EMT-B Midterm review 1-23

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From what internal female organ is the fetus expelled during delivery? Select one: A. Vagina B. Uterus C. Perineum D. Cervix

A 37-year-old male was pinned between a flatbed truck and a loading dock. On exam, you find bruising to the chest, distended neck veins, bilaterally diminished breath sounds, and bilateral scleral hemorrhaging. You should: Select one: A. suspect a severe hemopneumothorax. B. aggressively manage his airway. C. perform a secondary assessment. D. request a paramedic ambulance.

A 4-year-old female has a peanut lodged in the external auditory canal of her right ear. You should: Select one: A. thoroughly flush her ear with sterile saline. B. transport her to the emergency department. C. use tweezers to try to remove the object. D. remove the peanut with a cotton-tipped swab.

A 60-year-old man complains of chest pain. He is conscious and alert and denies shortness of breath. Which of the following questions would be the MOST appropriate to ask him? Select one: A. "Does the pain in your chest feel like a stabbing sensation?" B. "Do you have any heart problems or take any medications?" C. "Were you exerting yourself when the chest pain began?" D. "Does the pain in your chest move to either of your arms?"

A 71-year-old male is semiconscious following a sudden, severe headache. There is vomitus on his face and his respirations are slow and shallow. The EMT must immediately: Select one: A. begin assisting the patient's ventilations. B. perform oropharyngeal suctioning. C. apply oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. D. insert a nasopharyngeal airway.

A patient who does not respond to your questions, but moves or cries out when his or her trapezius muscle is pinched, is said to be: Select one: A. conscious and alert. B. responsive to painful stimuli. C. completely unresponsive. D. responsive to verbal stimuli.

A pulse with a consistent pattern is considered to be: Select one: A. weak. B. regular. C. irregular. D. strong.

A young female presents with costovertebral angle tenderness. She is conscious and alert with stable vital signs. Which of the following organs is MOST likely causing her pain? Select one: A. Gallbladder B. Kidney C. Pancreas D. Liver

A(n) _____ occurs when a great amount of force is applied to the body for a long period of time. Select one: A. avulsion B. crushing injury C. contusion D. hematoma

After ___________ minutes without oxygen, brain damage is very likely. Select one: A. more than 10 B. 6 to 10 C. 4 to 6 D. 0 to 4

All of the following are vesicant agents, EXCEPT: Select one: A. sulfur mustard. B. sarin. C. lewisite. D. phosgene oxime.

American Heart Association protocols are based on __________. Select one: A. theories ready for field trial B. evidence-based research C. opinions from a core group of cardiologists D. trends in the EMS community

An adult patient who is NOT experiencing difficulty breathing will: Select one: A. have a respiratory rate that is between 20 and 24 breaths/min. B. be able to speak in complete sentences without unusual pauses. C. exhibit an indentation above the clavicles and in between the ribs. D. assume a position that will facilitate effective and easy breathing.

An air embolism associated with diving occurs when: Select one: A. the alveoli completely collapse due to high pressure. B. the diver holds his or her breath during a rapid ascent. C. high water pressure forces air into the mediastinum. D. the diver hyperventilates prior to entering the water.

An important aspect in the treatment of a patient with severe abdominal pain is to: Select one: A. administer analgesic medications to alleviate pain. B. provide emotional support en route to the hospital. C. encourage the patient to remain in a supine position. D. give 100% oxygen only if signs of shock are present.

An infant with a total blood volume of 800 mL would start showing signs of shock when as little as ______ of blood is lost. Select one: A. 150 mL B. 100 mL C. 200 mL D. 50 mL

An injury that separates various layers of soft tissue, resulting in complete detachment or a flap of skin, is called a(n): Select one: A. amputation. B. avulsion. C. incision. D. laceration.

Approximately 25% of severe injuries to the aorta occur during: Select one: A. rear-end collisions. B. lateral collisions. C. frontal collisions. D. rollover collisions.

As you enter the residence of a patient who has possibly overdosed, you should: Select one: A. look for drug paraphernalia. B. be alert for personal hazards. C. quickly gain access to the patient. D. observe the scene for drug bottles.

Bone marrow produces: Select one: A. lymphocytes. B. blood cells. C. electrolytes. D. cartilage.

Burns associated with lightning strikes are typically: Select one: A. full-thickness. B. superficial. C. partial-thickness. D. third-degree.

Epinephrine acts as a specific antidote to: Select one: A. asthma. B. histamine. C. bronchitis. D. adrenaline

If a patient develops difficulty breathing after your primary assessment, you should immediately: Select one: A. begin assisting his or her breathing. B. reevaluate his or her airway status. C. determine his or her respiratory rate. D. auscultate his or her breath sounds.

If direct pressure fails to immediately stop severe bleeding from an extremity, you should apply: Select one: A. a splint and elevate the extremity. B. a tourniquet proximal to the injury. C. additional sterile dressings. D. digital pressure to a proximal artery.

In addition to severe bleeding, the MOST life-threatening complication associated with an open neck injury is: Select one: A. nerve fiber damage. B. an air embolism. C. a spinal fracture. D. an ischemic stroke.

In determining the potential for a terrorist attack, you should routinely observe all of the following on every call, EXCEPT: Select one: A. the type of call. B. weather conditions. C. the location type. D. victim's statements.

In responsive patients who are older than 1 year of age, you should palpate the pulse at the ________ artery. Select one: A. brachial B. radial C. carotid D. femoral

In which of the following situations would the EMT be the LEAST likely to immobilize a patient's spine? Select one: A. Pain to the c-spine, but no numbness or tingling. B. No distracting injuries or evidence of intoxication C. Unresponsive, but moving all extremities equally D. No spinal pain, but tingling in the extremities

It is common for young females who experience their first menstrual period to: Select one: A. have a false positive home pregnancy test result. B. experience abdominal cramping, which may be misinterpreted. C. lose up to 500 mL of blood within the first 24 hours. D. become so emotionally distraught that they contemplate suicide.

Key hormones of the sympathetic nervous system include: Select one: A. acetylcholine and insulin. B. epinephrine and norepinephrine. C. glucagon and noradrenaline. D. norepinephrine and acetylcholine.

Law enforcement personnel request your assistance to assess a 31-year-old female who was sexually assaulted. When you arrive at the scene, you find the patient sitting on a curb outside her apartment. She is conscious, alert, and crying. When you ask her what happened, she tells you that she does not want to be treated or transported to the hospital. She further tells you that all she wants to do is clean up. You should: Select one: A. advise her that she cannot clean herself up because this will destroy evidence. B. provide emotional support and visually assess her for obvious trauma. C. ask her if there is anyone you can contact, such as a friend or relative. D. perform a limited hands-on assessment to detect life-threatening injuries.

Most of the serious injuries associated with scuba diving are caused by: Select one: A. cold water temperature. B. too rapid of an ascent. C. alcohol consumption. D. too rapid of a descent.

Pain that moves from its point of origin to another body location is said to be: Select one: A. palliating. B. radiating. C. referred. D. provoking.

Question 20 When caring for the parents of a child who has died of leukemia, the EMT should: Select one: A. refrain from using words such as "died" or "dead." B. acknowledge the death of their child in private. C. immediately refer them to a counselor. D. tell them that their feelings are understood.

The ________ nerves control the diaphragm. Select one: A. costal B. phrenic C. intercostal D. vagus

The final stage of death and dying MOST commonly takes the form of: Select one: A. anger. B. acceptance. C. denial. D. depression.

The frontal and parietal bones of the skull are especially susceptible to: Select one: A. basilar skull fractures. B. depressed skull fractures. C. nondisplaced skull fractures. D. linear skull fractures.

The left ventricle has the thickest walls because it: Select one: A. uses less oxygen than other chambers of the heart. B. pumps blood into the aorta and systemic circulation. C. receives blood directly from the systemic circulation. D. pumps blood to the lungs to be reoxygenated.

The medical term for an extremely low blood glucose level is: Select one: A. hypotension. B. hypoglycemia. C. hyperglycemia. D. hypertension.

The optic nerve endings are located within the: Select one: A. cornea. B. retina. C. sclera. D. pupil.

The pelvic bones are formed by the fusion of the: Select one: A. ilium, pubis, and sacrum. B. ilium, ischium, and pubis. C. sacrum and ischium. D. pubis and acetabulum.

The presence of meconium in the amniotic fluid indicates: Select one: A. that the fetus is at least 4 weeks premature. B. that the baby's airway may be obstructed. C. an expected finding in full-term infants. D. that full newborn resuscitation will be needed.

The primary function of the right atrium is to: Select one: A. receive blood from the pulmonary veins. B. receive blood from the vena cava. C. pump blood to the pulmonary artery. D. pump blood to the lungs for reoxygenation.

Unlike viral agents, bacterial agents: Select one: A. do not replicate in the body. B. respond to antibiotics. C. are usually not treatable. D. are far less infectious.

When a patient stiffens the muscles of the abdomen, it is known as _______. Select one: A. instability. B. guarding. C. distention. D. crepitus.

Which of the following is a severe burn in a 65-year-old patient? Select one: A. Superficial burn to 30% of the BSA B. Partial-thickness burn to 20% of the BSA C. Full-thickness burn to 1% of the BSA D. Second-degree burn covering 10% of the BSA

Which of the following is an example of a psychiatric emergency? Select one: A. A person going on a week-long "bender" after losing a job B. A person violently attacking family members C. A person who is depressed and no longer caring for himself D. A person who is experiencing a panic attack

Which of the following musculoskeletal injuries would pose the greatest threat to a patient's life? Select one: A. Bilateral femur fractures B. Pelvic fracture with hypotension C. Nondisplaced long bone fractures D. An amputated extremity

Which section of the heart receives deoxygenated blood? Select one: A. Atria B. Right C. Left D. Ventricles

You and your partner respond to a patient who has had his hand nearly severed by a drill press. As you approach, you note that the patient is pale and there appears to be a lot of blood on the floor. The wound continues to bleed copiously. After applying a tourniquet, you write _____ and _____ on a piece of adhesive tape and apply it to the patient's forehead. Select one: A. the date and time; estimated amount of blood loss B. the letters "TK"; the exact time applied C. the patient's name; tourniquet location D. your last name; unit number

You are caring for a driver who struck a light pole. She admits to drinking alcohol but orders you not to tell anyone. You should report the information to __________. Select one: a. your medical director b. the receiving nurse or doctor c. law enforcement personnel d. the state motor vehicle department

You are dispatched to a residence for a 67-year-old female who was awakened by shortness of breath and sharp chest pain. Her husband tells you that she was recently discharged from the hospital after having hip surgery. Your assessment reveals dried blood around her mouth, facial cyanosis, and an oxygen saturation of 88%. You should suspect: Select one: A. right-sided heart failure. B. acute pulmonary embolism. C. spontaneous pneumothorax. D. acute pulmonary edema.

You are dispatched to a residence where a middle-aged man was found unconscious in his front yard. There are no witnesses who can tell you what happened. You find him in a prone position; his eyes are closed and he is not moving. Your FIRST action should be to: Select one: A. open his airway with a jaw-thrust maneuver. B. log roll him as a unit to a supine position. C. palpate for the presence of a carotid pulse.

You are dispatched to the county jail for an inmate who is "sick." When you arrive, you find the patient, a 33-year-old male, unresponsive. His airway is patent and his respirations are rapid and shallow. Your initial action should be to: Select one: A. request a paramedic unit. B. provide assisted ventilation. C. assess his blood pressure. D. apply a pulse oximeter.

You have applied a dressing and roller-gauze bandage to a laceration on the arm of a young female. During transport, she begins to complain of numbness and tingling in her hand. You should: Select one: A. remove the gauze bandage and replace it with an elastic one. B. assess distal circulation and readjust the bandage as needed. C. carefully manipulate her arm until the symptoms subside. D. remove the bandage and dressing and apply another one.

You respond to a 25-year-old man who has cut his arm with a circular saw. The bleeding appears to be bright red and spurting. The patient is alert and oriented and converses with you freely. He appears to be stable at this point. What is your first step in controlling his bleeding? Select one: A. Maintaining the airway B. Following standard precautions C. Elevating the arm D. Applying direct pressure

You respond to a 71-year-old woman who is unresponsive. You try to get her to respond but have no success. Her airway is open, and she is breathing at a rate of 14 breaths/min. What structure on her neck should you locate to take a pulse? Select one: A. Hypothalamus B. Carotid arteries C. Subclavian arteries D. Cricoid cartilage

You should gently palpate a patient's pelvis only if: Select one: A. the possibility of a pelvic fracture has been ruled out. B. the patient does not complain of pelvic pain. C. the MOI suggests significant trauma to the pelvis. D. you note gross deformity to the pelvic area.

You should not attempt to lift a patient who weighs more than 250 lb with fewer than _______ rescuers, regardless of individual strength. Select one: A. six B. four C. five D. three

You should suspect a kidney injury anytime the patient presents with _______. Select one: A. dyspnea B. a hematoma in the flank region C. nausea D. abdominal distenstion

Infants begin saying their first word, sitting without support, and teething at 6 to ______months.

The peripheral nervous system has _______ pairs of spinal nerves.

A patient complaining of chest tightness, coughing up blood, and subcutaneous emphysema following an explosion may be suffering from a: Select one: A. pulmonary blast injury. B. ruptured tympanic membrane. C. ruptured peritoneal cavity. D. myocardial blast injury.

Which of the following medication routes has the slowest rate of absorption? Select one: A. Oral B. Inhalation C. Rectal D. Sublingual

Which of the following organs can tolerate inadequate perfusion for 2 to 3 hours? Select one: A. Skeletal muscle B. Heart C. Kidneys D. Brain

You are transporting a veteran whose legs were amputated in the war. When calling your radio report to the emergency department, which of the following words would be the MOST appropriate to use when describing the patient? Select one: A. Disabled B. Handicapped C. Deformed D. Crippled

23 When assessing the pulse of an unresponsive infant, you should palpate the ________ artery. Select one: A. carotid B. brachial C. femoral D. radial

83 Most treatments provided in the prehospital setting are intended to _________. Select one: A. correct the patient's underlying problem B. address the patient's symptoms C. reduce the need for transport to the hospital D. confirm the patient's diagnosis

A person's ability to shiver is lost when his or her body temperature falls below: Select one: A. 92°F (33°C). B. 95°F (35°C). C. 90°F (32°C). D. 94°F (34°C).

An infant's lungs are fragile, and providing bag-valve mask ventilations that are too forceful can result in trauma from pressure, or ---

Barotrauma

____________ is what you can see of a person's response to the environment.

Behavior

100 Which of the following signs/symptoms are indicative of respiratory involvement of an allergic reaction? Select one: A. Flushed, itching, or burning skin B. A sense of impending doom C. Tightness in the chest or throat D. All of these answers are correct.

4 You are dispatched to an apartment complex where a 21-year-old female has apparently overdosed on several narcotic medications. She is semiconscious and has slow, shallow respirations. You should: Select one: A. insert an oropharyngeal airway and perform oral suctioning. B. place her in the recovery position and monitor for vomiting. C. insert a nasopharyngeal airway and begin assisted ventilation. D. apply oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask and transport at once.

A 15-year-old boy was killed when he was struck by a car while riding his bicycle. He has numerous disfiguring injuries and has been placed in the back of the ambulance to shield him from curious bystanders. When the child's parents arrive at the scene, they demand to see him. You should: A. let them know that because of the circumstances of their child's death, they will not be permitted to see him at this time. B. discreetly escort them to the back of the ambulance and allow them to see their child by themselves while you wait outside. C. advise them that their son had severely disfiguring injuries and ask them if there is anyone they would like you to contact first. Correct D. express your sincere condolences over their loss and have them escorted away from the scene by a law enforcement officer.

In the eyes of the courts, an incomplete or untidy patient care form indicates: Select one: A. thorough documentation was not required. B. the EMT was too busy providing patient care to fill out the form. C. inadequate patient care was administered. Correct D. potential falsification of the patient care form.

Returning the emergency unit to service is part of the _________. Select one: A. transfer phase B. hazard-control phase C. termination phase D. support phase

The hormone responsible for the actions of the sympathetic nervous system is: Select one: A. insulin. B. aldosterone. C. epinephrine. D. thyroxine.

Typical components of an oral patient report include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. the chief complaint or mechanism of injury. B. important medical history not previously given. C. the set of baseline vital signs taken at the scene. D. the patient's response to treatment you provided.

What medication form does oral glucose come in? Select one: A. Suspension B. Fine powder C. Gel D. Liquid

When a hollow organ is punctured during a penetrating injury to the abdomen: Select one: A. it commonly protrudes through the injury site. B. the abdomen will become instantly distended. C. peritonitis may not develop for several hours. D. it will bleed profusely and rapidly cause shock.

When a person is lying supine at the end of exhalation, the diaphragm: Select one: A. is less prone to penetrating trauma. B. contracts and flattens inferiorly. C. may rise as high as the nipple line. D. descends below the level of the navel.

Which of the following questions is of LEAST pertinence when determining whether a mother will deliver her baby within the next few minutes? Select one: A. "Do you feel the need to push?" B. "When are you due?" C. "Have you had a sonogram?" D. "Is this your first baby?"

While evaluating a patient with chest pain, your partner tells you that the patient's blood pressure is 140/94 mm Hg. The lower number represents the pressure from the: Select one: A. atria contracting. B. ventricles contracting. C. ventricles relaxing. D. atria relaxing.

______________ may be a cause of vaginal bleeding in a patient who states that she is NOT pregnant. Select one: A. Bacterial vaginosis B. Hypotension C. Ectopic pregnancy D. Menopause

Which of the following glands regulates the function of all other endocrine glands in the body? Select one: A. Parathyroid B. Thyroid C. Pituitary D. Adrenal

Which of the following organs or structures lies within the retroperitoneal space? Select one: A. Ascending aorta B. Gallbladder C. Kidneys D. Spleen

By the end of pregnancy, the pregnant patient's heart rate increases up to 20%, or about ____ beats more per minute.

10 Clinical signs of compensated shock include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. restlessness or anxiety. B. cool and clammy skin. C. rapid, shallow breathing. D. absent peripheral pulses.

13 Which of the following organs assists in the filtration of blood, serves as a blood reservoir, and produces antibodies? Select one: A. Liver B. Kidney C. Pancreas D. Spleen

Which of the following abnormal breath sounds indicates obstruction of the upper airway? Select one: A. Rhonchi B. Crackles C. Rales D. Stridor

The part of the brain that controls the left side of the body is the: Select one: A. right temporal lobe. B. left parietal lobe. C. left-side cerebrum. D. right-side cerebrum.

36 Which of the following statements regarding glucose is correct? Select one: A. Glucose is a simple sugar that is readily absorbed by the bloodstream. B. Glucose is a complex sugar that rapidly absorbs into the bloodstream. C. Glucose is given to patients who are suspected of being hyperglycemic. D. Glucose is usually administered by the EMT via the intravenous route.

37 Interruption of cerebral blood flow may result from all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. cerebral vasodilation. B. an acute arterial rupture. C. an embolism. D. a thrombus.

39 Common signs and symptoms of AMI include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. pain exacerbated by breathing. B. irregular heartbeat. C. shortness of breath or dyspnea. D. sudden unexplained sweating.

4 You are dispatched to a residence for a 66-year-old male who, according to family members, has suffered a massive stroke. Your primary assessment reveals that the patient is unresponsive, apneic, and pulseless. You should: Select one: A. initiate CPR and attach an AED as soon as possible. B. perform CPR for 5 minutes before applying the AED. C. obtain a blood glucose sample to rule out hypoglycemia. D. assess the patient for a facial droop and hemiparesis.

41 After taking diphenhydramine (Benadryl) for an allergic reaction, a person begins experiencing drowsiness and a dry mouth. These findings are an example of a(n): Select one: A. side effect. B. untoward effect. C. therapeutic effect. D. unpredictable effect.

42 Which of the following is an example of a rules-based medication error? Select one: A. The EMT administers a drug that is not approved by the medical director. B. The EMT accidentally gives a higher drug dose than what is indicated. C. The EMT administers the correct drug, but gives it by the wrong route. D. The EMT administers a drug that is contraindicated for the patient.

43 The three major parts of the brain are the: Select one: A. cerebrum, cerebellum, and brain stem. B. cerebellum, medulla, and occiput. C. brain stem, midbrain, and spinal cord. D. midbrain, cerebellum, and spinal cord.

45 You suspect your patient is in shock. You note the patient's skin is pale. This is likely due to ___________. Select one: A. peripheral vasoconstriction B. an increased heart rate C. peripheral vasodilation D. hypothermia

50 You are attending to a 3-year-old male patient who is presenting with severe shortness of breath. His parents report that he has had a cough and cold with a low grade fever for the past two days. They became worried today, as his level of distress has increased dramatically. On assessment, the patient is sitting upright and making high-pitched noises with each breath. Based on this information, the patient is most likely suffering from: Select one: A. viral infection of the upper respiratory tract. B. inflammation of the lower respiratory tract and bronchospasm. C. inflammation of the bronchioles. D. bacterial infection of the epiglottis.

53 "PASTE" is an alternate assessment tool for ___________. Select one: A. respiratory patients B. seizure patients C. stroke patients D. cardiac patients

57 You are attending to a 54-year-old female patient in a homeless shelter. The patient tells you that she had the flu a couple of weeks ago, and she has not gotten over it. She has been tired and keeps waking up at night, sweating. She has been coughing up green sputum occasionally and has been experiencing episodes of chest pain that get worse when she breathes. Based on this information, your patient is most likely suffering from: Select one: A. tuberculosis. B. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). C. influenza Type A. D. pneumonia.

61 What are the three components of the "perfusion triangle"? Select one: A. Heart, blood vessels, blood B. Plasma, red blood cells, platelets C. Heart, brain, lungs D. Arteries, veins, capillaries

75 When performing CPR on a child, you should compress the chest: Select one: A. with one or two hands. B. 80 to 100 times per minute. C. until a radial pulse is felt. D. to a depth of 1 to 2 inches.

79 A 60-year-old man is found to be unresponsive, pulseless, and apneic. You should: Select one: A. begin CPR until an AED is available. B. start CPR and transport immediately. C. withhold CPR until he is defibrillated. D. determine if he has a valid living will.

80 Deoxygenated blood from the body returns to the: Select one: A. right atrium. B. right ventricle. C. left atrium. D. left ventricle.

83 Nitroglycerin is contraindicated in patients: Select one: A. who have experienced a head injury. B. with a history of an ischemic stroke. C. who have taken up to two doses. D. with a systolic blood pressure less than 120 mm Hg.

87 The adult epinephrine auto-injector delivers ______ mg of epinephrine, and the infant-child auto-injector delivers ______ mg. Select one: A. 0.3; 0.15 B. 0.1; 0.01 C. 0.03; 0.3 D. 0.01; 0.1

90 Patients may experience allergic reactions to which of the following substances? Select one: a. All of these answers are correct. b. Food and medications c. d. Insect or animal bites and stings e. Plant material

94 Which of the following clinical signs would necessitate the administration of naloxone (Narcan)? Select one: A. Slow respirations B. Tachycardia C. Extreme agitation D. Hypertension

98 Medications encased in a gelatin shell that are taken by mouth are called: Select one: A. capsules. B. pills. C. caplets. D. tablets.

When dealing with an avulsed tooth, handle it by its ____

crown

A 29-year-old pregnant woman has had severe vomiting for the last 2 days. Today, she is vomiting large amounts of blood. Her skin is cool and pale and she is tachycardic. The EMT should suspect: Select one: A. Mallory-Weiss tear. B. acute pancreatitis. C. esophagitis. D. esophageal varices.

A 31-year-old male was bitten on the leg by an unidentified snake. The patient is conscious and alert and in no apparent distress. Your assessment of his leg reveals two small puncture marks with minimal pain and swelling. In addition to administering oxygen and providing reassurance, further care for this patient should include: Select one: A. supine positioning, splinting the leg, and transporting. B. transporting only with close, continuous monitoring. C. elevating the lower extremities and giving antivenin. D. applying ice to the wound and transporting quickly.

The _____ regions of the cranium are located on the lateral portion of the head.

temporal

A 40-year-old male crashed his motorcycle into a tree. He is semiconscious, has snoring respirations, and has a laceration to the forearm with minimal bleeding. You should: Select one: A. open his airway with the jaw-thrust maneuver. B. apply a pressure dressing to the patient's arm. C. apply a cervical collar and suction his airway. D. tilt the patient's head back and lift up on his chin.

A 50-year-old man with diabetes has an altered mental status and is unable to tell you when he last ate or took his insulin. Your glucometer keeps malfunctioning and you are unable to determine his blood glucose level. Which of the following clinical signs would MOST likely lead you to the correct diagnosis? Select one: A. Deep and rapid breathing B. Hypotension and tachycardia C. Restlessness and irritability D. Rapid and weak pulse

A 54-year-old male accidentally shot himself in the leg while cleaning his gun. Your assessment reveals a small entrance wound to the medial aspect of his right leg. The exit wound is on the opposite side of the leg and is actively bleeding. The patient complains of numbness and tingling in his right foot. You should: Select one: A. control the bleeding and cover the wound with a sterile dressing. B. manually stabilize the leg above and below the site of injury. C. assess distal pulses as well as sensory and motor functions. D. gently manipulate the injured leg until the numbness dissipates.

A 56-year-old male has an incomplete avulsion to his right forearm. After controlling any bleeding from the wound, you should: Select one: A. replace the avulsed flap to its original position and cover it with a sterile dressing. B. thoroughly irrigate the wound with sterile water and cover it with a sterile dressing. C. carefully remove the avulsed flap and wrap it in a moist, sterile trauma dressing. D. carefully probe the wound to determine if the bleeding is venous or arterial.

A 59-year-old male presents with sudden-onset severe lower back pain. He is conscious and alert, but very restless and diaphoretic. Your assessment reveals a pulsating mass to the left of his umbilicus. You should: Select one: A. administer oxygen and prepare for immediate transport. B. request a paramedic unit to give the patient pain medication. C. vigorously palpate the abdomen to establish pain severity. D. place the patient in a sitting position and transport at once.

A 6-year-old female was riding her bicycle and struck a clothesline with her throat. She is breathing, but with obvious difficulty. Your assessment reveals a crackling sensation in the soft tissues of her neck and facial cyanosis. In addition to the appropriate airway management, the intervention that will MOST likely improve her chance of survival is: Select one: A. rapidly transporting her to the hospital. B. careful monitoring her vital signs. C. requesting a paramedic ambulance. D. quickly immobilizing her spinal column.

A female patient with a suspected head injury has slow, shallow breathing. The MOST appropriate treatment for her includes: Select one: A. ventilation assistance to maintain an ETCO2 of 30 to 35 mm Hg. B. ventilation assistance to maintain an oxygen saturation of 90%. C. hyperventilating her at 30 breaths/min. D. administering oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask.

A fracture is MOST accurately defined as a(n): Select one: A. break in the continuity of the bone. B. disruption in the midshaft of a bone. C. abnormality in the structure of a bone. D. total loss of function in a bone.

A general impression of the patient is formed by an EMT: Select one: A. at a distance when the patient is first seen. B. when the patient is in the ambulance. C. speaking with family members or bystanders first. D. speaking privately with the patient.

A patient who presents with profound cyanosis following a chest injury: Select one: A. requires prompt ventilation and oxygenation. B. should be placed in Trendelenburg position. C. has most likely experienced a ruptured aorta. D. is most likely experiencing severe blood loss.

A patient with profuse sweating is referred to as being: Select one: A. diaphoretic. B. edematous. C. flushed. D. plethoric.

A patient's short-term memory is MOST likely intact if he or she correctly answers questions regarding: Select one: A. date and event. B. event and person. C. time and place. D. person and place.

A person is said to be obese when he or she is ________ over his or her ideal weight. Select one: A. 30% or more B. 20% or more C. 40% or more D. 10% or more

A person who routinely misuses a substance and requires increasing amounts to achieve the same effect is experiencing: Select one: A. tolerance. B. withdrawal. C. addiction. D. dependence.

A spinal cord injury at the level of C7 would MOST likely result in: Select one: A. paralysis of the intercostal muscles. B. paralysis of the diaphragm. C. immediate cardiac arrest. D. paralysis of all the respiratory muscles.

A viral infection that may cause obstruction of the upper airway in a child is called: Select one: A. croup. B. asthma. C. epiglottitis. D. bronchitis.

A young boy was riding his bicycle down the street when he hit a parked car. What was the second collision? Select one: A. The bike rider hitting his bike or the car B. The bike rider's internal organs striking the solid structures of the body C. The bike hitting the car D. The bike rider striking the pavement

A young male sustained a gunshot wound to the abdomen during an altercation. As your partner is assessing and managing his airway, you should control the obvious bleeding and then: Select one: A. assess for an exit wound. B. obtain baseline vital signs. C. apply a cervical collar. D. auscultate bowel sounds.

According to the terminal drop hypothesis: Select one: A. mental function is presumed to decline in the 5 years preceding death. B. most elderly patients experience depression after the death of a loved one. C. a person's physical health begins to decline after the age of 75 years. D. most late-stage adults retain high brain function until 1 month before death.

All of the following are hollow abdominal organs, EXCEPT the: Select one: A. spleen. B. stomach. C. ureters. D. bladder.

All of the following are signs of hypoxia, EXCEPT: Select one: A. dehydration. B. tachycardia. C. weak pulse. D. cyanosis.

An abdominal aortic aneurysm: Select one: A. is often the result of hypertension and atherosclerosis. B. causes dull pain that often radiates to the shoulders. C. can sometimes be palpated as a mass in the groin area. D. is usually not repairable, even if discovered early.

An alert patient presents with a regular pattern of inhalation and exhalation and breath sounds that are clear and equal on both sides of the chest. These findings are consistent with: Select one: A. adequate air exchange. B. respiratory difficulty. C. respiratory insufficiency. D. an obstructed airway.

An epidural hematoma is MOST accurately defined as: Select one: A. bleeding between the skull and dura mater. B. venous lacerations that occur within the brain. C. bleeding between the dura mater and brain. D. an injury caused by a damaged cerebral artery.

An open neck injury may result in _____ if enough air is sucked into a blood vessel. Select one: A. an air embolism B. hypovolemic shock C. subcutaneous emphysema D. tracheal deviation

An organ or tissue may be better able to resist damage from hypoperfusion if the: Select one: A. body's temperature is considerably less than 98.6°F (37.0°C). B. heart rate is maintained at more than 100 beats/min. C. systolic arterial blood pressure is at least 60 mm Hg. D. body's demand for oxygen is markedly increased.

As a triage supervisor, you: Select one: A. must not begin treatment until all patients have been triaged. B. must prepare patients for transport before they leave the triage area. C. are responsible for providing initial treatment to all patients. D. should communicate with area hospitals regarding their capabilities.

As a woman approaches menopause: Select one: A. her menstrual periods may become irregular and vary in severity. B. she cannot become pregnant because of fluctuating hormone levels. C. she usually experiences abdominal cramping without vaginal bleeding. D. her risk of developing pelvic inflammatory disease lowers significantly.

Blood that is ejected from the right ventricle: Select one: A. flows into the pulmonary arteries. B. has a high concentration of oxygen. C. enters the systemic circulation. D. was received directly from the aorta.

Burns in children are commonly caused by all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. entrapment in a structural fire. B. exposure to caustic chemicals. C. scalding water in a bathtub. D. hot items on a stovetop.

Capnography is used to: Select one: A. determine how much carbon dioxide is being exhaled. B. trend a patient's blood pressure and assess for shock. C. assess how much oxygen is reaching the body's tissues. D. assess how much oxygen is bound to the hemoglobin.

Common causes of depression in the elderly include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. an acute onset of dementia. B. chronic medical conditions. C. prescription medication use. D. alcohol abuse and dependence.

Common interventions used to stimulate spontaneous respirations in the newborn include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. positive-pressure ventilations. B. some form of tactile stimulation. C. suctioning of the upper airway. D. thorough drying with a towel.

Common safety equipment carried on the ambulance includes all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. hazardous materials gear. B. safety goggles. C. face shields. D. turnout gear.

Common signs and symptoms of a serious head injury include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. a rapid, thready pulse. B. widening pulse pressure. C. CSF leakage from the ears. D. decerebrate posturing.

Common signs and symptoms of an allergic reaction include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. drying of the eyes. B. flushing of the skin. C. persistent dry cough. D. abdominal cramps.

Common signs and symptoms of heat exhaustion include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. hot, dry skin. B. tachycardia. C. headache. D. nausea.

During the natural process of aging, the number of functional cilia in the respiratory system decreases, resulting in: Select one: A. a decreased ability to cough. B. air-trapping within the alveoli. C. baseline respiratory distress. D. an increased risk of COPD

During your assessment of a patient who was shot in the abdomen, you notice a large entrance wound with multiple small puncture wounds surrounding it. This wound pattern is MOST consistent with a: Select one: A. shotgun. B. handgun. C. .22-caliber pistol. D. .357 magnum.

During your treatment of a woman in cardiac arrest, you apply the AED, analyze her cardiac rhythm, and receive a "no shock advised" message. This indicates that: Select one: A. she is not in ventricular fibrillation. B. she has a pulse and does not need CPR. C. the AED has detected asystole. D. the AED detected patient motion.

Equipment and supplies that are carried on an ambulance should be stored: Select one: A. according to the urgency and frequency of their use. B. based on recommendations of the health department. C. as directed by the EMS system's medical director. D. in locked or secured cabinets in order to prevent theft.

Febrile seizures: Select one: A. are usually benign but should be evaluated. B. often result in permanent brain damage. C. occur when a child's fever rises slowly. D. are also referred to as absence seizures.

For a patient with a gastrointestinal complaint, it is MOST important for the EMT to _________. Select one: A. identify whether the patient requires rapid transport B. determine the cause of the patient's complaint C. avoid transporting the patient if the condition is minor D. perform all interventions prior to transport

For an adult, the normal resting pulse should be between: Select one: A. 60 and 100 beats/min. B. 50 and 60 beats/min. C. 50 and 70 beats/min. D. 70 and 110 beats/min.

Gas exchange in the lungs is facilitated by: Select one: A. adequate amounts of surfactant. B. pulmonary capillary constriction. C. water or blood within the alveoli. D. surfactant-destroying organisms.

General adaptation syndrome is characterized by which of the following phases? Select one: A. Alarm response, reaction and resistance, and recovery B. Delayed reaction, alarm response, and physical recovery C. Reaction and resistance, euphoria, and physical exhaustion D. Immediate reaction, psychological exhaustion, and recovery

In moving joints, the ends of the bones are covered with: Select one: A. articular cartilage. B. gliding cartilage. C. synovial tendons. D. muscular fascia.

Jugular venous distention suggests a problem with blood returning to the heart if the patient is: Select one: A. sitting up at a 45° angle. B. in a supine position. C. in a recumbent position. D. in a prone position.

Patients with generalized hypothermia are at an increased risk of a local cold injury because: Select one: A. blood is shunted away from the extremities to the body's core. B. the patient is usually unable to escape the cold ambient temperature. C. peripheral vasodilation brings warm blood to the skin's surface. D. the major muscles of the body become rigid during hypothermia.

Premature separation of the placenta from the wall of the uterus is known as: Select one: A. abruptio placenta. B. placenta previa. C. prolapsed cord. D. eclampsia.

Question 39 Which of the following is the MOST significant factor in determining whether a person will become ill from certain germs? Select one: A. Immunity B. Race C. Gender D. Age

The ideal procedure for moving an injured patient from the ground to a backboard is: Select one: A. the four-person log roll. B. the use of a scoop stretcher. C. the clothes drag. D. the direct patient carry.

The index of suspicion is MOST accurately defined as: Select one: A. your awareness and concern for potentially serious underlying injuries. B. the way in which traumatic injuries occur. C. a predictable pattern that leads to serious injuries. D. the detection of less obvious life-threatening injuries.

The leading cause of death in the geriatric patient is: Select one: A. heart disease. B. arthritis. C. hypertension. D. altered mental status.

The lower jawbone is called the: Select one: A. mandible. B. mastoid. C. zygoma. D. maxillae.

The simplest, yet most effective method of preventing the spread of an infectious disease is to: Select one: A. wash your hands in between patient contacts. B. undergo annual testing for tuberculosis and hepatitis. C. ensure that your immunizations are up-to-date. D. undergo an annual physical examination.

The sperm typically fertilizes the egg in the _________. Select one: A.fallopian tube B. vagina C. uterus D. ovary

The stooped posture of some older people, which gives them a humpback appearance, is called: Select one: A. kyphosis. B. miosis. C. arthritis. D. scoliosis.

The superficial temporal artery can be palpated: Select one: A. just anterior to the tragus. B. slightly above the ear. C. over the mastoid process. D. at the angle of the jaw.

The term used when individual units or different organizations make independent, and often inefficient, decisions regarding an incident is called: Select one: A. freelancing. B. undermining. C. single command. D. logistical chaos.

The tough, fibrous outer meningeal layer is called the: Select one: A. dura mater. B. arachnoid mater. C. gray mater. D. pia mater.

The vocal cords are located in the: Select one: A. larynx. B. nasopharynx. C. oropharynx. D. pharynx.

To avoid injury when pushing a patient or other object, you should: Select one: A. avoid pushing the patient with your elbows fully extended. B. push the patient from an overhead position if possible. C. kneel if you are pushing an object that is above waist level. D. push from the area of your body between the knees and hips.

To minimize distractions and confusion when assessing an older patient, you should: Select one: A. have only one EMT speak to the patient at a time. B. perform a physical exam and then talk to the patient. C. dismiss the family members from the room or area. D. elevate your voice and speak directly to the patient.

To select the proper size oropharyngeal airway, you should measure from the: Select one: A. corner of the mouth to the earlobe. B. corner of the mouth to the superior ear. C. angle of the jaw to the center of the mouth. D. center of the mouth to the posterior ear.

Traction splints are used primarily to immobilize and secure fractures of the: Select one: A. femur. B. pelvis. C. humerus. D. hip.

Upon arriving at the scene of a motor vehicle crash, you can see three patients, one who is entrapped in his car and two who have been ejected from their vehicle. You should: Select one: A. immediately request additional resources. B. request law enforcement for traffic control. C. call medical control for further direction. D. begin triage to determine injury severity.

Vector-borne transmission of an infectious organism occurs via: Select one: A. animals or insects. B. inanimate objects. C. direct contact. D. smoke or dust.

What part of the nervous system controls the body's voluntary activities? Select one: A. Somatic B. Central C. Autonomic D. Sensory

When a female has reached menarche: Select one: A. she is capable of becoming pregnant. B. she can no longer produce an ovum. C. she usually requires hormone therapy. D. menstrual periods become less frequent.

When activated, the sympathetic nervous system produces all of the following effects, EXCEPT: Select one: A. pupillary constriction. B. shunting of blood to vital organs. C. dilation of the bronchiole smooth muscle. D. increase in heart rate.

When arriving at the scene of an overturned tractor-trailer rig, you note that a green cloud is being emitted from the crashed vehicle. The driver is still in the truck; he is conscious but bleeding profusely from the head. After notifying the hazardous materials team, you should: Select one: A. position the ambulance upwind. B. quickly gain access to the patient. C. ask the driver to exit the vehicle. D. park downhill from the scene.

When assessing a 62-year-old female with crushing chest pain, you note that her pulse is rapid and irregular. You should administer supplemental oxygen if needed and then: Select one: A. transport at once and consider requesting a paramedic unit. B. apply the AED and analyze her cardiac rhythm. C. document your findings and perform a detailed assessment. D. conclude that the irregular pulse is normal based on her age.

When assessing a patient with a closed soft-tissue injury, it is MOST important to: Select one: A. remain alert for more severe underlying injuries. B. recognize that the integrity of the skin is broken. C. assess circulation distal to the site of the injury. D. manipulate the injury site for signs of a fracture.

When caring for a female child who has possibly been sexually abused, you should: Select one: A. have a female EMT remain with her if possible. B. carefully examine the genitalia for signs of injury. C. encourage the child to urinate and take a shower. D. immediately report your suspicions to the parents.

When caring for a patient who is visually impaired, it is important to: Select one: A. tell him or her what is happening, identify noises, and describe the situation and surroundings. B. stand to the side of the patient when speaking if his or her peripheral vision is impaired. C. allow a service dog to remain with the patient at all times, even if the patient is critically ill. D. leave items such as canes and walkers at the residence if the patient will be carried on a gurney.

When determining the frequency of contractions, you should time the contractions from the: Select one: A. start of one to the start of the next. B. start of one to the end of the next. C. end of one to the start of the next. D. end of one to the end of the next.

When gathering a patient's medications, you find the following: Isordil, Lasix, Nexium, and digoxin. Which of these medications can be obtained over-the-counter (OTC)? Select one: A. Nexium B. Isordil C. Digoxin D. Lasix

When immobilizing a seated patient with a short backboard or vest-style immobilization device, you should apply a cervical collar: Select one: A. after assessing distal neurovascular functions. B. after the torso has been adequately secured. C. before manually stabilizing the patient's head. D. after moving the patient to a long backboard.

When performing a full body scan, you should assess for ________. Select one: A. DCAP-BTLS B. OPQRST C. SAMPLE D. AVPU

When performing a rapid exam on a supine patient, what part of the body is typically assessed last? Select one: A. Posterior B. Abdomen C. Anterior chest D. Extremities

When transporting a patient with a facial injury, it is MOST important to be as descriptive as possible with the hospital regarding the patient's injuries because: Select one: A. they may need to call a specialist to see the patient. B. it saves time on repeat assessments at the hospital. C. they must make arrangements for an ICU bed. D. most patients with facial trauma will need surgery.

Which of the following breathing patterns is MOST indicative of increased intracranial pressure? Select one: A. Irregular rate, pattern, and volume of breathing with intermittent periods of apnea B. Slow, shallow, occasional gasps that progress to prolonged periods of apnea C. Increased rate with a normal inspiratory time and a prolonged expiratory time D. Increased rate and depth with the distinct odor of acetone on the patient's breath

Which of the following conditions would MOST likely be encountered in a patient with cerebral palsy? Select one: A. Seizure disorder B. Brain tumors C. Type 2 diabetes D. Paralysis

Which of the following duties or responsibilities does NOT fall within the realm of the medical branch of the incident command system? Select one: A. Extrication B. Transport C. Treatment D. Triage

Which of the following factors will cause a decreased minute volume in an adult? Select one: A. Shallow breathing B. Slight decrease in respiratory rate C. Increased tidal volume D. Respirations of 20 breaths/min

Which of the following findings would be the MOST significant when assessing a patient with possible internal bleeding? Select one: A. The patient takes rivaroxaban (Xeralto). B. The patient had a stroke 5 years prior. C. The patient has a history of hypertension. D. The patient has not eaten in 24 hours.

Which of the following is an early sign of pit viper envenomation? Select one: A. Local swelling and ecchymosis B. General weakness and diaphoresis C. Syncope and bleeding at distal sites D. Signs and symptoms of hypoperfusion

Which of the following is considered an organic brain syndrome? Select one: A. Alzheimer dementia B. Schizophrenia C. Depression D. Anxiety conditions

Which of the following may help reduce your patient's nausea? Select one: A. Low-flow oxygen B. Positive-pressure ventilation C. Cricoid pressure D. Oral glucose

Which of the following oxygen flowmeters is NOT affected by gravity and can be used in any position when attached to an oxygen cylinder? Select one: A. Bourdon-gauge flowmeter B. Pressure-compensated flowmeter C. Vertical-position flowmeter D. Ball-and-float flowmeter

Which of the following patients has decision-making capacity and can legally refuse emergency medical treatment? Select one: A. A conscious and alert woman with severe abdominal pain B. A confused young male who says he is the president C. A diabetic woman who has slurred speech and is not aware of the date D. A man who is staggering and states that he had three beers

Which of the following questions would you ask a patient to ascertain the "M" in the SAMPLE history? Select one: A. "How much Tylenol do you take each day?" B. "How long have you had your chest pain?" C. "Have you ever had any major surgeries?" D. "When was the last time you ate a meal?"

Which of the following sets of vital signs would the EMT MOST likely encounter in a patient with acute cocaine overdose? Select one: A. BP, 200/100 mm Hg; pulse, 150 beats/min B. BP, 60/40 mm Hg; pulse, 140 beats/min C. BP, 190/90 mm Hg; pulse, 40 beats/min D. BP, 180/100 mm Hg; pulse, 50 beats/min

Which of the following situations or conditions warrants immediate transport? Select one: A. Severe chest pain and cool, pale skin B. Mild pain in the lower abdomen C. Responsiveness and ability to follow commands D. Decreased ability to move an extremity

Which of the following skills or interventions is included at every level of prehospital emergency training? Select one: A. Automated external defibrillation B. Use of a manually triggered ventilator C. Intranasal medication administration D. Oral glucose for hypoglycemia

Which of the following statements regarding blast injuries is correct? Select one: A. Solid organs are relatively protected from shock wave injury but may be injured during the secondary or tertiary blast phase. B. Solid organs such as the middle ear, lungs, and gastrointestinal tract are the most susceptible to pressure changes. C. Tertiary blast injuries are penetrating or nonpenetrating injuries that result from flying debris, such as ordnance projectiles. D. The gastrointestinal tract is the organ system most sensitive to blast injuries and is the leading cause of death following an explosion.

Which of the following statements regarding compartment syndrome is correct? Select one: A. Compartment syndrome typically develops within 6 to 12 hours after an injury. B. Compartment syndrome occurs because of increased pressure within the bone cavity. C. In most cases, compartment syndrome develops within a few minutes after an injury. D. Most cases of compartment syndrome occur following a severe fracture of the pelvis.

Which of the following statements regarding positive-pressure ventilation is correct? Select one: A. With positive-pressure ventilation, more volume is required to have the same effects as normal breathing. B. Positive-pressure ventilation allows blood to naturally be pulled back to the heart from the body. C. Unlike negative-pressure ventilation, positive-pressure ventilation does not affect the esophageal opening pressure. D. To prevent hypotension, the EMT should increase the rate and force of positive-pressure ventilation.

Which of the following statements regarding the scoop stretcher is NOT correct? Select one: A. A scoop stretcher will provide adequate immobilization of a patient's spinal column. B. You must fully secure the patient to the scoop stretcher before moving him or her. C. Both sides of the patient must be accessible for a scoop stretcher to be used. D. The construction of the scoop stretcher prohibits X-rays while the patient is on it.

Which of the following structures is contained within the mediastinum? Select one: A. Esophagus B. Lungs C. Bronchioles D. Larynx

Which of the following techniques should you use to dislodge a foreign body airway obstruction in a patient who is in an advanced stage of pregnancy or who is very obese? Select one: A. Chest thrusts B. Finger sweeps C. Abdominal thrusts D. Back blows

Which of the following types of muscle is under direct voluntary control of the brain? Select one: A. Skeletal B. Cardiac C. Autonomic D. Smooth

While jogging, a 19-year-old male experienced an acute onset of shortness of breath and pleuritic chest pain. He is conscious and alert with stable vital signs. Your assessment reveals that he has diminished breath sounds over the left side of the chest. You should: Select one: A. administer oxygen and transport to the hospital. B. immediately perform a rapid head-to-toe exam. C. circumferentially tape a dressing around his chest. D. recognize that he needs a needle decompression.

Work, family, and stress best describe the life stage known as: Select one: A. early adulthood. B. late adulthood. C. middle adulthood. D. adolescence.

You and your EMT partner arrive at the residence of a 50-year-old man who complains of weakness. Your primary assessment reveals that he is critically ill and will require aggressive treatment. The closest hospital is 25 miles away. You should: Select one: A. manage all threats to airway, breathing, and circulation and consider requesting an ALS unit. Correct B. perform a detailed secondary assessment, assess his vital signs, and then transport rapidly. C. administer oxygen via nonrebreathing mask and obtain as much of his medical history as possible. D. load him into the ambulance, begin transport, and perform all treatment en route to the hospital.

You and your partner are preparing to apply a traction splint to a patient's deformed thigh. As you apply manual traction, the patient resists your efforts and states that the pain is getting worse. You should: Select one: A. stop and splint the leg in the deformed position. B. gently massage the thigh muscles to relax them. C. assess distal pulses and continue pulling traction. D. flex the knee and place a pillow under the thigh.

You and your partner arrive at the scene of a fire at a large office complex. Witnesses tell you that they heard a loud explosion shortly before the building caught fire. You should: Select one: A. ensure that your ambulance is parked upwind and uphill from the building. B. take standard precautions and begin searching for critically injured patients. C. tell the witnesses that you suspect that the explosion was the work of a terrorist. D. carefully document the witnesses' statements and report them immediately.

You are dispatched to a residence for a 40-year-old female who complains of lower abdominal pain, fever and chills, and a foul-smelling vaginal discharge. Which of the following additional assessment findings would increase your index of suspicion for pelvic inflammatory disease? Select one: A. A shuffling gait when walking B. Bright red blood in the urine C. A history of ectopic pregnancy D. Vaginal passage of blood clots

You are transporting a 28-year-old man with a frostbitten foot. The patient's vital signs are stable and he denies any other injuries or symptoms. The weather is treacherous and your transport time to the hospital is approximately 45 minutes. During transport, you should: Select one: A. protect the affected part from further injury. B. rewarm his foot in 102°F to 104°F (38.9°C to 40°C) water. C. cover his foot with chemical heat compresses. D. administer oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask.

You are triaging four patients who were involved in a head-on motor vehicle crash. Which of the following patients should be assigned the highest (red) triage category? Select one: A. A 49-year-old female with diabetes and difficulty breathing B. A 36-year-old female with back pain and numb extremities C. A 50-year-old male with an open head injury and no pulse D. A 29-year-old male with bilaterally closed femur deformities

___________ pressure is the pressure exerted by a liquid that occurs when blood moves through an artery at relatively high pressures. Select one: A. Hydrostatic B. Diffusion C. Osmotic D. Oncotic

Activities such as walking, talking, and writing are regulated by the: Select one: A. somatic nervous system. B. involuntary nervous system. C. central nervous system. D. autonomic nervous system.

The ____ and pia mater are the inner two layers of the meninges and are much thinner than the dura mater.

Arachnoid

You are assessing a 45-year-old female who is severely depressed. She states that it seems as though her entire world is crashing down around her. She further states that she has had frequent thoughts of suicide, but is not sure if she can actually go through with it. How should you manage this situation? Select one: A. Encourage the patient to remain quiet during transport. B. Leave the scene and have a neighbor check in on her. C. Ask the patient if she has developed a suicidal plan. D. Have law enforcement place her in protective custody.

You are encouraging a patient to go to the hospital by ambulance. You know that a transport will keep you on duty several hours after your regular quitting time. This is an example of __________. Select one: A. undue hardship B. scope of practice C. patient advocacy D. abuse of authority

You are treating a man who was assaulted and has a closed head injury. The patient, who has slurred speech, becomes verbally abusive and tells you to leave him alone. You should: Select one: A. have the police arrest the patient so that you can legally begin treatment. B. allow the patient to refuse treatment because the injury was not his fault. C. proceed with treatment and utilize law enforcement for assistance if necessary. Correct D. ask a police officer to transport the patient to the hospital.

Anterior to the knee is a specialized bone called the: Select one: A. femur. B. tibia. C. patella. D. calcaneus.

Trauma to the __________ lobe of the brain would likely result in visual disturbances. Select one: A. temporal B. parietal C. occipital D. frontal

91 Urticaria is the medical term for: Select one: A. burning. B. swelling. C. hives. D. a wheal.

A fall from more than _____ times the patient's height is considered to be significant. Select one: A. four B. five C. three D. two

A fracture caused by minimal force that is associated with diseases such as cancer and osteoporosis is called a __________ fracture. Select one: A. transverse B. greenstick C. pathologic D. comminuted

A patient with a head injury presents with abnormal flexion of his extremities. What numeric value should you assign to him for motor response? Select one: A. 4 B. 5 C. 3 D. 2

Activated charcoal is given to patients who have ingested certain substances because it: Select one: A. induces vomiting and empties the stomach. B. is a direct antidote for many toxic substances. C. binds to the substance and prevents absorption. D. decreases absorption of poisons into the lungs.

Bones are connected to other bones by bands of tough fibrous tissues called: Select one: A. tendons. B. cartilage. C. ligaments. D. bursa.

Force acting over a distance is the definition of: Select one: A. kinetic energy. B. latent energy. C. work. D. potential energy.

General guidelines for safe ambulance driving include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. avoiding one-way streets whenever possible. B. assuming that other drivers will not see you. C. regularly using the siren as much as possible. D. avoiding routes with heavy traffic congestion.

How is nitroglycerin usually given by the EMT? Select one: A. Inhaled B. Orally C. Sublingually D. Injected

Most poisonings occur via the __________ route. Select one: A. inhalation B. absorption C. ingestion D. injection

Once entrance and access to the patient have been provided, you should: Select one: A. begin treating his or her injuries. B. allow extrication to commence. C. perform a primary assessment. D. administer high-flow oxygen.

Peritonitis may result in shock because: Select one: A. intra-abdominal hemorrhage is typically present. B. severe pain causes systemic dilation of the vasculature. C. fluid shifts from the bloodstream into body tissues. D. abdominal distention impairs cardiac contractions.

Question 68 If you use a waterless handwashing substitute in the field, it is important to: Select one: A. wait at least 5 minutes before touching another patient. B. immediately dry your hands with a paper towel. C. wash your hands with soap and water at the hospital. D. avoid donning another pair of gloves for at least 10 minutes.

Relative to an adult's airway anatomy, the child's: Select one: A. trachea is smaller, softer, and less flexible. B. mouth and nose are proportionately larger. C. pharynx is smaller and less deeply curved. D. tongue takes up less space in the pharynx.

Signs and symptoms of meningitis in the infant or child include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. altered mental status. B. a stiff or painful neck. C. sunken fontanelles. D. headache and fever.

The MOST common and usually the most serious ambulance crashes occur at: Select one: A. railroad crossings. B. stop signs. C. intersections. D. stop lights.

The _________ is the best-protected part of the CNS and controls the functions of the cardiac and respiratory systems. Select one: A. cerebellum B. spinal cord C. brain stem D. cerebral cortex

The areas of the spinal column, in descending order, are: Select one: A. cervical, thoracic, coccyx, lumbar, and sacral. B. cervical, thoracic, sacral, lumbar, and coccyx. C. cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccyx. D. cervical, lumbar, thoracic, sacral, and coccyx.

The average adult has approximately ___________ of blood in his or her vascular system. Select one: A. 4 L B. 3 L C. 6 L D. 5 L

The bones of the forearm are called the: Select one: A. humerus and ulna. B. radius and humerus. C. radius and ulna. D. tibia and radius.

The circulation of blood within an organ or tissue in adequate amounts to meet the cells' current needs is called: Select one: A. metabolism. B. cardiac output. C. perfusion. D. respiration.

The incubation period for Ebola can be up to: Select one: A. 1 week. B. 72 hours. C. 21 days. D. 6 months.

The skin covering the _____ is quite thick. Select one: A. eyelids B. ears C. scalp D. lips

The skin regulates temperature in a cold environment by: Select one: A. dilating the blood vessels. B. increasing the amount of heat that is radiated from the body's surface. C. constricting the blood vessels. D. secreting sweat through sweat glands.

The two basic categories of diagnosis that a physician will use for behavioral crises or psychiatric emergencies are ____________. Select one: A. organic brain syndrome and altered mental status B. functional and nonfunctional C. physical and psychological D. All of these answers are correct.

Three days after delivering her baby, a 30-year-old woman complains of a sudden onset of difficulty breathing. Her level of consciousness is decreased and she is tachycardic. The EMT should suspect: Select one: A. spontaneous pneumothorax. B. acute pulmonary edema. C. pulmonary embolism. D. intrauterine bleeding.

To assess a patient's general body temperature, pull back on your glove and place the back of your hand on his or her skin at the: Select one: A. neck. B. chest. C. abdomen. D. forehead.

Unless he or she is critically ill or injured, you should generally begin your assessment of a toddler: Select one: A. in the ambulance. B. en route to the hospital. C. at the feet. D. at the head.

Upon arriving at a potentially unsafe scene, you should: Select one: A. request another ambulance. B. remove all bystanders. C. ensure that you are safe. D. move the patient to safety.

What is the most common misconception surrounding mental illness? Select one: A. All persons with mental disorders are physically violent and dangerous. B. Many mental illnesses stem from drug or alcohol abuse. C. Feeling "bad" or "depressed" means that you must be "sick." D. Everyone has some form of mental illness.

What is typically the most important intervention that an EMT can provide to the victim of sexual assault? Select one: A. Control of vaginal bleeding B. Calling for ALS personnel C. Comfort and reassurance D. High-flow oxygen therapy

What layer of the skin forms a watertight, protective seal for the body? Select one: A. Dermis B. Muscular layer C. Epidermis D. Subcutaneous layer

What type of muscle contracts and relaxes to control the movement of the contents within its structures? Select one: A. Cardiac B. Skeletal C. Smooth D. Striated

When a child is struck by a car, the area of greatest injury depends MOSTLY on the: Select one: A. size of the child and the height of the bumper upon impact. B. speed at which the car was traveling when impact occurred. C. age of the child and the size of the car that struck him or her. D. height of the child and the speed at which the car was traveling.

When a warm hand is immersed in water that is 70°F (21°C), heat is transferred from the hand to the water through a process called: Select one: A. evaporation. B. radiation. C. conduction. D. convection.

When assessing a patient's abdomen, you will evaluate for all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. open wounds or eviscerations. B. gross bleeding and tenderness. C. subcutaneous emphysema. D. rigidity and obvious bleeding.

When functioning at the scene of a motor vehicle crash in which a patient will require complex extrication, you should enter the vehicle and provide care to the patient: Select one: A. only if the patient has experienced a major injury. B. only after you believe the vehicle has been stabilized. C. after receiving approval from the incident commander. D. after rescue personnel have cut the battery cables.

Which is the MOST appropriate method to use when moving a patient from his or her bed to a wheeled stretcher? Select one: A. Extremity carry B. Direct carry C. Draw sheet method D. Log roll

Which of the following assessments would be the MOST useful in determining the possible cause of a patient's altered mental status? Select one: A. Respiratory rate B. Blood pressure C. Blood glucose level Correct D. Capillary refill time

Which of the following clinical signs is unique to anaphylactic shock? Select one: A. Hypotension B. Pallor C. Wheezing D. Dizziness

Which of the following conditions would MOST likely lead to pelvic inflammatory disease if left untreated? Select one: A. Genital herpes B. Ectopic pregnancy C. Chlamydia D. Ovarian cysts

Which of the following is NOT a sign or symptom of a laryngeal injury? Select one: A. Subcutaneous emphysema B. Difficulty breathing C. Wheezing D. Hoarseness

Which of the following is a late sign of hypoxia? Select one: A. Tachycardia B. Restlessness C. Cyanosis D. Anxiety

Which of the following is a severe burn in a 35-year-old patient? Select one: A. Partial-thickness burn to 20% of the body surface area B. Full-thickness burn to 5% of the body surface area C. Circumferential partial-thickness burn to the chest D. Superficial burn covering 50% of the body surface area

Which of the following is an example of regional equipment or supplies? Select one: A. Vacuum splint B. Inhaled bronchodilator C. DuoDote Auto-Injector D. Oral glucose

Which of the following medical history questions would be of LEAST pertinence in an acute situation? Select one: A. "Does the pain stay in your chest?" B. "Are there medications that you cannot take?" C. "Does your mother have diabetes?" D. "Has this ever happened to you before?"

Which of the following observations or statements represents the "E" in the GEMS diamond? Select one: A. Elderly patients present atypically and deserve your respect. B. The patient's medications have not been filled in 2 months. C. The patient's residence is cold due to a malfunctioning heater. D. A patient is assisted with his or her activities of daily living.

Which of the following organs or structures does NOT reside within the mediastinum? Select one: A. Vena cavae B. Esophagus C. Lungs D. Trachea

Which of the following processes occurs during the inflammation phase of the healing process? Select one: A. The veins and arteries at the injury site constrict and platelets aggregate, which stops bleeding and causes a temporary increase in the size of the wound. B. White blood cells are forced away from the injury site, thus allowing an increase in the flow of red blood cells, resulting in increased blood flow. C. The immune system releases histamines, which cause vasodilation and increased capillary permeability, resulting in local redness and swelling. D. The blood vessels in and around the injury site constrict, which forces bacteria and other microorganisms away, thus preventing significant infection.

Which of the following statements is NOT true? Select one: A. Gestational diabetes will clear up in most women after delivery. B. As pregnancy progresses, the uterus enlarges and rises out of the pelvis. C. The leading cause of abruptio placenta is an ectopic pregnancy. D. Some cultures may not permit male EMTs to examine a female patient

Which of the following statements regarding the one-person bag-valve mask technique is correct? Select one: A. The bag-valve mask delivers more tidal volume and a higher oxygen concentration than the mouth-to-mask technique. B. The C-clamp method of holding the mask to the face is not effective when ventilating a patient with a bag-valve mask. C. Adequate tidal volume is often difficult to achieve when one EMT is operating the bag-valve mask. D. Bag-valve mask ventilations should be delivered every 2 seconds when the device is being operated by one person.

While en route to a call for a patient in cardiac arrest, you approach a stopped school bus with its red warning lights flashing. You should: Select one: A. pass the bus only after all the children have exited. B. back up and take an alternate route to the scene. C. stop and wait until the warning lights stop flashing. D. slowly and carefully pass the bus on the left side.

While en route to a major motor vehicle crash, an on-scene police officer advises you that a 6-year-old male who was riding in the front seat is involved. He further states that the child was only wearing a lap belt and that the air bag deployed. On the basis of this information, you should be MOST suspicious that the child has experienced: Select one: A. blunt trauma to the head. B. lower extremity fractures. C. neck and facial injuries. D. open abdominal trauma.

100 While assisting a paramedic in the attempted resuscitation of a 55-year-old male in cardiac arrest, you should expect the paramedic to: Select one: A. give the patient nitroglycerin to increase his blood pressure. B. give the patient activated charcoal to rule out a drug overdose. C. withhold drug therapy until an intraosseous catheter is in place. D. administer drugs via the IV route to achieve the fastest effect.

11 Which of the following MOST accurately describes septic shock? Select one: A. Bacterial infection of the nervous system with widespread vasodilation B. Viral infection of the blood vessels, vascular damage, and vasoconstriction C. Widespread vasoconstriction and plasma loss due to a severe viral infection D. Bacterial damage to the vessel wall, leaking blood vessels, and vasodilation

14 Cardiogenic shock following AMI is caused by: Select one: A. a profound increase in the patient's heart rate. B. hypovolemia secondary to severe vomiting. C. widespread dilation of the systemic vasculature. D. decreased pumping force of the heart muscle.

36 A patient whose speech is slurred and difficult to understand is experiencing: Select one: A. paraplegia. B. aphasia. C. dysphagia. D. dysarthria.

43 Which of the following cardiac dysrhythmias has the greatest chance of deteriorating into a pulseless rhythm? Select one: A. Extra ventricular beats B. Sinus bradycardia C. Sinus tachycardia D. Ventricular tachycardia

46 The head and brain receive their supply of oxygenated blood from the: Select one: A. subclavian arteries. B. iliac arteries. C. brachial arteries. D. carotid arteries.

46 Hypovolemic shock caused by severe burns is the result of a loss of: Select one: A. platelets. B. whole blood. C. red blood cells. D. plasma.

52 Urinary tract infections are more common in ____________. Select one: A. men B. active adults C. sedentary adults D. women

66 You are assisting an asthma patient with his prescribed metered-dose inhaler. After the patient takes a deep breath and depresses the inhaler, you should: Select one: A. advise him to exhale forcefully to ensure medication absorption. B. immediately reapply the oxygen mask and reassess his condition. C. allow him to breathe room air and assess his oxygen saturation. D. instruct him to hold his breath for as long as he comfortably can.

82 A 66-year-old female with a history of hypertension and diabetes presents with substernal chest pressure of 2 hours' duration. Her blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg, her pulse is 100 beats/min and irregular, her respirations are 22 breaths/min, and her oxygen saturation is 92%. The patient does not have prescribed nitroglycerin, but her husband does. You should: Select one: A. give her one nitroglycerin and reassess her systolic blood pressure. B. give her high-flow oxygen, attach the AED, and transport at once. C. obtain a SAMPLE history and contact medical control for advice. D. administer oxygen, give her 324 mg of aspirin, and assess her further.

82 Your partner is performing one-rescuer CPR on a middle-aged woman in cardiac arrest. When you apply the AED pads, you note that she has a medication patch over the same area where one of the AED pads will be placed. You should: Select one: A. continue CPR until you can determine the name of the medication contained in the patch. B. move the patch to another area of the patient's chest and then properly apply the AED pads. C. apply the AED pad at least 1 inch away from the medication patch to avoid skin burns. D. remove the medication patch, wipe away any medication residue, and apply the AED pads.

9 The parietal peritoneum lines the: Select one: A. surface of the abdominal organs. B. retroperitoneal space. C. lungs and chest cavity. D. walls of the abdominal cavity.

A 20-year-old male collided with another player during a hockey game and complains of severe pain to the left shoulder. Assessment reveals that the clavicle is bulging anteriorly at the shoulder. The EMT should suspect: Select one: A. dislocation of the glenohumeral joint. B. multiple fractures of the proximal humerus. C. posterior dislocation of the shoulder. D. separation of the acromioclavicular joint.

A 26-year-old female who is 34 weeks pregnant is experiencing a seizure. Her husband tells you that her blood pressure has been high and that she had been complaining of a headache for the past few days. You should: Select one: A. elevate her legs to improve brain perfusion and keep her warm. B. administer oral glucose for presumed hypoglycemia and transport. C. insert an oral airway and ventilate her with a bag-valve mask. D. place her on her side, administer high-flow oxygen, and transport.

A 30-year-old female presents with redness, inflammation, and pain to her left eye. During your assessment, you note that she is having difficulty keeping her eyes open. You should suspect that she is experiencing: Select one: A. a corneal abrasion. B. acute retinitis. C. a detached retina. D. conjunctivitis.

A 38-year-old male with a history of schizophrenia is reported by neighbors to be screaming and throwing things in his house. You are familiar with the patient and have cared for him in the past for unrelated problems. Law enforcement officers escort you into the residence when you arrive. The patient tells you that he sees vampires and is attempting to ward them off by screaming and throwing things at them. He has several large lacerations to his forearms that are actively bleeding. The MOST appropriate way to manage this situation is to: Select one: A. try to gain the patient's trust by telling him that you see the vampires too. B. request that the police officers arrest him and take him to the hospital. C. approach the patient and calm him by placing your hand on his shoulder. D. restrain the patient with appropriate force in order to treat his injuries.

A 67-year-old male presents with weakness, dizziness, and melena that began approximately 2 days ago. He denies a history of trauma. His blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg and his pulse is 120 beats/min and thready. You should be MOST suspicious that this patient is experiencing: Select one: A. an aortic aneurysm. B. intrathoracic hemorrhaging. C. acute appendicitis. D. gastrointestinal bleeding.

A 71-year-old female slipped on a rug and fell. She is conscious and alert and complains of severe pelvic pain. Her respirations are 22 breaths/min with adequate depth and her heart rate is 120 beats/min. Which of the following is NOT indicated for this patient? Select one: A. Rapid head-to-toe exam B. Treating her for possible shock C. Application of a cervical collar D. Gentle palpation of the pelvis

A driver involved in a rollover motor vehicle crash will MOST likely experience serious injuries or death if he or she: Select one: A. is wearing only a lap belt. B. experiences multiple impacts. C. remains within the vehicle. D. is ejected or partially ejected.

A history of pelvic inflammatory disease or tubal ligations increases a woman's risk for: Select one: A. preeclampsia. B. placenta previa. C. gestational diabetes. D. an ectopic pregnancy.

A laceration: Select one: A. is an injury that separates various layers of soft tissue. B. is a sharp, smooth cut that is made by a surgical scalpel. C. rarely penetrates through the subcutaneous tissue to the muscle. D. is a jagged cut caused by a sharp object or blunt force trauma.

A man called EMS 12 hours after injuring his chest. Your assessment reveals a flail segment to the right side of the chest. The patient is experiencing respiratory distress and his oxygen saturation is 78%. His breath sounds are equal bilaterally and his jugular veins are normal. You should suspect: Select one: A. tension pneumothorax. B. massive hemothorax. C. traumatic asphyxia. D. pulmonary contusion.

A man jumped from the roof of his house and landed on his feet. He complains of pain to his heels, knees, and lower back. This mechanism of injury is an example of: Select one: A. hyperflexion. B. hyperextension. C. distraction. D. axial loading.

A nuchal cord is defined as an umbilical cord that: Select one: A. has abnormally developed blood vessels. B. is lacerated due to a traumatic delivery. C. has separated from the placenta. D. is wrapped around the baby's neck.

A patient who is complaining of seeing flashing lights, specks, or "floaters" in his or her field of vision has MOST likely experienced: Select one: A. conjunctivitis. B. acute hyphema. C. a blowout fracture. D. a detached retina.

A patient with an altered mental status; high blood glucose levels; and deep, rapid breathing may have a condition known as __________. Select one: A. hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic coma B. hypoglycemic crisis C. hyperglycemic crisis D. diabetic ketoacidosis

A properly sized blood pressure cuff should cover: Select one: A. one half the length between the armpit and the crease at the elbow. B. the entire upper arm between the armpit and the crease at the elbow. C. one third the length from the armpit to the crease at the elbow. D. two thirds the length from the armpit to the crease at the elbow.

A tight-fitting motorcycle helmet should be left in place unless: Select one: A. the patient must be placed onto a long backboard. B. the patient complains of severe neck or back pain. C. the helmet is equipped with a full face shield or visor. D. it interferes with your assessment of the airway.

A young male was shot in the abdomen by an unknown type of gun. He is semiconscious, has shallow breathing, and is bleeding externally from the wound. As you control the external bleeding, your partner should: Select one: A. obtain baseline vital signs. B. apply a nonrebreathing mask. C. perform a secondary assessment. D. assist the patient's ventilations.

After assessing a patient's blood glucose level, you accidentally stick yourself with the contaminated lancet. You should: Select one: A. immerse your wound in an alcohol-based solution. B. discontinue patient care and seek medical attention. C. get immunized against hepatitis as soon as possible. D. report the incident to your supervisor after the call.

After performing a head tilt-chin lift maneuver to open the airway of an unresponsive patient who has a pulse, you should: Select one: A. provide positive-pressure ventilatory assistance. B. assess respiratory rate, depth, and regularity. C. place him or her in the recovery position. D. suction as needed and insert an airway adjunct.

An 8-year-old male was bitten by a stray dog. He has a large laceration to the back of his left hand, which your partner covered with a sterile dressing and bandage. In addition to transporting the child to the hospital, you should: Select one: A. ask the child's father to try to locate the dog. B. administer oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. C. advise the child that he will need rabies shots. D. report the incident to the appropriate authorities.

Blood stasis, changes in the vessel wall, and certain medications affect the: Select one: A. systolic blood pressure exclusively. B. ability of red blood cells to carry oxygen. C. white blood cells' ability to fight infection. D. ability of the blood to effectively clot.

Following blunt trauma to the abdomen, a 21-year-old female complains of diffuse abdominal pain and pain to the left shoulder. Your assessment reveals that her abdomen is distended and tender to palpation. On the basis of these findings, you should be MOST suspicious of injury to the: Select one: A. liver. B. gallbladder. C. pancreas. D. spleen.

Following proper decontamination, a 30-year-old male is brought to you. He is semiconscious and has rapid, shallow respirations. A quick visual assessment reveals no obvious bleeding. You should: Select one: A. ask a firefighter what the patient was exposed to. B. perform a rapid assessment to locate critical injuries. C. administer high-flow oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. D. begin some form of positive-pressure ventilation.

From a mental health standpoint, an abnormal or disturbing pattern of behavior is a matter of concern if it lasts for at least: Select one: A. 2 weeks. B. 1 week. C. 3 weeks. D. 1 month.

Heat loss from the body through respiration occurs when: Select one: A. cool air is inhaled and displaces warm air. B. air temperature is greater than body temperature. C. the core body temperature is greater than 98°F (37°C). D. warm air is exhaled into the atmosphere.

How do poisons typically act to harm the body? Select one: A. By causing a slowing of nearly all bodily functions B. By interfering with normal neurologic function C. By causing burns and damage to either external or internal organs D. By changing the normal metabolism of cells or by destroying them

Hyperextension injuries of the spine are MOST commonly the result of: Select one: A. compression. B. diving. C. falls. D. hangings.

If carbon dioxide levels drop too low, the person automatically breathes: Select one: A. normally. B. rapidly and deeply. C. fast and shallow. D. slower and less deeply.

If the victim of a toxicologic emergency vomits, an EMT should _________. Select one: A. not approach the vomitus. B. have the patient enclose the vomitus in a container and take it to the emergency department. C. safely dispose of the vomitus as soon as possible and decontaminate the vehicle as necessary. D. use appropriate personal protective equipment and examine the vomitus for pill fragments or other clues for patient care.

If your patient swallows blood following facial trauma, there is an increased risk of ________. Select one: A. altered LOC B. GI trauma C. hypotension D. vomiting

Immediately life-threatening chest injuries must be found and managed during the _______. Select one: A. secondary assessment B. scene size-up C. patient history D. primary assessment

In a patient with a head injury, hypertension, bradycardia, and Biot respirations indicate: Select one: A. an underlying skull fracture. B. decreased cerebral blood flow. C. internal bleeding in the chest. D. herniation of the brain stem.

In pediatric patients, the liver and spleen are _______. Select one: A. smaller in proportion to the abdomen B. more protected by the thorax compared to adults C. less likely to bleed when injured D. larger in proportion to the abdomen

In which of the following situations should the EMT splint an injured limb in the position of deformity? Select one: A. If transport time to the hospital is greater than 20 to 30 minutes B. If a traction splint will be used to immobilize the injured extremity C. When distal circulation and neurological functions are absent D. If resistance is encountered or the patient experiences severe pain

Infants are often referred to as "belly breathers" because: Select one: A. an infant's ribs are brittle and are less able to expand. B. their intercostal muscles are not functional. C. their diaphragm does not receive impulses from the brain. D. their rib cage is less rigid and the ribs sit horizontally.

Neck rigidity, bloody cerebrospinal fluid, and headache are associated with what kind of bleeding in the brain? Select one: A. Intracerebral hematoma B. Subdural hematoma C. Epidural hematoma D. Subarachnoid hemorrhage

Normal respiratory rates should not exceed _______ breaths per minute in toddlers and _______ breaths per minute in infants. Select one: A. 18, 28 B. 30, 40 C. 20, 30 D. 40, 60

Pale skin in a child indicates that the: Select one: A. child is in severe decompensated shock. B. oxygen content in the blood is decreased. C. child's core body temperature is elevated. D. blood vessels near the skin are constricted.

Points of distribution (PODs) are strategically placed facilities where: Select one: A. weapons of mass destruction are distributed. B. chemical weapons are manufactured and distributed. C. chemical and biologic weapons are stockpiled. D. antidotes, antibiotics, and vaccines are distributed.

Poor maintenance of home, poor personal care, and dietary neglect are all possible indicators of ____________ elder abuse. Select one: A. emotional B. financial C. psychological D. physical

Poor peripheral circulation will cause the skin to appear: Select one: A. pink. B. flushed. C. cyanotic. D. ashen.

Question 47 Which of the following situations requires you to notify the appropriate authorities? Select one: A. Cardiac arrest B. Accidental knife wound C. Drug overdose D. Attempted suicide

Significant blood loss demands your immediate attention as soon as the _____ has been managed. Select one: A. extrication B. fracture C. airway D. Controlling major external bleeding is always the priority.

Situations in which you should use the rapid extrication technique include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. a patient who blocks access to another seriously injured patient. B. a patient whose condition requires immediate transport to the hospital. C. a patient who needs immediate care that requires a supine position. D. a patient who can be properly assessed while still in the vehicle.

Symptomatic hypoglycemia will MOST likely develop if a patient: Select one: A. markedly overeats and misses an insulin dose. B. misses one or two prescribed insulin injections. C. eats a regular meal followed by mild exertion. D. takes too much of his or her prescribed insulin.

The Adam's apple is: Select one: A. the small indentation in between the thyroid and cricoid cartilages. B. below the thyroid cartilage and forms the upper part of the trachea. C. the lower part of the larynx that is formed by the cricoid cartilage. D. the upper part of the larynx that is formed by the thyroid cartilage.

The EMT should suspect left-sided heart failure in the geriatric patient who presents with: Select one: A. jugular venous distention and peripheral edema. B. fever and a cough that produces green sputum. C. swelling of the lower extremities and weakness. D. tachypnea and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea.

The EMT's first priority is __________. Select one: A. treatment and transport B. empathy for all patients C. rapid response D. personal safety

The EMT's responsibility during search-and-rescue operations is to _________. Select one: A. assist in the search on foot B. direct other incoming EMS units C. assume medical command D. wait at the staging area until the patient is located

The MOST commonly fractured bone(s) in the body is/are the: Select one: A. midshaft femur. B. radius and ulna. C. scapula. D. clavicle.

The MOST serious consequence of drug or alcohol abuse among EMS personnel is: Select one: A. low morale and frequently missed shifts. B. punitive action and the loss of a job. C. tension among coworkers and supervisors. D. substandard or inappropriate patient care.

The ability of a person's cardiovascular system to compensate for blood loss is MOST related to: Select one: A. the part of the body injured. B. how fast his or her heart beats. C. his or her baseline blood pressure. D. how rapidly he or she bleeds.

The anterior fontanelle fuses together between the ages of: Select one: A. 7 and 14 months. B. 6 and 8 months. C. 3 and 4 months. D. 9 and 18 months.

The continuous quality improvement (CQI) process is designed to: A. administer punitive actions to EMTs who do not follow local protocols. B. ensure that all EMTs maintain licensure through the state EMS office. C. focus specifically on the quality of emergency care provided to the patient. D. identify areas of improvement and provide remedial training if needed.

The descending aorta branches into the: Select one: A. internal carotid arteries. B. external carotid arteries. C. deep femoral arteries. D. common iliac arteries.

The diaphragm and intercostal muscles contract during: Select one: A. respiration. B. ventilation. C. exhalation. D. inhalation.

The means by which a terrorist will spread a particular agent is called: Select one: A. incubation. B. aerosolization. C. weaponization. D. dissemination.

The pressure exerted against the walls of the artery when the left ventricle contracts is called the: Select one: A. pulse pressure. B. diastolic pressure. C. blood pressure. D. systolic pressure.

The sebaceous glands produce sebum, a material that: Select one: A. discharges sweat onto the skin's surface. B. pulls the hair erect when you are cold. C. facilitates shedding of the epidermis. D. waterproofs the skin and keeps it supple.

The two MOST efficient ways for the body to eliminate excess heat are: Select one: A. perspiration and tachycardia. B. respiration and bradycardia. C. hyperventilation and tachycardia. D. sweating and vasodilation.

The venom of a black widow spider is toxic to the: Select one: A. respiratory system. B. cardiovascular system. C. renal system. D. nervous system.

Trench collapses usually involve large areas of falling dirt that weigh approximately _______ per cubic foot. Select one: A. 200 lb B. 150 lb C. 50 lb D. 100 lb

Upon arriving at the scene of a motor vehicle crash, you note that two small cars collided head-on; the occupants are still in their vehicles. The fire department is in the process of stabilizing the vehicles and law enforcement personnel are directing traffic. After parking the ambulance at a safe distance, you and your partner should: Select one: A. quickly begin the triage process. B. assist with vehicle stabilization. C. report to the incident commander. D. put on high-visibility safety vests.

Upon arriving at the scene of a possible hazardous materials (HazMat) incident involving several patients, you should: Select one: A. rope off the entire perimeter. B. retrieve all critical patients. C. divert traffic away from the scene. D. carefully assess the situation.

What is "vital capacity"? Select one: A. The maximum thickness of the meninges B. The amount of air left in the lungs following exhalation C. The volume of blood moved by each contraction of the heart D. The volume of air moved during the deepest points of respiration

What is an EMT's primary service area? Select one: A. The area serviced by the EMT's medical director B. The location where the EMT provides essential care during a 9-1-1 call C. The only area the EMT is certified to provide patient care D. The main area in which the EMS agency operates

What is the minimum number of chest compressions that should be delivered per minute to a 4-month-old infant? Select one: A. 120 B. 90 C. 110 D. 100

What mechanism(s) does the body use to control bleeding? Select one: A. Clotting B. Coagulation C. Vasoconstriction D. All of these answers are correct.

What should an EMT do to limit errors in the field? Select one: A. Carry an EMT text for reference at all times. B. Deviate from established standards when necessary. C. Contact medical direction before initiating any treatments. D. Follow the agency's written protocols.

When assessing the skin of an unresponsive patient, you note that it has a bluish tint to it. This finding is called: Select one: A. flushing. B. pallor. C. mottling. D. cyanosis.

When decontaminating the back of your ambulance after a call, you should: Select one: A. spray the contaminated areas and then immediately wipe them dry with a towel. B. clean all surfaces and patient contact areas with a mixture of alcohol and water. C. use a bleach and water solution at a 1:2 dilution ratio to thoroughly wipe all surfaces. D. allow surfaces to air dry unless otherwise indicated in the product directions

When palpating a patient's pulse, you note that it is grossly irregular. You should: Select one: A. count the number of pulsations in 15 seconds and multiply by four. B. count the number of pulsations in 30 seconds and multiply by two. C. count the pulse rate for at least 30 seconds to ensure accuracy. D. count the pulse rate for a full minute to obtain an accurate reading.

When preparing a pregnant patient for delivery, you should position her: Select one: A. in a supine position with her legs spread. B. on her left side with the right leg elevated. C. in a sitting position with her hips elevated 12 inches. D. on a firm surface with her hips elevated 2 to 4 inches.

When prioritizing care for the victim of a sexual assault, the EMT should focus on _________ first. Select one: A. preserving evidence B. relaying the patient's account of the event to law enforcement C. soft-tissue injuries D. life-threatening injuries

Which of the following areas of the body has the thinnest skin? Select one: A. Soles of the feet B. Scalp C. Back D. Ears

Which of the following head injuries would cause the patient's condition to deteriorate MOST rapidly? Select one: A. Subdural hematoma B. Cerebral contusion C. Cerebral concussion D. Epidural hematoma

Which of the following injuries would MOST likely occur as a direct result of the third collision in a motor vehicle crash? Select one: A. Extremity fractures B. Forehead lacerations C. Flail chest D. Aortic rupture

Which of the following interventions is the MOST critical to the outcome of a patient with multisystem trauma? Select one: A. Early administration of oxygen B. Elevation of the lower extremities C. Intravenous fluid administration D. Rapid transport to a trauma center

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of epinephrine? Select one: A. Dilates passages in the lungs B. Constricts the blood vessels C. Secreted naturally by the adrenal glands D. Decreases heart rate and blood pressure

Which of the following is NOT a common cause of altered mental status in pediatric patients? Select one: A. Hypoglycemia B. Drug and alcohol ingestion C. Seizure D. Hypertension

Which of the following is NOT a common exposure when dealing with pediatric burns? Select one: A. Hot items on a stove B. Scalding water in a bathtub C. Cleaning solvents D. Electrocution from poor wiring

Which of the following is a specific example of the Mobile Integrated Healthcare (MIH) model? Select one: A. EMTs assess a patient whose lung disease is "acting up" B. EMTs respond to a woman who complains of high fever C. Paramedics pick up a patient from an acute care clinic D. The paramedic administers a patient's flu vaccination

Which of the following nerves carry information from the body to the brain via the spinal cord? Select one: A. Central B. Somatic C. Motor D. Sensory

Which of the following statements regarding interaction with the caregiver of a child or adult with special health care needs is correct? Select one: A. In most cases, it is more appropriate for the EMT to contact medical control prior to speaking with the patient's primary caregiver. B. In general, the EMT should only speak with a certified home health care provider because he or she is the expert on the patient's illness. C. Before performing an assessment of the patient's ABCs, the EMT should ask the caregiver about the patient's medical condition. D. Communication with the patient's caregiver or family members is important because they are the most familiar with the patient's condition.

Which of the following terms applies to a state of delusion in which the patient is out of touch with reality? Select one: A. Agitated delirium B. Suicidal C. Schizophrenia D. Psychosis

Which organ or organ system has the greatest tolerance for lack of perfusion (shock)? Select one: A. Brain B. Skeletal muscle C. Kidneys D. Gastrointestinal system

Your 22-year-old patient is in active labor. Upon visual inspection, you note that the infant's leg is protruding from the vagina. Appropriate management of this situation includes: Select one: A. gently pulling on the infant's leg in an attempt to facilitate delivery. B. placing the mother in a recumbent position and rapidly transporting. C. carefully attempting to push the infant's leg off of the umbilical cord. D. placing the mother supine with her head down and pelvis elevated.

Your ability to remain awake is a function of the: Select one: A. cerebellum. B. limbic system. C. pons and medulla. D. reticular activating system.

A compression injury to the anterior portion of the brain and stretching of the posterior portion is called a(n) ____ BRAIN INJURY

Coup-contrecoup

Both areas of the pons are used to: Select one: A. set the base rate and depth of breathing in a healthy person. B. ensure that the lungs do not overinflate during breathing. C. provide forced inspiration or expiration as needed. D. augment respirations during emotional or physical stress.

Dead space is the portion of the respiratory system that: Select one: A. must be filled with air before gas exchange can take place. B. receives oxygen but is unable to release carbon dioxide. C. includes the alveoli and capillaries surrounding the alveoli. D. contains no alveoli and does not participate in gas exchange.

The ___________ portion of the spinal column is joined to the iliac bones of the pelvis. Select one: A. thoracic B. lumbar C. coccyx D. sacrum

Which of the following statements regarding plasma is correct? Select one: A. Plasma has no role in the body's blood-clotting mechanism. B. Most of the body's plasma is contained within the large veins. C. Approximately 45% of the blood is composed of plasma. D. Plasma transports the blood cells and nutrients.

_____ bleeding is any bleeding in a cavity or space inside the body.

Internal

____is a developmental defect in which a portion of the spinal cord protrudes outside the vertebrae.

Spina bifida

Inserting a(n) ______in a responsive patient may cause a spasm of the larynx and result in vomiting.

oropharyngeal airway

When removing a critically injured patient from his or her vehicle, you should: Select one: A. protect the cervical spine during the entire process. B. release c-spine control to facilitate rapid removal. C. remove him or her using a short backboard. D. move him or her in one fast, continuous step.

When the body loses sweat, it also loses: Select one: A. electrolytes. B. plasma. C. erythrocytes. D. nutrients.

Negative-pressure breathing involves: Select one: A. a drop in pressure within the chest cavity. B. increasing airway resistance during breathing. C. relaxing the respiratory muscles. D. pushing or forcing air into the lungs.

Oxygen and carbon dioxide pass across the alveolar membrane in the lungs through a process called: Select one: A. diffusion. B. breathing. C. osmosis. D. ventilation

Signs of adequate breathing in the adult include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. a reduction in tidal volume. B. rhythmic inhalation and exhalation. C. bilaterally clear breath sounds. D. respirations of 18 breaths/min.

The carpal bones form the: Select one: A. wrist. B. ankle. C. hand. D. foot.

The distal aspect of the tibia forms the: Select one: A. medial malleolus. B. Achilles tendon. C. lateral condyle. D. lateral malleolus.

The inferior cartilaginous tip of the sternum is called the: Select one: A. xiphoid process. B. sternal notch. C. angle of Louis. D. jugular notch.

Together, the right and left lungs contain how many lobes? Select one: A. Five B. Three C. Four D. Six

Twelve pairs of ribs attach to which section of the spinal column? Select one: A. Thoracic B. Sacral C. Lumbar D. Coccyx

Which of the following is MOST characteristic of adequate breathing in an adult? Select one: A. Respirations of 20 breaths/min and bilateral chest movement B. Respirations of 30 breaths/min and reduced tidal volume C. Cool, clammy skin and retractions above the clavicles D. Use of the accessory muscles in the neck and cyanosis

Which of the following organs is NOT part of the digestive system? Select one: A. Kidney B. Pancreas C. Stomach D. Gallbladder

Classic signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia include: Select one: A. cool, clammy skin; weakness; tachycardia; and rapid respirations. B. warm, dry skin; irritability; bradycardia; and rapid respirations. C. cold, clammy skin; bradycardia; hunger; and deep, rapid respirations. D. warm, dry skin; hunger; abdominal pain; and deep, slow respirations.

Clinical signs of labored breathing include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. shallow chest movement. B. supraclavicular retractions. C. use of accessory muscles. D. gasping attempts to breathe.

Closed chest injuries are typically caused by _______. Select one: A. blunt trauma B. flying debris C. penetrating trauma D. high-velocity weapons

Contraction or tensing of the abdominal muscles in an effort to ease pain is called: Select one: A. guarding B. withdrawing. C. referring. D. flexing.

Crepitus and false motion are: Select one: A. positive indicators of a fracture. B. most common with dislocations. C. indicators of a severe sprain. D. only seen with open fractures.

During your assessment of a patient who experienced blunt trauma to the abdomen, you notice bruising around the umbilicus. This is a sign of: Select one: A. intra-abdominal bleeding. B. rupture of a hollow organ. C. a severe liver laceration. D. a ruptured spleen.

During your primary assessment of a 19-year-old unconscious male who experienced severe head trauma, you note that his respirations are rapid, irregular, and shallow. He has bloody secretions draining from his mouth and nose. You should: Select one: A. suction his oropharynx for up to 15 seconds. B. pack his nostrils to stop the drainage of blood. C. immobilize his spine and transport immediately. D. assist his ventilations with a BVM.

In which of the following situations would a direct ground lift be the MOST appropriate method of moving a patient? Select one: A. A conscious patient complaining of abdominal pain B. A pedestrian with back pain after being struck by a car C. A patient who complains of hip pain following a fall D. An unconscious patient with a possible ischemic stroke

The brain connects to the spinal cord through a large opening at the base of the skull known as the: Select one: A. foramen magnum. B. spinous process. C. vertebral foramina. D. eustachian tube.

The central nervous system (CNS) is composed of the: Select one: A. brain and spinal cord. B. cerebrum and meninges. C. meninges and spinal cord. D. cerebellum and brain.

The cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) that circulates in between each meningeal layer: Select one: A. acts as a shock absorber for the brain and spinal cord. B. produces leukocytes that protect the brain from infection. C. delivers oxygen directly to the CNS. D. regenerates brain cells after they have been damaged.

The cricoid cartilage: Select one: A. is the only complete circular cartilage of the trachea. B. lies superior to the thyroid cartilage in the neck. C. is easier to see and palpate than the thyroid cartilage. D. lies superior to the cricothyroid membrane in the neck.

The determination that prompt surgical care in the hospital is more important than performing time-consuming procedures in the field on a major trauma patient is based MOSTLY on: Select one: A. EMS research. B. the lead EMT's decision. C. regional trauma guidelines. D. local protocols.

The development of an incident action plan is the responsibility of the: Select one: A. planning section. B. operations section. C. logistics section. D. finance section.

The diastolic blood pressure represents the: Select one: A. minimum amount of pressure that is always present in the arteries. B. average pressure against the arterial walls during a cardiac cycle. C. difference in pressure between ventricular contraction and relaxation. D. increased arterial pressure that occurs during ventricular contraction.

The direct carry is used to transfer a patient: Select one: A. from a bed to the ambulance stretcher. B. with multiple long bone injuries. C. with a possible cervical spine injury. D. who cannot be placed on a backboard.

The main function of the endocrine system is to _________. Select one: A. maintain homeostasis B. produce glandular secretions C. regulate blood flow D. regulate glucose and calcium

The mastoid process is located approximately: Select one: A. 1 inch posterior to the external opening of the ear. B. half an inch anterior to the external opening of the ear. C. 1 inch inferior to the external opening of the ear. D. 1 inch posterior to the angle of the mandible.

The phrenic nerves control the diaphragm and exit the spinal cord at: Select one: A. C3, C4, and C5. B. C3 and C4. C. C1, C2, and C3. D. C1 and C2.

The physical examination of a sexual assault victim should be: Select one: A. limited to a brief survey for life-threatening injuries. B. as detailed as possible so all injuries can be documented. C. performed in the presence of at least two police officers. D. deferred until the patient can be evaluated by a physician.

The presence of tachycardia following a significant abdominal injury: Select one: A. should be assumed to be a sign of shock. B. indicates a state of decompensated shock. C. is always accompanied by hypotension. D. is most commonly caused by severe pain.

Under what circumstances is a left ventricular assist device used? Select one: A. As a bridge to heart transplantation while a donor heart is being located B. To reduce ventricular pumping force in patients with aortic aneurysms C. To ensure that the ventricles contract at an adequate and consistent rate D. To permanently replace the function of one or both of the ventricles

What is the alveolar minute volume of a patient with a tidal volume of 500 mL, a dead space volume of 150 mL, and a respiratory rate of 16 breaths/min? Select one: A. 5,600 mL B. 8,000 mL C. 7,400 mL D. 6,000 mL

What is the function of platelets? Select one: A. Initial formation of a blood clot B. Defense against invading organisms C. Transport of cellular waste materials D. Transport of oxygen and nutrients

When administering supplemental oxygen to a hypoxemic patient with a chronic lung disease, you should: Select one: A. adjust the flow rate accordingly until you see symptom improvement, but be prepared to assist his or her ventilations. B. recall that most patients with chronic lung diseases are stimulated to breathe by increased carbon dioxide levels. C. begin with a low oxygen flow rate, even if the patient is unresponsive, because high-flow oxygen may depress his or her breathing. D. avoid positive-pressure ventilation because the majority of patients with chronic lung disease are at increased risk for lung trauma.

When assessing a patient with abdominal pain, you should: Select one: A. palpate the abdomen in a clockwise direction, beginning with the quadrant after the one the patient indicates is painful. B. observe for abdominal guarding, which is characterized by sudden relaxation of the abdominal muscles when palpated. C. visually assess the painful area of the abdomen, but avoid palpation because this could worsen his or her condition. D. ask the patient to point to the area of pain or tenderness and assess for rebound tenderness over that specific area.

When immobilizing a patient on a long backboard, you should: Select one: A. ensure that you secure the torso before securing the head. B. have the patient exhale before fastening the torso straps. C. follow the commands of the person at the patient's torso. D. secure the torso and then center the patient on the board.

When immobilizing a trauma patient's spine, the EMT manually stabilizing the head should not let go until: Select one: A. the patient has been completely secured to the backboard. B. the patient has been secured to the ambulance stretcher. C. the head has been stabilized with lateral immobilization. D. an appropriately sized cervical collar has been applied.

When interviewing a patient, you can show him or her that you understand the situation by: Select one: A. repeating statements back to him or her. B. using medical terminology whenever possible. C. interrupting him or her as needed for clarification. D. maintaining constant eye contact with him or her.

14 Injury to a hollow abdominal organ would MOST likely result in: Select one: A. profound shock due to severe internal bleeding. B. leakage of contents into the abdominal cavity. C. impairment in the blood's clotting abilities. D. pain secondary to blood in the peritoneum.

18 You should deliver chest compressions to an unresponsive adult patient in cardiac arrest by: Select one: A. depressing the sternum more than 2.5 inches in depth. B. compressing the sternum between the nipples. C. compressing quickly and releasing slowly. D. placing the heel of your hand on the xiphoid.

19 The MOST common error associated with the use of the AED is: Select one: A. inability of the EMT to recognize ventricular fibrillation. B. failure of the EMT to ensure the battery is charged. C. malfunction of the AED's internal computer processor. D. inappropriately placed adhesive defibrillation electrodes.

2 Which of the following medication routes would be the MOST appropriate to use in an unresponsive patient when intravenous access cannot be obtained? Select one: A. Intramuscular B. Intraosseous C. Subcutaneous D. Transcutaneous

38 Which of the following MOST accurately describes what the patient will experience during the postictal state that follows a seizure? Select one: A. Hyperventilation and hypersalivation B. Confusion and fatigue C. A rapidly improving level of consciousness D. A gradually decreasing level of consciousness

39 A patient with an altered mental status is: Select one: A. usually able to be aroused with a painful stimulus. B. not thinking clearly or is incapable of being aroused. C. completely unresponsive to all forms of stimuli. D. typically alert but is confused as to preceding events.

40 A patient who is possibly experiencing a stroke is NOT eligible for thrombolytic (fibrinolytic) therapy if he or she: Select one: A. is older than 60 years of age. B. has bleeding within the brain. C. has a GCS score that is less than 8. D. has had a prior heart attack.

41 The electrical stimulus that originates in the heart's primary pacemaker is controlled by impulses from the brain that arrive by way of the: Select one: A. pons and medulla. B. autonomic nervous system. C. parietal lobe. D. somatic nervous system.

42 You respond to a residence for a child who is having a seizure. Upon arrival at the scene, you enter the residence and find the mother holding her child, a 2-year-old male. The child is conscious and crying. According to the mother, the child had been running a high fever and then experienced a seizure that lasted approximately 3 minutes. You should: Select one: A. advise the mother to take her child to the doctor the following day. B. transport the child to the hospital and reassure the mother en route. C. cover the child with wet towels and give oxygen via nasal cannula. D. call medical control and request permission to give the child aspirin.

44 When treating an 80-year-old patient who is in shock, it is important to remember that: Select one: A. the older patient's central nervous system usually reacts more briskly to compensate for shock. B. changes in gastric motility may delay gastric emptying, which increases the risk for vomiting. C. compensation from the respiratory system usually manifests with increased tidal volume. D. medications older patients take for hypertension often cause an unusually fast heart rate.

45 In contrast to AMI, a dissecting aortic aneurysm: Select one: A. is typically preceded by other symptoms, such as nausea. B. often presents with pain that is maximal from the onset. C. is more commonly associated with pressure in the chest. D. usually presents gradually, often over a period of hours.

46 During the primary assessment of a semiconscious 70-year-old female, you should: Select one: A. insert a nasopharyngeal airway and assist ventilations. B. ensure a patent airway and support ventilation as needed. C. ask family members if the patient has a history of stroke. D. immediately determine the patient's blood glucose level.

47 When the myocardium requires more oxygen: Select one: A. the heart rate decreases significantly. B. the arteries supplying the heart dilate. C. the heart contracts with less force. D. the AV node conducts fewer impulses.

48 Pulmonary edema and impaired ventilation occur during: Select one: A. septic shock. B. cardiogenic shock. C. anaphylactic shock. D. neurogenic shock.

49 When auscultating the lungs of a patient with respiratory distress, you hear adventitious sounds. This means that the patient has: Select one: A. an absence of breath sounds. B. abnormal breath sounds. C. diminished breath sounds. D. normal breath sounds.

5 Which of the following statements regarding anaphylaxis is correct? Select one: A. Patients with asthma are at lower risk of developing anaphylaxis. B. Anaphylaxis is characterized by airway swelling and hypotension. C. Most anaphylactic reactions occur within 60 minutes of exposure. D. The signs of anaphylaxis are caused by widespread vasoconstriction.

According to the National EMS Scope of Practice Model, an EMT would require special permission from the medical director and the state EMS office to: A. apply and interpret data from a pulse oximeter. B. insert a peripheral intravenous catheter. C. give aspirin to a patient with chest pain. D. use an automatic transport ventilator.

80 Gastric distention will MOST likely occur: Select one: a. b. if you ventilate a patient too quickly. c. in patients who are intubated. d. when you deliver minimal tidal volume. e. when the airway is completely obstructed.

82 Anaphylaxis is MOST accurately defined as a(n): Select one: A. severe allergic reaction that typically resolves without treatment. B. extreme allergic reaction that may affect multiple body systems. C. allergic reaction that causes bronchodilation and vasoconstriction. D. moderate allergic reaction that primarily affects the vasculature.

87 When caring for a patient with an altered mental status and signs of circulatory compromise, you should: Select one: A. perform a detailed secondary assessment prior to transporting the patient. B. limit your time at the scene to 10 minutes or less, if possible. C. have a paramedic unit respond to the scene if it is less than 15 minutes away. D. transport immediately and begin all emergency treatment en route to the hospital.

88 The determination of whether a medical patient is a high-priority or low-priority transport is typically made: Select one: A. once the patient's baseline vital signs are known. B. after the primary assessment has been completed. C. upon completion of a detailed secondary assessment. D. as soon as the patient voices his or her chief complaint.

89 Which of the following is bacterium resistant to most antibiotics and causes skin abscesses? Select one: A. Whooping cough B. MRSA C. Avian flu D. H1N1

According to the START triage system, what should you do if a patient is found to have a respiratory rate of 24 breaths/min? Select one: A. Triage the patient as delayed. B. Assess for bilateral radial pulses. C. Assess his or her neurologic status. D. Administer high-flow oxygen.

Accumulation of blood in the abdominal cavity will MOST likely cause: Select one: A. referred pain. B. distention. C. diffuse bruising. D. nausea or vomiting.

After primary triage, the triage supervisor should communicate all of the following information to the medical branch officer, EXCEPT: Select one: A. the number of patients in each triage category. B. the recommended transport destination for each patient. C. recommendations for movement to the treatment area. D. the total number of patients that have been triaged.

Deoxygenated blood from the abdomen, pelvis, and lower extremities is returned to the right atrium via the: Select one: A. superior vena cava. B. inferior vena cava. C. common iliac vein. D. coronary sinus vein.

Diastolic blood pressure tends to _______________ with age. Select one: A. decompensate B. increase C. compensate D. decrease

Difficulty breathing and a sunken appearance of the anterior abdominal wall is MOST indicative of a ruptured: Select one: A. spleen. B. diaphragm. C. stomach. D. aorta.

During a 30-minute transport of a stable patient, you should reassess him or her at least ________ times. Select one: A. 3 B. 2 C. 6 D. 4

During the transport phase of an ambulance call, it is MOST important to: Select one: A. reassess unstable patients at least every 15 minutes. B. converse with the patient and provide reassurance. C. complete the run form before arrival at the hospital. D. reassess the patient only if he or she deteriorates.

During your assessment of a young female with nontraumatic vaginal bleeding, you note that her level of consciousness is decreased, her respirations are rapid and shallow, her skin is cool and moist, and her pulse is rapid and weak. You should: Select one: A. perform a rapid secondary assessment. B. assist her ventilations with a BVM. C. assess her blood pressure and elevate her legs. D. perform a visual assessment of her vaginal area.

Once a cervical collar has been applied to a patient with a possible spinal injury, it should not be removed unless: Select one: A. the patient adamantly denies neck pain. B. it causes a problem managing the airway. C. sensory and motor functions remain intact. D. lateral immobilization has been applied.

Pain that may be perceived at a distant point on the surface of the body, such as the back or shoulder, is called: Select one: A. remote pain. B. referred pain. C. visceral pain. D. radiating pain.

Patient complaints of pain during intercourse, lower abdominal discomfort, and nausea may be indicative of which of the following? Select one: A. Chlamydia B. Pelvic inflammatory disease C. Gonorrhea D. Bacterial vaginosis

Placards and labels on a storage container are intended to: Select one: A. advise responders of the appropriate neutralizing measures. B. give a general idea of the hazard inside that particular container. C. broadly classify chemicals as being explosive or nonexplosive. D. provide specific information about the chemical being carried.

Prompt transport of a patient with a suspected AMI is important because: Select one: A. nitroglycerin can only be given in the emergency department. B. the patient may be eligible to receive thrombolytic therapy. C. many patients with an AMI die within 6 hours. D. 90% of the cardiac cells will die within the first 30 minutes.

Question 16 Common factors that influence how a patient reacts to the stress of an illness or injury include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. history of chronic disease. B. distrust of EMTs. C. mental disorders. D. fear of medical personnel.

Question 17 The compliance-monitoring component of an infection control plan should: Select one: A. identify who to notify after an exposure and where treatment should be provided. B. ensure that employees understand what they should do and why it is important. C. address issues such as medical waste collection, storage, and ambulance disinfection. D. consist of a list of tasks that pose a risk for contact with blood or other body fluids.

Question 21 Which of the following signs would indicate that your partner is experiencing significant stress? Select one: A. Hyperactivity during an EMS call B. Isolation from the rest of the crew C. Increased interest in daily activities D. Acute increase in appetite

Question 26 Carbon monoxide blocks the ability of the blood to oxygenate the body because it: Select one: A. causes the body to expel too much carbon dioxide. B. binds with the hemoglobin in red blood cells. C. destroys the number of circulating red blood cells. D. fills the alveoli in the lungs with thick secretions.

Question 33 Which of the following statements regarding the hepatitis B vaccine is correct? Select one: A. Vaccination with the hepatitis B vaccine confers immunity against hepatitis A. B. OSHA requires that your employer offer you the vaccine free of charge. C. The hepatitis B vaccine provides protection against the disease for 2 years. D. Vaccination against hepatitis B provides partial immunity for life.

Question 34 According to Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) regulations, an employer must: Select one: A. guarantee a 100% risk-free environment prior to employment. B. offer a workplace environment that reduces the risk of exposure. C. screen all prospective employees for blood-borne pathogens. D. provide gloves and other personal protective equipment to full-time paid employees only.

Question 35 Which of the following infectious diseases confers no protection from reinfection after exposure? Select one: A. Rubella B. Syphilis C. Mumps D. Chickenpox

Question 36 A critical incident stress debriefing should be conducted no more than ________ hours following the incident. Select one: A. 6 B. 72 C. 12 D. 24

The type and severity of wounds sustained from incendiary and explosive devices primarily depend on the: Select one: A. pressure that is generated from the explosion itself. B. patient's distance from the epicenter of the explosion. C. type of material used to manufacture the device. D. size of the structure that was involved in the explosion.

The upper jawbones are called the: Select one: A. mastoid. B. maxillae. C. zygoma. D. mandible.

The use of lights and siren on an ambulance: Select one: A. legally gives the emergency vehicle operator the right of way. B. signifies a request for other drivers to yield the right of way. C. is required any time a patient is being transported to the hospital. D. allows other drivers to hear and see you from a great distance.

The use of special tools to remove an entrapped patient from a vehicle is known as _________. Select one: A. simple access B. complex access C. vehicle stabilization D. incident management

The white portion of the eye is called the: Select one: A. cornea. B. sclera. C. iris. D. retina.

To date, the preferred weapons of mass destruction for terrorists have been: Select one: A. chemical weapons. B. explosive weapons. C. nuclear weapons. D. biologic weapons.

To obtain the MOST accurate reading of a patient's core body temperature, you should place a special hypothermia thermometer: Select one: A. behind the patient's knee. B. into the patient's rectum. C. under the patient's tongue. D. under the patient's armpit.

Unlike a multiple-casualty incident, a natural disaster: Select one: A. exists when there are more than 100 critically injured patients. B. often requires personnel to remain on scene for several days. C. usually does not require the incident command system process. D. is typically short-lived and does not require as much manpower.

Upon arrival at a search-and-rescue incident, the EMS crew should _________. Select one: A. provide the incident commander with the crew's names and certification level(s) B. prepare the equipment to carry to the patient C. begin searching for the patient D. split up and request a search grid

Upon arrival at a trench rescue operation, you should _________. Select one: A. park as close to the incident as possible B. park at least 500 feet from the incident C. assist with the rescue operation D. determine if rescuers are operating safely

Upon arriving at the scene of a patient with difficulty breathing, you determine that the scene is safe. You enter the residence and find the patient sitting in a chair in respiratory distress. Your first action should be to: Select one: A. assess the patient's airway status. B. introduce yourself to the patient. C. ask the patient what's wrong. D. obtain a set of baseline vital signs.

Vaccination against the hepatitis A virus is unnecessary if you: Select one: A. received a hepatitis B vaccination. B. have been infected with hepatitis in the past. C. have a weak immune system. D. are older than 35 years of age.

Victims of inhaled poisoning will require which of the following? Select one: A. Suctioning to clear the airway B. Transport to an emergency department for evaluation C. An oropharyngeal or nasopharyngeal device to maintain an airway D. Ventilation with a bag-valve mask

When a light is shone into the pupil: Select one: A. the opposite pupil should dilate. B. it should become smaller in size. C. both pupils should dilate together. D. it should become larger in size.

When a motor vehicle strikes a tree while traveling at 40 mph, the unrestrained occupant: Select one: A. is thrust under the steering column onto the floorboard. B. remains in motion until acted upon by an external force. C. will decelerate at the same rate as the motor vehicle. D. will most likely be thrown over the steering column.

When a psychiatric emergency arises, a patient is most likely to exhibit which of the following behaviors? Select one: A. Visual or auditory hallucinations B. Any behaviors that are a violent threat to the patient, EMTs, or others C. Disruptions to activities of daily living D. Any behaviors unacceptable to the patient, family, or community

When approaching a helicopter, whether the rotor blades are moving or not, you should: Select one: A. approach the aircraft from the side because this will make it easier for you to access the aircraft doors. B. never duck under the body or the tail boom because the pilot cannot see you in these areas. C. remember that the main rotor blade is flexible and can dip as low as 5¢ to 6¢ from the ground. D. carefully approach the aircraft from the rear unless a crew member instructs you to do otherwise.

When assessing a patient who experienced a blast injury, it is important to remember that: Select one: A. primary blast injuries are typically the most obvious. B. primary blast injuries are the most easily overlooked. C. solid organs usually rupture from the pressure wave. D. secondary blast injuries are usually the least obvious.

When assessing an 8-year-old child, you should: Select one: A. refrain from taking a blood pressure. B. talk to the child, not just the caregiver. C. rely solely on the parent for information. D. use a toe-to-head assessment approach.

When assessing an elderly patient who fell, it is important to remember that: Select one: A. any fall in the elderly is considered to be high-energy trauma. B. osteoporosis can cause a fracture as a result of a fall from a standing position. C. bilateral hip fractures usually occur when an elderly person falls. D. elderly patients who fall usually have a secondary head injury.

When assessing motor function in a conscious patient's lower extremities, you should expect the patient to: Select one: A. note any changes in temperature. B. wiggle his or her toes on command. C. feel you touching the extremity. D. identify different types of stimuli.

When assisting ventilations in a newborn with a bag-valve mask, the rate is _____ breaths/min. Select one: A. 20 to 30 B. 40 to 60 C. 35 to 45 D. 30 to 50

When auscultating the blood pressure in a patient's upper extremity, you should place the head of the stethoscope over the _________ artery. Select one: A. femoral B. brachial C. radial D. apical

When caring for a female patient who has been sexually assaulted, you should: Select one: A. allow law enforcement to take her statement before you begin treatment. B. place any bloodstained clothing or other articles in separate paper bags. C. ask the patient for a concise, detailed report of what happened to her. D. advise her that she will not be allowed to shower or change her clothes.

When caring for a patient experiencing excited delirium, the EMT should remember that: Select one: A. lights and siren are effective in redirecting the patient's behavior. B. sudden death can occur if the patient's violence is not controlled. C. most patients will have low blood pressure and hyperglycemia. D. excited delirium is worsened by nervous system depressant drugs.

90 When forming your general impression of a patient with a medical complaint, it is important to remember that: Select one: A. it is during the general impression that assessment of the ABCs occurs. B. the conditions of many medical patients may not appear serious at first. C. most serious medical conditions do not present with obvious symptoms. D. the majority of medical patients you encounter are also injured.

94 The stinger from a honeybee should be: [1] left in place and covered. Select one: A. B. scraped away from the skin. C. squeezed with tweezers and removed. D. irrigated with copious amounts of water.

95 Which of the following medications blocks the release of histamines? Select one: A. Epinephrine (Adrenalin) B. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) C. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) D. Albuterol (Ventolin)

95 In ___________ administration, you are administering medication to yourself or your partner. Select one: A. paramedic-administered B. peer-assisted C. patient-assisted D. EMT-administered

98 Which of the following sounds indicates swelling of the upper airway? Select one: A. Rales B. Stridor C. Rhonchi D. Wheezing

A 22-year-old female was ejected from her car after striking a tree head-on. As you approach her, you note obvious closed deformities to both of her femurs. She is not moving and does not appear to be conscious. You should: Select one: A. assess for a carotid pulse and assist her ventilations. B. stabilize her head and perform a primary assessment. C. administer oxygen and perform a rapid assessment. D. apply manual stabilization to both of her femurs.

After eating at a local restaurant, a 20-year-old male complains of blurred vision, difficulty speaking, and difficulty breathing. He is conscious; however, his respirations are profoundly labored and producing minimal tidal volume. You should: Select one: A. apply oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. B. assist his ventilations with high-flow oxygen. C. request a paramedic to administer atropine. D. position him supine and elevate his legs.

A(n) __________ fracture occurs in the growth section of a child's bone and may lead to bone growth abnormalities. Select one: A. greenstick B. epiphyseal C. metaphyseal D. diaphyseal

According to the Association of Air Medical Services, you should consider air medical transport of a trauma patient if: Select one: A. he or she was involved in a motor vehicle crash in which another occupant in the same vehicle was killed, even if your patient's injuries are minor. B. traffic conditions hamper the ability to get the patient to a trauma center by ground within the ideal time frame for the best clinical outcome. C. the patient requires advanced life support care and stabilization, and the nearest ALS-ground ambulance is more than 5 to 10 minutes away. D. ground transport will take your ambulance out of service for an extended period of time, regardless of the severity of the patient's injuries.

A pediatric patient with a fever, pain on palpation of the right lower quadrant, and rebound tenderness is likely suffering from ____

Appendicitis

10 Chronic renal failure is a condition that: Select one: A. causes dehydration from excessive urination. B. is often caused by hypertension or diabetes. C. can be reversed with prompt treatment. D. occurs from conditions such as dehydration.

11 The MOST important treatment for a patient with severe abdominal pain and signs of shock is: Select one: A. administering high-flow oxygen. B. transporting the patient without delay. C. giving oral fluids to maintain perfusion. D. positioning the patient on his or her side.

13 Which of the following is the MOST reliable method of estimating a patient's cardiac output? Select one: A. Listen to heart sounds with a stethoscope. B. Assess the heart rate and strength of the pulse. C. Connect the patient to an electrocardiogram. D. Determine the average diastolic blood pressure.

13 Neurogenic shock occurs when: Select one: A. massive vasoconstriction occurs distal to a spinal cord injury. B. failure of the nervous system causes widespread vasodilation. C. there is too much blood to fill a smaller vascular container. D. the spinal cord is severed and causes massive hemorrhaging.

11 Common side effects of nitroglycerin include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. hypotension. B. bradycardia. C. hypertension. D. severe headache.

12 A 60-year-old female presents with a tearing sensation in her lower back. Her skin is sweaty and she is tachycardic. The EMT should suspect: Select one: A. acute pancreatitis. B. strangulated hernia. C. aortic aneurysm. D. kidney stones.

12 A 40-year-old man is in cardiac arrest. Your partner is performing CPR. You are attaching the AED when the patient's wife tells you that he has an automatic implanted cardiac defibrillator (AICD). The AED advises that a shock is indicated. What should you do? Select one: A. Continue CPR and transport the patient to the closest appropriate hospital. B. Avoid defibrillation as this will damage the patient's AICD. C. Deliver the shock followed by immediate resumption of CPR. D. Contact medical control and request permission to defibrillate.

Which of the following destinations is most appropriate for a 41-year-old male patient who was involved in a rollover motor vehicle collision and is unconscious and unresponsive, assuming that travel times to each is equal? Select one: A. A Level IV or Level III trauma center B. Only a Level I trauma center C. A Level I or Level II trauma center D. Any designated trauma center is acceptable.

71 In most cases, cardiopulmonary arrest in infants and children is caused by: Select one: A. a drug overdose. B. a cardiac dysrhythmia. C. respiratory arrest. D. severe chest trauma.

73 After the AED has delivered a shock, the EMT should: Select one: A. transport the patient at once. B. assess for a carotid pulse. C. immediately resume CPR. D. re-analyze the cardiac rhythm.

74 CPR should be initiated when: Select one: A. signs of putrefaction are present. B. the carotid pulse is very weak. C. a valid living will is unavailable. D. rigor mortis is obvious.

80 Which of the following statements regarding glucose is correct? Select one: A. The brain requires insulin to allow glucose to enter the cells. B. Most cells will function normally without glucose. C. The brain requires glucose as much as it requires oxygen. D. Blood glucose levels decrease in the absence of insulin.

81 When preparing to obtain a 12-lead ECG, the "LL" and "RL" electrodes should be placed: Select one: A. on either side of the chest. B. anywhere on the arms. C. on the thighs or ankles. D. on the lower abdomen.

81 The impedance threshold device (ITD) may improve circulation during active compression-decompression CPR by: Select one: A. maintaining increased intrathoracic pressure during the downward stroke of each chest compression, which forces more blood from both of the ventricles. B. drawing all of the air out of the lungs in between chest compressions, which causes positive intrathoracic pressure and a reduction of blood return to the right side of the heart. C. limiting the amount of air that enters the lungs during the recoil phase between chest compressions, which results in negative intrathoracic pressure and improved cardiac filling. D. maximizing the amount of air in the lungs following chest recoil, which hyperinflates the lungs and forces more blood from the ventricle during each compression.

83 The goal of invaders such as bacteria and viruses is to __________. Select one: A. cause an immune response B. kill their human host C. use a human body as a home D. spread disease and destruction

Which of the following findings would be LEAST suggestive of the presence of high-energy trauma? Select one: A. Dismounted seats B. Steering wheel deformity C. Deployment of the air bag D. Intrusion into the vehicle Feedback

Which of the following infections, when left untreated, may lead to infection of the blood and brain? Select one: A. Pelvic inflammatory disease B. Bacterial vaginosis C. Gonorrhea D. Chlamydia

Which of the following interventions may be used to help reduce intracranial pressure? Select one: A. Increasing the patient's body temperature B. Maintaining SpO2 at 90% C. 30-degree elevation of the head D. Supine with the legs elevated

Which of the following is NOT a BLS intervention? Select one: A. Abdominal thrusts B. Automated defibrillation C. Cardiac monitoring D. Chest compressions

Which of the following is the MOST effective method of assessing the quality of air movement in the lungs? Select one: A. Evaluating the patient's chest for cyanosis B. Looking for the presence of accessory muscle use C. Auscultating breath sounds with a stethoscope D. Applying a pulse oximeter and monitoring the SpO2

Which of the following is true regarding injury to the kidneys? Select one: A. Only minimal force is needed to damage the kidneys. B. Kidney injuries are rarely caused by blunt trauma. C. Injury to the kidneys usually indicates injury to other organs. D. The kidneys are not well protected.

Which of the following questions would be LEAST pertinent during the initial questioning of a patient who ingested a substance? Select one: A. How much of the substance was taken? B. How long ago was the substance taken? C. Why was the substance ingested? D. What type of substance was taken?

A 49-year-old male presents with confusion, sweating, and visual hallucinations. The patient's wife tells you that he is a heavy drinker and she thinks he had a seizure shortly before your arrival. This patient is MOST likely experiencing: Select one: A. acute hypovolemia. B. acute schizophrenia. C. delirium tremens. D. alcohol intoxication.

A 51-year-old female presents with a sudden onset of difficulty breathing. She is conscious and alert and able to speak in complete sentences. Her respirations are 22 breaths/min and regular. You should: Select one: A. perform a secondary assessment and then begin treatment. B. insert a nasal airway in case her mental status decreases. C. administer oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. D. assist her ventilations with a bag-valve mask.

A 56-year-old male is found semiconscious by his wife. Your assessment reveals that his respirations are rapid and shallow, his pulse is rapid and irregular, and his blood pressure is low. The patient's wife states that he complained of left arm pain and nausea the day before, but would not allow her to call 9-1-1. The MOST likely cause of this patient's present condition is: Select one: A. severe septic hypoperfusion. B. acute myocardial infarction. C. cardiogenic hypoperfusion. D. a ruptured aortic aneurysm.

A 70-year-old female was recently discharged from the hospital following a total hip replacement. Today, she presents with restlessness, tachycardia, and a blood pressure of 100/64 mm Hg. Her skin is hot and moist. You should be MOST suspicious that she is experiencing: A. pump failure. B. decompensated shock. C. septic shock. D. a local infection.

A burn that is characterized by redness and pain is classified as a: Select one: A. full-thickness burn. B. second-degree burn. C. superficial burn. D. partial-thickness burn.

A closed soft-tissue injury characterized by swelling and ecchymosis is called a(n): Select one: A. hematoma. B. abrasion. C. contusion. D. crush injury.

A pregnant trauma patient may lose a significant amount of blood before showing signs of shock because: Select one: A. pregnancy causes vasodilation and a lower blood pressure. B. pregnant patients can dramatically increase their heart rate. C. pregnant patients have an overall increase in blood volume. D. blood is shunted to the uterus and fetus during major trauma.

A reflex arc occurs when: Select one: A. the motor nerves function automatically without receiving a message from the CNS. B. a sensory nerve sends a message to the brain but the motor nerve fails to send the appropriate response to the body. C. a sensory nerve detects an irritating stimulus and bypasses the brain by sending a direct message to the motor nerve. D. the brain interprets sensory information that it receives from peripheral and cranial nerves and sends a signal to the muscles.

A short backboard or vest-style immobilization device is indicated for patients who: Select one: A. are found supine and have stable vital signs. B. require prompt extrication from an automobile. C. are in a sitting position and are clinically stable. D. are sitting in their car and are clinically unstable.

A simple pneumothorax: Select one: A. heals on its own without any treatment. B. is caused by penetrating chest trauma. C. is commonly caused by blunt chest trauma. D. often has a nontraumatic cause.

A specific legal document that directs relatives and caregivers regarding the medical treatment that may be given to patients who cannot speak for themselves is called a(n): Select one: A. statute of care. B. physician directive. C. advance directive. D. power of attorney.

A type _____ ambulance features a conventional, truck cab-chassis with a modular ambulance body that can be transferred to a newer chassis as needed. Select one: A. IV B. II C. I D. III

Abdominal pain, vomiting, and fever are most likely due to _______. Select one: A. hypovolemia B. hemorrhage C. infection D. evisceration

Abdominal thrusts in a conscious child or adult with a severe upper airway obstruction are performed: Select one: A. until he or she experiences cardiac arrest. B. about 1 inch below the xiphoid process. C. until he or she loses consciousness. D. in sets of five followed by reassessment.

According to the Emergency Medical Treatment and Active Labor Act (EMTALA): Select one: A. a patient maintains the legal right to recant his or her consent to emergency treatment, even after signing in to the emergency department. B. all health care facilities are legally obligated to provide assessment and care only if the patient is critically ill or injured. C. all health care facilities must provide a medical assessment and required treatment, regardless of the patient's ability to pay. D. a health care facility has the right to refuse assessment and treatment to a patient, but only if his or her condition is not deemed critical.

An infant or small child's airway can be occluded if it is overextended or overflexed because: Select one: A. the back of the head is flat, which prevents a neutral position. B. the tongue is proportionately small and can fall back into the throat. C. the occiput is proportionately large and the trachea is flexible. D. he or she has a long neck, which makes the trachea prone to collapse.

An infant with severe dehydration would be expected to present with: Select one: A. moist oral mucosa. B. bulging fontanelles. C. absent urine output. D. excessive tearing.

As time progresses following a significant injury: Select one: A. most patients will die secondary to internal bleeding. B. the patient's blood pressure elevates significantly. C. the body's ability to compensate for shock decreases. D. the patient's injuries will most likely be irreparable.

Assuming that no obvious signs of intra-abdominal injury are present, which of the following injuries would MOST likely cause an injury to the liver or spleen to be overlooked? Select one: A. Lumbar spine fracture B. Pelvic fracture C. Shoulder fracture D. Femur fracture

At 0500 hours, you respond to the home of a 76-year-old man complaining of chest pain. Upon arrival, the patient states that he had been sleeping in the recliner all night due to indigestion, when the pain woke him up. He also tells you he has taken two nitroglycerin tablets. His vital signs are as follows: respirations, 16 breaths/min; pulse, 98 beats/min; blood pressure, 92/76 mm Hg. He is still complaining of chest pain. What actions should you take to intervene? Select one: A. Administer a third nitroglycerin tablet. B. Apply an AED. C. Provide high-flow oxygen. D. Begin chest compressions.

At the scene of a motor vehicle crash, you determine that there are two critically injured patients and that another ambulance is needed. You attempt to contact the dispatcher with your portable radio but are unsuccessful. You should: Select one: A. make another attempt to contact dispatch from an area of higher terrain. B. place both patients in the ambulance and transport them at once. C. use the mobile radio in the ambulance to contact dispatch. D. ask a police officer to call dispatch with his portable radio

Because the depth of an open abdominal wound is often difficult to determine: Select one: A. the EMT must perform a thorough exam. B. the abdomen must be vigorously palpated. C. prompt transport to the hospital is essential. D. vital signs should be monitored frequently.

Bleeding from soft-tissue injuries to the face is MOST effectively controlled with: Select one: A. pressure dressings and chemical ice packs. B. digital pressure to an adjacent pulse point. C. direct pressure using dry, sterile dressings. D. ice packs and elevation of the patient's head.

Bleeding within the brain tissue itself is called a(n): Select one: A. subarachnoid hemorrhage. B. epidural hematoma. C. intracerebral hematoma. D. subdural hematoma.

Blood levels of medications may rise in the elderly, sometimes to toxic levels. This is MOST likely due to: Select one: A. intentional overdose. B. splenic dysfunction. C. renal insufficiency. D. pancreatic failure.

Bruising to the right upper quadrant of the abdomen following blunt trauma is MOST suggestive of injury to the: Select one: A. kidney. B. spleen. C. liver. D. stomach.

Burns to pediatric patients are generally considered more serious than burns to adults because: Select one: A. most burns in children are the result of child abuse. B. pediatric patients have a proportionately larger volume of blood. C. pediatric patients have more surface area relative to total body mass. D. pediatric patients are more prone to hyperthermia.

Question 56 The official transfer of patient care does not occur until the EMT: Select one: A. notifies the admitting clerk of the patient's arrival at the hospital. B. informs dispatch of the patient's arrival at the emergency department. C. gives an oral report to the emergency room physician or nurse. D. gives a radio report to the receiving medical facility.

Question 69 You are summoned to a convalescent center for an 88-year-old female with an altered mental status. A staff nurse advises you that the patient has terminal cancer and her physician stated that she would probably die within the next few hours; a valid do not resuscitate (DNR) order is presented to you. When caring for this patient, you should: Select one: A. provide no interventions and transport to the hospital. B. begin chest compressions if she experiences cardiac arrest. C. make her comfortable and provide emotional support. D. depart the scene and allow her to die with dignity.

Question 70 Which type of stress reaction occurs when an EMT is exposed to many insignificant stressors over a period of several months or years? Select one: A. Critical incident stress reaction B. Posttraumatic stress reaction C. Cumulative stress reaction D. Acute stress reaction

Rapid deceleration of the head, such as when it impacts the windshield, causes: Select one: A. compression injuries and contusions to the anterior, posterior, and lateral aspects of the brain. B. stretching or tearing of the anterior aspect of the brain and compression injuries or bruising to the posterior aspect of the brain. C. compression injuries or bruising to the anterior portion of the brain and stretching or tearing to the posterior portion of the brain. D. primary impact to the posterior aspect of the brain, resulting in compression injuries, bruising, or torn blood vessels.

Skeletal muscle is attached to the bone by tough, ropelike, fibrous structures called: Select one: A. ligaments. B. cartilage. C. tendons. D. fascia.

Talking about an elderly patient in front of him or her to other members of the family: Select one: A. will anger the patient and result in his or her refusal to accept care or transport. B. often causes the patient to become paranoid and untrusting of your help. C. may cause the patient to think that he or she has no say in making decisions. D. is usually beneficial because the patient's cognitive skills are typically impaired.

The EMT is legally obligated to protect a patient's privacy according to _____________. Select one: A. CQI B. DCAP C. HIPAA D. APGAR

The EMT must assume that any unwitnessed water-related incident is accompanied by: Select one: A. an air embolism. B. alcohol intoxication. C. possible spinal injury. D. cold-water immersion.

The EMT should ensure that vaginal bleeding is _________. Select one: A. controlled directly by the patient B. not caused by traumatic injury C. taken seriously and the patient is transported for gynecologic evaluation D. severe enough to warrant transport

The EMT should expect that a patient who was exposed to cyanide will have: Select one: A. an abnormally slow pulse rate. B. an abnormally slow respiratory rate. C. a normal pulse oximetry reading. D. skin that is cherry red and hot.

The FIRST step in the START triage system is to: Select one: A. get a quick head count of all the patients involved. B. scan the area for patients with severe bleeding. C. move all walking patients to a designated area. D. focus on the patients who are unconscious.

The MOST common and significant complication associated with fractures or dislocations of the knee is: Select one: A. total depletion of synovial fluid. B. ligament and cartilage damage. C. neurovascular compromise. D. internal bleeding and shock.

The MOST reliable sign of a head injury is: Select one: A. decreased sensation in the extremities. B. a pulse that is rapid and thready. C. a decreased level of consciousness. D. an abnormally low blood pressure.

The _____ only require(s) a minimal blood supply when at rest. Select one: A. heart B. lungs C. muscles D. kidneys

The __________ and _________ are folds of tissue that surround the urethral and vaginal openings. Select one: A. fallopian tubes; uterus B. perineum; anus C. labia majora; labia minora D. vagina; cervix

The _____________ connect(s) each ovary with the uterus. Select one: A. abdomen B. egg C. fallopian tubes D. cervix

The amniotic fluid serves to: Select one: A. transfer oxygen to the fetus. B. remove viruses from the fetus. C. insulate and protect the fetus. D. assist in fetal development. Feedback

The criteria to be licensed and employed as an EMT include: Select one: A. demonstration of the ability to lift and carry at least 200 pounds. B. successful completion of a recognized bystander CPR course. C. proof of immunization against certain communicable diseases. D. a minimum of 60 college credit hours that focus on health care.

The decline in cardiac function that commonly occurs in late adulthood is MOST often related to: Select one: A. hypotension. B. kidney failure. C. atherosclerosis. D. medication use.

The first month of life after birth is referred to as the: Select one: A. toddler period. B. start of infancy. C. neonatal period. D. premature phase.

The function of the National Incident Management System (NIMS) is to: Select one: A. educate city and county governments regarding foreign terrorist attacks. B. facilitate a standard method of incident command for natural disasters. C. prepare for, prevent, respond to, and recover from domestic incidents. D. prepare for the potential of a nuclear attack against the United States.

The hypoxic drive is influenced by: Select one: A. high blood oxygen levels. B. high blood carbon dioxide levels. C. low blood oxygen levels. D. low blood carbon dioxide levels.

The kidneys help to regulate blood pressure by: Select one: A. eliminating toxic waste products from the body. B. accommodating a large amount of blood volume. C. removing sodium and water from the body. D. retaining key electrolytes, such as potassium.

The main advantage of the Venturi mask is: Select one: A. that it does not contain an oxygen reservoir, so the same percentage of oxygen can consistently be administered. B. the ability to adjust the amount of oxygen administered to the patient by increasing the flow rate on the regulator. C. the use of its fine adjustment capabilities in the long-term management of physiologically stable patients. D. the ability to adjust the percentage of inspired oxygen when caring for a critically ill or injured patient.

The nervous system is divided into the central nervous system and the: Select one: A. autonomic nervous system. B. sympathetic nervous system. C. peripheral nervous system. D. somatic nervous system.

The phenomenon of pressure waves emanating from the bullet, causing damage remote from its path, is known as: Select one: A. vomiting blood. B. an irregular pulse. C. coughing up blood. D. multiple rib fractures.

The primary waste product of aerobic metabolism is: Select one: A. lactic acid. B. adenosine triphosphate. C. carbon dioxide. D. pyruvic acid.

The recommended treatment for absorbed or contact poisons includes _________. Select one: A. transporting the patient to the emergency department with the poisonous substance in place B. collecting and transporting the poisonous substance to the emergency department for identification C. safely removing or diluting the poisonous substance D. neutralizing the poisonous substance with a chemical

The systematic head-to-toe assessment should be performed on: Select one: A. responsive medical patients and patients without a significant MOI. B. stable patients who are able to tell you exactly what happened. C. patients with a significant MOI and unresponsive medical patients. D. all patients with traumatic injuries who will require EMS transport.

When caring for a known alcoholic patient with severe trauma to the chest and abdomen, you should be concerned that: Select one: A. signs and symptoms of shock may be masked by the stimulant effects produced by alcohol. B. long bone fractures are likely because chronic alcohol consumption weakens the structure of the bones. C. internal bleeding may be profuse because prolonged alcohol use may impair the blood's ability to clot. D. delirium tremens (DTs) are commonly induced by physical trauma and can lead to life-threatening seizures.

When caring for a patient whose arm is covered with a dry chemical, you should: Select one: A. use forceful streams of water to remove the chemical. B. deactivate the chemical with a 5% vinegar solution. C. brush away the chemical before flushing with water. D. quickly irrigate the arm with large amounts of water.

When caring for a patient with an open facial injury, the EMT's immediate priority should be to: Select one: A. manually stabilize the patient's head. B. consider the mechanism of injury. C. wear gloves and facial protection. D. closely assess the patient's airway.

When palpating a patient's pulse, you note that there is a short interval between pulsations. This indicates that the pulse is: Select one: A. irregular. B. thready. C. rapid. D. slow.

When performing the secondary assessment on a trauma patient, you note the presence of Battle sign. This is defined as: Select one: A. swelling to the orbital area. B. unequal pupils. C. bruising behind the ear. D. fluid drainage from the nose.

When questioning the parent of a child who ingested a poisonous substance, which of the following questions would be of LEAST pertinence initially? Select one: A. What time did the ingestion occur? B. Do you know what substance was ingested? C. Why did your child ingest the poison? D. Have you noticed any signs or symptoms?

When the parasympathetic nervous system is activated: Select one: A. hormones are released that prepare the body for stress. B. heart rate and blood pressure increase. C. the heart rate decreases and the blood vessels dilate. D. blood is shunted away from the digestive organs.

When the shoulder girdle is aligned over the pelvis during lifting: Select one: A. the muscles of the back experience increased strain. B. the hands can be held further apart from the body. C. the weight is exerted straight down the vertebrae. D. the risk of back injuries is significantly increased.

When caring for an occupant inside a motor vehicle equipped with an air bag that did not deploy upon impact, you should: Select one: A. suspect that the patient may have experienced serious injuries. B. remember that it could still deploy and seriously injure you. C. realize that the air bag malfunctioned at the time of impact. D. recognize that the force of impact was most likely not severe.

When faced with a situation in which a patient is in cardiac arrest and a valid living will or DNR order cannot be located, you should: Select one: A. notify the coroner immediately. B. begin resuscitation at once. C. determine the patient's illness. D. contact medical control first.

When immobilizing a patient with a kyphotic spine to a long backboard, the EMT would MOST likely have to: Select one: A. use a scoop stretcher instead of a log roll. B. place blankets behind the patient's head. C. force the head into a neutral alignment. D. secure the patient's head before the torso.

When should you visually inspect the external genitalia on your patient? Select one: A. Only when ordered by medical direction B. Only when there is a complaint of severe pain or other injury C. Always during the secondary assessment D. Anytime the patient agrees to treatment and transport

When splinting an injury of the wrist, the hand should be placed: Select one: A. in an extended position. B. in a functional position. C. into a fist. D. in a straight position.

When stabilizing a large foreign object in the eye, you should first cover the eye with a moist dressing, then: Select one: A. apply tape around the object and then secure the tape to the forehead. B. surround the object with a doughnut-shaped collar made from gauze. C. irrigate the eye with saline. D. place an ice pack over the eye to reduce swelling.

Breathing occurs as the result of a(n): Select one: A. increase in oxygen, which decreases the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid. B. increase in carbon dioxide, which decreases the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid. C. decrease in oxygen, which increases the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid. D. decrease in carbon dioxide, which increases the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid.

Cardiac output (CO) is affected by: Select one: A. blood pressure. B. stroke volume and heart rate. C. heart rate only. D. stroke volume only.

Stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system would result in: Select one: A. tachycardia. B. a slower heart rate. C. vasoconstriction. D. a strong pulse.

The bones that constitute the fingers and toes are called: Select one: A. carpals. B. phalanges. C. metatarsals D. metacarpals.

The bony prominence on the lateral/superior aspect of the thigh is called the: Select one: A. sacroiliac joint. B. greater trochanter. C. sacral symphysis. D. iliac crest.

The elbow is an example of a ____________ joint. Select one: A. saddle B. hinge C. gliding D. ball-and-socket

The large, flat, triangular bone that overlies the posterior thoracic wall is called the: Select one: A. glenoid. B. scapula. C. acromion. D. clavicle.

The leaf-shaped flap of cartilage that prevents food and liquid from entering the trachea during swallowing is called the: Select one: A. vallecula. B. epiglottis. C. pharynx. D. uvula.

The left side of the heart receives oxygenated blood from the lungs through the: Select one: A. superior venae cavae. B. pulmonary veins. C. inferior venae cavae. D. pulmonary arteries.

The major artery that supplies all other arteries with blood is the: Select one: A. femoral. B. aorta. C. carotid. D. brachial.

The phase of the cardiac cycle in which the ventricles fill with blood is called: Select one: A. cardiac output. B. diastole. C. systole. D. stroke volume.

Which of the following are central pulses? Select one: A. Brachial and radial B. Femoral and carotid C. Temporal and pedal D. Popliteal and ulnar

Which of the following signs of respiratory distress is typically unique to infants and children? Select one: A. Irregular breathing pattern B. Seesaw respirations C. Unequal chest expansion D. Unequal breath sounds

Which of the following statements regarding agonal respirations is correct? Select one: A. Agonal respirations typically occur before the heart stops. B. Agonal respirations are ineffective and need to be assisted. C. Agonal respirations result in excessive tidal volume. D. Agonal respirations are characterized by fast, irregular breaths.

Which of the following scenarios involves the administration of ALS? Select one: A. A 61-year-old patient who is receiving humidified supplemental oxygen B. A 64-year-old patient who is given aspirin for suspected cardiac chest pain C. A 48-year-old patient whose airway is secured with a supraglottic device D. A 53-year-old patient who is assisted with his prescribed nitroglycerin

The amount of air that remains in the lungs simply to keep them open is called the: Select one: A. inspiratory reserve volume. B. tidal volume. C. residual volume. D. expiratory reserve volume.

The body's backup system of respiratory control, which is based on low concentrations of oxygen in the blood, is called the: Select one: A. oxyhemoglobin drive. B. hypocarbic drive. C. hypoxic drive. D. pneumotaxic drive.

The electrical impulse of the heart normally begins at the: Select one: A. bundle of His. B. Purkinje fibers. C. sinoatrial node. D. atrioventricular node.

The exocrine gland of the pancreas secretes: Select one: A. bile. B. glucose. C. pancreatic juice. D. insulin.

The muscle tissue of the heart is called the: Select one: A. pericardium. B. epicardium. C. myocardium. D. endocardium.

The smooth muscles that cause the artery to contract are found in the: Select one: A. tunica adventitia. B. lumen. C. tunica media. D. tunica intima.

27 The purpose of defibrillation is to: Select one: A. improve the chance of CPR being successful in resuscitation. B. prevent asystole from deteriorating into ventricular fibrillation. C. cause a rapid decrease in the heart rate of an unstable patient. D. stop the chaotic, disorganized contraction of the cardiac cells.

29 Which of the following patients would MOST likely have a delayed onset of an allergic reaction? Select one: A. A 21-year-old female who inhaled pollen B. A 30-year-old male who was stung by a bee C. A 50-year-old male who was exposed to latex D. A 45-year-old male who ingested penicillin

32 Your patient opens his eyes, moans, and pulls away from you when you pinch his trapezius muscle. You should assign a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of: Select one: A. 6. B. 9. C. 7. D. 8.

33 The process of binding or sticking to a surface is called: Select one: A. digestion. B. suspension. C. absorption. D. adsorption.

34 You are dispatched to a state park for a young female experiencing an allergic reaction. Your assessment reveals that her breathing is severely labored and her blood pressure is very low. You carry epinephrine auto-injectors on your ambulance and have been trained and approved by your medical director to administer them. As your partner gives the patient supplemental oxygen, you attempt to contact medical control but do not have a signal from your cell phone. You should: Select one: A. immediately load the patient into the ambulance, begin transport, and reattempt to contact medical control when you receive a cell signal. B. notify dispatch and request that a paramedic unit respond to the scene so they can administer epinephrine to the patient. C. place her in a supine position, keep her warm, begin transport to the hospital, and request a paramedic intercept en route. D. administer epinephrine to the patient, begin immediate transport, and attempt to contact medical control en route to the hospital.

43 Distributive shock occurs when: Select one: A. temporary but severe vasodilation causes a decrease in blood supply to the brain. B. an injury causes restriction of the heart muscle and impairs its pumping function. C. severe bleeding causes tachycardia in order to distribute blood to the organs faster. D. widespread dilation of the blood vessels causes blood to pool in the vascular beds.

44 The left cerebral hemisphere controls: Select one: A. heart rate and pupil reaction. B. the right side of the face. C. breathing and blood pressure. D. the right side of the body.

49 A 20-year-old male has a large laceration to his wrist. He is holding a blood-soaked towel over the wound, but it continues to bleed rapidly. You should: Select one: A. apply pressure to the brachial artery. B. administer high-flow supplemental oxygen. C. wrap the towel with pressure bandages. D. apply a tourniquet proximal to the wrist.

5 An EMT may administer aspirin to a patient if: Select one: A. the patient is currently experiencing hypotension. B. transport time to the hospital is greater than 30 minutes. C. the patient is believed to be experiencing an acute stroke. D. authorization from medical control has been obtained.

50 In an acute injury setting, neurogenic shock is commonly accompanied by: Select one: A. diaphoresis. B. hypovolemia. C. tachycardia. D. hypothermia.

52 Which of the following conditions would be LEAST likely to result in hypoxia? Select one: A. Pleural effusion B. Narcotic overdose C. Pulmonary edema D. Severe anxiety

54 Inadequate circulation of blood throughout the body is called ________. Select one: A. hypoxia B. perfusion C. hypotension D. shock

55 Which of the following helps filter the blood and has no digestive function? Select one: A. Small intestine B. Stomach C. Large intestine D. Spleen

56 Crackles (rales) are caused by _________. Select one: A. mucus in the larger airways B. severe bronchoconstriction C. narrowing of the upper airways D. air passing through fluid

6 Dyspnea is MOST accurately defined as: Select one: A. a marked increase in the exhalation phase. B. a complete cessation of respiratory effort. C. labored breathing with reduced tidal volume. D. shortness of breath or difficulty breathing.

6 Which of the following is a metabolic cause of a seizure? Select one: A. Brain tumor B. Head trauma C. Massive stroke D. Poisoning

Based on current guidelines, in which of the following situations should supplemental oxygen be administered? Select one: A. Any diabetic patient whose oxygen saturation is less than 98% B. Any elderly patient whose oxygen saturation is less than 95% C. Signs of myocardial infarction and an oxygen saturation of 97% D. Exposure to carbon monoxide and an oxygen saturation of 95%

Because a tracheostomy tube bypasses the nose and mouth: Select one: A. the risk of a local infection is significantly high. B. bleeding or air leakage may occur around the tube. C. severe swelling of the trachea and bronchi can occur. D. secretions can build up in and around the tube.

Because of the complexity of the older patient and the vagueness of his or her complaint, you should: Select one: A. perform a rapid assessment on all geriatric patients you treat. B. limit your physical examination to the area of pain or injury. C. rely exclusively on family members for the medical history. D. attempt to differentiate between chronic and acute problems.

Breath sounds in the pediatric population are more easily heard because: Select one: A. children typically have upper airway problems. B. the chest cavity is small in proportion to the rest of the body. C. the size of their lungs amplifies the sounds. D. their chest walls are thinner.

Cardiac monitoring, pharmacologic interventions, and other advanced treatment skills are functions of the: A. EMT. B. EMR. C. AEMT. D. paramedic.

Causes of vaginal bleeding include which of the following? Select one: A. Ectopic pregnancy B. Vaginal trauma C. Spontaneous abortion D. All of these answers are correct.

Common complications associated with central venous catheters include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. bleeding around the line. B. a local infection. C. clotting of the line. D. rupture of a central vein.

Common factors that influence how a patient reacts to the stress of an illness or injury include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. mental disorders. B. fear of medical personnel. C. history of chronic disease. D. assessment by the EMT.

Contraction of the right ventricle causes: Select one: A. closure of the mitral and aortic valves. B. a return of blood from the pulmonary veins. C. ejection of blood into the systemic circulation. D. blood to flow into the pulmonary circulation.

Cyanosis of the skin is caused by: Select one: A. venous vasoconstriction. B. peripheral vasodilation. C. increased blood oxygen. D. decreased blood oxygen.

Deformity caused by a fracture would MOST likely be masked by: Select one: A. crepitus. B. guarding. C. ecchymosis. D. swelling.

Determine the Apgar score in the following scenario: You arrive at the scene of a home delivery. Upon entering the scene, the father appears upset and hands you a limp baby. The child has a weak cry, is completely cyanotic, and has a pulse of 70 beats/min. Respirations are slow. Select one: A. 2 B. 9 C. 7 D. 3

Drowning is MOST accurately defined as: Select one: A. temporary survival after submersion in water. B. death beyond 24 hours after submersion in water. C. water in the lungs following submersion in water. D. death from suffocation after submersion in water.

During gynecologic emergencies, in addition to the standard SAMPLE questions, the EMT should attempt to determine which of the following? Select one: A. The amount of time since of the patent's last menstrual cycle B. The possibility that the patient may be pregnant C. If the patient is sexually active D. All of these answers are correct.

During your assessment of a 19-year-old male, you are told that he is being treated with factor VIII. This indicates that: Select one: A. he has a thrombosis. B. his blood clots too quickly. C. he has thrombophilia. D. he has hemophilia A.

Early bruising following abdominal trauma often manifests as: Select one: A. localized pain. B. dark-purple marks. C. gross distention. D. red areas of skin.

Early signs and symptoms of intra-abdominal bleeding include: Select one: A. significant hypotension. B. bruising only. C. widespread ecchymosis. D. pain and distention.

Enlargement of the liver is called: Select one: A. hydrocephalus. B. pneumonitis. C. nephritis. D. hepatomegaly.

External bleeding from an extremity can usually be controlled initially by: Select one: A. elevating the extremity. B. applying chemical ice packs. C. applying a tourniquet. D. applying direct pressure.

Extrication is defined as: Select one: A. dismantling an automobile to remove a victim. B. immobilizing a patient before moving him or her. C. using heavy equipment to access a patient. D. removal from a dangerous situation or position.

Femoral shaft fractures can result in up to _____ mL of internal blood loss. Select one: A. 4,000 B. 1,500 C. 2,000 D. 1,000

Hyperventilation could be associated with all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. a respiratory infection. B. an overdose of aspirin. C. high blood glucose levels. D. a narcotic overdose.

Hypotension, hypoventilation, and pinpoint pupils would be expected following an overdose of: Select one: A. crack cocaine. B. amphetamine sulfate (Benzedrine). C. ecstasy. D. oxycodone (Percocet).

Hypovolemic shock occurs when: Select one: A. the patient's systolic blood pressure is less than 100 mm Hg. B. at least 10% of the patient's blood volume is lost. C. the clotting ability of the blood is enhanced. D. the body cannot compensate for rapid blood loss.

If applying a dressing to control the bleeding of a patient's arm, the EMT should ________. Select one: A. apply direct pressure first B. use large or small gauze pads or dressings depending upon the size of the wound C. cover the entire wound, above and below, with the dressing D. All of these answers are correct.

In an apparent suicide attempt, a 19-year-old female ingested a full bottle of amitriptyline (Elavil). At present, she is conscious and alert and states that she swallowed the pills approximately 30 minutes earlier. Her blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg, her pulse is 140 beats/min and irregular, and her respirations are 22 breaths/min with adequate depth. When transporting this patient, you should be MOST alert for: Select one: A. an increase in her blood pressure. B. a sudden outburst of violence. C. acute respiratory depression. D. seizures and cardiac arrhythmias.

In cases of sexual assault, it is important to ensure that you do which of the following? Select one: A. Immediately write down your observations of the scene before assessing the patient. B. Call for a female EMT or ALS care provider. C. Discuss with law enforcement any suspicions that you may have about the perpetrator. D. All of these answers are correct.

In late adults, the amount of air left in the lungs after expiration of the maximum amount of air: Select one: A. decreases, resulting in widespread collapsing of the alveoli and impaired diffusion of gases. B. decreases, which increases diffusion in the lungs and causes an accumulation of carbon dioxide. C. remains unchanged because the lungs have become accustomed to years of breathing pollution. D. increases, which hampers diffusion of gases because of the stagnant air that remains in the alveoli.

In older patients, the first indicator of nontraumatic internal bleeding may be: Select one: A. a low blood pressure. B. a heart rate over 120 beats/min. C. diaphoresis and pale skin. D. weakness or dizziness.

Initial treatment to dislodge a severe foreign body airway obstruction in a responsive infant involves: Select one: A. blind finger sweeps. B. bag-valve mask ventilation. C. abdominal thrusts. D. back slaps.

Intrapulmonary shunting occurs when: Select one: A. any impairment in circulatory function causes a reduced ability for oxygen and carbon dioxide to diffuse across the alveolar-capillary membrane. B. the presence of pulmonary surfactant causes a decrease in alveolar surface tension, thus impairing the exchange of gases in the lungs. C. a decrease in respiratory rate and depth causes carbon dioxide accumulation in the alveoli and an overall decrease in blood oxygen levels. D. blood coming from the right side of the heart bypasses nonfunctional alveoli and returns to the left side of the heart in an unoxygenated state.

It would be MOST appropriate to perform a focused secondary assessment on a patient who: Select one: A. was restrained during a high-speed motor vehicle crash. B. struck his or her head and is experiencing nausea or vomiting. C. has blood draining from the ears following a head injury. D. fainted and fell to the ground from a standing position

Most patients with abdominal pain prefer to: Select one: A. lie in a supine position with their knees in a flexed position. B. sit in a semi-Fowler position with their knees slightly bent. C. sit fully upright because it helps relax the abdominal muscles. D. lie on their side with their knees drawn into the abdomen.

Palliating factors regarding a patient's pain involve those that: Select one: A. worsen the pain. B. initiate the pain. C. change the pain. D. alleviate the pain.

Patients with chest injuries will often present with _______. Select one: A. Kussmaul respirations B. Cheyne-Stokes respirations C. agonal respirations D. tachypnea

Peritonitis usually occurs when: Select one: A. solid abdominal organs bleed secondary to penetrating trauma. B. the vessels that supply the abdominal organs become inflamed. C. bacteria or viruses invade the walls of the gastrointestinal tract. D. hollow abdominal organs are damaged and spill their contents into the peritoneal cavity.

Placing a pregnant patient in a supine position during the third trimester of pregnancy: Select one: A. results in spontaneous urinary incontinence if the bladder is full. B. often causes hypotension secondary to cardiac compression. C. is recommended if the patient has severe abdominal discomfort. D. may decrease the amount of blood that returns to the heart.

Pleural fluid is contained between the: Select one: A. parietal pleura and the chest wall. B. parietal pleura and the heart. C. visceral pleura and the lung. D. visceral and parietal pleurae.

Prehospital patient care decisions should be based on __________. Select one: A. the opinions of physicians B. the experiences of EMTs C. an EMS agency's fiscal resources D. EMS research

Pupillary response in pediatric patients may be abnormal in the presence of all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. drugs. B. hypoxia. C. brain injury. D. anxiety.

Question 10 Continuing education in EMS serves to: Select one: A. enforce mandatory attendance at agency-specific training. B. confirm research and statistical findings in prehospital care. C. provide an ongoing review and audit of the EMS system. D. maintain, update, and expand the EMT's knowledge and skills.

Question 22 You are assessing a woman who was thrown from a horse. She is located in a large field and you can see that a thunderstorm is rapidly approaching. Suddenly, you feel your skin begin to tingle and the hair on your arms stands on end. The ambulance is located about 30 yards away. You should: Select one: A. quickly cover the patient with a blanket and then lie down flat on the ground. B. immediately lie down on your side and draw your knees into your abdomen. C. sit down, bend your knees, and hold your crossed arms close to your body. D. crouch down in a position so that only your feet are touching the ground.

Question 24 You arrive at the scene of a domestic violence situation. As you approach the doorway of the apartment, you hear screaming and the statement "He has a gun!" Your MOST appropriate action should be to: Select one: A. continue into the apartment and apprehend the gunman. B. continue into the apartment using extreme caution. C. get in your ambulance and leave the scene immediately. D. seek a safe place and request law enforcement assistance.

Question 28 The BEST way to reduce your risk of contracting a work-related disease following exposure is to: Select one: A. get vaccinated against the disease you think you were exposed to. B. vigorously wash the affected area with an antimicrobial solution. C. be evaluated by a physician within 72 hours following the exposure. D. activate your department's infection control plan as soon as possible.

Question 43 To minimize the risk of litigation, the EMT should: Select one: A. use universal precautions with every patient encounter. B. utilize at least four personnel when moving a patient. C. always transport patients to the hospital of their choice. D. provide competent care that meets current standards.

Question 44 Which of the following MOST accurately defines negligence? Select one: A. Transport of a mentally incompetent patient against his or her will B. Providing care that is consistent with care provided by other EMTs C. Transferring patient care to a provider with a lower level of training D. Deviation from the standard of care that may result in further injury

Question 46 A patient regains consciousness en route from his office to the emergency department. The patient tells you that he feels fine and does not want to go to the hospital. Under these circumstances, you should: Select one: A. document the patient's request but continue to transport him. B. request that the police place the patient under protective custody. C. have the patient sign a refusal form and return him to his office. D. assess whether the patient's mental condition is impaired.

Question 53 A patient's refusal of EMS treatment and/or transport must be: Select one: A. authorized by a judge. B. witnessed by a notary. C. reported to the police. D. an informed refusal.

Question 55 Which of the following is NOT a function of the Federal Communications Commission (FCC)? Select one: A. Monitoring all radio traffic and conducting field spot checks B. Licensing base stations and assigning appropriate radio call signs C. Allocating specific radio frequencies for use by EMS providers D. Maintaining communications equipment on the ambulance

Question 59 During the alert and dispatch phase of EMS communications, the dispatcher's responsibilities include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. screening and assigning a priority to each call based on local protocols. B. selecting and notifying the EMS response units and personnel. C. coordinating responding EMS units with other public safety personnel. D. discouraging the caller from providing care until the EMS unit arrives.

Question 64 The spread of HIV and hepatitis in the health care setting can usually be traced to: Select one: A. lack of proper immunizations. B. excessive blood splashing or splattering. C. noncompliance with standard precautions. D. careless handling of sharps.

Reassessment of a patient with a medical complaint should begin by: Select one: A. taking another set of vital signs. B. reviewing all treatment performed. C. reassessing the nature of illness. D. repeating the primary assessment.

Sedentary behavior while healing from a hip fracture would MOST likely predispose the older patient to: Select one: A. heart failure. B. ischemic stroke. C. osteoporosis. D. pneumonia.

Which of the following statements regarding HIV is correct? Select one: A. HIV is far more contagious than hepatitis B. B. HIV is transmitted exclusively via blood. C. HIV is easily transmittable in the EMS field. D. There is no vaccine against HIV infection.

Which of the following statements regarding abdominal eviscerations is correct? Select one: A. Adherent material is preferred when covering an evisceration. B. The organs should be replaced carefully to avoid heat loss. C. Most eviscerations occur to the left upper quadrant. D. The protruding organs should be kept warm and moist.

Which of the following statements regarding an infant's vital signs is correct? Select one: A. An infant's heart rate generally ranges between 70 and 110 beats/min. B. An infant's normal heart rate increases by 10 beats/min each month. C. By 6 months of age, an infant's normal tidal volume is 2 to 4 mL/kg. D. An infant's normal body temperature is typically higher than a preschooler's.

Which of the following statements regarding autism is correct? Select one: A. Impairment of motor activity is a classic sign of autism. B. Autism affects females four times greater than males. C. The majority of patients with autism do not speak at all. D. Most cases of autism are diagnosed by 3 years of age.

Which of the following statements regarding oxygenation and ventilation is correct? Select one: A. In carbon monoxide (CO) poisoning, ventilation is impaired because CO binds to oxygen very quickly. B. Oxygenation without adequate ventilation can occur in climbers who quickly ascend to an altitude of lower atmospheric pressure. C. Oxygenation is the movement of air into and out of the lungs, whereas ventilation is the exchange of gases. D. In mines or confined places, where oxygen levels are low, ventilation may continue despite adequate oxygenation.

Which of the following statements regarding patients with intellectual disabilities is correct? Select one: A. Most patients with intellectual disabilities have normal cognitive function, but abnormal physical features. B. Speaking with the patient's family is the least effective way to determine how much the patient understands. C. An intellectual disability differs from mental retardation in that it is the result of a congenital abnormality. D. Patients with intellectual disabilities are susceptible to the same disease processes as other patients.

Which of the following statements regarding the blood pressure is correct? Select one: A. Blood pressure is the most reliable indicator of perfusion. B. Blood pressure falls early in patients with hypoperfusion. C. The systolic pressure represents ventricular relaxation. D. Blood pressure is usually not measured in children younger than 3 years of age.

Which of the following statements regarding the different stages of the grieving process is correct? Select one: A. Bargaining is the most unpleasant stage of the grieving process. B. It is rare that people will jump back and forth between stages of the grieving process. C. The grieving process typically begins with severe depression. D. The stages of the grieving process may occur simultaneously.

Which of the following would MOST likely occur as the direct result of the second collision in a motor vehicle crash? Select one: A. Collapsed dashboard B. Intrathoracic hemorrhage C. Caved-in passenger door D. Deformed steering wheel

Which set of nerves is responsible for carrying information from the body to the central nervous system? Select one: A. Motor B. Vertebral C. Cranial D. Sensory

While assisting with respirations, you note gastric distention. In order to prevent or alleviate the distention, you should: Select one: A. ensure that the patient's airway is appropriately positioned. B. ventilate the patient at the appropriate rate. C. ventilate the patient at the appropriate volume. D. All of these answers are correct.

While eating dinner, your partner suddenly grabs his throat and has a panicked look on his face. He has a weak cough, faint inspiratory stridor, and cyanosis around the lips. You should: Select one: A. deliver up to five back blows and reassess him. B. encourage him to cough as forcefully as he can. C. place him in a supine position and open his airway. D. stand behind him and administer abdominal thrusts.

While providing CPAP to a patient in severe respiratory distress, you note that his heart rate has increased by 20 beats/min. He is conscious, but is no longer following verbal commands. You should: Select one: A. remove the CPAP device and apply oxygen by nonrebreathing mask. B. increase the amount of pressure that the CPAP device is delivering. C. decrease the amount of pressure that the CPAP device is delivering. D. remove the CPAP device and ventilate him with a bag-valve mask.

While providing care to a patient, blood got onto the ambulance stretcher. Because the stretcher was not properly cleaned afterward, a virus was transmitted to another emergency medical technician (EMT) several days later. Which route of transmission does this scenario describe? Select one: A. Airborne transmission B. Direct contact C. Vector-borne transmission D. Indirect contact

While staged at the scene of a structure fire, the EMT should _________. Select one: A. stay with the incident commander B. assess firefighters for signs of fatigue C. locate the safety officer D. remain with the ambulance

While triaging patients at the scene of a building collapse, you encounter a young child who is conscious, alert, and breathing; has bilateral radial pulses; and has a severely angulated leg, which is not bleeding. According to the JumpSTART triage system, you should: Select one: A. evacuate him to a designated area and assign him a minimal (green) category. B. quickly bind his legs together to stabilize the fracture, and continue triaging. C. apply high-flow oxygen, obtain baseline vital signs, and continue triaging. D. assign him a delayed (yellow) category and continue triaging the other patients

With regard to the pediatric rule of nines, the: Select one: A. head is proportionately smaller than an adult's. B. arms are proportionately larger than an adult's. C. thorax is proportionately larger than an adult's. D. legs are proportionately smaller than an adult's.

You are assessing a man with suspected hypothermia. The patient is conscious and alert, and is actively shivering. His respiratory rate is increased, but his breathing is unlabored, and the pulse oximeter reads 72%. The pulse oximetry reading is MOST likely: Select one: A. accurate because shivering affects hemoglobin binding. B. a direct reflection of his increased respiratory rate. C. accurate because he has signs of respiratory failure. D. secondary to decreased perfusion in the extremities.

You are attending to a 32-year-old male patient. The patient's wife tells you that he returned from Afghanistan last year. While he initially seemed fine, lately he has become withdrawn and distanced himself from his family and friends. He does not talk about it, but she knows that he has been having terrible nightmares that wake him up. The most appropriate question to ask regarding his experience in Afghanistan is: Select one: A. Can you tell me about your experience? B. Have you ever been diagnosed with PTSD? C. Were you in combat? D. Were you shot at or under fire?

You are called to a construction site where a 27-year-old worker has fallen from the second floor. He landed on his back and is drifting in and out of consciousness. A quick assessment reveals no bleeding or blood loss. His blood pressure is 90/60 mm Hg with a pulse rate of 110 beats/min. His airway is open and breathing is within normal limits. You realize the patient is in shock. The patient's shock is due to an injury to the: Select one: A. cervical vertebrae. B. peripheral nerves. C. skull. D. spinal cord.

You are dispatched to a public park in the middle of a sprawling subdivision for an arm injury. You arrive to find a crying 5-year-old boy cradling his swollen and deformed left forearm. His friends tell you that he was holding onto the bars of the play structure and that his arm "snapped" when he jumped into the sand below. You would expect this boy's pulse to be: Select one: A. higher than 150 beats/min. B. around 70 beats/min. C. between 60 and 80 beats/min. D. most likely above 90 beats/min.

You are standing by at the scene of a hostage situation when the incident commander advises you that one of his personnel has been shot. The patient is lying supine in an open area and is not moving. As the SWAT team escorts you to the patient, you should: Select one: A. perform a rapid assessment and move him to a place of safety. B. treat only critical injuries before moving him to a safe place. C. limit your primary assessment to airway and breathing only. D. grab him by the clothes and immediately move him to safety.

You are transporting a 42-year-old male who experienced blunt abdominal trauma. He is receiving oxygen at 12 L/min via a nonrebreathing mask and full spinal precautions have been applied. During your reassessment, you note his level of consciousness has decreased and his respirations have become shallow. You should: Select one: A. perform a comprehensive secondary assessment to determine why his clinical status has changed. B. reassess his vital signs and then notify the receiving hospital of the change in his clinical status. C. suction his oropharynx to ensure it is clear of secretions and then increase the oxygen flow rate to 15 L/min. D. insert an airway adjunct if he will tolerate it and begin assisting his ventilations with a BVM.

You arrive at a local grocery store approximately 5 minutes after a 21-year-old female stopped seizing. She is confused and disoriented; she keeps asking you what happened and tells you that she is thirsty. Her brother, who witnessed the seizure, tells you that she takes valproate (Depakote) for her seizures, but has not taken it in a few days. He also tells you that she has diabetes. In addition to administering oxygen, you should: Select one: A. give her small cups of water to drink and observe for further seizure activity. B. place her in the recovery position and transport her with lights and siren. C. administer one tube of oral glucose and prepare for immediate transport. D. monitor her airway and breathing status and assess her blood glucose level.

You receive a call to a daycare center for an unresponsive 8-month-old infant. Upon arrival, you perform an assessment and determine that the infant is not breathing. Your next action should be to: Select one: A. begin chest compressions and request backup. B. open the airway and give two rescue breaths. C. immediately transport the child to the hospital. D. assess for a brachial pulse for 5 to 10 seconds.

You respond to a 38-year-old man who fell while rock climbing. He is unconscious with an open airway. The respiration and pulse rates are within normal limits. His distal pulses are intact. You check his pupils and find that they are unequal. You know this could be a sign of: Select one: A. seizure activity. B. chronic hypertension. C. hypoxia. D. increased intracranial pressure.

The leading cause of maternal death in the first trimester is internal hemorrhage into the abdomen following rupture of a(n) ____

ectopic pregnancy

Among elderly persons ___ function in the 5 years preceding death is presumed to decline.

mental

Children not only have a higher metabolic rate, but also a higher ______ which is twice that of an adult.

oxygen demand

The _______ is a structured assessment tool that allows you to rapidly form a general impression of the pediatric patient's condition without touching him or her.

pediatric assessment triangle

By ___ to 24 months, toddlers begin to understand cause and effect.

In toddlers, the pulse rate is ___ beats/min.

90-150

10 In contrast to the sympathetic nervous system, the parasympathetic nervous system: Select one: A. slows the heart and respiratory rates. B. causes an increase in the heart rate. C. dilates the blood vessels in the muscles. D. prepares the body to handle stress.

16 In contrast to the parietal peritoneum, the visceral peritoneum: Select one: A. is supplied by nerves of the autonomic nervous system, which are less able to localize pain or sensation. B. lines the walls of the abdominal cavity and is stimulated when the solid abdominal organs contract. C. is less likely to become inflamed or infected because it lines the abdominal organs themselves. D. is supplied by the same nerves from the spinal cord that supply the skin of the abdomen.

16 Which of the following statements regarding anaphylactic shock is correct? Select one: A. Subsequent exposure after sensitization often produces a more severe reaction. B. Anaphylactic shock occurs immediately after a person is sensitized to an allergen. C. Sensitized people will experience less severe reactions upon subsequent exposure. D. Anaphylactic shock is caused by immune system failure due to a toxic exposure.

17 A young male is unresponsive after overdosing on an opioid. He is not breathing and his pulse is weak. The EMT should immediately: Select one: A. ventilate with a BVM. B. request an ALS ambulance. C. begin chest compressions. D. administer naloxone.

18 When assessing an unresponsive diabetic patient, the primary visible difference between hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia is the: Select one: A. rate and depth of breathing. B. rate of the patient's pulse. C. presence of a medical identification tag. D. patient's mental status.

19 To which of the following diabetic patients should you administer oral glucose? Select one: A. A confused 55-year-old male with tachycardia and pallor B. A semiconscious 40-year-old female without a gag reflex C. An unconscious 33-year-old male with cool, clammy skin D. A conscious 37-year-old female with nausea and vomiting

19 The proper depth of chest compressions on a 9-month-old infant is: Select one: A. one-third the diameter of the chest, or about 1½ inches. B. one-half the diameter of the chest, or about 1½ inches. C. one-half to two-thirds the diameter of the chest. D. two-thirds the diameter of the chest, or about 2 inches.

2 The mental status of a patient who has experienced a generalized seizure: Select one: A. is likely to improve over a period of 5 to 30 minutes. B. is easily differentiated from that of acute hypoglycemia. C. progressively worsens over a period of a few hours. D. typically does not improve, even after several minutes.

20 When obtaining a SAMPLE history from a patient with diabetes, it would be MOST important to determine: Select one: A. if he or she has had any recent illnesses or excessive stress. B. the name of the physician who prescribed his or her insulin. C. approximately how much water the patient drank that day. D. if there is a family history of diabetes or related conditions.

21 Common signs and symptoms of severe hyperglycemia include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. cool, clammy skin. B. rapid, thready pulse. C. warm, dry skin. D. acetone breath odor.

21 It would be MOST appropriate for a patient to take his or her prescribed nitroglycerin when experiencing: Select one: A. chest pain that does not immediately subside with rest. B. difficulty breathing that awakens the patient from sleep. C. an acute onset of dizziness during a period of exertion. D. sharp chest pain that lasts longer than 10 to 15 minutes.

22 If gastric distention begins to make positive-pressure ventilation difficult, you should: Select one: A. reposition the patient's airway. B. increase the rate of ventilation. C. suction the patient's oropharynx. D. insert an oropharyngeal airway.

24 What is the function of the left atrium? Select one: A. It receives oxygenated blood from the lungs. B. It ejects oxygenated blood into the aorta. C. It receives oxygenated blood from the vena cava. D. It receives blood from the pulmonary arteries.

24 The MOST appropriate treatment for a patient with a mild upper airway obstruction includes: Select one: A. administering oxygen and transporting immediately. B. advising the patient not to make any attempts to cough. C. performing five back blows and five abdominal thrusts. D. visualizing the airway and removing the obstruction.

27 Because the stinger of a honeybee remains in the wound following a sting: Select one: A. it can continue to inject venom for up to 20 minutes. B. the body's immune system deactivates the bee's venom. C. the stinger should quickly be removed with tweezers. D. the toxicity of the venom decreases within 10 minutes.

27 Which of the following statements regarding methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is correct? Select one: A. MRSA is a bacterium that causes infections and is resistant to most antibiotics. B. The communicable period for MRSA is 10 days to 2 weeks after being infected. C. Most cases of MRSA transmission occur following an accidental needlestick. D. Studies have shown that fewer than 1% of health care providers are MRSA carriers.

28 End-tidal carbon dioxide (ETCO2) monitoring is clearly indicated for patients who present with: Select one: A. respiratory distress. B. abdominal pain. C. high blood pressure. D. headache.

29 Major risk factors for AMI include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. hypoglycemia. B. diabetes mellitus. C. elevated cholesterol. D. hypertension.

3 When the level of arterial carbon dioxide rises above normal: Select one: A. respirations increase in rate and depth. B. exhalation lasts longer than inhalation. C. the brain stem inhibits respirations. D. respirations decrease in rate and depth.

30 The AED has delivered a shock to an elderly male in cardiac arrest. Following 2 minutes of CPR, you re-analyze the patient's cardiac rhythm and receive a "no shock advised" message. After further resuscitation, you restore a palpable carotid pulse. Your next action should be to: Select one: A. reassess airway and breathing and treat accordingly. B. obtain a blood pressure and apply the pulse oximeter. C. transport at once and re-analyze his rhythm en route. D. place him in the recovery position and apply oxygen.

30 Assessment of a patient's blood pressure with an automatic BP cuff reveals that it is 204/120 mm Hg. The patient is conscious and alert and denies any symptoms. The EMT should: Select one: A. obtain a manual blood pressure. B. conclude that she has hypertension. C. prepare for immediate transport. D. reassess her blood pressure in 5 minutes.

33 The descending aorta divides into the two iliac arteries at the level of the: Select one: A. umbilicus. B. nipple line. C. iliac crest. D. pubic symphysis.

34 Which of the following conditions would be the LEAST likely to mimic the signs and symptoms of a stroke? Select one: A. Hypovolemia B. Intracranial bleeding C. Hypoglycemia D. A postictal state

36 The right coronary artery supplies blood to the: Select one: A. right ventricle and inferior wall of the left ventricle. B. right atrium and posterior wall of the right ventricle. C. left ventricle and posterior wall of the right ventricle. D. left ventricle and inferior wall of the right atrium.

37 Upon arriving at the residence of a patient with a possible cardiac problem, it is MOST important to: Select one: A. assess the scene for potential hazards. B. request a paramedic unit for assistance. C. determine if you need additional help. D. gain immediate access to the patient.

4 Nitroglycerin, when given to patients with cardiac-related chest pain: Select one: A. relaxes the walls of the coronary arteries. B. constricts the veins throughout the body. C. increases myocardial contraction force. D. increases blood return to the right atrium.

40 When preparing to obtain a 12-lead ECG, the V1 and V2 electrodes should be placed: Select one: A. on either side of the sternum. B. in the midaxillary line. C. on the left and right arms. D. in the midclavicular line.

40 Advil, Nuprin, and Motrin are trade names for the generic medication: Select one: A. ibuprofen. B. aspirin. C. nitrostat. D. acetaminophen.

47 Which of the following injuries would MOST likely cause obstructive shock? Select one: A. Cardiac tamponade B. Simple pneumothorax C. Spinal cord injury D. Liver laceration

49 You are caring for a 68-year-old man with sudden onset of left-sided paralysis and slurred speech. His airway is patent, his respirations are 14 breaths/min with adequate depth, and his oxygen saturation is 98%. Treatment for this patient should include: Select one: A. recovery position and transport. B. high-flow oxygen and transport. C. ventilatory assistance and transport. D. oral glucose gel and transport.

50 Which of the following MOST accurately describes a simple partial seizure? Select one: A. A seizure that begins in one extremity B. A generalized seizure without incontinence C. A seizure that causes the patient to stare blankly D. A seizure that is not preceded by an aura

62 His parents tell you that their son has had a chest infection for the past two days and when they took him to their family doctor, they were told it was likely due to the respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). They have kept him well hydrated, but the infection seems to have gotten worse. On auscultation, you hear decreased air entry bilaterally with fine expiratory wheezes and the occasional coarse wet crackle. Based on this information, your patient is most likely suffering from: Select one: A. bronchiolitis. B. pertussis. C. croup. D. epiglottitis.

63 In what area of the lungs does respiration occur? Select one: A. Alveoli B. Bronchi C. Capillaries D. Trachea

63 Basic life support (BLS) is defined as: Select one: A. noninvasive emergency care that is used to treat conditions such as airway obstruction, respiratory arrest, and cardiac arrest. B. invasive emergency medical interventions such as intravenous therapy, manual defibrillation, and advanced airway management. C. any form of emergency medical treatment that is performed by advanced EMTs, paramedics, physicians, and emergency nurses. D. basic lifesaving treatment that is performed by bystanders while EMS providers are en route to the scene of an emergency.

65 Your patient complains of chronic "burning" stomach pain that improves after eating. You should suspect: Select one: A. peptic ulcer disease. B. pneumonia. C. kidney stones. D. aortic aneurysm.

65 Signs of a sudden severe upper airway obstruction include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. forceful coughing. B. acute cyanosis. C. inability to speak. D. grasping the throat.

67 Which of the following is a genetic disorder that predisposes the patient to repeated lung infections? Select one: A. Cystic fibrosis B. Celiac sprue C. Multiple sclerosis D. Severe acute respiratory syndrome

68 Which of the following is MOST characteristic of adequate breathing? Select one: A. 24 breaths/min with bilaterally equal breath sounds and pink skin B. 22 breaths/min with an irregular pattern of breathing and cyanosis C. 20 breaths/min with shallow movement of the chest wall and pallor D. 30 breaths/min with supraclavicular retractions and clammy skin

69 Risk factors for AMI that cannot be controlled include: Select one: A. family history. B. excess stress. C. lack of exercise. D. hyperglycemia.

69 While rescuer one is finishing his or her fifth cycle of 30 compressions, rescuer two should: Select one: A. move to the opposite side of the patient's chest. B. give two breaths and prepare to start compressions. C. suction the patient's mouth and give two more ventilations. D. assess for a carotid pulse for 15 seconds.

At what age does separation anxiety typically peak in infants and small children? Select one: A. 10 to 18 months B. 18 to 24 months C. 6 to 8 months D. 24 to 36 months

71 You and your partner arrive at the scene of a middle-aged man who collapsed about 5 minutes ago. He is unresponsive, apneic, and pulseless. Bystanders are present, but have not provided any care. You should: Select one: A. begin high-quality CPR and apply the AED as soon as possible. B. perform two-rescuer CPR for 5 minutes and request ALS backup. C. have your partner perform CPR while you question the bystanders. D. immediately apply the AED pads and analyze his cardiac rhythm.

75 The electrical impulse generated by the heart originates in the: Select one: A. sinoatrial node. B. coronary sinus. C. bundle of His. D. atrioventricular node.

84 You are attending to a 27-year-old male driver of a car. According to his passenger, the patient had been acting strangely while driving, then slumped forward against the steering wheel, apparently unconscious. The car drove off the road and struck a telephone pole. The patient remains unconscious, and physical assessment reveals only a large hematoma on his right forehead with no other physical signs. Your patient is a diabetic who had been under a lot of stress lately and may have missed meals. This is an example of a: Select one: A. combination of a medical and trauma emergency. B. medical emergency. C. combination of a psychiatric and trauma emergency. D. trauma emergency.

87 A dissecting aortic aneurysm occurs when: Select one: A. the inner layers of the aorta become separated. B. the aorta ruptures, resulting in profound bleeding. C. a weakened area develops in the aortic wall. D. all layers of the aorta suddenly contract.

A 12-year-old male jumped approximately 12 feet from a tree and landed on his feet. He complains of pain to his lower back. What injury mechanism is MOST likely responsible for his back pain? Select one: A. Energy transmission to the spine B. Secondary fall after the initial impact C. Lateral impact to the spine D. Direct trauma to the spinal column

A 15-year-old female was struck by a small car while riding her bicycle. She was wearing a helmet and was thrown to the ground, striking her head. In addition to managing problems associated with airway, breathing, and circulation, it is MOST important for you to: Select one: A. stabilize her entire spine. B. leave her bicycle helmet on. C. inspect the helmet for cracks. D. obtain baseline vital signs.

A 17-year-old female dislocated her patella while playing soccer. Her knee is flexed and she complains of severe pain. You should: Select one: A. keep her knee flexed and secure it with padded board splints. B. flex her knee slightly more and assess for distal circulation. C. gently straighten her knee and apply a padded board splint. D. make one attempt to return the patella to its normal position.

A 19-year-old female has just been extricated from her severely damaged car. She is on a long backboard and has been moved to a place of safety. As your partner maintains manual stabilization of her head, you perform a rapid assessment. The patient is unresponsive, has slow and shallow respirations, and has bilaterally closed femur deformities. You should: Select one: A. direct your partner to begin ventilatory assistance. B. obtain baseline vital signs and transport at once. C. stabilize her legs with long board splints. D. apply oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask.

A 2-year-old female has experienced a seizure. When you arrive at the scene, the child is conscious, crying, and clinging to her mother. Her skin is hot and moist. The mother tells you that the seizure lasted approximately 5 minutes. She further tells you that her daughter has no history of seizures, but has had a recent ear infection. You should: Select one: A. cool the child with tepid water and transport to the hospital. B. place the child in cold water to attempt to reduce her fever. C. suspect that the child has meningitis and transport at once. D. allow the mother to drive her daughter to the hospital.

A 21-year-old male was working in an auto repair shop and sustained radiator burns to the anterior aspect of both arms and to his anterior chest. According to the rule of nines, this patient has burns that cover _____ of his BSA. Select one: A. 18% B. 36% C. 27% D. 45%

A 39-year-old male sustained a large laceration to his leg during an accident with a chainsaw and is experiencing signs and symptoms of shock. You should first: Select one: A. follow appropriate standard precautions. B. perform a rapid head-to-toe assessment. C. apply direct pressure to the wound. D. place the patient on high-flow oxygen.

A 39-year-old male was struck in the head by a baseball during a game. He is confused and has slurred speech. He has a large hematoma in the center of his forehead and cannot remember the events preceding the injury. After manually stabilizing his head and assessing his airway, you should: Select one: A. administer high-flow oxygen. B. perform a neurologic exam. C. apply ice to the hematoma. D. palpate his radial pulses.

A 47-year-old male presents with severe abdominal pain of 3 hours' duration. His abdomen is distended and guarded. Your MOST important consideration for this patient should be to: Select one: A. be alert for signs and symptoms of shock. B. transport him in a supine position. C. assess his blood pressure to determine perfusion adequacy. D. determine the exact location and cause of his pain.

A 5-year-old child has had severe vomiting and diarrhea for 4 days. Which of the following assessment findings would be the MOST indicative of decompensated shock? Select one: A. Blood pressure of 70/40 mm Hg B. Respiratory rate of 30 breaths/min C. Capillary refill time of 4 seconds D. Pulse rate greater than 120/min

A 50-year-old male presents with altered mental status. His wife tells you that he had a "small stroke" three years ago but has otherwise been in good health. The patient is responsive but unable to follow commands. After administering oxygen if needed, you should: Select one: A. prepare for immediate transport. B. perform a head-to-toe assessment. C. repeat the primary assessment. D. inquire about his family history.

Children are often "belly breathers" because _______. Select one: A. their intercostal muscles are not developed B. their diaphragm is not functional C. they are routinely hypoxic D. they are consciously controlling ventilations

Circulation of blood within an organ or tissue in adequate amounts to meet the cells' oxygen, nutritional, and waste-removal needs is termed _______. Select one: A. perfusion B. hemorrhage C. hypoperfusion D. coagulation

A 58-year-old man complains of chest discomfort and nausea. He is conscious and alert; his blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg, his pulse is 104 beats/min, and his respirations are 16 breaths/min. Your partner has applied supplemental oxygen. Prior to assisting the patient with one of his prescribed nitroglycerin tablets, you ask him if he takes medication to treat erectile dysfunction (ED) and he tells you that he does. You should: Select one: A. ask him what he takes, how much, and when he last took it. B. administer his nitroglycerin and then reassess his blood pressure. C. avoid giving him nitroglycerin and transport him at once. D. recall that erectile ED drugs can cause significant hypertension.

A 67-year-old female presents with difficulty breathing and chest discomfort that awakened her from her sleep. She states that she has congestive heart failure, has had two previous heart attacks, and has been prescribed nitroglycerin. She is conscious and alert with adequate breathing. Her blood pressure is 94/64 mm Hg and her heart rate is 120 beats/min. Treatment for this patient includes: Select one: A. placing her in an upright position. B. ventilations with a BVM. C. nitroglycerin for her chest pain. D. oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula.

A 77-year-old woman slipped and fell on a throw rug and landed on her left hip. She denies striking her head or losing consciousness. Assessment of her left leg reveals that it is shortened and externally rotated. Distal pulses, sensory, and motor functions are intact. You should: Select one: A. place her onto a scoop stretcher, pad around her left hip with pillows, and secure her to the scoop with straps. B. carefully slide a long backboard underneath her, keep her in a supine position, and apply a splint to her leg. C. manually stabilize her left leg, apply a traction splint, and then secure her to a long backboard or scoop. D. bind both of her legs together with triangular bandages and carefully secure her onto the ambulance stretcher.

A blood pressure cuff that is too small for a patient's arm will give a: Select one: A. falsely high systolic and diastolic reading. B. falsely high systolic but low diastolic reading. C. falsely low systolic but high diastolic reading. D. falsely low systolic and diastolic reading.

A strangulated hernia is one that: Select one: A. loses its blood supply due to compression by local tissues. B. can be pushed back into the body cavity to which it belongs. C. is reducible if surgical intervention occurs within 2 hours. D. spontaneously reduces without any surgical intervention.

A temporary loss or alteration of part or all of the brain's abilities to function without physical damage to the brain MOST accurately describes a(n): Select one: A. cerebral concussion. B. cerebral contusion. C. intracranial hemorrhage. D. intracerebral hematoma.

A young female experienced a laceration to her left eyeball from flying glass when her boyfriend broke a soda bottle against a wall. There is moderate bleeding and the patient states that she cannot see out of the injured eye. You should: Select one: A. avoid applying pressure to the globe when you are covering the eye. B. carefully examine her eye and remove any foreign objects if needed. C. apply firm direct pressure to the injured eye and cover the opposite eye. D. ask her to move the injured eye to assess the integrity of the optic nerve.

According to the American College of Surgeons Committee on Trauma (ACS-COT), an adult trauma patient should be transported to the highest level of trauma center if he or she: Select one: A. has a GCS score of less than or equal to 13 with a mechanism attributed to trauma. B. has a bleeding disorder or takes anticoagulant medications and has any blunt or penetrating injury. C. has a systolic blood pressure of less than 110 mm Hg or a heart rate greater than 110 beats/min. D. was involved in a motor vehicle crash in which another patient in the same vehicle was killed.

After administering 0.3 mg of epinephrine via auto-injector to a 22-year-old woman with an allergic reaction, you note improvement in her breathing and dissipation of her hives. However, she is still anxious and tachycardic. You should: Select one: A. monitor her closely but recall that anxiety and tachycardia are side effects of epinephrine. B. consider administering 0.15 mg of epinephrine to completely resolve her allergic reaction. C. contact medical control and obtain authorization to administer another 0.3 mg of epinephrine. D. transport her rapidly, as it is obvious that she is having a severe reaction to the epinephrine.

After performing a primary assessment, a rapid exam of the body should be performed to: Select one: A. identify less-obvious injuries that require immediate treatment. B. determine the need for spinal motion restriction precautions. C. find and treat injuries or conditions that do not pose a threat to life. D. look specifically for signs and symptoms of inadequate perfusion.

After your partner assumes manual in-line stabilization of the patient's head, you should: Select one: A. assess distal neurovascular status in the extremities. B. thoroughly palpate the patient's head for deformities. C. use four people to log roll the patient onto a backboard. D. apply an appropriately sized rigid cervical collar.

Air bags are designed to: Select one: A. decrease the severity of deceleration injuries. B. be used with or without a shoulder harness. C. prevent the driver from sustaining head trauma. D. prevent a second collision inside the car.

As the bronchus divides into smaller bronchioles, the terminal ends of these smaller passages form the: Select one: A. alveoli. B. capillaries. C. bronchi. D. pleura.

As you and your partner report for duty, you check your ambulance and begin talking about the possibility of a terrorist attack. The MOST effective and appropriate way to determine the likelihood of this happening is to: Select one: A. know the current threat level issued by the Department of Homeland Security. B. ask your immediate supervisor if he or she has been watching the local news. C. check with local businesses to see if they have received any terrorist threats. D. ascertain the current situation overseas with regard to the number of casualties.

At present, the likelihood of a nuclear attack against the United States is very low because: Select one: A. terrorist nations do not have the ability to deliver a nuclear weapon via missile or bomb. B. other than the United States, no other countries are currently in possession of nuclear weapons. C. all nuclear devices or weapons that different countries are in possession of are currently accounted for. D. the United States has an effective early warning system to detect an incoming nuclear missile.

EMTs receive a call for a possible sexual assault. The patient is a young female who is conscious and alert and has no apparent injuries. She states, "I cannot remember anything, but I know I was raped." The EMTs should suspect that: Select one: A. the patient was given a drug prior to the incident. B. the patient knew her attacker, but is afraid to say. C. an underlying head injury is causing her amnesia. D. the traumatic experience has created a mental block.

Following blunt trauma to the face, a 21-year-old male complains of a severe headache and decreased ability to move his eyes. This patient's clinical presentation is MOST consistent with: Select one: A. a blowout fracture. B. a ruptured eyeball. C. optic vessel compression. D. a lacerated globe.

Following delivery of a full-term baby, you have properly cared for the baby and have clamped and cut the umbilical cord. During transport, you note that the mother is experiencing moderate vaginal bleeding. You should: Select one: A. firmly massage the uterine fundus with a circular motion. B. elevate her legs 6 to 8 inches and cover her with a blanket. C. carefully insert a sterile trauma dressing into her vagina. D. place her legs together and position her on her left side.

Following direct trauma to the left upper back, a 44-year-old male presents with diaphoresis and restlessness. His blood pressure is 100/50 mm Hg, his pulse rate is 120 beats/min and weak, and his respirations are 24 breaths/min and labored. Your assessment reveals abrasions and contusions over the left scapula. You should: Select one: A. apply high-flow oxygen, consider spinal precautions, and transport without delay. B. hyperventilate him with a BVM and monitor his oxygen saturation. C. apply high-flow oxygen, perform a detailed secondary assessment, and transport. D. focus your assessment on his scapulae and clavicles and apply high-flow oxygen.

Hemoglobin is a molecule that attaches to ___________ and carries oxygen. Select one: A. erythrocytes B. monocytes C. thrombocytes D. leukocytes

High humidity reduces the body's ability to lose heat through: Select one: A. evaporation. B. radiation. C. convection. D. conduction.

Hydroplaning of the ambulance on wet roads would MOST likely occur at speeds of greater than _____ mph. Select one: A. 30 B. 15 C. 10 D. 20

Hypothermia can worsen internal bleeding secondary to: Select one: A. blood-clotting abnormalities. B. severe muscular rigidity. C. a decreased heart rate. D. cardiac arrhythmias.

Hypothermia occurs when the core body temperature falls below: Select one: A. 95°F (35°C). B. 98°F (37°C). C. 88°F (31°C). D. 90°F (32°C)

If a dislocated shoulder has spontaneously reduced before your arrival, the only way to confirm the injury is by noting: Select one: A. the patient history. B. bruising to the shoulder. C. the presence of deformity. D. distal circulation.

If a technical rescue team is required at the scene, but is not present when you arrive, you should: Select one: A. check with the incident commander to ensure that the team is en route. B. have fire personnel initiate the rescue process if they are at the scene. C. remain with your ambulance until the rescue team arrives at the scene. D. don personal protective equipment and begin the rescue process.

If one or more occupants in the same vehicle are killed in a crash, the EMT should: Select one: A. suspect that all living occupants experienced the same serious trauma. B. transport the survivors only if they have injuries or complain of pain. C. allow the survivors to refuse transport if they have no obvious injuries. D. rapidly assess only the survivors who have experienced obvious trauma.

Immediately upon arriving at the scene of an emergency call involving a traumatic injury, you should notify the dispatcher of your arrival and then: Select one: A. observe the scene for safety hazards. B. quickly gain access to the patient. C. determine if additional units are needed. D. carefully assess the mechanism of injury.

In contrast to a cerebral concussion, a cerebral contusion: Select one: A. involves physical injury to the brain tissue. B. usually does not cause a loss of consciousness. C. does not cause pressure within the skull. D. results from a laceration to the brain tissue.

In contrast to bleeding caused by external trauma to the vagina, bleeding caused by conditions such as polyps or cancer: Select one: A. may be relatively painless. B. is typically not as severe. C. can be controlled in the field. D. often presents with acute pain.

In contrast to inhalation, exhalation: Select one: A. is a passive process caused by increased intrathoracic pressure. B. requires muscular effort to effectively expel air from the lungs. C. occurs when the diaphragm lowers and expels air from the lungs. D. is an active process caused by decreased intrathoracic pressure.

In contrast to the brown recluse spider, the black widow spider: Select one: A. is large and has a red-orange hourglass mark on its abdomen. B. has a bite that usually produces local pain but no systemic signs or symptoms. C. has a bite that is typically painless until a blister develops. D. is very small and has a violin-shaped marking on its back

In order to avoid exacerbating a patient's injury, it is especially important to use extreme caution when providing positive-pressure ventilation to patients with a: Select one: A. pneumothorax. B. cardiac tamponade. C. flail chest. D. myocardial contusion.

In supine patients with a head injury, the head should be elevated _____ to help reduce intracranial pressure. Select one: A. 30 degrees B. 40 degrees C. 20 degrees D. 10 degrees

In the adult, bradycardia is defined as a pulse rate less than _______ beats/min, and tachycardia is defined as a heart rate greater than _______ beats/min. Select one: A. 60, 100 B. 30, 130 C. 40, 120 D. 50, 110

In which of the following patients should you remove an impaled object? Select one: A. A pulseless and apneic patient with a knife impaled in the back B. A semiconscious patient with an ice pick impaled in the chest C. An apneic patient with a shard of glass impaled in the abdomen D. A conscious and alert patient with a fishhook impaled in the eye

In which of the following situations would the EMTs MOST likely utilize a police escort? Select one: A. The EMTs are unfamiliar with the location, but the police officer knows the area. B. The weather is treacherous and there are numerous roads washed out. C. The EMTs are transporting a critical pediatric patient through traffic. D. The call is dispatched as an unresponsive patient with CPR in progress.

Infection should be considered a possible cause of an airway obstruction in an infant or child, especially if he or she presents with: Select one: A. drooling or congestion. B. extreme restlessness. C. acute respiratory distress. D. skin that is cool and dry.

Inflammation and swelling of the pharynx, larynx, and trachea resulting in a "seal bark" cough are typically caused by: Select one: A. croup. B. chronic bronchitis. C. emphysema. D. epiglottitis.

Injury to the head and neck may indicate injury to the: Select one: A. cervical spine. B. thoracic spine. C. sacral spine. D. lumbar spine.

Kidney function declines by _________________ between the ages of 20 and 90 years. Select one: A. 50% B. 45% C. 10% D. 20%

Most cases of anthrax begin with: Select one: A. flulike symptoms. B. respiratory distress. C. pulmonary edema. D. signs of shock.

Multiple people in a small town began experiencing abdominal cramps, excessive salivation and urination, and muscle twitching shortly after a small crop duster plane made several passes over the community. As you are assessing the patients, you further determine that most of them are bradycardic and have miosis. In addition to high-flow oxygen, the MOST appropriate treatment for these patients includes: Select one: A. atropine and pralidoxime chloride. B. epinephrine and hyperbaric oxygen. C. activated charcoal and glucose. D. amyl nitrate and naloxone.

Nitroglycerin relieves the squeezing or crushing pain associated with angina by: Select one: A. dilating the arteries to increase the oxygen supply to the heart muscle. B. causing the heart to contract harder and increase cardiac output. C. causing the heart to beat faster to supply more oxygen to the heart. D. All of these answers are correct.

Observations made when forming a general impression of a patient would include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. pulse strength. B. level of distress. C. race and gender. D. appearance.

Once the infant's head has been delivered: Select one: A. suction the infant's mouth, then the nose. B. apply a nasal cannula at 3 L/min to the infant. C. apply oxygen over the mother's vagina. D. suction the infant's nose, and then the mouth.

Proper technique for suctioning the oropharynx of an adult patient includes: Select one: A. suctioning while withdrawing the catheter from the oropharynx. B. continuously suctioning patients with copious oral secretions. C. suctioning for up to 1 minute if the patient is well oxygenated. D. removing large, solid objects with a tonsil-tip suction catheter.

Question 11 You and your partner respond to the residence of a 66-year-old male with shortness of breath. As you are assessing the patient, his wife tells you that he was recently diagnosed with lung cancer. The patient is verbally abusive and tells you that failure of the health care system caused his disease. Which stage of the grieving process is this patient's behavior consistent with? Select one: A. Anger B. Denial C. Bargaining D. Depression

Question 15 Common questions asked by patients with a serious illness or injury include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. "Which hospital am I going to?" B. "Will I be permanently disabled?" C. "Am I going to die?" D. "What are you doing to me?"

Question 27 According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), recommended immunizations and tests include a: Select one: A. tetanus/diphtheria/pertussis booster every 10 years. B. two-shot hepatitis A vaccination series. C. smallpox vaccine every 5 years. D. TB skin test every 6 months.

Question 29 You and your partner are EMTs who have been dispatched to stand by at the scene of a residential fire. While standing next to the ambulance observing the firefighters, you see a woman frantically moving around in her burning house. You should: Select one: A. immediately notify the incident commander or safety officer. B. stay where you are until firefighters remove her from the house. C. don a self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA) and rescue the woman. D. request permission from the fire chief to enter the structure.

Question 31 Which of the following statements is MOST consistent with the bargaining phase of the grieving process? Select one: A. "I will be compliant with all my medications if I can just see my grandson graduate." B. "The doctors must be wrong in their diagnosis because I have always been healthy." C. "I understand that my death is inevitable and I am ready to die when the time comes." D. "It is because of our lousy health care system that I developed this brain tumor."

Question 38 You are assessing a middle-aged man with chest pain that you suspect is caused by a cardiac problem. The patient tells you that he does not want to go to the hospital and insists that you leave him alone. You should: Select one: A. explain the seriousness of the situation to him, but avoid causing undue alarm. B. reassure him that he will not receive a bill for the EMS call if he cannot pay. C. tell him that he is having a heart attack and that he needs to go to the hospital. D. proceed to treat him because the stress of the situation has impaired his thinking.

Question 41 While transporting a woman with diabetes, you inadvertently give her oral glucose even though her blood glucose level was high. You reassess the patient and note that her condition did not change; she remained stable. You should: Select one: A. contact medical control and notify them of the error. B. notify law enforcement so they can file an incident report. C. exclude this intervention from the PCR because it did not harm the patient. D. document the error and report it to your supervisor.

The body's natural protective mechanisms against heat loss are: Select one: A. vasoconstriction and shivering. B. shivering and vasodilation. C. vasodilation and respiration. D. respiration and vasoconstriction.

Question 42 While transporting a stable patient with chest pain to the hospital, you come across a major motor vehicle crash involving several critically injured patients. You should: Select one: A. continue transporting your patient and notify the dispatcher of the crash. B. remain at the scene until law enforcement and another ambulance arrive. C. ask a bystander to remain with your patient as you treat the crash victims. D. stop and triage the patients while your partner remains in the ambulance.

Question 48 In many states, a minor may be treated as an adult for the purpose of consenting to or refusing medical treatment if the minor: Select one: A. is self-supporting and lives by him- or herself. B. possesses a valid driver's license. C. is mentally competent and able to refuse. D. has a poor relationship with his or her parents.

Question 49 When caring for a 65-year-old male with respiratory distress, you place him in a comfortable position but do not apply oxygen. The patient's condition continues to deteriorate and he develops cardiac arrest and dies at the hospital. This scenario is an example of: Select one: A. negligence. B. assault. C. battery. D. abandonment.

Question 57 Which type of communications equipment functions as a radio receiver and searches across several frequencies? Select one: A. Scanner B. Duplex station C. Simplex station D. Mobile repeater

Question 58 After receiving online orders from medical control to perform a patient care intervention, you should: Select one: A. repeat the order to medical control word for word. B. perform the intervention as ordered. C. confirm the order in your own words. D. ask the physician to repeat the order.

Question 60 Which of the following has the weakest transmission signal and, as a result, is LEAST likely to be heard by the party being called? Select one: A. Hand-held portable radio B. Multiplex base station C. Mobile repeater station D. Land-base repeater station

Question 62 When treating a patient who is trapped in a vehicle and covered with broken glass, it is BEST to wear: Select one: A. puncture-proof leather gloves over your latex gloves. B. thick firefighter gloves over two pairs of latex gloves. C. firefighter gloves only, to preserve manual dexterity. D. latex gloves with thick leather gloves underneath.

Question 63 It is especially important for EMS personnel to develop nonadversarial relationships with their coworkers because they: Select one: A. depend on one another for their safety. B. must work together every third day. C. may have to bunk in the same room. D. are highly prone to stress and burnout.

Question 65 Patients who become dependent upon EMS personnel or other health care providers often feel: Select one: A. shamed. B. hopeful. C. superior. D. relieved.

Question 66 When a patient is dying, he or she may experience regression. This is MOST accurately defined as: Select one: A. behavior consistent with an earlier developmental stage. B. anger projected toward the EMT or other providers. C. fear of being completely dependent upon other people. D. a decreased ability to exercise age-appropriate judgment.

Question 67 Prescription glasses do not provide adequate eye protection because they: Select one: A. offer little or no side protection. B. do not have shatterproof lenses. C. are not secured with a strap. D. have large, rounded lenses.

Question 9 An EMS provider who has extensive training in various aspects of advanced life support (ALS) is called a(n): Select one: A. paramedic. B. EMT. C. advanced EMT (AEMT). D. EMR.

Shortly after assisting a 65-year-old female with her prescribed nitroglycerin, she begins complaining of dizziness and experiences a drop of 30 mm Hg in her systolic blood pressure. The patient remains conscious and her breathing is adequate. You should: Select one: A. place her in a supine position. B. assist ventilations with a bag-valve mask. C. wait 5 minutes and reassess her blood pressure. D. transport her in a sitting position

Significant vital sign changes will occur if the typical adult acutely loses more than ______ of his or her total blood volume. Select one: A. 20% B. 15% C. 5% D. 10%

Signs of excited delirium include: Select one: A. diaphoresis, tachycardia, and hallucinations. B. slurred speech, bradycardia, and a high fever. C. subdued behavior, crying, and suicidal thoughts. D. pallor, hypotension, and constricted pupils.

Supplemental oxygen without assisted ventilation would MOST likely be administered to patients: Select one: A. with difficulty breathing and adequate tidal volume. B. who are semiconscious with shallow respirations. C. who have accessory muscle use and slow breathing. D. with rapid respirations and a reduced tidal volume.

The Centennial Park bombing during the 1996 Summer Olympics is an example of: Select one: A. domestic terrorism. B. apocalyptic violence. C. state-sponsored terrorism. D. an ecoterrorist attack.

The EMT should perform a "rapid scan" to determine if the patient is __________ during the __________. Select one: A. stable or unstable; primary assessment B. breathing or not breathing; primary assessment C. complaining of vaginal bleeding; history taking D. pregnant; secondary assessment

The MOST common and serious complication of a significant head injury is: Select one: A. cerebral edema. B. a hypoxic seizure. C. acute hypotension. D. a skull fracture.

The MOST significant complication associated with facial injuries is: Select one: A. airway compromise. B. damage to the eyes. C. mandibular immobility. D. cervical spine injury.

The _____ is your awareness and concern for potentially serious underlying and unseen injuries or illnesses. Select one: A. index of suspicion B. nature of illness C. clinical impression D. general impression

The ability to take appropriate action with little direction is known as __________. Select one: A. self-motivation B. self-confidence C. time management D. diplomacy

The body's natural cooling mechanism, in which sweat is converted to a gas, is called: Select one: A. evaporation. B. radiation. C. conduction. D. convection.

Whether you are using a commercial device or a stick and triangular bandage as a tourniquet, it is important to remember that: Select one: A. the tourniquet should only be removed at the hospital because bleeding may return if the tourniquet is released. B. you should try to control the bleeding by applying pressure to a proximal arterial pressure point first. C. the tourniquet should be applied directly over a joint if possible because this provides better bleeding control. D. bulky dressings should be securely applied over the tourniquet to further assist in controlling the bleeding.

Which layer of the skin is composed of fatty tissue and serves as an insulator for the body? Select one: A. Subcutaneous B. Sebaceous C. Dermal D. Epidermis

Which of the following descriptions MOST accurately portrays emergency medical services (EMS)? Select one: A. A team of health care professionals who are responsible for providing emergency care and transportation to the sick and injured B. A vast network of advanced life support (ALS) providers who provide definitive emergency care in the prehospital setting C. A system composed exclusively of emergency medical responders (EMRs) and emergency medical technicians (EMTs) who are responsible for providing care to sick and injured patients D. A team of paramedics and emergency physicians who are responsible for providing emergency care to critically injured patients

Which of the following interventions is used by all levels of EMS providers? Select one: A. Automated external defibrillator B. Multilumen airways C. Needle decompression D. Automatic transport ventilators

Which of the following is a good guideline for physical examination of any patient? Select one: A. Avoid touching without permission. B. Complete the physical exam first, then check the ABCs. C. Examine extremities first. D. Always work toe-to-head.

Which of the following is an effective stress management strategy? Select one: A. Developing a social network outside of EMS B. Modestly increasing caffeine consumption C. Frequently reflecting on troublesome calls D. Requesting overtime to occupy your mind

Which of the following is correct about the secondary assessment for a high-priority patient? Select one: A. You may not have time to complete a secondary assessment. B. Never contact medical direction before completing the secondary assessment. C. Never perform a secondary assessment on a high-priority patient. D. The secondary assessment must be performed prior to transport.

Which of the following open soft-tissue injuries is limited to the superficial layer of the skin and results in the least amount of blood loss? Select one: A. Abrasion B. Incision C. Avulsion D. Laceration

Which of the following signs/symptoms is considered particularly significant in gynecological emergencies? Select one: A. Syncope B. Abdominal cramping C. Painful urination D. Vaginal bleeding

Which of the following statements regarding electrical burns is correct? Select one: A. Entrance wounds are small relative to the amount of internal tissue damage. B. Respiratory or cardiac arrest following an electrical burn is very uncommon. C. The exit wound caused by electrical burns is smaller than the entrance wound. D. The size of the entry and exit wounds is a reliable indicator of internal damage

Which of the following statements regarding gunshot wounds is correct? Select one: A. The speed of a bullet has the greatest impact on the injury produced. B. The size of a bullet has the greatest impact on the injury produced. C. Low-velocity bullets will cause the greatest amount of trauma. D. High-velocity bullets will cause less severe internal injuries.

Which of the following statements regarding smooth muscle is correct? Select one: A. A person has no voluntary control over smooth muscle. B. Smooth muscle is found exclusively within blood vessels. C. Smooth muscle is under control of the voluntary nervous system. D. The biceps and quadriceps are examples of smooth muscle.

Which of the following statements regarding stridor is correct? Select one: A. It is a high-pitched, crowing upper airway sound. B. It is a whistling sound heard in the lower airway. C. It suggests the presence of fluid in the lungs. D. It is caused by incorrect airway positioning.

Which of the following statements regarding the Americans With Disabilities Act (ADA) of 1990 is correct? Select one: A. The ADA prohibits employers from failing to provide full and equal employment to those who are disabled. B. The minimum number of hours required to successfully complete an EMT course is less for candidates who are disabled. C. The ADA applies only to individuals with a diagnosed and well-documented physical disability. D. According to the ADA, EMT candidates with a documented disability are exempt from taking the NREMT exam.

Which of the following would be the LEAST likely to occur in a patient with a core body temperature of between 89°F (32°C) and 92°F (33°C)? Select one: A. Tachycardia B. Bradypnea C. Confusion D. Stiff muscles

Which of the following would cause an increase in the amount of exhaled carbon dioxide? Select one: A. Increased cardiac output B. Anaerobic metabolism C. Cardiopulmonary arrest D. Excessive ventilation

Which of your senses can be safely used to identify a HazMat incident? Select one: A. Sight and sound B. Sight and touch C. Sound and smell D. Smell and sight

With a good mask-to-face seal and an oxygen flow rate of 15 L/min, the nonrebreathing mask is capable of delivering up to ______% inspired oxygen. Select one: A. 90 B. 100 C. 70 D. 80

With regard to the assessment of a patient's cardiovascular status, capillary refill time is MOST reliable in: Select one: A. patients who are younger than 6 years of age. B. patients who were exposed to cold temperatures. C. patients who are significantly hypotensive. D. patients who are older than 70 years of age.

You and your partner enter the residence of an elderly couple, both of whom are found unconscious in their bed. There is no evidence of trauma. As you begin your assessment, you and your partner notice the smell of natural gas in the residence. Which of the following should be your MOST appropriate action? Select one: A. Rapidly remove the patients from their residence using a blanket or clothes drag. B. Quickly exit the residence and request the fire department to move the patients. C. Perform a rapid assessment and then move the patients from their residence. D. Request another ambulance to assist with lifting and moving the patients.

You are approaching an overturned tanker truck to assess the driver, who appears to be unresponsive. As you get closer to the vehicle, you note the smell of noxious fumes and find that you are in the midst of a vapor cloud. What should you do? Select one: A. Exit the area immediately and gather information for the HazMat team. B. Realize that you are in the danger zone and prevent others from entering. C. Cover your face with your shirt and quickly extricate the injured driver. D. Remain where you are and perform a visual assessment of the patient.

You are assessing a 13-month-old female who is running a fever and has been vomiting. While you are performing your physical examination on this child, you will MOST likely find that she: Select one: A. responds to her name but is fearful of your presence. B. has bulging fontanelles secondary to severe dehydration. C. will readily allow you to separate her from her mother. D. is unable to track your movements with her eyes.

You are assessing a 440-lb man who complains of shortness of breath and lower back pain. The patient is conscious and alert, his blood pressure is 148/98 mm Hg, and his heart rate is 120 beats/min. Your MOST immediate action should be to: Select one: A. avoid placing him in a supine position if possible and administer oxygen. B. notify the receiving facility and advise them of the patient's weight and status. C. perform a secondary assessment, focusing on his respiratory system and back. D. ask a member of your team to locate the best route to move him to the ambulance.

You are attempting to gain access to a patient who was injured when his truck struck another vehicle from behind. The patient is conscious and alert, but is screaming in pain. You try to open the door, but it is locked. You should: Select one: A. ask the patient if he can unlock the door. B. request the rescue team to extricate him. C. break the window and unlock the door. D. use a pry bar to attempt to open the door.

You are attending to a 23-year-old female patient who is 16 weeks pregnant with her second child. The patient has apparently fallen and sustained an injury to her upper right arm. When you ask about the incident history, the patient is reluctant to explain what happened and becomes very quiet. Based on this information, you should: Select one: A. continue your care in a private area, document any details regarding the scene and the incident, and reassure her as you provide care. B. ask more detailed questions and press the issue until you have a more detailed understanding of the incident. C. contact police and remain at the scene until they arrive and escort you to the hospital. D. immediately remove the patient from the environment and transport.

You are dispatched to a residence for a child with respiratory distress. The patient, an 18-month-old female, is tachypneic, has sternal retractions, and is clinging to her mother. Her skin is pink and dry, and her heart rate is 120 beats/min. The MOST appropriate treatment for this child includes: Select one: A. administering blow-by oxygen and transporting the child with her mother. B. separating the child from her mother and providing ventilatory assistance. C. allowing the child to remain with her mother and applying a nasal cannula. D. requesting a paramedic ambulance to insert an advanced airway device.

You are dispatched to an apartment complex for a shooting. Law enforcement personnel are present and have the suspect in custody. You find the patient lying in a narrow space between the couch and coffee table of his small apartment. He is semiconscious and has a large gunshot wound to his chest. You should: Select one: A. quickly move the coffee table so you can access and treat the patient. Correct B. drag the patient into a larger area so that you can begin treatment. C. obtain permission from law enforcement before moving anything. D. treat the patient where he is so that you do not destroy any evidence.

You have been working at the scene of a major building collapse for 8 hours. Many injured people are still being removed, and everyone is becoming frustrated and losing focus. This situation is MOST effectively managed by: Select one: A. requesting a CISM team to provide on-scene peer support. B. allowing each worker to sleep in 15- to 30-minute increments. C. conducting a critical incident stress debriefing the next day. D. providing large amounts of caffeine to the rescue workers.

You receive a call to a residence where a man found his wife unresponsive on the couch. The patient's respiratory rate is 8 breaths/min, her breathing is shallow, her heart rate is 40 beats/min, and her pulse is weak. The husband hands you an empty bottle of hydrocodone (Vicodin), which was refilled the day before. You should: Select one: A. ventilate her with a BVM. B. contact the poison control center. C. perform a rapid head-to-toe exam. D. apply oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask.

Your presence is requested by law enforcement to assess a 33-year-old female who was sexually assaulted. The patient is conscious and obviously upset. As you are talking to her, you note an impressive amount of blood on her clothes in the groin area. Her blood pressure is 98/58 mm Hg, her pulse is 130 beats/min, and her respirations are 24 breaths/min. You should: Select one: A. control any external bleeding, administer oxygen, and transport at once. B. arrange for a rape crisis center representative to speak with the patient. C. allow her to change her clothes and take a shower before you transport. D. visualize the vaginal area and pack the vagina with sterile dressings.

Which of the following statements regarding the medulla oblongata is correct? Select one: A. The medulla is sensitive to pH changes and sends messages via the phrenic nerve to contract the diaphragm. B. The medulla reduces the rate and depth of breathing if it detects an increase in carbon dioxide levels. C. The medulla is a portion of the cerebrum and primarily responds to an increase in the pH of cerebrospinal fluid. D. The medulla's primary role is to increase the body's level of oxygen, not to decrease its level of carbon dioxide.

Which part of the central nervous system is responsible for coordinating bodily movements such as writing or sewing? Select one: A. Cerebellum B. Hypothalamus C. Brain stem D. Cerebrum

Bile is produced by the liver and concentrated and stored in the: Select one: A. pancreas. B. gallbladder. C. kidneys. D. stomach.

20 You are assessing a 49-year-old man who complains of chest pressure that began the night before. He is conscious, but anxious, and tells you he has a history of angina and hypertension. After applying high-flow oxygen, you expose his chest to auscultate his lungs and note that he has a nitroglycerin patch on his right upper chest. His skin is cool and pale, his blood pressure is 78/50 mm Hg, and his pulse is 110 beats/min and irregular. You should: Select one: A. move the nitroglycerin patch to the other side of his chest in case you need to apply the AED, keep him warm, and transport without delay. B. remove the nitroglycerin patch, place him in a supine position and elevate his lower extremities, and prepare for immediate transport. C. ask him if the nitroglycerin patch he is wearing has improved his chest pressure, complete your secondary assessment, and transport promptly. D. immediately remove the nitroglycerin patch, apply the AED in case he develops cardiac arrest, and transport to the closest hospital.

20 You are off duty at a park when you witness an apparently healthy 12-year-old child suddenly collapse. There are no bystanders around and your mobile phone is in your car. After confirming that the child is in cardiac arrest, you should: Select one: A. perform chest compressions only until a bystander arrives. B. call 9-1-1 and then return to begin CPR on the child. C. deliver five rescue breaths before starting chest compressions. D. perform CPR for 2 minutes and then call 9-1-1.

22 Rapid, labored breathing in a patient with signs and symptoms of AMI should make you suspicious for: Select one: A. a cardiac arrhythmia. B. congestive heart failure. C. right ventricular failure. D. significant hypotension.

22 Which of the following signs or symptoms would the EMT MOST likely encounter in a patient with new-onset type 1 diabetes? Select one: A. Total lack of appetite B. Weight loss and polyuria C. Low blood glucose level D. Weight gain and edema

23 Which of the following statements regarding nitroglycerin is correct? Select one: A. A maximum of five nitroglycerin doses should be given to a patient. B. Nitroglycerin usually relieves anginal chest pain within 5 minutes. C. Nitroglycerin should be administered between the cheek and gum. D. The potency of nitroglycerin is increased when exposed to light.

25 Which of the following negative effects of anaphylaxis will be the MOST rapidly fatal if not treated immediately? Select one: A. Systemic vasodilation B. Upper airway swelling C. Severe hypotension D. Diffuse urticaria

26 After assisting your patient with prescribed nitroglycerin, you should: Select one: A. perform a secondary assessment before administering further doses. B. reassess his or her blood pressure within 5 minutes to detect hypotension. C. place the patient in a recumbent position in case of fainting. D. avoid further dosing if the patient complains of a severe headache.

26 When performing a secondary assessment on a conscious patient with nontraumatic abdominal pain and stable vital signs, you should: Select one: A. examine the patient from head to toe. B. focus on his or her chief complaint. C. prepare the patient for transport first. D. only palpate tender areas of the abdomen.

28 Immediately after giving an epinephrine injection, you should: Select one: A. reassess the patient's vital signs. B. properly dispose of the syringe. C. record the time and dose given. D. notify medical control of your action.

28 Which of the following is LEAST important when obtaining a medical history from a patient complaining of chest discomfort? Select one: A. History of previous heart attack B. Family history of hypertension C. Presence of personal risk factors D. History of cigarette smoking

3 You arrive at the residence of a 33-year-old woman who is experiencing a generalized (tonic-clonic) seizure. She has a small amount of vomitus draining from the side of her mouth. After protecting her from further injury, you should: Select one: A. wait for the seizure to stop, manually open her airway, insert an oropharyngeal airway, and assess her oxygen saturation with the pulse oximeter. B. maintain her airway with manual head positioning, suction her airway to remove the vomitus, insert a nasopharyngeal airway, and administer high-flow oxygen. C. restrain her extremities to prevent her from injuring herself, suction her airway to remove the vomitus, and assist her ventilations with a bag-mask device. D. place a bite block in between her teeth, apply high-flow oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask, and consider inserting a nasopharyngeal airway.

30 Which of the following statements regarding epinephrine administration via the intramuscular (IM) route is correct? Select one: A. The IM route should not be used in children. B. The 1:1000 concentration should be used. C. The preferred injection site is the upper arm. D. The maximum single adult dose is 0.15 mg.

32 You are dispatched to a residence for a 56-year-old male with an altered mental status. Upon arrival at the scene, the patient's wife tells you that he complained of chest pain the day before, but would not allow her to call EMS. The patient is semiconscious; has rapid, shallow respirations; and has a thready pulse. You should: Select one: A. apply a nonrebreathing mask. B. begin ventilatory assistance. C. attach the AED immediately. D. obtain baseline vital signs.

34 Which of the following statements regarding the AED and defibrillation is correct? Select one: A. The AED will shock any rhythm not accompanied by a pulse. B. The AED will not analyze the rhythm of a moving patient. C. CPR should be performed for 5 minutes before using the AED. D. Defibrillation is the first link in the AHA chain of survival.

35 The MOST significant risk factor for a hemorrhagic stroke is: Select one: A. diabetes mellitus. B. hypertension. C. severe stress. D. heavy exertion.

35 You are dispatched to a convenience store for a patient who passed out. Upon arriving at the scene, you find two off-duty EMTs performing CPR on the patient, a 58-year-old male. Your initial action should be to: Select one: A. have the EMTs stop CPR and assess for a pulse. B. feel for a pulse while compressions are ongoing. C. quickly attach the AED and push the analyze button. D. request a paramedic unit and quickly attach the AED.

37 What is the route of administration for the EpiPen auto-injector? Select one: A. Intravenous B. Intramuscular C. Intraosseous D. Sublingual

5 You are assessing the arm drift component of the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale on a 60-year-old woman. When she holds both of her arms out in front of her and closes her eyes, both of her arms immediately fall to her sides. You should: Select one: A. instruct the patient to keep her eyes open and then repeat the arm drift test. B. repeat the arm drift test, but move the patient's arms into position yourself. C. defer this part of the test and assess her for facial droop and slurred speech. D. repeat the arm drift test and ensure that her palms are facing downward.

51 Which of the following statements regarding the acute abdomen is correct? Select one: A. The parietal peritoneum is typically the first abdominal layer that becomes inflamed or irritated. B. The initial pain associated with an acute abdomen tends to be vague and poorly localized. C. The most common cause of an acute abdomen is inflammation of the gallbladder and liver. D. An acute abdomen almost always occurs as the result of blunt trauma to solid abdominal organs.

51 Which of the following is the ONLY action that can prevent eventual death from a tension pneumothorax? Select one: A. Positive-pressure ventilation with a bag-valve mask B. Decompression of the injured side of the chest C. Rapid administration of intravenous fluids D. Early administration of high-flow oxygen

52 When should nonlifesaving interventions be performed for your multisystem trauma patient? Select one: A. During the primary assessment B. En route to the hospital C. Prior to transport D. Immediately after the injuries are discovered

53 Which of the following organs lies in the retroperitoneal space? Select one: A. Liver B. Pancreas C. Spleen D. Gallbladder

54 Treatment with continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) would MOST likely be contraindicated in which of the following situations? Select one: A. Difficulty breathing, two-word dyspnea, and tachycardia B. Shortness of breath and a blood pressure of 76/56 mm Hg C. Conscious and alert patient with an oxygen saturation of 85% D. Pulmonary edema, history of hypertension, and anxiety

54 Which of the following statements regarding dialysis is correct? Select one: A. Hemodialysis is effective but carries a high risk of peritonitis. B. Patients who miss a dialysis treatment often present with weakness. C. The purpose of dialysis is to help the kidneys retain salt and water. D. Acute hypertension is a common adverse effect of dialysis.

56 Foods, medications, and insects are common causes of ________. Select one: A. neurogenic shock B. anaphylactic shock C. psychogenic shock D. septic shock

58 Which of the following must be assessed in every respiratory patient? Select one: A. Blood glucose levels B. Lung sounds C. Distal pulse, motor, sensation D. Orthostatic vital signs

64 While auscultating an elderly woman's breath sounds, you hear low-pitched "rattling" sounds at the bases of both of her lungs. This finding is MOST consistent with which of the following conditions? Select one: A. Early pulmonary edema B. Aspiration pneumonia C. Widespread atelectasis D. Acute asthma attack

65 Asthma is caused by a response of the: Select one: A. endocrine system. B. immune system. C. cardiovascular system. D. respiratory system.

68 CPR will NOT be effective if the patient is: Select one: A. horizontal. B. prone. C. supine. D. on a firm surface.

7 Alkalosis is a condition that occurs when: Select one: A. slow, shallow breathing eliminates too much carbon dioxide. B. blood acidity is reduced by excessive breathing. C. dangerous acids accumulate in the bloodstream. D. the level of carbon dioxide in the blood increases.

70 Complications associated with chest compressions include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. liver laceration. B. gastric distention. C. a fractured sternum. D. rib fractures.

72 CPR retraining is the MOST effective when it: Select one: A. is self-paced and brief. B. involves hands-on practice. C. occurs every 24 months. D. is delivered by computer.

74 Which of the following signs is commonly observed in patients with right-sided heart failure? Select one: A. Flat jugular veins B. Dependent edema C. Pulmonary edema D. Labored breathing

76 A patient in cardiac arrest is wearing an external defibrillator vest, which is interfering with effective chest compressions. The EMT should: Select one: A. perform ventilations only and allow the vest device to defibrillate. B. remove the battery from the monitor and then remove the vest. C. leave the battery attached to the monitor and remove the vest. D. remove the battery from the monitor and leave the vest in place.

76 If an object is visible in the unconscious patient's airway, you should __________. Select one: A. place the patient on his or her side B. remove it C. leave it in place D. continue chest compressions

77 The two main types of cells contained in blood are called _________. Select one: A. hemoglobin A and S B. erythrocytes and leukocytes C. transport and clotting D. platelets and plasma

77 Without practice, your CPR skills will __________. Select one: A. become part of your muscle memory B. deteriorate over time C. improve over time D. come back automatically when needed

78 Angina pectoris occurs when: Select one: A. a coronary artery is totally occluded by plaque. B. myocardial oxygen demand exceeds supply. C. myocardial oxygen supply exceeds the demand. D. one or more coronary arteries suddenly spasm.

79 Which of the following statements regarding sickle cell disease is correct? Select one: A. Because of their abnormal shape, red blood cells in patients with sickle cell disease are less apt to lodge in a blood vessel. B. In sickle cell disease, the red blood cells are abnormally shaped and are less able to carry oxygen. C. Sickle cell disease is an inherited blood disorder that causes the blood to clot too quickly. D. The red blood cells of patients with sickle cell disease are round and contain hemoglobin.

A 52-year-old unrestrained female struck the steering wheel with her face when her truck collided with another vehicle. She has obvious swelling to her face and several dislodged teeth. A visual exam of her mouth reveals minimal bleeding. She is conscious and alert with a blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg, a pulse of 110 beats/min, and respirations of 22 breaths/min with adequate tidal volume. You should: Select one: A. apply oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask, suction her airway as needed, disregard the dislodged teeth, and transport. B. fully immobilize her spine, attempt to locate the dislodged teeth, suction as needed, and transport. C. assist ventilations with a BVM device, immobilize her spine, suction her oropharynx for 30 seconds, and transport. D. fully immobilize her spine, irrigate her empty tooth sockets, attempt to locate the dislodged teeth, and transport.

A 54-year-old male experienced an avulsion to his penis when his foreskin got caught in the zipper of his pants. He was able to unzip his pants and remove the foreskin prior to your arrival. Your assessment reveals that he is in severe pain and that the avulsion is bleeding moderately. The MOST appropriate treatment for this patient includes: Select one: A. covering the avulsion with moist, sterile dressings. B. applying direct pressure with a dry, sterile dressing. C. administering 100% oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. D. requesting a paramedic to administer pain medication.

A 70-year-old male complains of shortness of breath. During your assessment, you note that he has bilateral hearing aids. When you ask him questions related to his chief complaint, he does not answer you. You can hear a whistling sound coming from his hearing aids. You should: Select one: A. remove his hearing aids, turn up the volume, and replace them in his ears. B. try repositioning the hearing aid or remove it and turn down the volume. C. recognize that the batteries in his hearing aids are probably depleted. D. remove both of his hearing aids and use pencil and paper to communicate.

A 73-year-old man presents with a generalized rash, which he thinks may have been caused by an antibiotic that he recently began taking. He has a history of coronary artery disease, hypertension, and emphysema. He is conscious and alert, his blood pressure is 144/94 mm Hg, and his pulse is 64 beats/min and regular. You auscultate his breath sounds and hear scattered wheezing, although he is not experiencing respiratory distress. You should: Select one: A. begin transport and request to administer epinephrine if his systolic blood pressure falls below 110 mm Hg. B. administer oxygen if needed, transport the patient, and monitor him for signs of deterioration. C. ask him if he has epinephrine and request approval from medical control to administer it to the patient. D. avoid the use of epinephrine because of his cardiac history, even if his symptoms become severe.

A Colles fracture involves a fracture of the: Select one: A. distal ulna B. distal radius. C. radius and ulna. D. proximal radius.

A _____ is an opening that connects the trachea directly to the skin. Select one: A. tracheostomy B. stoma C. laryngectomy D. None of these answers are correct.

A crackling sound produced by air bubbles under the skin is called: Select one: A. crepitus B. subcutaneous emphysema. C. Korotkoff sounds. D. rhonchi.

A factory worker was splashed in the eyes with a strong acid chemical. He complains of intense pain and blurred vision. Your ambulance does not carry bottles of sterile saline or water. You should: Select one: A. flush both eyes with an alcohol-based solution and transport. B. irrigate both eyes continuously for 20 minutes with plain water. C. neutralize the acid chemical in his eye with an alkaline chemical. D. mix baking soda with water and irrigate his eyes with the solution.

A flail chest occurs when: Select one: A. multiple ribs are fractured on both sides of the thoracic cage. B. a segment of the chest wall is detached from the thoracic cage. C. a segment of fractured ribs bulges during the inhalation phase. D. more than three ribs are fractured on the same side of the chest.

A medical transport helicopter is incoming and you are responsible for setting up the landing zone (LZ). You should: Select one: A. use yellow caution tape to mark of the LZ perimeter. B. use weighted cones to mark all four corners of the LZ. C. ask bystanders to stand at all four corners of the LZ. D. place four flares 100 feet apart in an "X" pattern.

A mother who is pregnant with her first baby is typically in the first stage of labor for approximately: Select one: A. 8 hours. B. 16 hourS. C. 4 hours. D. 10 hours.

A nasopharyngeal airway is inserted: Select one: A. into the larger nostril with the tip pointing away from the septum. B. with the bevel facing the septum if inserted into the right nare. C. into the smaller nostril with the tip following the roof of the nose. D. with the bevel pointing downward if inserted into the left nare.

A patient is bleeding severely from a severed femoral artery high in the groin region. Which of the following would MOST likely control the bleeding? Select one: A. Position the patient with his injured side down B. Apply a topical hemostatic agent with direct pressure C. Apply a pelvic binder device to stabilize the pelvis D. Apply chemical ice packs to the wound and transport

A patient is sitting in a chair, leaning forward on his outstretched arms. His head and chin are thrust forward. This position indicates that he: Select one: A. is experiencing severe back pain. B. is experiencing difficulty breathing. C. has abdominal muscle spasms. D. has a decreased level of consciousness.

A patient with vaginal bleeding _________. Select one: A. will have profound and obvious signs of shock B. may not have obvious signs of shock even if she has experienced significant blood loss C. may want to stand, rather than sit or lie on the stretcher D. will have a weak and rapid pulse but not pale or diaphoretic skin

A pediatric patient involved in a drowning emergency may present with: Select one: A. cerebral edema. B. abdominal distention. C. chest pain. D. hypoglycemia.

A person who experiences a calcaneus fracture after jumping and landing on his or her feet would MOST likely experience an accompanying fracture of the: Select one: A. symphysis pubis. B. lumbar spine. C. thoracic spine. D. coccygeal spine.

A supracondylar or intercondylar fracture is also known as a fracture of the: Select one: A. olecranon process. B. distal humerus. C. proximal radius. D. radial head.

Age-related changes in the renal system result in: Select one: A. dilation of the blood vessels that supply the nephrons, which allows the kidneys to maintain their function. B. a decreased ability to clear wastes from the body and a decreased ability to conserve fluids when needed. C. a significant increase in filtration, which causes the excretion of large amounts of water from the body. D. the formation of large amounts of urine secondary to an increase in kidney mass of up to 20%.

An 81-year-old female fell and struck her head. You find the patient lying on her left side. She is conscious and complains of neck and upper back pain. As you are assessing her, you note that she has a severely kyphotic spine. What is the MOST appropriate method of immobilizing this patient? Select one: A. Move her to a supine position and immobilize her with a scoop stretcher and padding. B. Leave her on her side and use blanket rolls to immobilize her to the long backboard. C. Apply a cervical collar and place her in a sitting position on the wheeled stretcher. D. Immobilize her in a supine position on a long backboard and secure her with straps.

An EMT's primary responsibility to the patient who has been poisoned is to: Select one: A. administer the appropriate antidote. B. recognize that a poisoning occurred. C. contact poison control immediately. D. administer 25 g of activated charcoal.

An open pneumothorax occurs when: Select one: A. air enters the pleural space from a perforated lung. B. air enters the pleural space from outside the body. C. a fractured rib perforates the tissue of the lung. D. extreme pleural pressure causes the lung to rupture.

As you approach a young male who was involved in an industrial accident, you note that his eyes are closed and that he is not moving. You can see several large contusions to his arms, a laceration to his forehead with minimal bleeding, and a closed deformity to his right leg. You should: Select one: A. perform an immediate head-to-toe assessment. B. open his airway and assess his breathing status. C. assess his pulse for rate, regularity, and quality. D. apply high-flow oxygen and assess his injuries.

At a scene with downed electrical lines, the EMT should _________. Select one: A. relocate the danger (hot) zone away from the patient B. remain outside the danger (hot) zone C. stabilize the patient in the danger (hot) zone D. enter the danger (hot) zone for patient removal only

At the scene of an automobile crash, a utility pole has been broken and power lines are lying across the car. The patients inside the car are conscious. You should: Select one: A. advise the patients to carefully get out of the car. B. mark off a danger zone around the downed lines. C. remove the lines with a nonconductive object. D. proceed with normal extrication procedures.

Awareness of and concern for potentially serious obvious and underlying injuries is referred to as the: Select one: A. mechanism of injury. B. index of suspicion. C. scene size-up. D. general impression.

By the 20th week of pregnancy, the uterus is typically at or above the level of the mother's: Select one: A. superior diaphragm. B. belly button. C. xiphoid process. D. pubic bone.

By what mechanism is a person injured when he or she falls from a significant height? Select one: A. As the person falls, the amount of kinetic energy is converted into work; work is then converted to kinetic energy upon impact. B. Potential energy is converted to kinetic energy; the kinetic energy is then converted into the work of bringing the body to a stop. C. Potential energy is created as the person is falling; the potential energy is then converted into kinetic energy upon impact. D. Kinetic energy is converted to potential energy; the potential energy is then converted into the work of bringing the body to a stop.

Calming and reassuring an anxious patient can be facilitated by: Select one: A. withholding unpleasant information until arrival at the hospital. B. maintaining eye contact with the patient whenever possible. C. using medical terminology to ensure the patient understands. D. positioning yourself at a level that is higher than the patient.

Capillary sphincter closure during internal or external bleeding is detrimental because: Select one: A. carbon dioxide and other waste can enter the cells, but oxygen cannot. B. waste products are not removed and nutrients are not delivered to the cells. C. high levels of oxygen remain in the cells and can cause significant damage. D. available blood is shunted off to another venule while still carrying oxygen.

Cardiac output may decrease if the heart beats too rapidly because: Select one: A. the volume of blood that returns to the heart is not sufficient with fast heart rates. B. there is not enough time in between contractions for the heart to refill completely. C. a rapid heartbeat causes a decrease in the strength of cardiac contractions. D. as the heart rate increases, more blood is pumped from the ventricles than the atria.

Care for a patient with a fractured tibia and suspected compartment syndrome includes: Select one: A. applying traction to maintain distal pulses. B. keeping the leg at the level of the heart. C. immobilizing the leg with an air splint. D. applying chemical hot packs to the leg.

Clouding of the lenses of the eyes is called: Select one: A. retinitis. B. cataracts. C. glaucoma. D. conjunctivitis.

Common signs and symptoms of a sprain include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. point tenderness. B. deformity. C. swelling. D. ecchymosis.

Common signs and symptoms of acute hyperventilation syndrome include: Select one: A. altered mental status and bradycardia. B. tachypnea and tingling in the extremities. C. anxiety, dizziness, and severe bradypnea. D. unilateral paralysis and slurred speech.

Complications associated with using a manually triggered ventilation device include: Select one: A. inadequate ventilation and hypercarbia. B. lung tissue injury and gastric distention. C. reduced tidal volume delivery and hypoxia. D. inadequate oxygenation and tracheal injury.

Continual reassessment of the scene at a suspected terrorist or weapon of mass destruction incident is MOST important because: Select one: A. weather conditions may change quickly. B. a secondary explosive device may detonate. C. bystanders may destroy the evidence. D. terrorists are often at the scene after an attack.

During your visual inspection of a 25-year-old woman in labor, you see the baby's head crowning at the vaginal opening. What should you do? Select one: A. Maintain firm pressure to the head until it completely delivers. B. Apply gentle pressure to the baby's head as it delivers. C. Tell the mother not to push and transport her immediately. D. Place your fingers in the vagina to assess for a nuchal cord.

EMT training in nearly every state meets or exceeds the guidelines recommended by the: A. individual state's EMS protocols. B. National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA). C. National Association of EMTs. D. National Registry of EMTs.

Elevation of the rib cage during inhalation occurs when: Select one: A. the diaphragm descends. B. the intercostal muscles contract. C. intrathoracic pressure decreases. D. abdominal contents descend.

Erosion of the protective layer of the stomach or duodenum secondary to overactivity of digestive juices results in: Select one: A. ileus. B. an ulcer. C. cholecystitis. D. appendicitis.

Everyone exhibits some signs and symptoms of mental illness at some point in life ____________. Select one: A. because mental illness affects everyone B. but that does not mean a person is mentally ill C. and needs medication administered to control them D. and should be physically restrained for their own safety and the safety of the EMT

Following a stab wound to the left anterior chest, a 25-year-old male presents with a decreased level of consciousness and signs of shock. Which of the following additional assessment findings should increase your index of suspicion for a cardiac tamponade? Select one: A. A rapid, irregular pulse B. Engorged jugular veins C. Widening pulse pressure D. Diminished breath sounds

General guidelines for effective radio communications include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. holding the microphone about 2 to 3 inches from your mouth. B. using 10 codes to ensure radio traffic confidentiality. C. acknowledging a transmission as soon as possible. D. speaking in a clear, calm, monotone voice.

Gloves, a mask, eye protection, and a face shield should be used: Select one: A. while handling needles or other sharps. B. when performing endotracheal intubation. C. whenever you touch nonintact skin. D. during routine cleaning of the ambulance.

Heroin is an example of a(n): Select one: A. sympathomimetic. B. opioid. C. cholinergic. D. hypnotic.

High air temperature reduces the body's ability to lose heat by: Select one: A. evaporation. B. radiation. C. conduction. D. convection.

If a patient with a chest injury is only able to inhale small amounts of air per breath, he or she: Select one: A. will eliminate more carbon dioxide than if he or she were breathing deeply. B. must increase his or her respiratory rate to maintain adequate minute volume. C. will maintain adequate minute volume if his or her respiratory rate stays the same. D. often breathes at a slower rate because of lung damage caused by the injury.

In anticipation of receiving a fertilized ovum, the lining of the uterine wall: Select one: A. diverts blood flow to the vagina. B. becomes engorged with blood. C. thins and begins to separate. D. sheds and is expelled externally.

In contrast to Lyme disease, Rocky Mountain spotted fever: Select one: A. may be confused with rheumatoid arthritis. B. can cause paralysis and cardiorespiratory collapse. C. presents with flu-like symptoms and a bull's-eye rash. D. causes painful joint swelling after a few days or weeks.

In general, musculoskeletal injuries should be splinted before moving the patient unless: Select one: A. the patient is in severe pain. B. the patient is clinically unstable. C. transport time is less than 15 minutes. D. deformity and swelling are present.

In which of the following situations is a pertinent negative identified? Select one: A. A 56-year-old woman states that her chest hurts when she takes a deep breath. B. A 59-year-old man complains of crushing chest pain but denies shortness of breath. C. A 50-year-old woman states that nothing makes her chest pain better or worse. D. A 53-year-old man with dizziness also tells you that he has vomited three times.

Inhalation occurs when the: Select one: A. diaphragm and intercostal muscles ascend and cause an increase in intrathoracic pressure. B. diaphragm and intercostal muscles contract and cause a decrease in intrathoracic pressure. C. diaphragm ascends and the intercostal muscles contract, causing a decrease in intrathoracic pressure. D. diaphragm and intercostal muscles relax and cause an increase in intrathoracic pressure.

Injuries to the external male genitalia _______. Select one: A. frequently lead to hypovolemic shock B. are rarely life-threatening C. usually result in permanent damage D. are often life-threatening

Internal bleeding into a fractured extremity is MOST often controlled by: Select one: A. applying chemical ice pack. B. splinting the extremity. C. keeping the patient warm. D. applying a tourniquet.

Maintaining a cushion of safety when operating an ambulance means: Select one: A. remaining in the far right-hand lane when transporting a critical patient and refraining from passing other motorists on the left side. B. keeping a safe distance between your ambulance and the vehicles in front of you and remaining aware of vehicles potentially hiding in your mirrors' blind spots. C. driving at the posted speed limit, regardless of the patient's condition, and routinely using your lights and siren when driving on a freeway. D. driving about 2 to 3 seconds behind any vehicles in front of you and exceeding the posted speed limit by no more than 20 to 25 mph.

Neurogenic shock is caused by: Select one: A. massive vasoconstriction. B. a radical change in the size of the vascular system. C. fluid collecting around the spinal cord, causing compression of the cord. D. low volume.

Obtaining continuing medical education is the responsibility of the: A. EMS medical director. B. individual EMT. C. EMS training officer. D. State Bureau of EMS

Of the four avenues of poisoning, generally ___________ is the most worrisome in terms of treatment to the EMS provider. Select one: A. absorption B. injection C. inhalation D. ingestion

Question 45 When you and your partner arrive at the residence of a man in cardiac arrest, you immediately recognize the patient as the drunk driver who killed your brother several years earlier. A backup ambulance is en route to the scene. You should: Select one: A. advise your partner that you cannot provide care to this patient. B. begin two-rescuer CPR and apply the AED as soon as possible. C. obtain permission from medical control to not attempt resuscitation. D. wait for the backup ambulance while your partner performs CPR.

Question 50 As an EMT, the performance of your duties will be compared to that of: Select one: A. a paramedic supervisor. B. another EMT. C. the general public. D. the medical director.

Question 51 Information included in a radio report to the receiving hospital should include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. your perception of the severity of the problem. B. a preliminary diagnosis of the patient's problem. C. a brief summary of the care you provided. D. a brief history of the patient's current problem.

Question 61 The hepatitis B vaccine program, a component of the infection control plan, addresses all of the following issues, EXCEPT: Select one: A. record keeping and tracking. B. family history of hepatitis. C. postvaccine antibody titers. D. vaccine safety and efficacy.

Quid pro quo, a type of sexual harassment, occurs when the harasser: Select one: A. stares at certain parts of another person's anatomy. B. requests sexual favors in exchange for something else. C. touches another person without his or her consent. D. makes rude remarks about a person's body parts.

Significant clues to the possibility of severe injuries in motor vehicle collisions include: Select one: A. broken glass. B. death of a passenger. C. a blown-out tire. D. a deployed air bag.

Significant trauma to the face should increase the EMT's index of suspicion for a(n): Select one: A. airway obstruction. B. spinal column injury. C. basilar skull fracture. D. displaced mandible.

Signs and symptoms of bacterial vaginosis typically include _________. Select one: A. blood associated with vaginal intercourse B. "fishy," foul-smelling discharge C. low back pain D. rectal pain and discharge

Spina bifida is defined as: Select one: A. a birth defect in which the child is born without spinal vertebrae. B. a birth defect caused by incomplete closure of the spinal column. C. congenital inflammation of the spinal cord, usually in the neck. D. chronic pressure on the brain caused by excess cerebrospinal fluid.

The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is used to assess: Select one: A. sensory response, pupil reaction, and heart rate. B. eye opening, verbal response, and motor response. C. verbal response, eye opening, and mental status. D. mental status, eye opening, and respiratory rate.

The JumpSTART triage system is intended to be used for children younger than _____ years or who appear to weigh less than _____. Select one: A. 6; 70 lb B. 8; 100 lb C. 7; 90 lb D. 5; 50 lb

The LEAST practical place to store a portable oxygen cylinder is: Select one: A. on the ambulance stretcher. B. in the driver's compartment. C. inside the jump kit. D. near the side or rear door.

The MOST prominent symptom of decompression sickness is: Select one: A. tightness in the chest. B. abdominal or joint pain. C. dizziness and nausea. D. difficulty with vision.

The MOST significant hazard associated with splinting is: Select one: A. compression of nerves, tissues, and vasculature. B. delaying transport of a critically injured patient. C. aggravation of the injury or worsened pain. D. reduction in circulation distal to the injury site.

The _________ contain(s) about 75% of the brain's total volume. Select one: A. meninges B. cerebrum C. brain stem D. cerebellum

The ability to handle multiple tasks based on their priority is called __________. Select one: A. integrity B. time management C. patient empathy D. patient advocacy

The ability to understand others and have them understand you is known as __________. Select one: A. Self-confidence B. Communications C. Empathy D. Patient advocacy

The anterior fontanelle fuses together between the ages of: Select one: A. 7 and 14 months. B. 9 and 18 months. C. 6 and 8 months. D. 3 and 4 months.

The artery that can be palpated on the anterior surface of the foot is the: Select one: A. posterior tibial. B. dorsalis pedis. C. anterior tibial. D. ventral pedis.

The axial skeleton is composed of the: Select one: A. bones that constitute the pelvic girdle. B. skull, face, thorax, and vertebral column. C. arms, legs, and pelvis. D. lower part of the torso and the legs.

The eyeball itself is referred to as the: Select one: A. sclera. B. globe. C. orbit. D. cornea.

The process of removing dirt, dust, blood, or other visible contaminants from a surface or equipment is called: Select one: A. high-level disinfection. B. cleaning. C. sterilization. D. disinfection.

The purpose of a ventricular peritoneum shunt is to: Select one: A. monitor pressure within the skull in patients with a head injury. B. prevent excess cerebrospinal fluid from accumulating in the brain. C. divert excess cerebrospinal fluid to the ventricles of the brain. D. remove fluid from the abdomen of patients with right-sided heart failure.

The severity of bleeding should be based on all of the following findings, EXCEPT: Select one: A. the mechanism of injury. B. systolic blood pressure. C. poor general appearance. D. clinical signs and symptoms.

The spinal cord is encased in and protected by the: Select one: A. vertebral arch. B. spinal canal. C. vertebral body. D. intervertebral disc.

The thoracic cavity is separated from the abdominal cavity by the: Select one: A. anterior rib cage. B. diaphragm. C. costovertebral angle. D. intercostal margin.

When using the pulse oximeter as part of your assessment of a patient, it is important to remember that: Select one: A. carbon monoxide has no effect on pulse oximetry readings because the pulse oximeter presumes that oxygen is saturating the hemoglobin. B. any situation that causes vasoconstriction or loss of red blood cells, such as anemia or bleeding, may result in an inaccurate or misleading value. C. pulse oximetry is especially useful in patients who have cold extremities because vasoconstriction forces blood to the capillary beds. D. as long as the patient's oxygen saturation is greater than 95%, oxygen is usually not necessary, even if the patient is experiencing respiratory distress.

When worn properly, a seatbelt should lie: Select one: A. above the anterior posterior iliac spines of the pelvis and below the hip joints. B. below the anterior superior iliac spines of the pelvis and against the hip joints. C. across the abdominal wall at the level of the diaphragm and below the hip joints. D. across the abdominal wall at the level of the umbilicus and against the hip joints.

When you are performing a scene assessment at an incident involving SIDS, you should focus your attention on all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. the general condition of the house. B. the temperature of the room. C. the site where the infant was discovered. D. signs of illness, including medication, humidifiers, and thermometers.

When you inspect a patient's pupils with a penlight, the pupils should normally react to the light by: Select one: A. fluttering. B. constricting. C. enlarging. D. dilating.

Which of the following is NOT performed immediately following delivery of the infant? Select one: A. Use a sterile gauze pad to wipe the infant's mouth, then suction again. B. Obtain an Apgar score. C. Wrap the infant in a towel and place it on one side with head lowered. D. Be sure the head is covered and keep the neck in a neutral position.

Which of the following is most likely to cause immediate death? Select one: A. Pulmonary contusion B. Aortic rupture C. Myocardial contusion D. Aortic dissection

Which of the following is probably NOT a multiple-casualty incident? Select one: A. A rollover crash of a school bus with eight children who have injuries of varying severity B. A motor vehicle crash with two critically injured patients and two ambulances C. An apartment fire with one patient and the possibility of others trapped in the building D. A loss of power to a hospital or nursing home with ventilator-dependent patients

Which of the following organs would MOST likely bleed profusely when injured? Select one: A. Stomach B. Liver C. Bladder D. Intestine

Which of the following patient responses would establish the "E" in the SAMPLE history? Select one: A. "I am not having any difficulty breathing." B. "I was mowing the lawn when the pain began." C. "The chest pain started about 45 minutes ago." D. "I was in the hospital a week ago."

Which of the following scenarios is an example of informed consent? Select one: A. An EMT initiates immediate care for an unconscious adult. B. An EMT advises a patient of the risks of receiving treatment. C. A patient advises an EMT of why he or she is refusing care. D. A patient is advised by an EMT of the risks of refusing care.

Which of the following signs of respiratory distress is seen MOST commonly in pediatric patients? Select one: A. Pursed-lip breathing B. Seesaw breathing C. Accessory muscle use D. Rapid respirations

Which of the following statements regarding anterior nosebleeds is correct? Select one: A. They are usually caused by a fracture of the basilar skull. B. They usually originate from the septum area and bleed slowly. C. They cause blood to drain into the posterior pharynx. D. They are usually severe and require aggressive treatment to control.

Which of the following statements regarding crush syndrome is correct? Select one: A. Tissue damage that occurs in crush syndrome is severe, but kidney injury is unlikely because toxins are quickly eliminated from the body. B. Compromised arterial blood flow leads to crush syndrome and can occur when an area of the body is trapped for longer than 4 hours. C. Provided that a patient with a crush injury is freed from entrapment within 6 hours, the amount of tissue damaged is generally minimal. D. With crush syndrome, massive blood vessel damage occurs following severe soft-tissue injuries, such as amputation of an extremity.

Which of the following statements regarding gastrointestinal bleeding is correct? Select one: A. In the majority of cases, bleeding within the gastrointestinal tract occurs acutely and is severe. B. Bleeding within the gastrointestinal tract is a symptom of another disease, not a disease itself. C. Chronic bleeding within the gastrointestinal tract is usually more severe than bleeding that occurs acutely. D. Lower gastrointestinal bleeding results from conditions such as Mallory-Weiss syndrome.

Which of the following statements regarding hemophilia is correct? Select one: A. Hemophilia is defined as a total lack of platelets. B. Patients with hemophilia may bleed spontaneously. C. Approximately 25% of the population has hemophilia. D. Hemophiliacs take aspirin to enhance blood clotting.

Which of the following statements regarding pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is correct? Select one: A. The most severe cases of PID occur in women who are not sexually active. B. PID can scar the fallopian tubes, which increases the risk of an ectopic pregnancy. C. PID most commonly affects women who have had an ectopic pregnancy in the past. D. The most common presenting symptom of PID is generalized upper abdominal pain.

Which of the following statements regarding sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) is correct? Select one: A. SIDS is most commonly the result of an overwhelming infection. B. Death as a result of SIDS can occur at any time of the day or night. C. Certain cases of SIDS are predictable and therefore preventable. D. The cause of death following SIDS can be established by autopsy.

16 The posterior tibial pulse can be palpated: Select one: A. between the trachea and the neck muscle. B. behind the medial malleolus, on the inside of the ankle. C. on the dorsum of the foot. D. in the fossa behind the knee.

Which of the following statements regarding the EMS medical director and an EMT's scope of practice is correct? Select one: A. The EMS medical director can expand or limit an individual EMT's scope of practice without state approval. B. An EMT's scope of practice may be expanded by the medical director after proper training and state approval. C. An EMT's scope of practice is exclusively regulated by the state EMS office, not the EMS medical director. D. The EMS medical director can expand the EMT's scope of practice but cannot limit it without state approval.

Which of the following statements regarding the Salmonella bacterium is correct? Select one: A. Refrigeration of food will prevent salmonellosis. B. The Salmonella bacterium itself causes food poisoning. C. The Salmonella bacterium produces toxins that cause food poisoning. D. Symptoms of salmonellosis appear within 12 hours.

Which of the following statements regarding the dermis is correct? Select one: A. The cells of the dermis are worn away and are constantly replaced. B. The dermis contains hair follicles, sweat glands, and nerve endings. C. The dermis produces a substance that provides color to the skin. D. The dermis lies above the germinal layer and provides protection.

Which of the following statements regarding the vitreous humor is correct? Select one: A. It is a clear, watery fluid surrounding the eye and can be replaced if it is lost. B. It is a clear, jellylike fluid near the back of the eye that cannot be replaced if it is lost. C. It is a clear, watery fluid that is located in front of the lens and can be replaced if it is lost. D. It is a clear fluid that is produced by the lacrimal glands and cannot be replaced if it is lost.

Which of the following statements regarding the vitreous humor is correct? Select one: A. It is a clear, watery fluid that is located in front of the lens and can be replaced if it is lost. B. It is a clear, jellylike fluid near the back of the eye that cannot be replaced if it is lost. C. It is a clear, watery fluid surrounding the eye and can be replaced if it is lost. D. It is a clear fluid that is produced by the lacrimal glands and cannot be replaced if it is lost.

Which of the following statements regarding ventricular fibrillation (V-fib) is correct? Select one: A. Defibrillation is only indicated for witnessed V-fib. B. V-fib results in an absence of forward blood flow. C. Most patients in V-fib have a weak carotid pulse. D. V-fib is a state of rapid ventricular contraction.

Which of the following steps is NOT proper procedure when performing an emergency move? Select one: A. Pulling the patient on a blanket or similar object B. Lifting the patient by the belt to move him or her C. Pulling the patient's clothing in the shoulder area D. Using a long-axis body drag during the move

Which of the following would be the MOST practical method of communicating with a hearing-impaired patient until his or her hearing aids can be located? Select one: A. Attempting to use body language to determine the problem B. Using a piece of paper and writing utensil to ask questions C. Using a high-pitched voice while speaking directly into the ear D. Contacting dispatch and requesting a sign language interpreter

Which types of motor vehicle collisions present the greatest potential for multiple impacts? Select one: A. Frontal and rotational B. Rotational and rollover C. Lateral and rollover D. Rear-end and rotational

Without adequate oxygen, the body's cells: Select one: A. rely solely on glucose, which is completely converted into adenosine triphosphate. B. incompletely convert glucose into energy, and lactic acid accumulates in the blood. C. begin to metabolize fat, resulting in the production and accumulation of ketoacids. D. cease metabolism altogether, resulting in carbon dioxide accumulation in the blood

You and your paramedic partner are caring for a patient who ingested codeine, acetaminophen (Tylenol), and hydrocodone (Vicodin). The patient is unresponsive, his breathing is slow and shallow, and his pulse is slow and weak. Treatment for this patient should include: Select one: A. assisted ventilation and flumazenil (Romazicon). B. assisted ventilation and naloxone (Narcan). C. oxygen via a nasal cannula and atropine sulfate. D. high-flow oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask.

You and your partner are caring for a critically injured patient. Your partner is controlling severe bleeding from the patient's lower extremities as you attempt ventilations with a bag-valve mask. After repositioning the mask several times, you are unable to effectively ventilate the patient. You should: Select one: A. continue attempted ventilations and transport immediately. B. begin ventilations using the mouth-to-mask technique. C. hyperextend the patient's head and reattempt ventilations. D. suction the patient's airway for 30 seconds and reattempt ventilations.

You and your partner arrive at the scene of a fire at a large office complex. Witnesses tell you that they heard a loud explosion shortly before the building caught fire. You should: Select one: A. take standard precautions and begin searching for critically injured patients. B. ensure that your ambulance is parked upwind and uphill from the building. C. tell the witnesses that you suspect that the explosion was the work of a terrorist. D. carefully document the witnesses' statements and report them immediately.

You are assessing a 49-year-old man who, according to his wife, experienced a sudden, severe headache and then passed out. He is unresponsive and has slow, irregular breathing. His blood pressure is 190/94 mm Hg and his pulse rate is 50 beats/min. His wife tells you that he has hypertension and diabetes. He has MOST likely experienced: Select one: A. a complex partial seizure. B. a ruptured cerebral artery. C. an occluded cerebral artery. D. acute hypoglycemia.

You are assessing a 59-year-old male and note that his pupils are unequal. He is conscious and alert. When obtaining his medical history, it is MOST pertinent to ask him if he: Select one: A. noticed the change during a meal. B. has a history of eye surgeries. C. regularly sees a family physician. D. is allergic to any medications.

All critical life functions are coordinated in which part of the brain? Select one: A. Gray matter B. Brain stem C. Cerebrum D. Cerebellum

At rest, the normal adult heart rate should not exceed: Select one: A. 80 beats/min. B. 100 beats/min. C. 70 beats/min. D. 90 beats/min.

You are attending to a 27-year-old patient with a history of depression. The patient's family tells you that she has been openly talking about harming herself and suicide, and they got scared when she tried to overdose on some medications. The patient did not take the pills and is alert and oriented. Despite all of your best efforts to convince her, the patient refuses to go to hospital for treatment. Based on this information, you should: Select one: A. ensure that the patient is competent and completes the required documentation, and leave her in the care of her family. B. stay with the patient while you arrange for other transport options as a potentially life-threatening emergency exists. C. call for the police to attend the scene and, once they arrive, release responsibility for patient transport to them D. restrain the patient and transport her to the hospital as she represents a threat to her safety.

You are transporting a patient with blunt abdominal trauma. The patient is unstable and is experiencing obvious signs and symptoms of shock. Your estimated time of arrival at the hospital is less than 10 minutes. After treating the patient appropriately, you should: Select one: A. forgo the hospital radio report because of his condition. B. closely monitor him and reassess him frequently. C. perform a comprehensive secondary assessment. D. begin documenting the call on the patient care form.

You are transporting an elderly woman who has possibly experienced a stroke. She is obviously scared but is unable to talk and cannot move the entire right side of her body. In addition to providing the medical care that she needs, you should: Select one: A. maintain eye contact at all times and tell her that there is no need for her to be scared. B. acknowledge that she is scared and tell her that you will take good care of her. C. tell her that you understand why she is scared and that everything will likely be okay. D. reassure her that after proper treatment in the hospital, she will regain her speech in time.

You have two patients who were involved in a motor vehicle crash when their SUV struck a tree—one with neck and back pain, and the other with a deformed left femur. The patient with the deformed femur states that he does not want to be placed on a hard board, nor does he want a collar around his neck. What is the MOST appropriate and practical method of securing these patients and placing them into the ambulance? Select one: A. Apply a traction splint to the patient with the deformed femur and place him on the wheeled stretcher; place the patient with neck and back pain on the squad bench immobilized with a cervical collar and scoop stretcher. B. Immobilize the patient with neck and back pain on a long backboard and place him on the wheeled stretcher; place the patient with the deformed femur on a folding stretcher secured to the squad bench. C. Immobilize both patients with a cervical collar and long backboard based on the mechanism of injury; place one on the wheeled stretcher and the other on the squad bench. D. Immobilize the patient with neck and back pain on a long backboard and place him on the squad bench; allow the patient with the deformed femur to sit on the wheeled stretcher.

You receive a call for a domestic dispute. When you arrive at the scene, you find a young male standing on the front porch of his house. You notice that an adjacent window is broken. The patient has a large body, is clenching his fists, and is yelling obscenities at you. Which of the following findings is LEAST predictive of this patient's potential for violence? Select one: A. His shouting of obscenities B. His large body size C. The broken window D. His clenched fists

You receive a call to a local gymnasium for a basketball player with a dislocated shoulder. Upon arrival, you find the patient, a 17-year-old male, sitting on the ground. He is holding his left arm in a fixed position away from his body. There is an obvious anterior bulge to the area of injury. You should: Select one: A. flex his arm at the elbow and then apply a sling. B. assess distal pulse, motor, and sensory functions. C. place a pillow under his arm and apply a swathe. D. gently attempt to move his arm toward his body.

You receive a call to a residence for a sick patient. Upon your arrival, you find the patient, a 53-year-old diabetic male, lying down on his front porch. His wife tells you that he had been mowing the lawn in the heat for the past 3 hours. The patient is confused and has hot, moist skin. His pulse is weak and thready, and his blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg. You should: Select one: A. administer one tube of oral glucose and reassess his mental status. B. load him into the ambulance and begin rapid cooling interventions. C. perform a head-to-toe assessment and look for signs of trauma. D. place him in a sitting position and have him drink 1 L of water.

You respond to a residence for a 40-year-old female who was assaulted by her husband; the scene has been secured by law enforcement. Upon your arrival, you find the patient lying supine on the floor in the kitchen. She is semiconscious with severely labored breathing. Further assessment reveals a large bruise to the left anterior chest, jugular venous distention, and unilaterally absent breath sounds. As your partner is supporting her ventilations, you should: Select one: A. insert an oropharyngeal airway. B. immediately request ALS support. C. perform a focused secondary exam. D. obtain a set of baseline vital signs.

You respond to the scene of a motor vehicle collision. Upon arrival, you find the driver, a young female, sitting on the curb. She is confused; is in obvious respiratory distress; and has pale, moist skin. As your partner manually stabilizes her head, you perform a primary assessment. After performing any immediate life-saving treatment, you should: Select one: A. fully immobilize her spine, load her into the ambulance, and assess her vital signs. B. perform a detailed head-to-toe exam and prepare for immediate transport. C. assess her vital signs, secure her to a backboard, and transport her immediately. D. identify the specific areas of her injuries and focus your assessment on those areas.

Your BEST protection against legal liability when a patient with decision-making capacity refuses EMS care and transport is to: Select one: A. ensure that the family is aware of the risks. B. thoroughly document the entire event. C. err on the side of caution and transport. D. advise medical control of the situation.

Your patient complains of abdominal pain that occurs mostly at night or after eating fatty foods. You should suspect ____________. Select one: A. a hernia B. cholecystitis C. kidney stones D. appendicitis

12 You respond to a residence for a patient with a severe leg injury following an accident with a chainsaw. When you arrive, you find the patient, a 44-year-old male, lying supine in the backyard. He has a partial amputation of his right lower leg that is actively bleeding. The patient is conscious and breathing adequately; however, he is restless and his skin is diaphoretic. You should: Select one: A. assess the rate and quality of his pulse. B. administer 100% supplemental oxygen. C. apply direct pressure to the wound. D. immediately evaluate his airway.

17 When treating a patient with chest pain, you should assume that he or she is having an AMI because: Select one: A. most patients with chest pain are experiencing an AMI. B. angina and AMI present identically. C. the cause of the pain cannot be diagnosed in the field. D. angina usually occurs after an AMI.

18 The myocardium receives oxygenated blood from the __________, which originate(s) from the __________. Select one: A. aorta, inferior vena cava B. coronary sinus, vena cava C. coronary arteries, aorta D. vena cava, coronary veins

21 Most prehospital cardiac arrests occur as the result of: Select one: A. an acute ischemic stroke. B. obstruction of the airway. C. a cardiac dysrhythmia. D. severe blunt trauma.

23 A raised, swollen, well-defined area on the skin that is the result of an insect bite or sting is called: Select one: A. purpura. B. urticaria. C. a wheal. D. a pustule.

24 The foreign substance responsible for causing an allergic reaction is called a(n): Select one: A. leukotriene. B. antibody. C. allergen. D. histamine.

25 Ischemic heart disease is defined as: Select one: A. death of a portion of the heart muscle due to a decrease in oxygen. B. decreased blood flow to the heart muscle due to coronary dilation. C. decreased blood flow to one or more portions of the myocardium. D. absent myocardial blood flow due to a blocked coronary artery.

25 Patients with tuberculosis pose the greatest risk for transmitting the disease when they: Select one: A. are bleeding. B. have a fever. C. cough. D. vomit.

29 Which of the following medications would the EMT be LEAST likely to administer to a patient with a medical complaint? Select one: A. Albuterol B. Aspirin C. Ibuprofen D. Oral glucose

3 A 37-year-old male is found unresponsive in his car. His airway is patent and his respirations are rapid and labored. As you and your partner are assessing and treating the patient, a police officer hands you a medication named Alupent, which he found in the backseat of the patient's car. This medication suggests that the patient has a history of: Select one: A. hypertension. B. allergic reactions. C. asthma. D. heart disease.

31 When you are obtaining medical history from the family of a suspected stroke patient, it is MOST important to determine: Select one: A. if there is a family history of a stroke. B. the patient's overall medication compliance. C. when the patient last appeared normal. D. if the patient has been hospitalized before.

31 While obtaining a 12-lead ECG prior to ALS arrival, you note the presence of artifacts on the tracing. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this? Select one: A. placement of the leads B. Abnormal cardiac electrical activity C. Excessive movement of the patient D. The patient's pulse is irregular.

31 Your primary assessment of an elderly woman reveals that she is conscious and alert, but is experiencing difficulty breathing. She has a history of emphysema, hypertension, and congestive heart failure. As you assess the patient's circulatory status, you should direct your partner to: Select one: A. retrieve the stretcher and prepare for transport. B. perform a head-to-toe secondary assessment. C. administer oxygen with the appropriate device. D. assess her oxygen saturation and blood pressure.

32 In contrast to viral hepatitis, toxin-induced hepatitis: Select one: A. can be prevented with a vaccination. B. typically does not cause yellow skin. C. is not a communicable disease. D. is a far more transmittable disease.

33 Which of the following conditions would MOST likely affect the entire brain? Select one: A. Blocked cerebral artery in the frontal lobe B. Ruptured cerebral artery in the occipital lobe C. Respiratory failure or cardiopulmonary arrest D. Reduced blood supply to the left hemisphere

35 The amount of medication that is given is known as the _________. Select one: A. side effect B. contraindication C. dose D. indication

38 The MOST common reason that many people experiencing AMI do not seek immediate medical attention is because they: Select one: A. do not trust EMTs. B. cannot afford it. C. are in denial. D. are elderly.

38 A 31-year-old female is experiencing an acute asthma attack. She is conscious and alert, but in obvious respiratory distress. After assisting her with her prescribed MDI, you should: Select one: A. check the drug's expiration date to ensure that it is still current. B. administer another treatment in 30 seconds if she is still in distress. C. reassess the patient and document her response to the medication. D. contact medical control and apprise him or her of what you did.

39 When assessing an elderly male who complains of nausea and generalized weakness, you find that he takes atorvastatin (Lipitor) and amlodipine (Norvasc). These medications suggest a history of: Select one: A. bacterial infection. B. reactive airway disease. C. cardiovascular disease. D. non-insulin-dependent diabetes.

41 Which of the following symptoms would lead the EMT to believe that a patient's headache is caused by sinus congestion? Select one: A. There is numbness in the extremities B. The headache began suddenly C. The pain is worse when bending over D. There is associated neck stiffness

42 Nitroglycerin relieves cardiac-related chest pain by: Select one: A. contracting the smooth muscle of the coronary and cerebral arteries. B. constricting the coronary arteries and improving cardiac blood flow. C. dilating the coronary arteries and improving cardiac blood flow. D. increasing the amount of stress that is placed on the myocardium.

44 A percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA) restores blood flow to the ischemic myocardium by: Select one: A. placing a stent inside the coronary artery to keep it from narrowing. B. scraping fatty deposits off of the lumen of the coronary artery. C. dilating the affected coronary artery with a small inflatable balloon. D. bypassing the coronary artery with a vessel from the chest or leg.

45 A 30-year-old male experienced a generalized (tonic-clonic) seizure, which stopped before you arrived at the scene. The patient is conscious, is answering your questions appropriately, and refuses EMS transport. Which of the following would be the MOST compelling reason to disagree with his refusal of transport? Select one: A. He has experienced seizures since he was 20 B. His wife states that this was his "usual" seizure C. He is currently not prescribed any medications D. His Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score is 15

47 When caring for a patient with documented hypoglycemia, you should be MOST alert for: Select one: A. an acute stroke. B. a febrile convulsion. C. a seizure. D. respiratory distress.

48 When assessing for arm drift of a patient with a suspected stroke, you should: Select one: A. observe movement of the arms for approximately 2 minutes. B. expect to see one arm slowly drift down to the patient's side. C. ask the patient to close his or her eyes during the assessment. D. ask the patient to hold his or her arms up with the palms down.

48 Which of the following is NOT a function of the sympathetic nervous system? Select one: A. Constriction of blood vessels in the digestive system B. Dilation of blood vessels in the muscles C. Constriction of blood vessels in the muscles D. Increases in the heart and respiratory rates

51 A 59-year-old male with a history of emphysema complains of an acute worsening of his dyspnea and pleuritic chest pain following a forceful cough. Your assessment reveals that he has a barrel-shaped chest, unilaterally diminished breath sounds, and tachycardia. What is the MOST likely cause of this patient's condition? Select one: A. Acute pulmonary embolism B. Rupture of the diaphragm C. Spontaneous pneumothorax D. Exacerbation of his COPD

53 When assessing a patient with signs and symptoms of shock, it is important to remember that: Select one: A. multiple fractures are the most common cause of hypovolemic shock. B. the patient's respirations are deep during the early stages of shock. C. blood pressure may be the last measurable factor to change in shock. D. irreversible shock often responds well to a prompt blood transfusion.

55 A pleural effusion is MOST accurately defined as: Select one: A. a bacterial infection of the lung tissue. B. a unilaterally collapsed lung. C. fluid accumulation outside the lung. D. diffuse collapsing of the alveoli.

55 Your patient is in shock, but the body's defense mechanisms are currently able to maintain adequate circulation. This is called ___________. Select one: A. irreversible shock B. decompensated shock C. compensated shock D. late shock

57 Shock due to severe infection is called ________. Select one: A. anaphylactic shock B. hypovolemic shock C. septic shock D. neurogenic shock

58 Your patient has a decreased cardiac output and poor myocardial contractility. This will likely lead to ___________. Select one: A. septic shock B. hypovolemic shock C. cardiogenic shock D. neurogenic shock

59 In order for efficient pulmonary gas exchange to occur: Select one: A. there must be low quantities of pulmonary surfactant to allow for full alveolar expansion. B. the pulmonary capillaries must be completely constricted and the alveoli must be collapsed. C. oxygen and carbon dioxide must be able to freely diffuse across the alveolar-capillary membrane. D. the percentage of inhaled carbon dioxide must exceed the percentage of inhaled oxygen.

59 A 25-year-old unrestrained female struck the steering wheel with her chest when her car hit a tree while traveling at a high rate of speed. She has signs and symptoms of shock, which you suspect are the result of intrathoracic bleeding. Which of the following interventions will provide this patient with the greatest chance for survival? Select one: A. High-flow oxygen administration B. Full immobilization of her spine C. Rapid transport to a trauma center D. Intravenous fluid administration

60 Your patient has a chronic respiratory condition. His stimulus to breathe is triggered by low oxygen levels in the blood. This is known as the ___________. Select one: A. CO2 drive B. alternate drive C. hypoxic drive D. COPD drive

61 A 30-year-old male presents with acute shortness of breath, widespread hives, and facial swelling. He denies any past medical history and takes no medications. During your assessment, you hear wheezing over all the lung fields. His blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg and his heart rate is 110 beats/min. In addition to giving him high-flow oxygen, the MOST important treatment for this patient is: Select one: A. a beta-antagonist. B. an antihistamine. C. epinephrine. D. albuterol.

62 As you approach a patient lying at the side of the roadway, you observe severe bleeding from the leg. What should your first action be? Select one: A. Administer oxygen. B. Open the airway. C. Control the bleeding. D. Check for a pulse.

64 What is the correct compression-to-ventilation ratio for adult CPR? Select one: A. 5:1 B. 30:1 C. 30:2 D. 3:2

67 Between each chest compression, you should __________. Select one: A. check for a pulse B. remove your hands from the chest C. allow full chest recoil D. administer a breath

7 When transporting a stable stroke patient with a paralyzed extremity, place the patient in a: Select one: A. sitting position with the head at a 45° to 90° angle. B. supine position with the legs elevated 6 feet to 12 feet. C. recumbent position with the paralyzed side down. D. recumbent position with the paralyzed side up.

70 A patient tells you that he has a left ventricular assist device (LVAD). Which of the following conditions should you suspect that he has experienced? Select one: A. Obstructive lung disease B. Thoracic aortic aneurysm C. Acute myocardial infarction D. Uncontrolled hypertension

84 A patient with atherosclerotic heart disease experiences chest pain during exertion because: Select one: A. tissues of the myocardium undergo necrosis secondary to a prolonged absence of oxygen. B. the lumen of the coronary artery is narrowed and cannot accommodate increased blood flow. C. the ragged edge of a tear in the coronary artery lumen causes local blood clotting and arterial narrowing. D. the coronary arteries suddenly spasm and cause a marked reduction in myocardial blood flow.

85 Most AEDs are set up to adjust the voltage based on the impedance, which is the: Select one: A. direction that the electrical flow takes in the body. B. actual amount of energy that the AED will deliver. C. resistance of the body to the flow of electricity. D. distance between the two AED pads on the chest.

85 When an allergic reaction proceeds to life-threatening anaphylaxis, it will usually do so __________. Select one: A. slowly, over more than 30 minutes. B. slowly, over several hours. C. quickly, within 30 minutes. D. quickly, within 30 seconds.

88 Signs and symptoms of a hypertensive emergency would MOST likely be delayed in patients who: Select one: A. are older than 40 years of age. B. have had a stroke in the past. C. have chronic hypertension. D. regularly take illegal drugs.

89 At the site of the injury, signs and symptoms of an animal or insect bite or sting may include pain, localized heat, and a wheal, which appears as __________. Select one: A. an uncomfortable depression in the skin B. a series of small, raised pustules C. a raised, well-defined area of the skin D. a large area of red, blotchy skin

9 The inferior vena cava returns deoxygenated blood to the right side of the heart from all of the following areas, EXCEPT the: Select one: A. legs. B. kidneys. C. brain. D. abdomen.

9 You are dispatched to a residence for a 40-year-old female who fainted. Upon your arrival, the patient is conscious and alert, and states that she is fine. Her husband tells you that she fainted after receiving news that her sister was killed in a car crash. You offer oxygen to the patient, but she refuses to accept it. At this point, your primary concern should be to: Select one: A. obtain baseline vital signs and a medical history. B. advise her that she needs to go to the hospital. C. determine if she was injured when she fainted. D. provide emotional support regarding her sister.

91 An infectious disease is MOST accurately defined as: Select one: A. a disease that can be spread from one person or species to another through a number of mechanisms. B. the invasion of the human body by a bacterium that cannot be destroyed by antibiotics or other drugs. C. a medical condition caused by the growth and spread of small, harmful organisms within the body. D. any disease that enters the body via the bloodstream and renders the immune system nonfunctional.

92 Assessment of the medical patient is usually focused on the _________. Select one: A. associated symptoms B. field diagnosis C. nature of illness D. medical history

93 Which of the following is required for an EMT to administer a drug to a patient? Select one: A. A patient with stable vital signs B. An alert adult patient C. Medical direction approval D. A patient with an altered level of consciousness

96 A 19-year-old female was stung multiple times on the legs by fire ants. She states that she is allergic to fire ants, but does not carry her own epinephrine. The patient is conscious and alert and complains of pain to the area of the bites. Her blood pressure is 122/70 mm Hg, her pulse is 100 beats/min and strong, and her respirations are 18 breaths/min and unlabored. You should: Select one: A. advise her to see her physician as soon as possible. B. request a paramedic unit to administer epinephrine. C. administer oxygen and transport her to the hospital. D. position her legs well above the level of her heart.

99 Which of the following patient populations typically require a modified drug dose? Select one: A. Patients with asthma B. Middle adults C. Pediatric patients D. Females

A "hip" fracture is actually a fracture of the: Select one: A. pelvic girdle. B. pubic symphysis. C. proximal femur. D. femoral shaft.

A 30-year-old male was rescued after being lost in the woods for approximately 18 hours. The outside temperature is 30°F (-1°C). He is immediately placed in the warmed ambulance, where you perform a primary assessment. He is unresponsive, pale, and apneic. You should: Select one: A. apply chemical heat packs to his groin and axillae. B. open his airway and give two rescue breaths. C. assess for a carotid pulse for up to 60 seconds. D. apply an AED and assess his cardiac rhythm.

A 33-year-old male sustained an abdominal evisceration to the left lower quadrant of his abdomen after he was cut with a large knife. After appropriately managing his ABCs and assessing him for other life-threatening injuries, how you should care for his wound? Select one: A. Carefully replace the exposed bowel into the abdomen and transport. B. Irrigate it with sterile water and cover it with a dry dressing. C. Cover it with moist, sterile gauze and secure with an occlusive dressing. D. Cover the exposed bowel and keep his legs in a straight position.

A 39-year-old female experienced a severe closed head injury. She is unresponsive with her eyes slightly open; her pupils are bilaterally dilated and slow to react. In addition to managing problems with airway, breathing, and circulation, you should: Select one: A. secure her eyes open so you can reassess her pupils. B. inspect her eyes and gently remove impaled objects. C. close her eyes and cover them with a moist dressing. D. irrigate her eyes with water to prevent mucosal drying.

A 40-year-old male intentionally cut his wrist out of anger after losing his job. Law enforcement has secured the scene prior to your arrival. As you enter the residence and visualize the patient, you can see that he has a towel around his wrist and a moderate amount of blood has soaked through it. You should: Select one: A. quickly tend to the bleeding wound. B. tell the patient that you want to help. C. calmly identify yourself to the patient. D. approach the patient with caution.

If you cannot palpate a pulse in an unresponsive patient whose collapse was not witnessed, you should: Select one: A. apply an AED at once. B. assess for adequate breathing. C. immediately begin CPR. D. palpate at another pulse site.

Central chemoreceptors located in the medulla provide feedback to increase the rate and depth of breathing when they sense: Select one: A. increased levels of oxygen in the blood and a decrease in the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid. B. slight decreases in carbon dioxide and an increase in the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid. C. slight increases in carbon dioxide or a decrease in the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid. D. decreased levels of oxygen in the blood and an increase in the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid.

Cerebral palsy is characterized by poorly controlled ________ movement. Select one: A. extremity B. eye C. body D. neck

Chlamydia, bacterial vaginosis, and gonorrhea are all examples of _________. Select one: A. "women's conditions" B. diseases that can cause scarring of the fallopian tubes C. sexually transmitted diseases D. causes of vaginal bleeding

Common causes of seizures in children include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. electrolyte imbalances. B. infection. C. hyperglycemia. D. poisonings or ingestion.

Compared to adults, infants and children are at higher risk for hypothermia for all of the following reasons, EXCEPT: Select one: A. a smaller amount of body fat. B. a decreased ability to shiver. C. a relatively small surface area. D. a smaller overall muscle mass

Compression injury is most likely due to which of the following? Select one: A. Ejection of unrestrained driver B. Hollow-organ rupture C. Improperly placed lab belt D. Stabbing

Covering a patient's _________ will significantly minimize radiation heat loss. Select one: A. extremities B. abdomen C. head D. chest

Down syndrome is a genetic defect that occurs as the result of: Select one: A. an extra pair of chromosomes. B. a separation of chromosome 21. C. a triplication of chromosome 21. D. a sperm that contains 24 chromosomes.

During your assessment of a 29-year-old female with significant deformity to her left elbow, you are unable to palpate a radial pulse. Your transport time to the hospital is approximately 40 minutes. You should: Select one: A. carefully straighten the injured arm and secure it with padded board splints. B. make two or three attempts to restore distal circulation by manipulating the elbow. C. apply gentle manual traction in line with the limb and reassess for a pulse. D. splint the elbow in the position of deformity and transport immediately.

During your assessment of a patient with blunt chest trauma, you note that the patient has shallow breathing and paradoxical movement of the left chest wall. You should: Select one: A. make note of it and continue your assessment. B. request a paramedic to decompress the chest. C. assist ventilations with a bag-valve mask. D. apply high-flow oxygen via nonrebreathing mask.

During your secondary assessment of a 30-year-old male who fell 25 feet, you note crepitus when palpating his pelvis. Your partner advises you that the patient's blood pressure is 80/50 mm Hg and his heart rate is 120 beats/min and weak. After completing your assessment, you should: Select one: A. perform a focused physical exam with emphasis on the pelvis. B. defer spinal immobilization and transport to a trauma center. C. stabilize the pelvis with a pelvic binder and protect the spine. D. log roll the patient onto a long backboard and transport at once.

Excessive eating caused by cellular "hunger" is called: Select one: A. dyspepsia. B. polydipsia. C. polyphagia. D. dysphasia.

Factors that contribute to a decline in the vital capacity of an elderly patient include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. increased stiffness of the thoracic cage. B. decreased residual volume. C. increased surface area available for air exchange. D. a loss of respiratory muscle mass.

Following a blunt injury to the head, a 22-year-old female is confused and complains of a severe headache and nausea. On the basis of these signs and symptoms, you should be MOST concerned with the possibility of: Select one: A. spinal cord injury. B. airway compromise. C. intracranial bleeding. D. a fracture of the skull.

For every emergency request, the dispatcher should routinely gather and record all of the following information, EXCEPT the: Select one: A. caller's phone number. B. nature of the call. C. patient's medical history. D. location of the patient(s).

Functions of the liver include: Select one: A. release of amylase, which breaks down starches into sugar. B. production of hormones that regulate blood sugar levels. C. secretion of bile and filtration of toxic substances. D. absorption of nutrients and toxins.

General treatment for a woman with vaginal bleeding and shock following sexual assault includes all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. supplemental oxygen and keeping the patient supine. B. refraining from placing any dressings into the vagina. C. carefully removing any foreign bodies from the vagina. D. treating external lacerations with sterile compresses.

Heat stroke occurs when: Select one: A. a person becomes dehydrated secondary to excess water loss. B. a person's core body temperature rises above 103°F (39°C). C. the body's heat-eliminating mechanisms are overwhelmed. D. the ambient temperature exceeds 90°F (32°C) and the humidity is high

If a baby is born at 7:52, the second Apgar score should be calculated at: Select one: A. 8:00. B. 7:59. C. 7:57. D. 7:53.

If fertilization has not occurred in approximately 14 days postovulation: Select one: A. the ovum will begin to travel to the uterus. B. another egg will be released. C. menstruation will begin. D. All of these answers are correct.

If the level of carbon dioxide in the arterial blood rises above normal, the patient breathes: Select one: A. fast and shallow. B. slower and less deeply. C. rapidly and deeply. D. normally.

If you are exposed to a patient's blood or other bodily fluid, your first action should be to: Select one: A. report the incident to the infection control officer. B. abandon patient care and seek medical attention. C. transfer care of the patient to another EMS provider. D. vigorously clean the area with soap and water.

In contrast to younger patients, older patients are more prone to a decrease in blood pressure (BP) upon standing because: Select one: A. any change in position causes blood to be shunted to the brain. B. the aging process results in an overall increase in blood volume. C. the body is less able to adapt the BP to rapid postural changes. D. their red blood cells are destroyed at a faster than normal rate.

In nontrauma patients, an early indicator of internal bleeding is: Select one: A. a rapid, thready pulse. B. rapid, shallow breathing. C. dizziness upon standing. D. a decreasing blood pressure.

In order for sweating to be an effective cooling mechanism: Select one: A. the body must produce at least 1 L per hour. B. the relative humidity must be above 90%. C. it must be able to evaporate from the body. D. several layers of clothing must be worn

In preparing for a disaster, EMS systems should have enough supplies for at least a ______ period of self-sufficiency. Select one: A. 48-hour B. 96-hour C. 72-hour D. 24-hour

Menstrual flow will typically last approximately _________. Select one: A. 1 day B. 3 days C. 1 week D. 1 month

National guidelines for EMS care are intended to __________. Select one: A. reduce expenses at the local and state levels B. unify EMS providers under a single medical director C. provide more consistent delivery of EMS care across the United States D. facilitate a national EMS labor group

Noncardiovascular causes of shock include respiratory insufficiency and: Select one: A. sepsis. B. hypovolemia. C. anaphylaxis. D. metabolism

Normal skin color, temperature, and condition should be: Select one: A. pale, cool, and moist. B. flushed, cool, and dry. C. pink, warm, and dry. D. pink, warm, and moist.

Online medical control requires __________. Select one: A. a physician's presence on the scene of the call B. the presence of an advanced-level provider C. phone or radio contact with the medical director D. written protocols approved by medical control

Patients with uncontrolled diabetes experience polyuria because: Select one: A. low blood glucose levels result in cellular dehydration. B. they drink excess amounts of water due to dehydration. C. excess glucose in the blood is excreted by the kidneys. D. high blood sugar levels cause permanent kidney damage.

Question 14 Critical incident stress management (CISM) can occur at an ongoing scene in all of the following circumstances, EXCEPT: Select one: A. before personnel are preparing to reenter the scene. B. when personnel are assessed during periods of rest. C. when patients are actively being assessed or treated. D. before leaving the scene after the incident is resolved.

Question 18 Wterm-22hich of the following statements would NOT be appropriate to say to the family of a dying patient? Select one: A. "Tell me how you are feeling." B. "This must be painful for you." C. "Things will get better in time." D. "It is okay to be angry and sad

Question 23 The MOST important consideration at the scene of a hazardous materials incident is: Select one: A. evacuating the bystanders. B. calling the hazardous materials team. C. ensuring your personal safety. D. identifying the hazardous material.

Question 25 What should you do before attempting to access a patient trapped in a vehicle? Select one: A. Contact medical control. B. Request another ambulance. C. Ensure the vehicle is stable. D. Check for other patients.

Question 30 You are dispatched to the scene of a crash involving a large tanker truck. While you are en route, dispatch advises you that there are multiple patients and that the fire department is en route as well. As you approach the scene, you should: Select one: A. don personal protective equipment and quickly triage all patients. B. immediately begin evacuating residents who live near the crash site. C. maintain a safe distance and try to read the placard with binoculars. D. cordon off the area and quickly remove all of the injured patients.

Question 32 When considering his or her personal life, it is important for the EMT to realize that: Select one: A. he or she should not discuss stressful issues with family members. B. shift work is the least stressful type of an EMS-related work schedule. C. family or friends may not understand the stress associated with EMS. D. it is more difficult to effectively relax at home than it is while on duty.

Question 37 The MOST effective way to preserve your own body heat when functioning in cold, wet weather is to: Select one: A. wear a heavy, thick jacket or coat. B. avoid outer clothing with zippers. C. wear at least three layers of clothing. D. wear socks made of heavy-duty cotton.

Question 40 While trying to make a family member feel better after a loved one has died, your partner states, "I know how you are feeling." The family members may view this as: Select one: A. coaching them through the grieving process. B. a show of respect for the person who has died. C. your partner's attempt to diminish their grief. D. your partner's caring and supportive attitude.

Question 52 Immediately after being dispatched to a residence for an elderly patient with diabetic complications, you should: Select one: A. ask the dispatcher if the patient is conscious or unconscious. B. request that law enforcement secure the scene before you arrive. C. confirm with dispatch that you received the call information. D. ask the dispatcher to obtain a medical history from the caller.

Question 54 You are caring for a 52-year-old man who complains of chest discomfort. The patient is a retired paramedic and is very anxious because he thinks he is having a heart attack. Which of the following statements would be appropriate? Select one: A. "This is nothing to worry about. Please try to stay calm. The physician at the hospital will probably not find any signs of a heart problem." B. "I notice that you are a retired paramedic, so I'm sure you will understand all of the things that we will be doing to you." C. "It is possible that you are experiencing a heart attack. I am going to give you four baby aspirin to chew and swallow." D. "We need to take you to the ED stat. We will give you ASA and NTG en route and then reassess your vitals. Do you have any questions?"

Which of the following statements regarding hepatitis A is correct? Select one: A. Although there is no vaccine against hepatitis A, treatment is usually successful. B. Hepatitis A is primarily transmitted via contact with blood or other body fluids. C. Hepatitis A can only be transmitted by a patient who has an acute infection. D. Infection with hepatitis A causes chronic illness with a high mortality rate.

Which of the following statements regarding motor nerves is correct? Select one: A. They transmit information from the body to the brain via the spinal cord. B. They are part of the CNS and control reflexes. C. They carry information from the CNS to the muscles. D. They perform special functions such as sight, smell, and hearing.

Which of the following statements regarding secondary brain injury is correct? Select one: A. It results from direct brain trauma following an impact to the head. B. Because cerebral edema develops quickly, it is considered to be a primary brain injury. C. Hypoxia and hypotension are the two most common causes of secondary brain injury. D. Signs are often present immediately after an impact to the head.

Which of the following statements regarding striated muscle is correct? Select one: A. Most of the body's striated muscle is found within the walls of the blood vessels. B. Striated muscle is involuntary because you have no conscious control over it. C. It forms the major muscle mass of the body and usually crosses at least one joint. D. Striated muscle tissue is attached directly to the bones by tough bands of cartilage

Which of the following statements regarding the NREMT is correct? Select one: A. EMS training standards are regulated by the NREMT. B. The NREMT is a governmental agency that certifies EMTs. C. The NREMT provides a national standard for EMS testing. D. The NREMT is the exclusive certifying body for EMTs.

Which of the following would provide the EMT with the BEST cover in a situation involving active gunfire? Select one: A. Behind a car door B. Stacked empty barrels C. A concrete barricade D. A large cluster of shrubs

Which portion of the blood carries oxygen to and wastes away from body tissues? Select one: A. Platelets B. White blood cells C. Red blood cells D. Plasma

While the ages can vary, women typically experience menstruation from approximately _________ to ____________ years of age. Select one: A. 10; 40 B. 20; 60 C. 11; 50 D. 10; 70

While triaging patients at the scene of a motor-vehicle crash, you encounter a 5-year-old child who is unresponsive and apneic. After positioning his airway, you should: Select one: A. categorize him as deceased. B. deliver 5 rescue breaths. C. palpate for a carotid pulse. D. categorize him as immediate.

While you are on duty, your partner asks you out on a date and touches you in an inappropriate location without your consent. You should: Select one: A. warn your partner that you will report him or her if it happens again. B. notify law enforcement personnel and have your partner arrested. C. tell your partner to stop and report the incident to your supervisor. D. tell your partner to quit kidding around and focus on the job.

Why might EMTs encounter a larger proportion of violent patients than the population at large? Select one: A. It is a common misperception; EMTs do NOT encounter a larger proportion of violent patients than the population at large. B. EMTs respond with law enforcement. C. EMTs respond to patients who, by definition, are having an emergency. D. EMTs have to restrain patients.

With regard to musculoskeletal injuries, the zone of injury is defined as the: Select one: A. area of obvious deformity over the site of impact. B. exact part of the bone or joint that was disrupted. C. area of soft-tissue damage surrounding the injury. D. part of the body that sustained secondary injury.

Worn-out blood cells, foreign substances, and bacteria are filtered from the blood by the: Select one: A. pancreas. B. kidney. C. spleen. D. liver.

You and your partner are both male and are attending to a 28-year-old female patient complaining of diffuse abdominal pain. The patient is 34 weeks pregnant with her first child. The patient refuses to allow you to examine her, and her husband informs you that their culture does not allow males to examine or care for pregnant women. You should: Select one: A. inform the patient that by calling for an ambulance, she is agreeing to the care provided and continue with your assessment and management. B. insist that the patient requires proper care and that requires an adequate physical assessment and that you cannot be responsible for the outcome. C. respect the patient's wishes, ensure that the appropriate documentation is completed, and transport the patient. D. call for the police to ensure that patient assessment is carried out.

You and your partner respond to a park where several people were reportedly struck by lightning. When you arrive, you find three patients. The first patient is lying supine on the ground; he is unresponsive and does not appear to be breathing. The second patient is ambulatory, appears confused, and is holding his arm against his chest. The third patient is sitting on the ground holding the sides of his head. After calling for backup, you should: Select one: A. recognize that the patients who are conscious are at high risk for developing cardiac arrest and quickly assess them for potentially life-threatening injuries. B. immediately begin CPR on the unresponsive patient, but cease resuscitation efforts if there is no response after 5 minutes of treatment. C. assess the unresponsive patient's pulse, begin CPR starting with chest compressions if he is pulseless, and attach the AED as soon as possible. D. focus your initial treatment efforts on the patients who are conscious because the unresponsive patient is likely in irreversible cardiac arrest.

You are assessing a 70-year-old female who complains of intense thirst, frequent urination, and dizziness. She has a history of type 2 diabetes, heart disease, rheumatoid arthritis, and gout. Her blood glucose reads "high." She is conscious, but confused. Her blood pressure is 92/52 mm Hg, her pulse rate is 130 beats/min and weak, and her respirations are 22 breaths/min and shallow. This patient's clinical presentation is MOST consistent with: Select one: A. diabetic ketoacidosis. B. acute renal failure with associated hyperglycemia. C. hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome. D. hyperglycemia with moderate dehydration.

The ___________ is made up of the maxilla and zygoma, as well as the frontal bone of the cranium. Select one: A. mastoid B. occiput C. orbit D. sphenoid

You are transporting a 33-year-old male who was involved in a major motor vehicle crash. You have addressed all immediate and potentially life-threatening conditions and have stabilized his condition with the appropriate treatment. With an estimated time of arrival at the hospital of 20 minutes, you should: Select one: A. arrange for an ALS rendezvous. B. take his vital signs in 15 minutes. C. reassess his condition in 5 minutes. D. repeat your secondary assessment.

You are treating a middle-aged man with chest discomfort. He has a history of three previous heart attacks and takes nitroglycerin as needed for chest pain. You have standing orders to administer aspirin to patients with suspected cardiac-related chest pain or discomfort. While your partner is preparing to give oxygen to the patient, you should: Select one: A. contact medical control, apprise him or her of the patient's chief complaint and vital signs, and request permission to give him aspirin. B. assist the patient in taking one of his prescribed nitroglycerin, assess his vital signs, and give him aspirin if he is still experiencing chest discomfort. C. confirm that the patient is not allergic to aspirin, give him the appropriate dose of aspirin, and document the time and dose given. D. ensure that the patient's systolic blood pressure is at least 100 mm Hg as aspirin dilates the blood vessels and can cause a drop in blood pressure.

You arrive at an accident scene to find an alternative-fuel vehicle leaking an unknown substance. You should immediately _________. Select one: A. disconnect the car battery B. apply retardant to the leaking fuel C. call for additional resources and keep bystanders away from the vehicle D. search the vehicle for occupants

You arrive at the scene of a major motor vehicle crash. The patient, a 50-year-old female, was removed from her vehicle prior to your arrival. Bystanders who removed her state that she was not wearing a seatbelt. The patient is unresponsive, tachycardic, and diaphoretic. Your assessment reveals bilaterally clear and equal breath sounds, a midline trachea, and collapsed jugular veins. You should be MOST suspicious that this patient has experienced a: Select one: A. massive hemothorax. B. tension pneumothorax. C. laceration of the aorta. D. pericardial tamponade.

You come upon an unresponsive patient who is not injured and is breathing on her own with a normal rate and an adequate tidal volume. What would be the advantage of placing her in the recovery position? Select one: A. It's the preferred position of comfort for patients. B. It's easier to load the patient onto the cot from this position. C. It helps to maintain a clear airway. D. It helps to protect the patient's cervical spine when injuries are hidden.

You have just delivered a major trauma patient to the hospital. Shortly after departing the hospital, dispatch advises you of another call. The back of the ambulance is contaminated with bloody dressings and is in disarray, and you are in need of airway equipment and numerous other supplies. You should: Select one: A. quickly proceed to the call and clean and restock the ambulance afterwards. B. have your partner quickly clean the ambulance as you proceed to the call. C. advise the dispatcher that you are out of service and to send another unit. D. proceed to the call, functioning only as an emergency medical responder.

You have sealed the open chest wound of a 40-year-old male who was stabbed in the anterior chest. Your reassessment reveals that he is experiencing increasing respiratory distress and tachycardia, and is developing cyanosis. You should: Select one: A. call for a paramedic ambulance. B. begin rapid transport at once. C. partially remove the dressing. D. begin ventilatory assistance.

You respond to a construction site and find a worker lying supine in the dirt. He has been hit by a heavy construction vehicle and flew more than 15 feet (4.6 m) before landing in his current position. There is discoloration and distention of his abdomen about the right upper quadrant. He is unconscious and his respirations are 10 breaths/min and shallow, with noisy gurgling sounds. What method will you use to keep his airway open? Select one: A. Nasal cannula B. Jaw thrust C. Oropharyngeal airway D. All of these answers are correct.

You respond to a house fire with the local fire department. They bring a 48-year-old woman out of the house. She is unconscious but her airway is open. Her breathing is shallow at 30 breaths/min. Her pulse is 110 beats/min, strong and regular. Her blood pressure is 108/72 mm Hg. She has been burned over 40% of her body. The burned area appears to be dry and leathery. It looks charred and has pieces of fabric embedded in the flesh. You know that this type of burn is considered a: Select one: A. first-degree burn. B. second-degree burn. C. third-degree burn. D. partial-thickness burn.

Your documentation on a sexual assault victim should _______. Select one: A. include your opinion of the nature of the incident B. be subjective and summarize the crime C. be objective and factual D. describe the status of the suspect(s)

Your partner, a veteran EMT with whom you have worked regularly for the past 4 years, seems unusually agitated during a call involving an elderly patient. Upon arrival back at your station, you note the obvious smell of alcohol on his breath. What should you do? Select one: A. Report the incident to your EMS medical director. B. Tell your partner that he must seek professional help. C. Discreetly report your suspicions to your supervisor. D. Remain quiet and simply request another partner.

Your patient has a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 13, a systolic blood pressure of 80 mm Hg, and a respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min. His Revised Trauma Score (RTS) is: Select one: A. 10. B. 8. C. 9. D. 11.

_____ burns may involve the subcutaneous layers, muscle, bone, or internal organs. Select one: A. Partial-thickness B. Superficial C. Full-thickness D. Second-degree

During each heartbeat, ___________ of blood is ejected from the adult heart, an amount called the stroke volume. Select one: A. 40 to 50 mL B. 90 to 100 mL C. 70 to 80 mL D. 100 to 120 mL

Mean arterial pressure (MAP) is a product of: Select one: A. heart rate and stroke volume. B. heart rate and systemic vascular resistance. C. cardiac output and systemic vascular resistance. D. stroke volume and systemic vascular resistance.

Which of the following statements regarding nervous system control of the cardiovascular system is correct? Select one: A. When stimulated, the parasympathetic nervous system is responsible for increasing the heart rate. B. The sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems work together to perform the same function. C. Baroreceptors located throughout the body provide information to the brain regarding the blood pressure. D. Alpha-adrenergic receptors are located exclusively in the heart and are stimulated by epinephrine.

86 Most patients with an infectious disease will have _________. Select one: A. a low blood glucose level B. seizures C. abdominal pain D. a fever

14 Your assessment of an unresponsive patient reveals that her breathing is inadequate. Your MOST immediate action should be to: Select one: A. administer high-flow oxygen. B. move her to the ambulance stretcher. C. ventilate her with a bag-valve mask. D. check her airway for obstructions.

15 Sudden death following AMI is MOST often caused by: Select one: A. severe bradycardia. B. cardiogenic shock. C. congestive heart failure. D. ventricular fibrillation.

17 Ketone production is the result of: Select one: A. blood glucose levels higher than 120 mg/dL. B. rapid entry of glucose across the cell membrane. C. acidosis when blood glucose levels are low. D. fat metabolization when glucose is unavailable.

2 Hyperventilation could be associated with all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. an overdose of aspirin. B. a respiratory infection. C. high blood glucose levels. D. a narcotic overdose.

26 You have administered one dose of epinephrine to a 40-year-old female to treat an allergic reaction that she developed after being stung by a scorpion. Your reassessment reveals that she is still having difficulty breathing, has a decreasing mental status, and has a blood pressure of 80/50 mm Hg. You should: Select one: A. monitor her en route to the hospital and call medical control if she worsens. B. administer a nebulized bronchodilator to improve the status of her breathing. C. crush up an antihistamine tablet and place it in between her cheek and gum. D. request permission from medical control to give another dose of epinephrine.

6 A 74-year-old woman complains of heaviness in her chest, nausea, and sweating that suddenly began about an hour ago. She is conscious and alert, but anxious. Her blood pressure is 144/84 mm Hg and her heart rate is 110 beats/min. She took two of her prescribed nitroglycerin (0.4-mg tablets) before your arrival but still feels heaviness in her chest. You should: Select one: A. give her high-flow oxygen, avoid giving her any more nitroglycerin because it may cause a drop in her blood pressure, and transport. B. transport her at once and wait at least 20 minutes before you consider assisting her with a third dose of her prescribed nitroglycerin. C. assist her in taking one more of her nitroglycerin tablets, reassess her blood pressure, and contact medical control for further instructions. D. recall that geriatric patients often have slower absorption and elimination times, which may necessitate modification of the dosing of certain drugs.

60 To protect vital organs, the body compensates by directing blood flow away from organs that are more tolerant of low flow, such as: Select one: A. the lungs. B. the heart. C. the brain. D. the skin.

66 CPR is in progress on a pregnant woman. Shortly after manually displacing her uterus to the left, return of spontaneous circulation occurs. Which of the following would MOST likely explain this? Select one: A. Displacement of her uterus caused blood to flow backward, which increased blood flow to her heart. B. Increased blood flow to her heart caused her ventricles to stop fibrillating, which restored her pulse. C. Displacement of her uterus allowed her lungs to expand more fully, which restored her pulse. D. Pressure was relieved from her aorta and vena cava, which improved chest compression effectiveness.

7 EMTs respond to a known heroin abuser who is unresponsive. If they give naloxone (Narcan) to this patient, the EMTs should recall that: Select one: A. the effects of naloxone last longer than most opioid drugs. B. naloxone should not be given if the patient's breathing is slow. C. naloxone should be administered in increments of 2 mg. D. naloxone administration could cause seizures in this patient.

72 A 49-year-old male presents with an acute onset of crushing chest pain and diaphoresis. You should: Select one: A. obtain vital signs and a SAMPLE history. B. administer up to three doses of nitroglycerin. C. administer up to 324 mg of baby aspirin. D. assess the adequacy of his respirations.

73 Your conscious patient has a mild partial airway obstruction. You should: Select one: A. perform abdominal thrusts. B. place the patient supine. C. administer back blows. D. encourage the patient to cough.

77 Which of the following is NOT a common sign or symptom associated with malfunction of an implanted cardiac pacemaker? Select one: A. Syncope or dizziness B. Heart rate less than 60 beats/min C. Generalized weakness D. A rapid heart rate

78 The EMT should assess for hypoglycemia in small children with a severe illness or injury because: Select one: A. illness or injury causes the pancreas to produce less insulin. B. a child's cells do not uptake glucose as rapidly as adults' do. C. children overproduce insulin during severe illness or injury. D. children cannot store excess glucose as effectively as adults.

78 Several attempts to adequately open a trauma patient's airway with the jaw-thrust maneuver have been unsuccessful. You should: Select one: A. when you deliver minimal tidal volume. B. when the airway is completely obstructed. C. in patients who are intubated. D. if you ventilate a patient too quickly.

79 The EMT should use an AED on a child between 1 month and 8 years of age if: Select one: A. his or her condition is rapidly progressing to cardiac arrest. B. special pads are used and the child has profound tachycardia. C. he or she is not breathing and has a weakly palpable pulse. D. pediatric pads and an energy-reducing device are available.

8 A 62-year-old man with a history of congestive heart failure presents with severe respiratory distress and with an oxygen saturation of 82%. When you auscultate his lungs, you hear widespread rales. He is conscious and alert, is able to follow simple commands, and can only speak in two- to three-word sentences at a time. You should: Select one: A. place him in a supine position and assist his ventilations with a bag-valve mask and high-flow oxygen. B. force fluid from his alveoli by hyperventilating him with a bag-valve mask at a rate of at least 20 breaths/min. C. place him in a position of comfort, deliver oxygen via nasal cannula, and closely monitor his breathing. D. apply a CPAP device, monitor his blood pressure, and observe him for signs of improvement or deterioration.

8 Individuals with chronic alcoholism are predisposed to intracranial bleeding and hypoglycemia secondary to abnormalities in the: Select one: A. pancreas. B. brain. C. kidneys. D. liver.

8 You are treating a 45-year-old woman who was stung by a hornet and has a rash. She tells you that she is allergic to hornets and has her own epinephrine auto-injector. She also tells you that she takes medication for hypertension. Her breath sounds do not reveal any wheezing, her breathing is unlabored, and her blood pressure is 154/94 mm Hg. What should you do if you are not able to make contact with medical control? Select one: A. Give her half the dose of her epinephrine in case her allergic reaction is delayed. B. Administer her epinephrine, reassess her condition, and transport her promptly. C. Begin immediate transport and request an intercept with a paramedic ambulance. D. Begin transport to the hospital and closely monitor her condition while en route.

81 Which of the following would MOST likely provide clues regarding the source of a patient's allergic reaction? Select one: A. The time of year in which the exposure occurred B. The patient's family history C. The patient's general physical appearance D. The environment in which the patient is found

85 It is especially important to assess pulse, sensation, and movement in all extremities as well as pupillary reactions in patients with a suspected ___________ problem. Select one: A. cardiac B. endocrine C. respiratory D. neurologic

86 Prior to attaching the AED to a cardiac arrest patient, the EMT should: Select one: A. perform CPR for 30 seconds. B. contact medical control. C. assess for a pulse for 20 seconds. D. dry the chest if it is wet.

86 The effects of epinephrine are typically observed within _________ following administration. Select one: A. 30 minutes B. 30 seconds C. 1 hour D. 1 minute

88 Care for a victim of an immunologic emergency who is severely hypotensive should include which of the following? Select one: A. Routine spinal immobilization due to the potential for traumatic injury B. Initiate basic life support measures, including the use of an automated external defibrillator, if necessary. C. Position the patient's airway and initiate positive-pressure ventilations. D. Apply high-flow oxygen therapy, place the patient in a shock position, and help maintain the patient's body temperature.

92 Epinephrine stimulates the ________ response, increasing blood pressure and relieving bronchospasm. Select one: A. respiratory B. cardiac C. parasympathetic D. sympathetic

93 When a foreign substance invades the body, the body will __________. Select one: A. protect itself B. go on alert C. attempt to inactivate the foreign substance D. All of these answers are correct.

96 A 62-year-old male is seen with crushing chest pain, which he describes as being the same kind of pain that he had with a previous heart attack. He has prescribed nitroglycerin but states that he has not taken any. After administering supplemental oxygen if needed and contacting medical control, you should: Select one: A. begin immediate transport and request a rendezvous with a paramedic unit. B. administer up to three doses of nitroglycerin before assessing his blood pressure. C. administer the nitroglycerin unless he has taken Viagra within the past 72 hours. D. assist him with his nitroglycerin unless his systolic blood pressure is less than 100 mm Hg.

97 A 37-year-old male is having a severe allergic reaction to penicillin. He does not have an epinephrine auto-injector and your protocols do not allow you to carry epinephrine on the ambulance. How should you proceed with the treatment of this patient? Select one: A. Ask the patient if he has any diphenhydramine tablets that you can administer. B. Quickly determine if there are any bystanders who may carry epinephrine. C. Remain at the scene with the patient and request a paramedic ambulance. D. Administer oxygen, transport at once, and request a paramedic intercept.

97 Which of the following statements regarding parenteral medications is correct? Select one: A. Parenteral medications are absorbed by the body through the digestive system. B. Compared to enteral medications, parenteral medications have fewer side effects. C. Tylenol is an example of a parenteral medication because it is taken orally. D. Parenteral medications are absorbed more quickly than enteral medications.

99 Anaphylaxis caused by stinging insects is typically an allergic reaction to ____________ rather than the bite or sting itself. Select one: A. injected poison B. irritating toxin C. deadly venom D. All of these answers are correct.

A 13-year-old child is on a home ventilator. The parents called because the mechanical ventilator is malfunctioning and the child has increasing respiratory distress. You should: Select one: A. place a call to the home health agency treating this patient. B. reset the ventilator by unplugging it for 30 to 60 seconds. C. attempt to troubleshoot the mechanical ventilator problem. D. disconnect the ventilator and apply a tracheostomy collar.

A 26-year-old female presents with heavy vaginal bleeding. She is conscious, but restless. Her blood pressure is 84/54 mm Hg, her pulse is 120 beats/min and weak, and her respirations are 22 breaths/min with adequate depth. She tells you that she inserted a tampon about 2 hours ago. You should: Select one: A. administer high-flow oxygen, ask her to remove the tampon, perform a detailed secondary assessment, and transport promptly. B. assist her ventilations with a bag-valve mask, place one sterile dressing into her vagina, perform a rapid secondary assessment, and transport. C. administer high-flow oxygen, perform a detailed assessment of her vaginal area for signs of trauma, place her on her side, and transport. D. administer high-flow oxygen, place a sterile pad over her vagina, keep her warm, elevate her lower extremities, and transport without delay.

A 28-year-old male was struck in the chest with a baseball bat during an altercation. He is conscious and alert and complains of severe chest pain. Your assessment reveals a large area of ecchymosis over the sternum and a rapid, irregular pulse. In addition to providing supplemental oxygen, you should: Select one: A. apply an AED and assess his BP. B. apply bulky dressings to the sternum. C. determine if he has cardiac problems. D. prepare for immediate transport.

A 29-year-old male with a head injury opens his eyes when you speak to him, is confused as to the time and date, and is able to move all of his extremities on command. His Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score is: Select one: A. 10. B. 14. C. 12. D. 13.

A 30-year-old woman with a history of alcoholism presents with severe upper abdominal pain and is vomiting large amounts of bright red blood. Her skin is cool, pale, and clammy; her heart rate is 120 beats/min and weak; and her blood pressure is 70/50 mm Hg. Your MOST immediate action should be to: Select one: A. keep her supine and keep her warm. B. give her high-flow supplemental oxygen. C. rapidly transport her to the hospital. D. protect her airway from aspiration.

A 33-year-old restrained driver of a motor vehicle crash is awake and alert, complaining only of neck pain and left leg pain. The vehicle is stable and no hazards are present. When removing this patient from his vehicle, you should: Select one: A. maintain slight traction to his neck area. B. use the rapid extrication technique. C. apply a full leg splint prior to extrication. D. immobilize him with a vest-style device.

A 43-year-old man is experiencing a severe nosebleed. His blood pressure is 190/110 mm Hg and his heart rate is 90 beats/min and bounding. Preferred treatment for this patient includes: Select one: A. placing a rolled 4² × 4² dressing between his lower lip and gum. B. having the patient pinch his own nostrils and then lie supine. C. packing both nostrils with gauze pads until the bleeding stops. D. pinching the patient's nostrils and having him lean forward.

A 45-year-old female was the unrestrained passenger of a small car that rear-ended another vehicle at a moderate rate of speed. She is conscious and alert, but complains of pain to both of her knees. There is visible damage to the dashboard on the passenger's side of the vehicle. In addition to fractures or dislocations of the knees, you should be MOST suspicious for: Select one: A. anterior hip dislocation. B. fracture of the tibia or fibula. C. a thoracic spine fracture. D. posterior hip dislocation.

A 45-year-old male was working on his roof when he fell approximately 12 feet, landing on his feet. He is conscious and alert and complains of an ache in his lower back. He is breathing adequately and has stable vital signs. You should: Select one: A. perform a rapid head-to-toe exam and immobilize his spine. B. allow him to refuse transport if his vital signs remain stable. C. obtain a Glasgow Coma Score value and give him oxygen. D. immobilize his spine and perform a focused secondary exam.

A 77-year-old female presents with an acute onset of altered mental status. Her son is present and advises that she has a history of hypertension, atrial fibrillation, type 2 diabetes, and glaucoma. He further advises that she takes numerous medications and that she is normally alert. When you assess this patient, it is important to note that: Select one: A. because of her age and medical history, you should suspect Alzheimer disease. B. her mental status is likely the result of hypoglycemia and you should give her sugar. C. dementia typically presents as an acute onset of deterioration of cognitive function. D. the patient is experiencing delirious behavior, which suggests a new health problem.

A behavioral crisis interferes with which of the following? Select one: A. Activities of daily living B. Behavior that is acceptable to the community C. Dressing, eating, or bathing D. All of these answers are correct.

A decrease in blood pressure may indicate: Select one: A. increased blood volume. B. arterial constriction. C. forceful cardiac contraction. D. loss of vascular tone.

A patient with pelvic inflammatory disease will typically complain of _________. Select one: A. aches and fever associated with urination B. bleeding associated with stress C. nausea and vomiting associated with intercourse D. abdominal pain associated with menstruation

A supervisor who has more than seven people reporting to him or her: Select one: A. is more beneficial to the overall effort than a supervisor with fewer personnel because his or her team can accomplish more tasks. B. should assign a specific task to each person reporting to him or her and regularly follow up to ensure that the tasks were carried out. C. should regularly report to the incident commander (IC) to inform him or her of the functions that his or her team is performing. D. has exceeded an effective span of control and should divide tasks and delegate the supervision of some tasks to another person.

A surgical procedure that creates an opening between the intestine and the surface of the body that allows for elimination of waste products is called a(n): Select one: A. gastric stoma. B. intestinal shunt. C. gastrostomy. D. colostomy.

According to the "E" in the DOPE mnemonic, which of the following actions should you perform to troubleshoot inadequate ventilation in a patient with a tracheostomy tube? Select one: A. Look for blood or other secretions in the tube. B. Attempt to pass a suction catheter into the tube. C. Listen to breath sounds to assess for a pneumothorax. D. Check the mechanical ventilator for malfunction.

All of the following terms refer to a body part that is cold but not frozen, EXCEPT: Select one: A. immersion foot. B. trench foot. C. frostnip. D. frostbite.

An 84-year-old male fell a week ago and has been bedridden since then. Today, he presents with an altered mental status. His skin is pale and cold and his respirations are rapid and shallow. The EMT should suspect: Select one: A. hypovolemic shock. B. a subdural hematoma. C. acute hyperglycemia. D. a systemic infection.

An absence seizure is also referred to as a: Select one: A. total body seizure. B. grand mal seizure. C. generalized motor seizure. D. petit mal seizure.

An appropriate demonstration of professionalism when your patient is frightened, demanding, or unpleasant is to: Select one: A. reassure the patient that everything will be all right, even if it will not be. B. ignore the patient's feelings and focus on his or her medical complaint. C. demand that the patient to be quiet and cooperative during transport. D. continue to be nonjudgmental, compassionate, and respectful.

An attack on an abortion clinic would MOST likely be carried out by a(n): Select one: A. extremist political group. B. violent religious group. C. doomsday cult. D. single-issue group.

An indicator of an expanding intracranial hematoma or rapidly progressing brain swelling is: Select one: A. acute unilateral paralysis following the injury. B. an acute increase in the patient's pulse rate. C. a progressively lowering blood pressure. D. a rapid deterioration of neurologic signs.

An open fracture is MOST accurately defined as a fracture in which: Select one: A. a large laceration overlies the fracture. B. a bullet shatters the underlying bone. C. bone ends protrude through the skin. D. the overlying skin is no longer intact.

An overdose of acetaminophen, the active ingredient in Tylenol, will MOST likely cause: Select one: A. CNS depression. B. gastric ulcers. C. kidney failure. D. liver failure.

An unrestrained patient is sitting in his car after an automobile crash. He is conscious and alert, has no visible trauma, and is complaining of neck and back pain. Before removing him from his car, you should: Select one: A. slide a scoop stretcher under his buttocks and rotate him laterally. B. perform a detailed head-to-toe assessment and apply a cervical collar. C. maintain manual stabilization of his head and grasp him by the clothes. D. apply a cervical collar and immobilize him with a vest-style device.

As you assess the head of a patient with a suspected spinal injury, your partner should: Select one: A. prepare the immobilization equipment. B. look in the ears for gross bleeding. C. assess the rest of the body for bleeding. D. maintain stabilization of the head.

At what age does separation anxiety typically peak in infants and small children? Select one: A. 6 to 8 months B. 18 to 24 months C. 24 to 36 months D. 10 to 18 months

Atrophy is a condition that occurs when: Select one: A. the tendons that attach muscle to bone become stretched or injured. B. increased use of skeletal muscle causes an increase in its strength. C. carbon dioxide, lactic acid, and other wastes accumulate in the muscle. D. muscle decreases in size and function.

Shortly after you load your patient, a 50-year-old man with abdominal pain, into the ambulance, he tells you that he changed his mind and does not want to go to the hospital. The patient is conscious and alert and has no signs of mental incapacitation. You are suspicious that the man has a significant underlying condition and feel strongly that he should go to the hospital. Which of the following statements regarding this situation is correct? Select one: A. Any patient who refuses EMS treatment must legally sign a patient refusal form. B. Once the patient is in the ambulance, he cannot legally refuse EMS treatment. C. Because of your suspicions, the best approach is to transport him to the hospital. D. A mentally competent adult can withdraw his or her consent to treat at any time. Correct

Some women experience ___________ during ovulation. Select one: A. hypotension B. severe bleeding C. severe abdominal pain D. slight cramping

Splinting an extremity even when there is no fracture can help to: Select one: A. reduce pain. B. minimize damage to an already-injured extremity. C. make it easier to move the patient. D. All of these answers are correct.

The act of pulling on a body structure in the direction of its normal alignment is called: Select one: A. reduction. B. stabilization. C. immobilization. D. traction.

The diaphragm is unique because it: Select one: A. does not have striations like skeletal muscle. B. does not receive impulses from the brain. C. is the exclusive muscle of breathing. D. is both a voluntary and an involuntary muscle.

The effectiveness of positive-pressure ventilations when treating a head-injured patient can ONLY be determined by: Select one: A. a neurosurgeon or emergency department physician. B. reassessing the patient's blood pressure after 10 minutes. C. noting a decrease in the heart rate during ventilations. D. immediate reassessment following the intervention.

The extremity lift would NOT be appropriate to use on a patient: Select one: A. with forearm lacerations. B. without a spinal injury. C. who complains of nausea. D. with a deformed humerus.

The goal of the systematic head-to-toe exam that is performed during the secondary assessment is to: Select one: A. definitively rule out significant internal injuries. B. assess only the parts of the body that are injured. C. detect and treat all non-life-threatening injuries. D. locate injuries not found in the primary assessment.

The inner surface of the eyelids and the exposed surface of the eye itself are covered by a delicate membrane called the: Select one: A. retina. B. sclera. C. cornea. D. conjunctiva.

The largest portion of the brain is the ___________, which is commonly referred to as the "gray matter." Select one: A. brain stem B. diencephalon C. cerebellum D. cerebrum

The mesentery is: Select one: A. a layer of thick skeletal muscles that protects the abdominal organs. B. the point of attachment between the small and large intestines. C. a complex network of blood vessels that supply blood to the liver. D. a membranous fold that attaches the intestines to the walls of the body.

The musculoskeletal system refers to the: Select one: A. nervous system's control over the muscles. B. connective tissue that supports the skeleton. C. involuntary muscles of the nervous system. D. bones and voluntary muscles of the body.

The purpose of the pediatric assessment triangle (PAT) is to: Select one: A. facilitate a rapid head-to-toe assessment of the child by visualization only. B. determine if the child's vital signs are within the age-appropriate limits. C. gather critical data by performing a rapid hands-on assessment of the child. D. allow you to rapidly and visually form a general impression of the child.

The rescue team is in the process of extricating a 40-year-old male from his truck. The patient's wife, who was uninjured in the crash, is calmly observing the extrication and asks you if her husband will be all right. You should: Select one: A. allow her to talk to her husband during the extrication. B. ask her follow-up questions about the details of the crash. C. allow her to observe the extrication and keep her calm. D. ensure that she is in a safe area, away from the scene.

The standards for prehospital emergency care and the individuals who provide it are typically regulated by the: Select one: A. American Heart Association. B. regional trauma center. C. National Registry of EMTs. D. state office of EMS.

The systemic veins function by: Select one: A. returning oxygen-rich blood back to the left atrium. B. delivering deoxygenated blood to the capillaries. C. delivering oxygen-poor blood to the capillaries. D. returning deoxygenated blood back to the heart.

What is (are) the primary female reproductive organ(s) called? Select one: A. Uterine tubes B. Uterus C. Vagina D. Ovaries

When a patient has a chemical burn to the eye, you should irrigate the eye for at least 5 minutes; however, if the burn was caused by an alkali or strong acid, you should irrigate for: Select one: A. 15 minutes. B. 25 minutes. C. 10 minutes. D. 20 minutes.

When a patient's respirations are shallow: Select one: A. carbon dioxide elimination is increased. B. oxygenation occurs more efficiently. C. chest rise will be easily noticeable. D. tidal volume is markedly reduced.

When assessing a patient with a head injury, you note the presence of thin, bloody fluid draining from his right ear. This indicates: Select one: A. significant pressure and bleeding in between the skull and dura mater. B. fractures to the internal structures of the ear following direct trauma. C. a linear skull fracture and a significant increase in intracranial pressure. D. rupture of the tympanic membrane following diffuse impact to the head.

When assessing an 80-year-old patient in shock, it is important to remember that: Select one: A. it is common to see a more significant increase in heart rate than what would be expected in younger adults. B. in older adults, it is especially common to observe a significant decrease in heart rate in response to shock. C. the patient's cardiac output is able to increase by nearly 200% in response to the decrease in perfusion. D. age-related changes in the cardiovascular system may make the patient less able to compensate for decreased perfusion.

When assessing for fluid collection in the lungs during auscultation of lung sounds, you should: Select one: A. pay special attention to the exhalation phase because this is when you will likely hear rales or rhonchi. B. auscultate the posterior chest first and compare the apex of one lung to the base of the opposite lung. C. note the presence of a high-pitched whistling sound, which is an indicator of fluid in the lungs. D. start at the lower lung fields and determine at which level you start hearing clear breath sounds.

When caring for a patient who takes numerous medications, it is best to: Select one: A. let the hospital staff retrieve the patient's medical records, which should show a list of his or her current medications. B. document the medications on your patient care report, but leave them at home so they do not get misplaced. C. send the patient's medications to the hospital with a family member or other person who will safeguard them. D. take all of the patient's medications with you to the hospital and document them on your patient care report.

When caring for a patient with a possible fracture of the scapula, the EMT should: Select one: A. apply rigid board splints across the chest and back. B. assume that minimal force was applied to the back. C. recognize that scapular fractures are life threatening. D. carefully assess the patient for breathing problems.

When the speed of a motor vehicle doubles, the amount of kinetic energy: Select one: A. triples. B. doubles. C. is not affected. D. quadruples.

When you use the palpation method to obtain a blood pressure, the measurement you obtain is the: Select one: A. diastolic blood pressure. B. cardiac output pressure. C. pulse pressure. D. systolic blood pressure.

When, for a brief period of time, heart tissues do not get enough oxygen, the pain is called: Select one: A. acute myocardial infarction. B. ischemia. C. coronary artery disease. D. angina.

Which of the following MOST accurately describes hyperthermia? Select one: A. Heat evaporates a significant amount of body water. B. The body eliminates more heat than it can generate. C. The core body temperature exceeds 99.5°F (37°C). D. The body is exposed to more heat than it can lose.

Which of the following are noticeable characteristics of a 9-month-old infant? Select one: A. Responds to his or her name, crawls around efficiently B. Knows his or her name, can walk without any assistance C. Walks without help, becomes frustrated with restrictions D. Places objects in the mouth, pulls himself or herself up

Which of the following conditions would be the LEAST likely to increase a person's risk of hypothermia? Select one: A. Head injury B. Spinal cord injury C. Severe infection D. Hyperglycemia

Which of the following courses requires about 150 hours of training? Select one: A. EMR B. Paramedic C. AEMT D. EMT

Which of the following drugs is commonly referred to as "roofies"? Select one: A. Ketamine B. GHB C. MDMA D. Rohypnol

Which of the following findings is LEAST suggestive of child abuse? Select one: A. Evidence of alcohol consumption or drug use at the scene B. An unexplained delay in seeking medical care after the injury C. Burns to the hands or feet that involve a glove distribution D. Consistency in the method of injury reported by the caregiver

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of a concussion? Select one: A. Dizziness B. Visual changes C. Weakness D. Muscle tremors

Which of the following is considered a type of motor vehicle collision? Select one: A. Ejection B. Penetration C. Crush D. Rollover

Which of the following is the MOST accurate guide to palpating a pulse? Select one: A. Apply firm pressure to the artery with your ring and little fingers. B. Use your thumb to increase the surface area that you are palpating. C. Avoid compressing the artery against a bone or solid structure. D. Place the tips of your index and long fingers over the pulse point.

Which of the following joints allows no motion? Select one: A. Shoulder joint B. Sacroiliac joint C. Sternoclavicular joint D. Skull sutures

Which of the following medications increases a person's risk of a heat-related emergency? Select one: A. Aspirin B. Motrin C. Tylenol D. Diuretics

Which of the following musculoskeletal injuries would MOST likely result in deformity? Select one: A. Moderate sprain B. Hairline fracture C. Severe strain D. Displaced fracture

Which of the following nerves allow sensory and motor impulses to be sent from one nerve directly to another? Select one: A. Peripheral B. Autonomic C. Somatic D. Connecting

Which of the following questions is used to determine a patient's chief complaint? Select one: A. "Are you having trouble breathing?" B. "Do you have a history of diabetes?" C. "When did the chest pain begin?" D. "What seems to be the matter?"

Which of the following scenarios MOST accurately depicts a posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) reaction? Select one: A. An EMT with many years of field experience becomes irritable with her coworkers and experiences headaches and insomnia. B. An EMT is emotionally exhausted and depressed after a school bus crash involving critical injuries and the death of several children. C. A newly certified EMT becomes extremely nauseated and diaphoretic at the scene of an incident involving grotesque injuries. D. An EMT becomes distracted at the scene of a motor vehicle crash involving the same type of car in which a child was previously killed.

Which of the following skills would a layperson MOST likely be trained to perform before arrival of EMS? A. Obtaining a manual blood pressure B. Administration of supplemental oxygen C. Insertion of an oropharyngeal airway D. Bleeding control using a tourniquet

Which of the following splinting devices would be MOST appropriate to use for a patient who has an open fracture of the forearm with external bleeding? Select one: A. Cardboard splint B. Sling and swathe C. Vacuum splint D. Air splint

You respond to a local lake where a diver complains of difficulty breathing that occurred immediately after rapidly ascending from a depth of approximately 30 feet. On assessment, you note that he has cyanosis around his lips and has pink froth coming from his nose and mouth. You should: Select one: A. position him supine with his head elevated 30°, suction his mouth and nose, hyperventilate him with a bag-valve mask, and contact medical control for further guidance. B. suction his mouth and nose, keep him supine and elevate his legs to prevent air bubbles from entering his brain, administer high-flow oxygen, and transport to a hyperbaric chamber. C. place him in a semi-sitting position, suction his mouth and nose, apply a continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) device, and transport to the closest emergency department. D. suction his mouth and nose, apply high-flow oxygen, monitor the patient's breath sounds for a pneumothorax, and contact medical control regarding transport to a recompression facility.

_____ is heralded by the onset of convulsions, or seizures, resulting from severe hypertension in the pregnant woman. Select one: A. Placenta previa B. Supine hypotensive syndrome C. Abruptio placenta D. Eclampsia

_____ is inadequate tissue perfusion. Select one: A. Hyperperfusion B. Contraction C. Hypertension D. Shock

__________ rays easily penetrate through the human body and require lead or several inches of concrete to prevent penetration. Select one: A. Neutron B. Alpha C. Beta D. Gamma

In an otherwise healthy adult, blood loss would cause: Select one: A. vascular constriction and bradycardia. B. vascular dilation and tachycardia. C. vascular dilation and bradycardia. D. vascular constriction and tachycardia.

Stimulation of alpha-adrenergic receptors results in: Select one: A. increased heart rate. B. dilation of the blood vessels. C. increased cardiac contractility. D. constriction of the blood vessels.

The exchange of oxygen and nutrients for waste products of metabolism occurs at the cellular level in the: Select one: A. venules. B. arteries. C. arterioles. D. capillaries.

The femoral head forms a ball-and-socket joint with the: Select one: A. femoral condyle. B. ilium. C. ischium. D. acetabulum.

The most distal four spinal vertebrae, which are fused together, form the: Select one: A. ischium. B. sacrum. C. ilium. D. coccyx.

The most superior section of the sternum is called the: Select one: A. angle of Louis. B. costal arch. C. xiphoid process. D. manubrium.

Which of the following statements regarding the heart is correct? Select one: A. The heart can tolerate an interruption of oxygen for 5 minutes. B. The heart relies on an external electrical source to function correctly. C. The heart receives its blood supply from the pulmonary arteries. D. The heart is under the control of the autonomic nervous system.

Upon completion of spinal immobilization, reassessment of pulse, motor, and ______ function in each extremity is necessary.

Sensory

A(n) ______ results when an open vein sucks air into it and the air travels to the heart.

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