serves as the DOD's single point of contact at the JFO for requesting assistance from the DOD
How does the ECC support the incident commander?
The ECC supports the incident commander as the single dispatch point for initial emergency response
2. What is the responsibility of the EM section on a joint-base installation where the sister service owns the EM program?
The EM Section is the key EM representative for the senior AF authority and will perform the duties necessary to properly train and educate Airmen on AF specific requirements such as CBRN passive defense.
List the primary response teams that are part of the DRF.
The EMST, SMTs, CCTs, and PAR teams.
2. What are the two levels of EM program review that your flight will be involved in?
The EMWG and commanders' staff meetings.
3. During the recovery phase, who activates the RWG?
The EOC Director with approval from the IC.
Explain the two ways to conduct a partial EOC activation.
The EOC director can either recall the entire EOC and all ESFs, provide a situation briefing, and then release EOC members that are not needed or the director can notify only the necessary members.
Who provides support and functional expertise for emergency C2 of DOD resources through the ESFs?
The EOC manager
Who will address peacetime decontamination requirements and who decides whether CCTs are established?
The EOC will address peacetime decontamination requirements and the installation commander decides whether CCTs are established.
3. What two databases describe the complete cargo deployment package for each Prime BEEF UTC?
The ESL and LOGFOR.
What agency is the primary federal incident management field structure and what does it provide?
The JFO; it provides a central location for the coordination of federal, state, tribal, and local governments and private-sector and nongovernmental organizations with primary responsibility for response and recovery.
3. Briefly describe a JI.
The JI is a cargo inspection completed by the CDF cargo in-checker while accompanied by a unit cargo representative. The JI of cargo is the last review of the chalk prior to loading operations. The JI certifies the cargo as either air worthy and ready for loading or will "frustrate" the cargo until the unit can fix any problems.
What is the role of JPEO-CBC?
The JPEO-CBD is the principal advocate and single point of contact for all CBRN detection, vaccine and medical diagnostic acquisition efforts.
3. Who is responsible for coordinating wartime security for all rear area forces including the concept of joint rear area?
The JRAC
3. Which LD50 is more toxic—an LD50 of 1,400 mg/person or an LD50 of 5 mg/person, and why?
The LD50 of 5 mg/person because only 5 mg/person is required for a lethal dose of 50 percent of personnel.
3. Name the two models of the M50 mask, and state which one is used by Air Force ground crew personnel?
The M50 and M51 models; Air Force ground crew personnel will use the M50 model.
What is the primary working group that supports the Air Force EM Program through the development of MAJCOM guidance and strategic plans?
The MAJCOM EMWG
Who serves as the EOC director?
The MSG commander or other senior representative designated by the installation commander.
2. What was one of the most significant changes that took effect after the terrorist attack on September 11, 2001?
The NIMS, which is required to be implemented by all DOD services.
What is the National Guard's CERFP?
The National Guard's CERFP is a regional response capability to support a state's governor.
What system effectively communicates information about terrorist threats by providing timely, detailed information to the public, government agencies, first responders, airports and other transportation hubs, and the private sector?
The National Terrorism Advisory System (NTAS).
3. Who maintains responsibility for full personnel and accountability from the time unit personnel arrive at the PDF for processing until they are physically turned over to the passenger terminal function?
The PDF.
Which flight will act as the installation office of emergency management and will be the OPR for the installation's EM program?
The R&EM Flight on the host installation.
5. The success of the EMST depends on what?
The R&EM flight and the operations element.
2. Who prepares, collects, and presents information at the EMWG?
The R&EM flight.
Who may activate the RTF?
The RTF may be activated by the National Military Command Center or the SecDef to support a nuclear weapons accident or incident of a weapon in DOE custody or an incident under Department of Justice lead.
3. Who advises the EOC director on the issuance of warning and MOPP levels?
The Readiness and Emergency Management Flight
Who is the principal federal official for domestic incident management?
The Secretary of Homeland Security.
2. What led to the formation of the Air Force ABC warfare program in 1951?
The Soviet Union's proliferation of nuclear weapons after World War II.
What principal piece of legislation governs how the federal government will respond to disasters within the US?
The Stafford Act.
3. Which protective masks will the M50 JSGPM replace?
The US Army M40/M42 series and the Air Force, Marine Corps, and Navy MCU-2/P series masks.
2. The earliest history of the Air Force EM career field can be traced back to when?
The US Army in World War I.
3. What is the basic building block used in force planning and the deployment of AETFs?
The UTC.
How does a WMD-CST advise and assist the IC?
The WMD-CST provides input on the capabilities and utilization of assets already present at the incident and recommendations on requests for additional support and the integration of potential follow-on assets.
2. What does the EM occupational badge reflect?
The achievements and laurels gained by our professionalism in EM, including CBRN defense, in peace and war.
3. Who must have access to cargo container keys enroute to the deployed destination?
The aircrew.
3. What do units use to compute the personnel C-level for total and critical personnel?
The availability of funded wartime required personnel
2. Who does the senior R&EM flight personnel report directly to?
The base civil engineer or the CES commander.
2. Whose responsibility is it to identify and evaluate installation facilities that may be used for shelters?
The base civil engineer.
3. Which agency is responsible for mask fit testing MSA FireHawk® wearers?
The bioenvironmental flight.
3. Name the two agencies that have a joint responsibility when it comes to the installation warning system.
The civil engineer and communications squadrons.
2. What are some of the responsibilities of the flight chief and/or EMFO?
The flight chief and/or EMFO supervises the flight; analyzes the local threat of natural, technological, or man-made hazards; determines program and flight priorities; collects required information; and advocates wing, squadron, and flight issues at various forums. The flight chief and/or EMFO also develops and submits a consolidated flight budget, coordinates and oversees the installation EM program, and serves as the unit's Prime BEEF program manager.
What purpose does the BDOC serve?
The focal point for base security and defense C2.
What is the focus of the Air Force role in nuclear operations?
The focus of the Air Force role in nuclear operations is to maintain effective forces with sufficient capability to hold at risk a broad range of targets, while placing great emphasis on safety and security.
3. The information gathered from medical surveillance is used to monitor what?
The health of a population to identify potential risks to health, disease, and injury—thereby enabling timely interventions to prevent, treat, or control exposure.
Who provides support to all assigned, attached, and tenant units, including AFRC and ANG units, located on and off the installation?
The host Air Force installation.
Who has primary responsibility for responding to, managing, and mitigating the effects of a foreign CBRNE incident?
The host nation's government.
3. Who does the JRAC assign a tactical area of responsibility?
The in-place or deployed AF commander.
Who will assume the IC position until a more senior trained IC arrives on scene?
The initial first responder.
2. Who performs capability assessment?
The installation EMWG in coordination with vulnerability assessments performed by AT and CIP teams.
2. What forum does installation senior leadership use to periodically review the condition of the overall EM program?
The installation EMWG.
2. Who determines specific SIP kit requirements based on the installation's hazard assessment?
The installation EMWG.
Who is the installation commander's office of primary responsibility for the Air Force EM Program?
The installation Office of Emergency Management, which is the R&EM Flight in the Civil Engineer Squadron.
Who appoints the EOC manager?
The installation commander
2. The IEMP 10-2 must address what kind of objectives?
The installation commander's strategic, operational, and tactical objectives.
Who is responsible for setting up and operating the EOC?
The installation emergency manage
Who is responsible for the day-to-day management and execution of the installation EM program and has many responsibilities to ensure the program's success?
The installation emergency manager.
(009) What factors determine the type and amount of equipment needed for the emergency management program on your installation? a. The installation's mission and the hazards it may face. b. The size of the installation and the hazards it may face. c. The installation's mission and the number of personnel assigned. d. The size of the installation and the number of personnel assigned.
The installation's mission and the hazards it may face.
What is the type and amount of equipment needed for an installation based on?
The installation's mission and the hazards the installation may face.
2. Who issues a tornado warning?
The local NWS office.
Who has the day-to-day authority and responsibility to oversee emergency management programs and activities?
The local emergency manager.
2. What must specify the types and quantities of passive defense equipment needed by forces in the area of employment?
The logistics portions of war and contingency plans.
2. What is the basis of issue listed in allowance standards?
The maximum allowance, not requirements or authorizations.
2. What time of day are tornadoes most likely to occur?
The mid-afternoon, between 3:00 pm and 6:00 pm.
2. How much materiel are units required to maintain?
The minimum materiel needed for tasked response and support.
Who normally chairs the installation EMWG?
The mission support group commander.
What does the NIMS provide?
The national incident management system (NIMS) provides a nationwide template that enables federal, state, local, tribal governments, private-sector and nongovernmental organizations to work together effectively and efficiently to prevent, prepare for, respond to, and recover from domestic incidents regardless of cause, size, or complexity.
Who is responsible for the direct management of all incident tactical activities?
The operations section chief.
2. What courtesy should be offered to every unit commander when conducting an EM program review?
The option for a formal in-brief.
2. What should the order of your minutes from your meeting usually coincide with?
The order of the agenda.
The size and composition of the CAT is dependent upon what factors?
The organizational and functional role of the unit.
What is a branch and when is it established?
The organizational level having functional, geographical, or jurisdictional responsibility for major parts of the incident operations. A branch is established when the number of resources exceeds the span of control of the operations section chief.
The quantity and types of ICS facilities that will be needed is largely based on what characteristics?
The size, requirements, and complexity of the incident.
Who is responsible for managing all staging area activities and reports to the operations section chief or to the IC if the operations section chief position has not been filled?
The staging area manager.
Where does a state's multiagency coordination occur?
The state EOC.
3. In support of the respiratory protection program, whose responsibility is it to contact the BE flight whenever workplace operations change to schedule appropriate evaluations when new hazardous materials are introduced, processes or procedures are changed, or engineering controls are modified or added?
The supervisor.
2. Who is responsible for executing the DOD response mission and exercises operational control, as specified by the SecDef, over military forces responding to an incident?
The supported combatant commander.
3 Define CBRN surveillance operations.
The systematic observation of aerospace, surface, or subsurface locations, places, persons, or things, by visual, aural, electronic, photographic, or other means to confirm or deny the presence of CBRN hazards.
2. What is another name for the installation's publication distribution office?
The technical order distribution office (TODO).
3. When Prime BEEF pallets are loaded and then stored, what actions should be performed until the cargo is ready to be moved?
The tension should be relaxed on the cargo nets and straps.
3. What dictates which CBRN location technique is used?
The terrain and the adversary.
2. What drives the requirement for wartime shelters?
The threat.
3. What is a key factor in the execution of the mounted CBRN reconnaissance mission?
The time available to conduct the reconnaissance mission.
2. Define course length.
The time needed to meet the learning objectives of the applicable course and MAJCOM, FOA, DRU, or base directives.
What will determine the type, magnitude, and timing of the support provided by each ESF?
The type and scope of the event
What will dictate which agency takes the lead as an IC?
The type of incident
2. What documents should you review before conducting an EM program review?
The unit's IEMP 10-2 taskings, previously documented SAV results, the unit's EM Report, exercise and evaluation reports, unit EM training statistics.
Who is the point of contact for EM exercise planning and coordination?
The wing inspection team (WIT).
2. Shelter occupancy should always be planned based on what?
The worst-case scenario to support assigned personnel and personnel that are relocated from another installation.
How many DCOs are there, and where are they assigned?
There are 10 DCOs and they are assigned to each FEMA region
2. (228) Conventional explosives are the most troubling weapons of mass destruction because a. of the damage caused by the blast. b. they are very easy to make and acquire. c. they can be acquired easily and for little cost. d. they can disperse chemical, biological, or radiological agents.
They can disperse chemical, biological, or radiological agents.
What is a CCA assistant responsible for?
They help operate the CCA as an additional duty and perform assigned CCA support tasks for the CCA supervisor.
What does a CCA team accomplish?
They limit the spread of contamination into a toxic free area so personnel can work or obtain rest and relief without wearing IPE.
What do the PAR teams accomplish?
They perform a critical task by providing the installation's C2 structure with damage, CBRN contamination, and casualty assessments after an attack.
2. What happens to hand tools in humid climates?
They tend to rust rapidly.
What could happen to your unit EM representatives without proper guidance, training, and feedback?
They will be unable to effectively support your program goals.
2. How will Air Force units located on other services' installations meet the EM program requirements?
They will integrate into the host service's EM program or equivalent and comply with host service program requirements.
2. What is the objective of the unit EM program review?
They will integrate into the host service's EM program or equivalent and comply with host service program requirements.
2. What does effective emergency management rely on?
Thorough integration of emergency plans at all levels of the organization.
2. (210) Who ensures unit materiel, including materiel in bulk storage, is stored in facilities that provide security, accessibility, and protection from fire, extreme weather, temperature, dust, and humidity? a. Installation commanders. b. MAJCOM commanders. c. Unit commanders. d. Individual flights.
Unit commanders.
2. (210) Who must identify requirements and then budget for, obtain, store, and maintain materiel needed to accomplish their specific function's emergency management (EM) tasks in support of response plans? a. Each major command (MAJCOM). b. Unit commanders. c. Wing commanders. d. Each individual flight.
Unit commanders.
2. Who must identify requirements and then budget for, obtain, store, and maintain materiel needed to accomplish their specific functional EM tasks in support of response plans?
Unit commanders.
3. In the C2 process, after a commander makes a decision, what function is normally used to pass the information on to the forces?
Unit control center.
What function provides a focal point within an organization to maintain unit C2, relay information to and from unit personnel, provide expertise to the EOC or IC, and leverage unit resources to respond to and mitigate the incident?
Unit control center.
3. (402) What do unit commanders use to manage unit resources and passive defense measures during contingency operations? a. Unit control centers. b. Emergency operations centers. c. Installation command posts. d. Installation information exchange networks.
Unit control centers
(014) Which function directs, monitors, and reports mitigation and preparedness activities and maintains unit continuity for command and control? a. Unit control centers. b. Emergency operations center. c. Post attack reconnaissance team. d. Emergency communications center.
Unit control centers.
3, What functions within the installation C2 system are considered subordinate elements?
Unit control centers.
3. What agency provides a focal point within an organization to monitor unit resources and mission capability and to coordinate their activities during disaster operations?
Unit control centers.
3. What center is the heart of the Air Force contingency C2 system?
Unit control centers.
What are the two elements of the SMT?
Unit personnel assigned and trained to perform management duties and sheltered personnel identified by the shelter supervisor to augment trained personnel.
3. (426) What list combined with individuals on leave and quarters provides availability? a. Recall roster. b. Weekly work schedule. c. Unit manning document (UMD). d. Unit personnel manning roster (UPMR).
Unit personnel manning roster (UPMR).
3. (426) During a contingency, where can you find a breakdown of all material that must be moved to the forward location? a. Interim work information management system (IWIMS). b. Automated data processing equipment (ADPE). c. War reserve materiel (WRM). d. Unit type code (UTC).
Unit type code (UTC)
3. What type of information do you gather in relation to units inside of your area of observation?
Unit's grid coordinates, primary and alternate phone numbers for the unit's command element, and radio frequencies if applicable.
2 (225) Which agency is responsible for providing notification of earthquakes in order to enhance public safety and to reduce losses through effective forecasts based on the best possible scientific information? a. National Weather Service (NWS). b. United States Geological Survey (USGS). c. International Tsunami Warning System (ITWS). d. National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA).
United States Geological Survey (USGS).
How do units determine how many PAR teams are needed?
Units establish the number of teams based on the number of facilities, AOR, and how quickly the installation commander requires the assessment completed.
3. What is critical to the prudent employment of aerospace forces?
Unity of command.
3. (417) During dismounted reconnaissance, from what direction will the initial entry team approach the area being surveyed when conducting an initial area survey? a. Direct as possible. b. Crosswind. c. Upwind. d. Downwind.
Upwind
3. From what direction will the initial entry element approach the target area?
Upwind
3. (432) Who or what command determines war reserve materiel (WRM) pre-positioning requirements? a. WRM program manager. b. Using major command. c. Storing major command. d. Host installation commander.
Using major command
3. Who is responsible for marking and reporting vehicle contamination?
Vehicle operator or owning unit personnel.
3. (420) During surface sample collection procedures, charcoal-impregnated pads can be used for sampling what type of substances? a. Volatile solvents. b. Organic Substances. c. Radiological Materials. d. Collection of metals.
Volatile solvents
2. (219) Which risk management assessment identifies areas of improvement to withstand, mitigate, and deter hazards and serves as one of the foundational components for effective emergency management? a. Hazards assessment. b. Capability assessment. c. Efficiency assessment. d. Vulnerability assessment.
Vulnerability assessment.
2. Which assessments identify areas of improvement to withstand, mitigate, and deter hazards and serve as one of the foundational components for effective emergency management?
Vulnerability assessments.
3. What document provides a single source for Air Force planning and support of combat forces in a time of war?
WMP , volume 1.
2. (210) Which of the following is not a suitable reason to request changes to an allowance standard? a. When allowances are excessive. b. When allowances are inadequate. c. When broken equipment needs to be repaired. d. When equipment is unsuitable for peacetime or wartime.
When broken equipment needs to be repaired.
2. What is SIP used for?
When evacuation may cause greater risk than remaining in place.
2. When are requests for allowance standard changes submitted?
When it is determined that allowances are inadequate or excessive or that equipment is unsuitable for peacetime or wartime.
When does a deployed Air Force installation have the responsibility to manage and integrate EM/CBRN capabilities into one cohesive CBRN operation to support the installation's mission?
When the Air Force is the deployed installation's base operating support integrator.
When will installations integrate into a host service's EM program or equivalent?
When the Air Force unit is located on another service's installation.
3. When is force beddown planning initiated?
When the JCS tasks subordinate services or commands to prepare plans for a specific contingency or theater of engagement.
When does an installation have the capability to respond and recover from incidents?
When the installation capability is organized, manned, trained, equipped, exercised, evaluated, maintained, and sustained.
2. When may the organization commander exceed the basis of issue on non-weapon-system allowance standards?
When the item is base-funded equipment and is for base support requirements.
3. What does the M61 filter time patch assembly indicate?
When the unpackaged filter is no longer serviceable due to prolonged exposure to humid air.
When are SMT established by installations?
When there is a requirement for extended sheltering of base personnel during natural disasters or man-made incidents.
3. When do MOPPs apply?
When there is a threat of chemical or biological agent use.
3. When are AF employees less likely to experience injury or illness from CBRN hazards?
When they wear approved respirators correctly and are trained in their use, care, and maintenance.
3. Normally, what is the best area to collect CBRN samples?
Where casualties have occurred, plants are wilted or discolored, or there are dead animals (fish or birds)
(011) Who is the point of contact for emergency management exercise planning and coordination? a. Wing inspection team. b. Exercise evaluation team. c. Exercise inspection team. d. Emergency management support team.
Wing Inspection Team
3. Typically, how fast does the chemical agent HD soak into asphalt?
Within 10 minutes.
2. What information must be maintained for flight-level equipment when issued to other functions for training, familiarization, or usage?
You must maintain an accountability of where the equipment is, who has the equipment, and how long the equipment will be signed out.
2. (202) What does the career field education and training plan (CFETP) state about wearing the emergency management (EM) occupational badge? a. There is no stipulation. b. Only active duty personnel must wear the CE and EM occupational badges. c. You may wear the CE occupational badge with the EM occupational badge. d. You must wear the Civil Engineering (CE) occupational badge with the EM occupational badge.
You must wear the Civil Engineering (CE) occupational badge with the EM occupational badge.
2. What must be done once the exercise is over?
You will need to track how well the exercise participates were able to meet the objectives and document any discrepancies.
2. List some of the factors that determine the size of your EMST.
Your installation's initial response capability to the threats at your location; mutual aid agreements that provide follow-on support; and the ability to staff for 24-hour operations.
3. What are the four CBRN location techniques?
Zigzag, lane, cloverleaf, and grid.
2. (226) A boundary separating hot, dry air to the west from warm, moist air to the east is called a. a dry line. b. an isobar. c. a storm line. d. a thermocline.
a dry line.
2. Match the description in Column A with the approaches to planning in Column B. Items in Column B may be used once. Column A ____ (1) This approach starts with building a scenario for a hazard or threat. ____ (2) This approach focuses on a jurisdiction's capacity to take a course of action. ____ (3) This approach identifies the common functions that a jurisdiction must perform during emergencies. a. Scenario-based. b. Functional-based c. Capabilities-based
a,c,b
2. ____ (1) Flooding is possible. Tune in to NOAA weather radio, commercial radio, or television for information. ____ (2) Flooding is occurring or will occur soon; if advised to evacuate, do so immediately. ____ (3) Flash flooding is possible. Be prepared to move to higher ground; listen to a NOAA weather radio, commercial radio, or television for information. ____ (4) A flash flood is occurring; seek higher ground on foot immediately a.flood watch b.flash flood watch c.flood warning d.flash flood warning
a,c,b,d
3. Place the following steps for establishing a CCA/TFA in the correct order from 1 to 5. ___ a. The CCA/TFA is established and prepared to process personnel. ___ b. CBRN Control Center personnel analyze results and advise commanders of hazards. ___ c. CBRN recon teams, SMTs, specialized teams, etc., initiate CBRN monitoring. ___ d. CBRN recon teams check preselected CCA/TFA site for contamination. ___ e. Support materials are brought from their protected positions to the selected site.
a. 5. b. 2. c. 1. d. 3. e. 4.
3. (417) During initial area survey, when exiting a doorway, the entry element places what mark on the door? a. An "X". b. A "slash". c. A "slash & circle". d. An "X & circle".
an "X"
2. ____ (1) A tsunami may be imminent and that coastal locations in the warned area should prepare for flooding. ____ (2) A tsunami, which may produce strong currents and is dangerous to those in or near the water, is expected. ____ (3) An early alert issued to areas which may later be impacted by a tsunami. a. Tsunami Advisory b. Tsunami Warning. c. Tsunami Watch.
b,a,c
2. ____ (1) Involves greater hazard or area than Level I. May require limited protective action for surrounding area. Poses potential threat to life or property. ____ (2) Confined to small area that can be controlled by first responder. Does not require evacuation beyond involved structure. Poses no immediate threat to life or property. ____ (3) Involves severe hazard or larger area than Level II. May require large-scale protective action. Poses extreme threat to life or property. a. Level I. b. Level II. c. Level III.
b,a,c
2.Match the vulnerability assessments in column A to the correct step in column B. Items in column B may be used only once. Column A ____ (1) Identify the appropriate course of action to address vulnerabilities and solutions for enhanced protection of DOD personnel and resources. ____ (2) Include identified defense industrial base and CIP assets. ____ (3) Provide a vulnerability-based analysis of the installation's critical assets. Identify potentially exploited vulnerabilities and suggest options for eliminating or mitigating the exploitation of those vulnerabilities. ____ (4) Consider the range of identified and projected response capabilities necessary for responding to any a. step 1, b. step 2, c. step 3, d. step 4
b,c,d,a
2.____ (1) Extremely dangerous winds will cause extensive damage. ____ (2) Catastrophic damage will occur. Well-built framed homes can sustain severe damage with loss of most of the roof structure and/or some exterior walls. ____ (3) Catastrophic damage will occur. A high percentage of framed homes will be destroyed, with total roof failure and wall collapse. ____ (4) Very dangerous winds will produce some damage. ____ (5) Devastating damage will occur. a. 1. b. 2. c. 3. d. 4. e. 5.
b,d,e,a,c
2. ____ (1) Snow falling at varying intensities for brief periods with some accumulation possible. ____ (2) Winds of 35 mph or more with snow or blowing snow reducing visibility to ¼ mile or less for at least three hours. ____ (3) Light snow falling for short durations with little or no accumulation. ____ (4) Wind-driven snow that reduces visibility - may be falling snow or snow on the ground picked up by the wind. ____ (5) Freezing rain that produces significant, possibly damaging ice accumulation - can create hazardous travel conditions and damage to utilities. _ ___ (6) Brief, intense snow showers accompanied by strong, gusty winds and significant accumulation. a. Snow flurries. b. Snow showers. c. Snow squalls. d. Blowing snow. e. Blizzard. f. Ice storm.
b,e,a,d,f,c
2. ____ (1) Rain that turns to ice pellets before reaching the ground. Sleet also causes moisture on roads to freeze and become slippery. ____ (2) Sustained winds or frequent gusts to 35 miles per hour or greater and considerable amounts of falling or blowing snow (reducing visibility to less than a quarter mile) are expected to prevail for a period of 3 hours or longer. ____ (3) A winter storm is possible in your area. Tune in to a NOAA weather radio, commercial radio, or television for more information. ____ (4) Rain that freezes when it hits the ground, creating a coating of ice on roads, walkways, trees and power lines. ____ (5) Below freezing temperatures are expected. ____ (6) A winter storm is occurring or will soon occur in your area. ____ (7) Winter weather conditions are expected to cause significant inconveniences and may be hazardous. When caution is used, these situations should not be life threatening. a. freezing rain b. sleet c. winter weather advisory d. winter storm watch e. winter storm warning f.blizzard warning g. frost/freeze warning
b,f,d,a,g,e,c
3. Which survey technique can also be used to support radiological surveys?
bounce and bypass survey
2.___ Focus on managing personnel, equipment, and resources that play a direct role in incident response. ___Describe how a jurisdiction wants to meet its emergency management or homeland security responsibilities over long term. ___Provide a description of the roles and responsiblities, tasks, integration, and actions required of an installation or its units or agencies during emergencies. a. Stragtegic Plan, b. Operational Plan, c. Tactical Plan
c,a,b
2. ____ (1) Volcano is exhibiting heightened or escalating unrest with increased potential of eruption, timeframe uncertain or, eruption is underway but poses limited hazards. ____ (2) Hazardous eruption is imminent, underway, or suspected. ____ (3) Volcano is in typical background, non-eruptive state or, after a change from a higher level, volcanic activity has ceased and volcano has returned to non-eruptive background state. ____ (4) Volcano is exhibiting signs of elevated unrest above known background level or, after a change from a higher level, volcanic activity has decreased significantly but continues to be closely monitored for possible renewed increase. a.Normal b.Advisory c.Watch d.Warning
c,d,a,b
3. (418) During sample collection operations, the "assistant sample collector" is referred to as the a. clean person. b. dirty person. c. element leader. d. recorder.
clean person
3. (434) The only type of orders used to deploy personnel is a. contingency, exercise, and deployment (CED) orders. b. North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) orders. c. personnel deployment function (PDF) orders. d. temporary duty (TDY) orders.
contingency, exercise, and deployment (CED) orders
2. ____ (1) Eruption is imminent with significant emission of volcanic ash into the atmosphere likely or eruption is underway or suspected with significant emission of volcanic ash into the atmosphere (ash-plume height specified, if possible). ____ (2) Volcano is in typical background, non-eruptive state or, after a change from a higher level, volcanic activity has ceased and volcano has returned to non-eruptive background state. ____ (3) Volcano is exhibiting signs of elevated unrest above known background level or, after a change from a higher level, volcanic activity has decreased significantly but continues to be closely monitored for possible renewed increase. ____ (4) Eruption is imminent with significant emission of volcanic ash into the atmosphere likely or eruption is underway or suspected with significant emission of volcanic ash into the atmosphere (ash-plume height specified, if possible). a.green b. yellow c.orange d. red
d,a,b,c
2. ___Plan development ____ Understand the situation _____ Determine goals and objectives ____ Form a collaborative planning team ___Plan implementation and maintenance ___ Plan preperation, review, and approval a. step 1, b. step 2, c. step 3, d. step 4, e. step 5, f. step 6
d,b,c,a,f,e
3. (403) Which option is not one of the seven major requirements of the chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) control center? a. Detection. b. Plotting. c. Defending. d. Identification.
defending
2. (210) Unless otherwise directed by the secretary of defense (SecDef), installations may not stock supplies solely for a. war reserve materiel (WRM). b. defense support to civil authorities (DSCA). c. military operations other than war (MOOTW). d. active chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) response.
defense support to civil authorities (DSCA).
2. ____ (1) 166-200 mph. ____ (2) 86-110. ____ (3) + 200 mph. ____ (4) 110-135 mph. ____ (5) 65-85 mph. ____ (6) 136-165 mph. a. EF-0. b.EF-1, c. EF-2, d. EF-3, e. EF-4, f. EF-5
e,b,f,c,a,d
2. (220) Planners can test whether critical plan elements are sufficiently flexible by a. allowing all first responders to test the plan. b. having multiple people read the plan before approval. c. exercising them against the same scenario over and over. d. exercising them against scenarios of varying type and magnitude.
exercising them against scenarios of varying type and magnitude.
3. (423) What is placed in the M50 joint service general purpose mask (JSGPM) to minimize any possible deformation of the face seal during storage and shipment? a. Mask mold. b. Face form. c. Faceblank. d. Cover.
face form
2. ____ (1) An abnormal increase in the ocean's level, sometimes in excess of several meters high and several miles wide. ____ (2) Tropical storm conditions (sustained winds of 39 to 73 mph) are possible within the specified area within 48 hours in association with a tropical, subtropical, or post-tropical cyclone. ____ (3) Hurricane conditions (sustained winds of 74 mph or higher) are expected somewhere within the specified area in association with a tropical, subtropical, or post-tropical cyclone. ____ (4) Used to indicate the moment the eye of a hurricane hits land. ____ (5) Hurricane conditions (sustained winds of 74 mph or higher) are possible within the specified area in association with a tropical, subtropical, or post-tropical cyclone. ____ (6) Extreme sustained winds of a major hurricane (115 mph or greater), usually associated with the eye wall, are expected to begin within an hour. ____ (7) Tropical storm conditions (sustained winds of 39 to 73 mph) are expected somewhere within the specified area within 36 hours in association with a tropical, subtropical, or post-tropical cyclone. a. Tropical storm watch. b. Tropical storm warning. c. Hurricane watch. d. Hurricane warning. e. Extreme wind warning. f. Storm surge. g. Landfall.
g,a,b,e,c,f,d
2. ____ (1) Damage may persist and only emergency responders and damage assessment personnel are released to move about. ____ (2) General Hurricane/Typhoon Season. ____ (3) Indicates surface winds in excess of 58 mph and storm is expected within 96 hours. ____ (4) Indicates surface winds in excess of 58 mph and storm is expected within 24 hours. ____ (5) Indicates surface winds in excess of 58 mph and storm is expected within 72 hours. ____ (6) Indicates surface winds in excess of 58 mph and the storm is occurring now. ____ (7) Indicates surface winds in excess of 58 mph and storm is expected within 48 hours. a. 5. b. 4. c. 3. d. 2. e. 1. f. 1E. g. 1R.
g,a,b,e,c,f,d
2. (212) When formal training slots are available, individual mobilization augmentees should be a. scheduled before active duty personnel to ensure they receive the training quickly. b. scheduled after all active duty personnel have been scheduled. c. scheduled only if the active duty personnel cannot attend. d. given the same consideration as active duty personnel.
given the same consideration as active duty personnel.
2. (202) The Air Force complied with the directive to adopt the National Incident Management system (NIMS) by a. modifying installation plans. b. reorganizing emergency response agencies. c. modifying installation command and control operations. d. implementing the Air Force Incident Management System.
implementing the Air Force Incident Management System.
2. (216) The readiness and emergency management (R&EM) flight operations element ensures that every unit and agency on the installation is in compliance with the emergency management (EM) program by a. implementing the EM program review process. b. providing EM training to all assigned units. c. assigning unit EM representatives. d. conducting quarterly exercises.
implementing the EM program review process.
3. (409) The best method for minimizing personnel exposure to a chemical agent once it has settled to the surface is to a. decontaminate. b. keep personnel out of contaminated zones. c. have personnel leave contaminated zones by any means. d. keep personnel inside buildings in contaminated zones.
keep personnel out of contaminated zones
3. (402) Which division is not one of the five divisions of the Air and Space Operations Center (AOC)? a. Strategy. b. Logistics. c. Combat Plans. d. Air Mobility.
logistics
2. (227) Any large number of casualties produced in a relatively short time, usually as the result of a single incident that exceeds local logistic support capabilities, is called a a. disaster. b. major accident. c. mass casualty incident. d. full-scale medical response.
mass casualty incident.
3. (432) Air Force war reserve materiel (WRM) is essential materiel whose purpose is to a. eliminate airlift requirements. b. meet planned defense objectives. c. reduce financial requirements on combatant commanders. d. provide equipment for use during exercises and inspections.
meet planned defense objectives.
3. (421) Air Force Instruction 48-137 does not apply to which protection? a. commercial respiratory. b. Service specific respiratory. c. foreign respiratory. d. military-unique respiratory.
military-unique respiratory.
2. (229) Critical water or sewer system failures can and do occur quite often, primarily as a result of a. terrorism. b. natural hazards. c. chemical agents. d. biological agents.
natural hazards.
2. (201) The Air Force atomic, biological, chemical (ABC) warfare program in was formed in 1951 in response to proliferation of a. nuclear weapons after World War II by the Middle East. b. nuclear weapons after World War II by the Soviet Union. c. chemical weapons after World War II by the Middle East. d. chemical weapons after World War II by the Soviet Union.
nuclear weapons after World War II by the Soviet Union.
3. (422) Before using an air-purifying respirator (APR) or powered air-purifying respirator (PAPR), you need to make sure the a. oxygen level is between 19.5% and 23.5%. b. chemicals/air contaminants in the air are small-sized particulates. c. chemicals/air contaminants in the air are large-sized particulates. d. atmospheric hazards are above immediately dangerous to life and health (IDLH) conditions.
oxygen level is between 19.5% and 23.5%.
2. (225) To determine which areas in the US are at higher risk than others to an earthquake, the United States Geological Survey (USGS) creates seismic hazard maps that show a. fault lines. b. ground depths. c. peak ground acceleration. d. local geological conditions.
peak ground acceleration.
2. (228) Chemical agents are categorized based on their a. lethality. b. rate of action. c. exposure routes. d. physiological effects.
physiological effects.
(019) The specific purpose of the response task force is to a. recover wreckage and fatalities at an aircraft crash site. b. recover weapons and provide radiological accident assistance. c. assist with CBRN reconnaissance and decontamination efforts. d. assist with response to a terrorist use of WMD and provide recovery support.
recover weapons and provide radiological accident assistance.
2. (210) Items not in an allowance standard, but required by an organization to perform its mission, may be obtained as a. special allowances. b. special requirements. c. unfunded requirements. d. unauthorized allowances.
special allowances.
(024) Under the Incident Command System (ICS), a set number of resources of the same kind and type that have an established minimum number of personnel is called a a. group. b. task force. c. strike team. d. response team.
strike team.
(024) Under the Incident Command System (ICS), any combination of resources assembled in support of a specific mission or operational need is called a a. group. b. task force. c. strike team. d. response team.
task force.
Which Act authorizes the DOD to provide direct support to other federal agencies on a reimbursable basis?
the Economy Act of 1932
2. (210) The types and quantities of passive defense equipment needed by forces in the area of employment are specified in a. the status of forces agreements. b. AFI 10-2501 and AFMAN 32-1007. c. the logistics portions of war and contingency plans. d. the Installation Emergency Management Plan (IEMP) 10-2.
the logistics portions of war and contingency plans.
3. (434) The personnel deployment function (PDF) is charged with maintaining accountability of deploying personnel from the time they arrive at the processing line until a. they arrive at the aggregation point. b. they depart the PDF for the aircraft. c. otherwise directed by the troop commander. d. they are turned over to the passenger terminal function.
they are turned over to the passenger terminal function.
3. (412) Which level of decontamination is conducted by a unit, with or without external support, to reduce contamination on personnel, equipment, material, and/or work areas? a. immediate b. Operational c. thorough d. clearance
thorough
(024) Under the Incident Command System (ICS), a division is established a. to divide the incident into functional areas of operation. b. when the incident requires additional incident commanders. c. to divide an incident into physical or geographical areas of operation. d. when the incident is small and does not require the full Disaster Response Force (DRF).
to divide an incident into physical or geographical areas of operation.
2. (207) The emergency management (EM) program review is designed a. as a means to correct problems. b. for evaluation of civil engineer manning requirements. c. for senior staff oversight and direction of the installation program. d. to facilitate integration of all functional activities affecting the installation during contingencies.
to facilitate integration of all functional activities affecting the installation during contingencies.
3. (402) A Mobile Communications Center (MCC) is required to meet what Department of Homeland Security/Federal Emergency Management Agency (DHS/FEMA) resource type? a. Type I. b. Type II. c. Type III. d. Type IV.
type III