EMT Chapter 33-41

When assessing the heart rate of a 6-month-old infant, you should palpate the brachial or ________ pulse. Select one: A. femoral B. radial C. carotid D. popliteal

a

A tube from the brain to the abdomen that drains excessive cerebrospinal fluid is called a: Select one: A. cerebral bypass. B. shunt. C. CS tube. D. G-tube.

b

While triaging patients at the scene of a building collapse, you encounter a young child who is conscious, alert, and breathing; has bilateral radial pulses; and has a severely angulated leg, which is not bleeding. According to the JumpSTART triage system, you should: Select one: A. quickly bind his legs together to stabilize the fracture, and continue triaging. B. assign him a delayed (yellow) category and continue triaging the other patients. C. evacuate him to a designated area and assign him a minimal (green) category. D. apply high-flow oxygen, obtain baseline vital signs, and continue triaging.

b

If a baby is born at 7:52, the second Apgar score should be calculated at: Select one: A. 8:00. B. 7:59. C. 7:57. D. 7:53.

c

A 33-year-old restrained driver of a motor vehicle crash is awake and alert, complaining only of neck pain and left leg pain. The vehicle is stable and no hazards are present. When removing this patient from his vehicle, you should: Select one: A. use the rapid extrication technique. B. apply a full leg splint prior to extrication. C. maintain slight traction to his neck area. D. immobilize him with a vest-style device.

d

A person is said to be obese when he or she is ________ over his or her ideal weight. Select one: A. 10% or more B. 20% or more C. 40% or more D. 30% or more

d

Your work uniform is an example of what level of protection? Select one: A. Level A protection B. Level B protection C. Level C protection D. Level D protection

d

In contrast to younger patients, older patients are more prone to a decrease in blood pressure (BP) upon standing because: Select one: A. the aging process results in an overall increase in blood volume. B. any change in position causes blood to be shunted to the brain. C. the body is less able to adapt the BP to rapid postural changes. D. their red blood cells are destroyed at a faster than normal rate.

v

A "silent" heart attack occurs when: Select one: A. the usual chest pain is not present. B. a sudden dysrhythmia causes death. C. the patient minimizes the chest pain. D. sweating is the only presentation.

a

An abdominal aortic aneurysm: Select one: A. is often the result of hypertension and atherosclerosis. B. can sometimes be palpated as a mass in the groin area. C. causes dull pain that often radiates to the shoulders. D. is usually not repairable, even if discovered early.

a

An elderly patient may understate or minimize the symptoms of his or her illness because: Select one: A. he or she fears hospitalization. B. the nervous system has deteriorated. C. of decreased perception of pain. D. of conditions such as dementia.

a

Blood levels of medications may rise in the elderly, sometimes to toxic levels. This is MOST likely due to: Select one: A. renal insufficiency. B. intentional overdose. C. pancreatic failure. D. splenic dysfunction.

a

During the transport phase of an ambulance call, it is MOST important to: Select one: A. converse with the patient and provide reassurance. B. complete the run form before arrival at the hospital. C. reassess unstable patients at least every 15 minutes. D. reassess the patient only if he or she deteriorates.

a

Effective methods for providing pain relief to a child with an extremity injury include: Select one: A. positioning, ice packs, and extremity elevation. B. avoiding the placement of a splint, if possible. C. heat compresses and lowering the injured extremity. D. separating the child from his or her parents.

a

Equipment and supplies that are carried on an ambulance should be stored: Select one: A. according to the urgency and frequency of their use. B. in locked or secured cabinets in order to prevent theft. C. as directed by the EMS system's medical director. D. based on recommendations of the health department.

a

Findings during the social assessment of an older patient include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. outdated medications. B. daily activity assistance. C. interaction with others. D. delays in obtaining meals.

a

Fractures of the pelvis in older patients often occur as the result of a combination of: Select one: A. osteoporosis and low-energy trauma. B. arthritic joints and high-energy trauma. C. acetabular separation and severe falls. D. increased bone density and car crashes.

a

Hydroplaning of the ambulance on wet roads would MOST likely occur at speeds of greater than _____ mph. Select one: A. 30 B. 10 C. 15 D. 20

a

If an incident increases in scope and complexity, the incident commander should consider: Select one: A. relinquishing command to someone with more experience. B. requesting a second incident commander to assist him or her. C. maintaining responsibility for all of the command functions. D. ceasing all operations until a revised plan is established.

a

Initial signs and symptoms associated with viral hemorrhagic fevers include: Select one: A. headache and sore throat. B. joint pain and unequal pupils. C. acute onset of double vision. D. severe abdominal muscle spasms.

a

Pale skin in a child indicates that the: Select one: A. blood vessels near the skin are constricted. B. oxygen content in the blood is decreased. C. child's core body temperature is elevated. D. child is in severe decompensated shock.

a

The incubation period for Ebola can be up to: Select one: A. 21 days. B. 72 hours. C. 6 months. D. 1 week.

a

Typically, medivac helicopters fly at speeds between: Select one: A. 130 and 150 mph. B. 150 and 200 mph. C. 100 and 120 mph. D. 120 and 140 mph.

a

Upon arrival at a trench rescue operation, you should _________. Select one: A. park at least 500 feet from the incident B. assist with the rescue operation C. determine if rescuers are operating safely D. park as close to the incident as possible

a

Upon entering the residence of a geriatric patient with a medical or trauma complaint, the EMT should: Select one: A. observe for conditions that may make the residence unsafe. B. begin his or her assessment after gathering any medication bottles. C. immediately seek out a family member or other caregiver. D. talk to the patient after performing his or her primary assessment.

a

When approaching a helicopter, whether the rotor blades are moving or not, you should: Select one: A. never duck under the body or the tail boom because the pilot cannot see you in these areas. B. remember that the main rotor blade is flexible and can dip as low as 5¢ to 6¢ from the ground. C. carefully approach the aircraft from the rear unless a crew member instructs you to do otherwise. D. approach the aircraft from the side because this will make it easier for you to access the aircraft doors.

a

When caring for a female child who has possibly been sexually abused, you should: Select one: A. have a female EMT remain with her if possible. B. immediately report your suspicions to the parents. C. carefully examine the genitalia for signs of injury. D. encourage the child to urinate and take a shower.

a

Which of the following statements regarding blast injuries is correct? Select one: A. Solid organs such as the middle ear, lungs, and gastrointestinal tract are the most susceptible to pressure changes. B. The gastrointestinal tract is the organ system most sensitive to blast injuries and is the leading cause of death following an explosion. C. Tertiary blast injuries are penetrating or nonpenetrating injuries that result from flying debris, such as ordnance projectiles. D. Solid organs are relatively protected from shock wave injury but may be injured during the secondary or tertiary blast phase.

a

Which of the following statements regarding hazardous materials is correct? Select one: A. Some substances are not hazardous by themselves, but become toxic when mixed with another chemical. B. Identifying the presence of a hazardous material is generally very easy because of the consistent use of placards. C. A package or truck need only contain small quantities of a hazardous chemical before it must bear a placard or label. D. Most hazardous materials are odorless and colorless, even when a substantial leak or spill has occurred.

a

While staged at the scene of a structure fire, the EMT should _________. Select one: A. remain with the ambulance B. stay with the incident commander C. locate the safety officer D. assess firefighters for signs of fatigue

a

A 19-year-old female has just been extricated from her severely damaged car. She is on a long backboard and has been moved to a place of safety. As your partner maintains manual stabilization of her head, you perform a rapid assessment. The patient is unresponsive, has slow and shallow respirations, and has bilaterally closed femur deformities. You should: Select one: A. stabilize her legs with long board splints. B. direct your partner to begin ventilatory assistance. C. apply oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. D. obtain baseline vital signs and transport at once.

b

A medical transport helicopter is incoming and you are responsible for setting up the landing zone (LZ). You should: Select one: A. place four flares 100 feet apart in an "X" pattern. B. use weighted cones to mark all four corners of the LZ. C. use yellow caution tape to mark of the LZ perimeter. D. ask bystanders to stand at all four corners of the LZ.

b

After eating at a local restaurant, a 20-year-old male complains of blurred vision, difficulty speaking, and difficulty breathing. He is conscious; however, his respirations are profoundly labored and producing minimal tidal volume. You should: Select one: A. apply oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. B. assist his ventilations with high-flow oxygen. C. position him supine and elevate his legs. D. request a paramedic to administer atropine.

b

All of the following are vesicant agents, EXCEPT: Select one: A. lewisite. B. sarin. C. sulfur mustard. D. phosgene oxime.

b

Fetal complications associated with drug- or alcohol-addicted mothers include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. low birth weight. B. profound tachycardia. C. respiratory depression. D. premature delivery.

b

The onset of labor begins with: Select one: A. increased fetal movement. B. contractions of the uterus. C. full dilation of the cervix. D. thinning of the uterus.

b

You have just delivered a baby boy. His body is pink, but his hands and feet are blue. His heart rate is approximately 110 beats/min and his respirations are rapid and irregular. He has a weak cry when stimulated and resists attempts to straighten his legs. His Apgar score is: Select one: A. 6 B. 8 C. 9 D. 7

b

Your 22-year-old patient is in active labor. Upon visual inspection, you note that the infant's leg is protruding from the vagina. Appropriate management of this situation includes: Select one: A. carefully attempting to push the infant's leg off of the umbilical cord. B. placing the mother supine with her head down and pelvis elevated. C. placing the mother in a recumbent position and rapidly transporting. D. gently pulling on the infant's leg in an attempt to facilitate delivery.

b

A 2-year-old female has experienced a seizure. When you arrive at the scene, the child is conscious, crying, and clinging to her mother. Her skin is hot and moist. The mother tells you that the seizure lasted approximately 5 minutes. She further tells you that her daughter has no history of seizures, but has had a recent ear infection. You should: Select one: A. allow the mother to drive her daughter to the hospital. B. place the child in cold water to attempt to reduce her fever. C. cool the child with tepid water and transport to the hospital. D. suspect that the child has meningitis and transport at once.

c

A critical function of the safety officer is to: Select one: A. determine the most efficient approach to extricate a victim. B. monitor emergency responders for signs of stress and anxiety. C. stop an emergency operation whenever a rescuer is in danger. D. brief responders during the demobilization phase of an incident.

c

A disposable oxygen humidifier should be considered for ambulance services that often transport patients for ___ hour(s) or more. Select one: A. 3 B. 2 C. 1 D. 4

c

A history of pelvic inflammatory disease or tubal ligations increases a woman's risk for: Select one: A. placenta previa. B. preeclampsia. C. an ectopic pregnancy. D. gestational diabetes.

c

A nuchal cord is defined as an umbilical cord that: Select one: A. is lacerated due to a traumatic delivery. B. has abnormally developed blood vessels. C. is wrapped around the baby's neck. D. has separated from the placenta.

c

The EMT's role at the scene of a search and rescue attempt is to: Select one: A. report to a location where the patient will be carried. B. accompany search team members and provide care. C. stand by at the command post until the person is located. D. direct the search effort from a centralized location.

c

The JumpSTART triage system is intended to be used for children younger than _____ years or who appear to weigh less than _____. Select one: A. 5; 50 lb B. 6; 70 lb C. 8; 100 lb D. 7; 90 lb

c

The Microdrip administration delivers 1 mL of fluid for every ____ drops. Select one: A. 10 B. 15 C. 60 D. 45

c

When immobilizing an injured child in a pediatric immobilization device, you should: Select one: A. secure the head before the torso. B. pad underneath the child's head. C. secure the torso before the head. D. slide the device under the child.

c

When removing a critically injured patient from his or her vehicle, you should: Select one: A. release c-spine control to facilitate rapid removal. B. move him or her in one fast, continuous step. C. protect the cervical spine during the entire process. D. remove him or her using a short backboard.

c

Which of the following activities occurs in the warm zone? Select one: A. Personnel staging B. Command C. Decontamination D. Medical monitoring

c

Which of the following statements regarding patients with intellectual disabilities is correct? Select one: A. An intellectual disability differs from mental retardation in that it is the result of a congenital abnormality. B. Most patients with intellectual disabilities have normal cognitive function, but abnormal physical features. C. Patients with intellectual disabilities are susceptible to the same disease processes as other patients. D. Speaking with the patient's family is the least effective way to determine how much the patient understands.

c

Which of the following would the EMT MOST likely be asked to do when assisting a paramedic with endotracheal intubation? Select one: A. Visualization of the vocal cords B. Suction under direct laryngoscopy C. Preoxygenation with a BVM D. Placement of the endotracheal tube

c

Your primary concern when arriving at the scene of a motor vehicle crash is: Select one: A. requesting additional resources. B. gaining access to the patient(s). C. surveying the area for hazards. D. immediately beginning triage.

c

__________ rays easily penetrate through the human body and require lead or several inches of concrete to prevent penetration. Select one: A. Neutron B. Alpha C. Gamma D. Beta

c

A patient who has experienced a back injury, with or without spinal cord damage, would be triaged with a __________ tag during a mass-casualty incident. Select one: A. black B. red C. green D. yellow

d

From what internal female organ is the fetus expelled during delivery? Select one: A. Vagina B. Perineum C. Cervix D. Uterus

d

General techniques for communicating with hearing-impaired patients include: Select one: A. speaking directly into the patient's ear with an increased voice pitch. B. exaggerating your lip movements to ensure the patient understands. C. removing any hearing aids and using pen and paper to ask questions. D. positioning yourself approximately 18 inches directly in front of the patient.

d

Phosgene (CG) has an odor that resembles: Select one: A. almonds. B. bleach. C. garlic. D. cut grass.

d

A 13-year-old child is on a home ventilator. The parents called because the mechanical ventilator is malfunctioning and the child has increasing respiratory distress. You should: Select one: A. disconnect the ventilator and apply a tracheostomy collar. B. attempt to troubleshoot the mechanical ventilator problem. C. place a call to the home health agency treating this patient. D. reset the ventilator by unplugging it for 30 to 60 seconds.

a

A 5-year-old child has had severe vomiting and diarrhea for 4 days. Which of the following assessment findings would be the MOST indicative of decompensated shock? Select one: A. Blood pressure of 70/40 mm Hg B. Respiratory rate of 30 breaths/min C. Capillary refill time of 4 seconds D. Pulse rate greater than 120/min

a

A 52-year-old male presents with a fever of 102.5°F and a severe headache. As you assess him, you note the presence of multiple blisters on his face and chest, which are all identical in shape and size. This patient's clinical presentation is MOST consistent with: Select one: A. smallpox. B. yellow fever virus. C. sarin toxicity. D. cutaneous anthrax.

a

A disease vector is defined as: Select one: A. any agent that acts as a carrier or transporter. B. the ability of a virus or bacterium to be spread. C. the period of time between exposure and illness. D. the spectrum of signs that define a disease.

a

A mother who is pregnant with her first baby is typically in the first stage of labor for approximately: Select one: A. 16 hours. B. 10 hours. C. 4 hours. D. 8 hours.

a

According to the START triage system, which of the following patients should be triaged as an immediate priority (red tag)? Select one: A. Unresponsive with a respiratory rate of 34 breaths/min B. Conscious, in severe pain, with radial pulses present C. Apneic, despite manually opening the airway D. Conscious with a respiratory rate of 24 breaths/min

a

Aggressive ambulance driving may have a negative effect on other motorists because: Select one: A. it may not allow for their reaction time to respond to your vehicle. B. they move to the right or drive as close to the curb as possible. C. they often freeze when they see the lights in the rearview mirror. D. they may become enraged and attempt to run you off the road.

a

All of the following biologic agents or diseases can be transmitted from person to person, EXCEPT: Select one: A. ricin. B. pneumonic plague. C. smallpox. D. viral hemorrhagic fevers.

a

As you and your partner report for duty, you check your ambulance and begin talking about the possibility of a terrorist attack. The MOST effective and appropriate way to determine the likelihood of this happening is to: Select one: A. know the current threat level issued by the Department of Homeland Security. B. ask your immediate supervisor if he or she has been watching the local news. C. ascertain the current situation overseas with regard to the number of casualties. D. check with local businesses to see if they have received any terrorist threats.

a

Botulinum is: Select one: A. a potent bacterial neurotoxin. B. an acute viral infection. C. rarely associated with death. D. a disease of the leukocytes.

a

By placing one hand on your head and the other hand over your abdomen, you are asking a hearing-impaired patient if he or she: Select one: A. is sick. B. needs help. C. is nauseated. D. is hurt.

a

Common causes of seizures in children include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. hyperglycemia. B. electrolyte imbalances. C. infection. D. poisonings or ingestion.

a

Common interventions used to stimulate spontaneous respirations in the newborn include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. positive-pressure ventilations. B. thorough drying with a towel. C. suctioning of the upper airway. D. some form of tactile stimulation.

a

Continual reassessment of the scene at a suspected terrorist or weapon of mass destruction incident is MOST important because: Select one: A. a secondary explosive device may detonate. B. terrorists are often at the scene after an attack. C. bystanders may destroy the evidence. D. weather conditions may change quickly.

a

If the incident command system is already established at the scene of a terrorist attack, the EMT should: Select one: A. locate the medical staging officer to obtain his or her assignment. B. begin triaging patients and start treating the most critical ones. C. contact the EMS medical director and obtain further instructions. D. remain in the rehabilitation area until he or she is assigned a task.

a

In contrast to adults, deterioration to cardiac arrest in infants and children is usually associated with: Select one: A. severe hypoxia and bradycardia. B. acute hypoxia and tachycardia. C. irritability of the left ventricle. D. a sudden ventricular arrhythmia.

a

Infection should be considered a possible cause of an airway obstruction in an infant or child, especially if he or she presents with: Select one: A. drooling or congestion. B. acute respiratory distress. C. extreme restlessness. D. skin that is cool and dry.

a

Level _____ hazardous materials would cause irritation on contact but only mild residual injury, even without treatment. Select one: A. 1 B. 3 C. 0 D. 2

a

Most cases of anthrax begin with: Select one: A. flulike symptoms. B. respiratory distress. C. pulmonary edema. D. signs of shock.

a

Most medical models base a pregnant woman's due date: Select one: A. on the first day of her last menstrual cycle. B. two weeks before her last menstrual cycle. C. on the last day of her last menstrual cycle. D. two weeks after her last menstrual cycle.

a

Multiple people in a small town began experiencing abdominal cramps, excessive salivation and urination, and muscle twitching shortly after a small crop duster plane made several passes over the community. As you are assessing the patients, you further determine that most of them are bradycardic and have miosis. In addition to high-flow oxygen, the MOST appropriate treatment for these patients includes: Select one: A. atropine and pralidoxime chloride. B. amyl nitrate and naloxone. C. epinephrine and hyperbaric oxygen. D. activated charcoal and glucose.

a

Patients with autism: Select one: A. have extreme difficulty with complex tasks that require many steps. B. often speak with speech patterns that alternate in tone and speed. C. use and understand nonverbal means of communicating messages. D. prefer to maintain eye contact with whomever is talking with them.

a

Poor maintenance of home, poor personal care, and dietary neglect are all possible indicators of ____________ elder abuse. Select one: A. physical B. financial C. psychological D. emotional

a

Portable and mounted suction units must be powerful enough to generate a vacuum of at least ____ mm Hg when the tubing is clamped. Select one: A. 300 B. 100 C. 400 D. 200

a

Regardless of where portable and mounted oxygen cylinders are stored in the ambulance, they must: Select one: A. be capable of delivering oxygen at 1 to 15 L/min. B. be easily identifiable by their bright green color. C. undergo hydrostatic testing on a weekly basis. D. hold a minimum capacity of 1,500 L of oxygen.

a

Signs and symptoms of meningitis in the infant or child include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. sunken fontanelles. B. a stiff or painful neck. C. altered mental status. D. headache and fever.

a

Symptoms of both inhaled and ingested ricin include: Select one: A. fever and headache. B. dehydration and convulsions. C. liver necrosis and diarrhea. D. joint pain and bradycardia.

a

The EMT should suspect left-sided heart failure in the geriatric patient who presents with: Select one: A. tachypnea and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea. B. fever and a cough that produces green sputum. C. jugular venous distention and peripheral edema. D. swelling of the lower extremities and weakness.

a

The LEAST practical place to store a portable oxygen cylinder is: Select one: A. in the driver's compartment. B. on the ambulance stretcher. C. inside the jump kit. D. near the side or rear door.

a

The ____________ supervisor is responsible for notifying area hospitals and determining their availability and capabilities. Select one: A. transportation B. medical C. treatment D. triage

a

The amniotic fluid serves to: Select one: A. insulate and protect the fetus. B. assist in fetal development. C. transfer oxygen to the fetus. D. remove viruses from the fetus.

a

The development of an incident action plan is the responsibility of the: Select one: A. planning section. B. operations section. C. finance section. D. logistics section.

a

The effectiveness of pit crew CPR is dependent on: Select one: A. defining clear roles and responsibilities before the call is received. B. a team leader who is capable of performing all of the patient care tasks. C. protocols that allow the EMT to function without medical control. D. rapidly assessing the patient before assigning roles and responsibilities.

a

The first month of life after birth is referred to as the: Select one: A. neonatal period. B. start of infancy. C. premature phase. D. toddler period.

a

The purpose of a jump kit is to: Select one: A. contain anything that you might need during the first 5 minutes of patient care. B. manage a critically injured patient until he or she is loaded into the ambulance. C. facilitate defibrillation within 5 to 10 minutes after making patient contact. D. carry advanced life support equipment approved by the EMS medical director.

a

The purpose of a ventricular peritoneum shunt is to: Select one: A. prevent excess cerebrospinal fluid from accumulating in the brain. B. monitor pressure within the skull in patients with a head injury. C. divert excess cerebrospinal fluid to the ventricles of the brain. D. remove fluid from the abdomen of patients with right-sided heart failure.

a

The reduction in brain weight and volume increases an older person's risk for: Select one: A. head trauma. B. stroke. C. delirium. D. dementia.

a

The rescue team is in the process of extricating a 40-year-old male from his truck. The patient's wife, who was uninjured in the crash, is calmly observing the extrication and asks you if her husband will be all right. You should: Select one: A. ensure that she is in a safe area, away from the scene. B. allow her to observe the extrication and keep her calm. C. allow her to talk to her husband during the extrication. D. ask her follow-up questions about the details of the crash.

a

The slow onset of progressive disorientation, shortened attention span, and loss of cognitive function is known as: Select one: A. dementia. B. delusion. C. delirium. D. paranoia.

a

The use of lights and siren on an ambulance: Select one: A. signifies a request for other drivers to yield the right of way. B. is required any time a patient is being transported to the hospital. C. allows other drivers to hear and see you from a great distance. D. legally gives the emergency vehicle operator the right of way.

a

Three days after delivering her baby, a 30-year-old woman complains of a sudden onset of difficulty breathing. Her level of consciousness is decreased and she is tachycardic. The EMT should suspect: Select one: A. pulmonary embolism. B. intrauterine bleeding. C. acute pulmonary edema. D. spontaneous pneumothorax.

a

To date, the preferred weapons of mass destruction for terrorists have been: Select one: A. explosive weapons. B. biologic weapons. C. nuclear weapons. D. chemical weapons.

a

Trench collapses usually involve large areas of falling dirt that weigh approximately _______ per cubic foot. Select one: A. 100 lb B. 150 lb C. 50 lb D. 200 lb

a

When explaining the need for a particular procedure to an elderly patient, you should: Select one: A. use plain language and simple terms. B. realize that he or she will not understand you. C. use the appropriate medical terminology. D. be complex so the patient fully understands.

a

When functioning at the scene of a motor vehicle crash in which a patient will require complex extrication, you should enter the vehicle and provide care to the patient: Select one: A. after receiving approval from the incident commander. B. after rescue personnel have cut the battery cables. C. only after you believe the vehicle has been stabilized. D. only if the patient has experienced a major injury.

a

When multiple patients present with an acute onset of difficulty breathing, chest tightness, and hoarseness or stridor, you should be MOST suspicious of exposure to: Select one: A. phosgene or chlorine. B. sarin or soman. C. a nerve agent. D. a vesicant agent.

a

When preparing a pregnant patient for delivery, you should position her: Select one: A. on a firm surface with her hips elevated 2 to 4 inches. B. in a sitting position with her hips elevated 12 inches. C. on her left side with the right leg elevated. D. in a supine position with her legs spread.

a

When questioning the parent of a child who ingested a poisonous substance, which of the following questions would be of LEAST pertinence initially? Select one: A. Why did your child ingest the poison? B. What time did the ingestion occur? C. Do you know what substance was ingested? D. Have you noticed any signs or symptoms?

a

When the EMT assists a paramedic with an advanced intervention, he or she should recall that the focus of the intervention is on: Select one: A. solving a clinical problem. B. learning to perform the skill. C. completing the procedure. D. following local protocol.

a

When the mother is experiencing a contraction, you should instruct her to: Select one: A. take quick short breaths. B. push for 30 seconds. C. rest and breathe deeply. D. hold her breath.

a

When transporting a stable older patient to the hospital, the MOST effective way to reduce his or her anxiety is to: Select one: A. transport him or her to a hospital that he or she is familiar with. B. allow at least two family members to accompany the patient. C. avoid the use of a long backboard, even if trauma is suspected. D. perform frequent detailed assessments to gain the patient's trust.

a

Which of the following are normal physiologic changes that occur in the mother's respiratory system during pregnancy? Select one: A. Increased respiratory rate and decreased respiratory reserve B. Increased respiratory reserve and decreased oxygen demand C. Increased respiratory depth and decreased respiratory rate D. Decreased respiratory rate and increased minute volume

a

Which of the following is probably NOT a multiple-casualty incident? Select one: A. A motor vehicle crash with two critically injured patients and two ambulances B. A loss of power to a hospital or nursing home with ventilator-dependent patients C. An apartment fire with one patient and the possibility of others trapped in the building D. A rollover crash of a school bus with eight children who have injuries of varying severity

a

Which of the following occurs during true labor? Select one: A. Uterine contractions become more regular. B. Uterine contractions decrease in intensity. C. The uterus becomes very soft and movable. D. Uterine contractions last about 10 seconds.

a

Which of the following patients should be assigned an immediate (red tag) category? Select one: A. 22-year-old male with blunt abdominal trauma, tachycardia, pallor, and diaphoresis B. 31-year-old male with an open fracture of the forearm and minimal external bleeding C. 36-year-old female with an open head injury, agonal breathing, and a slow pulse rate D. 29-year-old female with a back injury and numbness and tingling in her extremities

a

Which of the following statements regarding the placenta is correct? Select one: A. The placenta allows oxygen, carbon dioxide, and other products to transfer between the mother and fetus but does not allow blood to mix between the mother and fetus. B. The placenta allows for the transfer of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the mother and fetus but prevents most medications from passing between the mother and fetus. C. The placental barrier consists of two layers of cells and allows the mother's blood that contains high concentrations of oxygen to directly mix with the blood of the fetus. D. The placenta provides oxygen and nutrients to the fetus and is expelled from the vagina about 30 minutes before the baby is born.

a

While triaging patients at the scene of a motor-vehicle crash, you encounter a 5-year-old child who is unresponsive and apneic. After positioning his airway, you should: Select one: A. palpate for a carotid pulse. B. deliver 5 rescue breaths. C. categorize him as immediate. D. categorize him as deceased.

a

You and your partner arrive at the scene of a fire at a large office complex. Witnesses tell you that they heard a loud explosion shortly before the building caught fire. You should: Select one: A. ensure that your ambulance is parked upwind and uphill from the building. B. tell the witnesses that you suspect that the explosion was the work of a terrorist. C. carefully document the witnesses' statements and report them immediately. D. take standard precautions and begin searching for critically injured patients.

a

You are attending to a 46-year-old male patient complaining of chest pain. Shortly after you begin to render care, an ALS unit arrives and the transfer of care is made. The decision is made to start an intravenous line and administer medication. You should: Select one: A. clear space and, if necessary, explain the procedure to the patient. B. move out of the ALS provider's way and clear the scene. C. acknowledge that it is no longer your patient and stand back, allowing the ALS provider to work. D. ensure that enough assessments have been done to justify the decision.

a

You are dispatched to a local elementary school for an injured child. As you approach the child, you note that he is lying at the base of the monkey bars. He is unresponsive and there are no signs of breathing. You should: Select one: A. stabilize his head and check for a pulse. B. perform a head tilt-chin lift maneuver. C. open his airway and look in his mouth. D. begin immediate rescue breathing.

a

You are dispatched to a residence for a child with respiratory distress. The patient, an 18-month-old female, is tachypneic, has sternal retractions, and is clinging to her mother. Her skin is pink and dry, and her heart rate is 120 beats/min. The MOST appropriate treatment for this child includes: Select one: A. administering blow-by oxygen and transporting the child with her mother. B. separating the child from her mother and providing ventilatory assistance. C. allowing the child to remain with her mother and applying a nasal cannula. D. requesting a paramedic ambulance to insert an advanced airway device.

a

You are triaging four patients who were involved in a head-on motor vehicle crash. Which of the following patients should be assigned the highest (red) triage category? Select one: A. A 49-year-old female with diabetes and difficulty breathing B. A 50-year-old male with an open head injury and no pulse C. A 36-year-old female with back pain and numb extremities D. A 29-year-old male with bilaterally closed femur deformities

a

You arrive at an accident scene to find an alternative-fuel vehicle leaking an unknown substance. You should immediately _________. Select one: A. call for additional resources and keep bystanders away from the vehicle B. search the vehicle for occupants C. disconnect the car battery D. apply retardant to the leaking fuel

a

A 70-year-old male complains of shortness of breath. During your assessment, you note that he has bilateral hearing aids. When you ask him questions related to his chief complaint, he does not answer you. You can hear a whistling sound coming from his hearing aids. You should: Select one: A. remove both of his hearing aids and use pencil and paper to communicate. B. try repositioning the hearing aid or remove it and turn down the volume. C. remove his hearing aids, turn up the volume, and replace them in his ears. D. recognize that the batteries in his hearing aids are probably depleted.

b

A team of EMTs is caring for a critically injured patient. The team leader advises the EMT that transport will not begin until the patient's closed forearm fracture is splinted. Utilizing the crew resource management model, the EMT should: Select one: A. ensure that the entire team is aware that transport will be delayed for splinting. B. advise the team leader that immediate transport is more important than splinting. C. disregard the team leader's request and contact medical control for guidance. D. repeat the request back to the team leader and then splint the patient's arm.

b

A tour bus has overturned, resulting in numerous patients. When you arrive, you are immediately assigned to assist in the triage process. Patient 1 is a middle-aged male with respiratory distress, chest pain, and a closed deformity to his right forearm. Patient 2 is a young female who is conscious and alert, but has bilateral femur fractures and numerous abrasions to her arms and face. Patient 3 is an older woman who complains of abdominal pain and has a history of cardiovascular disease. Patient 4 is unresponsive, is not breathing, has a weak carotid pulse, and has a grossly deformed skull. What triage categories should you assign to these patients? Select one: A. Patient 1, delayed (yellow); Patient 2, immediate (red); Patient 3, delayed (yellow); Patient 4, immediate (red) B. Patient 1, immediate (red); Patient 2, delayed (yellow); Patient 3, immediate (red); Patient 4, expectant (black) C. Patient 1, immediate (red); Patient 2, minimal (green); Patient 3, delayed (yellow); Patient 4, expectant (black) D. Patient 1, delayed (yellow); Patient 2, delayed (yellow); Patient 3, minimal (green); Patient 4, immediate (red)

b

According to the Emergency Medical Treatment and Active Labor Act (EMTALA): Select one: A. a patient maintains the legal right to recant his or her consent to emergency treatment, even after signing in to the emergency department. B. all health care facilities must provide a medical assessment and required treatment, regardless of the patient's ability to pay. C. all health care facilities are legally obligated to provide assessment and care only if the patient is critically ill or injured. D. a health care facility has the right to refuse assessment and treatment to a patient, but only if his or her condition is not deemed critical.

b

According to the START triage system, what should you do if a patient is found to have a respiratory rate of 24 breaths/min? Select one: A. Administer high-flow oxygen. B. Assess for bilateral radial pulses. C. Assess his or her neurologic status. D. Triage the patient as delayed.

b

After primary triage, the triage supervisor should communicate all of the following information to the medical branch officer, EXCEPT: Select one: A. the number of patients in each triage category. B. the recommended transport destination for each patient. C. recommendations for movement to the treatment area. D. the total number of patients that have been triaged.

b

After spiking a bag of IV fluid for the paramedic, the EMT notices that the drip chamber is too full. The EMT should: Select one: A. squeeze the IV bag to force fluid into the tubing. B. invert the IV bag and squeeze the drip chamber. C. let the IV flow rapidly for 20 to 30 seconds. D. replace the administration set with a new one.

b

An 84-year-old male fell a week ago and has been bedridden since then. Today, he presents with an altered mental status. His skin is pale and cold and his respirations are rapid and shallow. The EMT should suspect: Select one: A. hypovolemic shock. B. a systemic infection. C. acute hyperglycemia. D. a subdural hematoma.

b

An infant or child with respiratory distress will attempt to keep his or her alveoli expanded at the end of inhalation by: Select one: A. wheezing. B. grunting. C. assuming a tripod position. D. retracting the intercostal muscles.

b

An infant with severe dehydration would be expected to present with: Select one: A. bulging fontanelles. B. absent urine output. C. excessive tearing. D. moist oral mucosa.

b

An older woman with osteoporosis presents with pain and deformity to her left hip after she shifted her weight onto her other foot. She has MOST likely experienced a(n): Select one: A. idiopathic fracture. B. pathologic fracture. C. comminuted fracture. D. compression fracture.

b

At a scene with downed electrical lines, the EMT should _________. Select one: A. enter the danger (hot) zone for patient removal only B. remain outside the danger (hot) zone C. relocate the danger (hot) zone away from the patient D. stabilize the patient in the danger (hot) zone

b

Because of the complexity of the older patient and the vagueness of his or her complaint, you should: Select one: A. perform a rapid assessment on all geriatric patients you treat. B. attempt to differentiate between chronic and acute problems. C. limit your physical examination to the area of pain or injury. D. rely exclusively on family members for the medical history.

b

Braxton-Hicks contractions are characterized by: Select one: A. regular contractions of progressively increasing intensity. B. alleviation of pain with movement or changing positions. C. pink or red bloody show in conjunction with the contractions. D. a rupture of the amniotic sac just before the contractions begin.

b

Common safety equipment carried on the ambulance includes all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. turnout gear. B. hazardous materials gear. C. face shields. D. safety goggles.

b

During the natural process of aging, the number of functional cilia in the respiratory system decreases, resulting in: Select one: A. air-trapping within the alveoli. B. a decreased ability to cough. C. an increased risk of COPD. D. baseline respiratory distress.

b

EMTs are dispatched to a residence for an 80-year-old woman who is ill. The patient's daughter states that her mother almost fainted after going to the bathroom, and that her pulse was very slow. The patient's pulse rate is 80 beats/min and irregular and she is conscious and alert. The EMTs should suspect that the patient: Select one: A. took too much of her medication. B. experienced a vasovagal response. C. has an abdominal aortic aneurysm. D. has a gastrointestinal hemorrhage.

b

Following delivery of the placenta, the mother is experiencing vaginal bleeding. After massaging the uterine fundus and allowing the mother to breastfeed, the bleeding stops. This occurred because: Select one: A. a portion of the placenta was retained in the uterus. B. these actions simulate the production of oxytocin and cause uterine contraction. C. breastfeeding causes uterine blood vessels to dilate. D. uterine massage increases blood flow to the uterus.

b

General care for a patient with a tracheostomy tube includes all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. ensuring adequate oxygenation and ventilation at all times. B. removing the tube if the area around it appears to be infected. C. suctioning the tube as needed to clear a thick mucous plug. D. maintaining the patient in a position of comfort when possible.

b

Historically, the weak point at most major incidents has been: Select one: A. incident briefing. B. communications. C. lack of personnel. D. accountability.

b

If hydroplaning of the ambulance occurs, the driver should: Select one: A. quickly jerk the steering wheel. B. gradually slow down without jamming on the brakes. C. slowly pump the brakes until he or she regains vehicle control. D. slowly move the steering wheel back and forth.

b

If you properly assess and stabilize a patient at the scene, driving to the hospital with excessive speed: Select one: A. is allowable according to state law. B. will decrease the driver's reaction time. C. increases the patient's chance for survival. D. is often necessary if the patient is critical.

b

Immediately upon arriving at the scene of an emergency call involving a traumatic injury, you should notify the dispatcher of your arrival and then: Select one: A. quickly gain access to the patient. B. observe the scene for safety hazards. C. determine if additional units are needed. D. carefully assess the mechanism of injury.

b

In order to evaluate hazards present at the scene and determine the number of patients, you should: Select one: A. interview bystanders present at the scene. B. perform a 360-degree walk around of the scene. C. request the fire department at all scenes. D. use the information provided by dispatch.

b

Motor nerve neuropathy is characterized by: Select one: A. numbness, tingling, and severe muscle pain. B. loss of balance, muscle weakness, and spasms. C. constipation, low blood pressure, and bradycardia. D. loss of bladder control and sensitivity to touch.

b

Once entrance and access to the patient have been provided, you should: Select one: A. allow extrication to commence. B. perform a primary assessment. C. administer high-flow oxygen. D. begin treating his or her injuries.

b

Patients who have experienced even minor-appearing head injuries should be suspected of having a brain injury, especially if they: Select one: A. have minor abrasions to the head area. B. are taking blood-thinning medications. C. have a history of Alzheimer disease. D. do not have deformities to the skull.

b

Placenta previa is defined as: Select one: A. abnormal development and functioning of the placenta. B. development of the placenta over the cervical opening. C. premature placental separation from the uterine wall. D. delivery of a portion of the placenta before the baby.

b

Returning the emergency unit to service is part of the _________. Select one: A. hazard-control phase B. termination phase C. support phase D. transfer phase

b

Spina bifida is a developmental defect in which: Select one: A. nerve fibers that arise from the spinal cord do not function properly. B. a portion of the spinal cord or meninges protrudes outside of the vertebrae. C. an excessive amount of cerebrospinal fluid damages the spinal cord. D. the spinal column is severely deformed, resulting in permanent paralysis.

b

Spina bifida is defined as: Select one: A. chronic pressure on the brain caused by excess cerebrospinal fluid. B. a birth defect caused by incomplete closure of the spinal column. C. a birth defect in which the child is born without spinal vertebrae. D. congenital inflammation of the spinal cord, usually in the neck.

b

Supine hypotensive syndrome occurs when: Select one: A. blood pressure decreases as a result of hypovolemia. B. the pregnant uterus compresses the inferior vena cava. C. a supine position kinks the ascending aorta. D. the superior vena cava is compressed by the uterus.

b

The EMT should expect that a patient who was exposed to cyanide will have: Select one: A. an abnormally slow pulse rate. B. a normal pulse oximetry reading. C. skin that is cherry red and hot. D. an abnormally slow respiratory rate.

b

The FIRST step in the START triage system is to: Select one: A. scan the area for patients with severe bleeding. B. move all walking patients to a designated area. C. get a quick head count of all the patients involved. D. focus on the patients who are unconscious.

b

The main objective of traffic control at the scene of a motor vehicle crash is to: Select one: A. get oncoming traffic past the scene as soon as possible. B. warn oncoming traffic and prevent another crash. C. facilitate a route for the media to access the scene. D. prevent curious onlookers from observing the scene.

b

The presence of meconium in the amniotic fluid indicates: Select one: A. an expected finding in full-term infants. B. that the baby's airway may be obstructed. C. that full newborn resuscitation will be needed. D. that the fetus is at least 4 weeks premature.

b

The primary clinical feature associated with exposure to phosgene oxime is: Select one: A. miosis. B. skin blistering. C. a red rash. D. bradycardia.

b

The primary route of exposure of vesicant agents is the: Select one: A. respiratory tract. B. skin. C. nervous system. D. vascular system.

b

The use of special tools to remove an entrapped patient from a vehicle is known as _________. Select one: A. vehicle stabilization B. complex access C. incident management D. simple access

b

Unless he or she is critically ill or injured, you should generally begin your assessment of a toddler: Select one: A. in the ambulance. B. at the feet. C. at the head. D. en route to the hospital.

b

Upon arrival at a search-and-rescue incident, the EMS crew should _________. Select one: A. split up and request a search grid B. prepare the equipment to carry to the patient C. provide the incident commander with the crew's names and certification level(s) D. begin searching for the patient

b

Upon arriving at the scene of a law enforcement tactical situation, you should ensure your own safety and then: Select one: A. begin immediate triage of any injured personnel. B. report to the incident commander for instructions. C. locate all injured personnel and begin treatment. D. apprise medical control of the tactical situation.

b

Upon arriving at the scene of a motor vehicle crash, you can see three patients, one who is entrapped in his car and two who have been ejected from their vehicle. You should: Select one: A. request law enforcement for traffic control. B. immediately request additional resources. C. begin triage to determine injury severity. D. call medical control for further direction.

b

When an elderly patient presents you with multiple over-the-counter medications that he or she is taking, it is MOST important to: Select one: A. look up all of the medications before providing care to the patient. B. recall that the patient is at risk for negative medication interactions. C. contact each of the physicians whose names are on the medications. D. ask the patient to explain what each of the medications is used for.

b

When assessing a geriatric patient who has possibly experienced an acute ischemic stroke, it is MOST important to: Select one: A. ascertain if there is a history of atrial fibrillation. B. determine the onset of the patient's symptoms. C. administer 324 mg of aspirin as soon as possible. D. determine if the patient has risk factors for a stroke.

b

When assessing or providing care to a patient with an intellectual disability, you should: Select one: A. explain procedures while in the process of performing them. B. be observant for signs of fear or reluctance from the patient. C. move swiftly and deliberately to quickly accomplish the task. D. frequently reassure him or her that everything will be okay.

b

When determining the frequency of contractions, you should time the contractions from the: Select one: A. end of one to the end of the next. B. start of one to the start of the next. C. start of one to the end of the next. D. end of one to the start of the next.

b

When faced with a situation in which an older patient with a terminal illness is in cardiac arrest, but written documentation regarding the patient's wishes cannot be located, the EMT should: Select one: A. allow the patient to die in peace. B. attempt to resuscitate the patient. C. contact medical control for advice. D. try to locate the documentation.

b

When immobilizing a patient with a kyphotic spine to a long backboard, the EMT would MOST likely have to: Select one: A. use a scoop stretcher instead of a log roll. B. place blankets behind the patient's head. C. force the head into a neutral alignment. D. secure the patient's head before the torso.

b

When interacting with an intellectually disabled patient, the best approach is to: Select one: A. approach the patient as a team to reassure him or her that you are there to help. B. ask your team members to wait until you can establish a rapport with the patient. C. position yourself slightly above the patient's level to reduce his or her anxiety. D. speak primarily with the patient's family to establish the degree of disability.

b

When ventilating a pediatric patient with a bag-valve mask, the EMT should: Select one: A. use a neonatal device for children younger than 12 months. B. block the pop-off valve if needed to achieve adequate chest rise. C. ventilate the child with sharp, quick breaths at the appropriate rate. D. squeeze the bag 40 times/min when ventilating an infant.

b

Which of the following is NOT a component of the Apgar score? Select one: A. Grimace B. Body size C. Pulse D. Activity

b

Which of the following is the MOST common mechanism of injury in older patients? Select one: A. Abuse B. Falls C. Burns D. Suicide

b

Which of the following patients is at highest risk for a pulmonary embolism? Select one: A. 59-year-old male who is recovering from pneumonia B. 71-year-old male with recent surgery to a lower extremity C. 66-year-old active female with a history of hypertension D. 78-year-old female who takes blood-thinning medications

b

Which of the following questions is of LEAST pertinence when determining whether a mother will deliver her baby within the next few minutes? Select one: A. "Do you feel the need to push?" B. "Have you had a sonogram?" C. "Is this your first baby?" D. "When are you due?"

b

Which of the following situations would require the use of a specialized rescue team? Select one: A. An obese patient who must be moved to the ambulance B. A patient trapped in a cave or a confined space C. A patient found floating face down in a swimming pool D. A patient in a badly damaged car, not entrapped

b

Which of the following statements regarding communications at a disaster or multiple-casualty incident is correct? Select one: A. Each command group should utilize a separate radio frequency. B. If possible, use face-to-face communications to minimize radio traffic. C. Ten-codes or signals should be used when communicating via radio. D. When possible, all communication should occur via two-way radio.

b

Which of the following statements regarding interaction with the caregiver of a child or adult with special health care needs is correct? Select one: A. Before performing an assessment of the patient's ABCs, the EMT should ask the caregiver about the patient's medical condition. B. Communication with the patient's caregiver or family members is important because they are the most familiar with the patient's condition. C. In general, the EMT should only speak with a certified home health care provider because he or she is the expert on the patient's illness. D. In most cases, it is more appropriate for the EMT to contact medical control prior to speaking with the patient's primary caregiver.

b

Which of the following statements regarding sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) is correct? Select one: A. Certain cases of SIDS are predictable and therefore preventable. B. Death as a result of SIDS can occur at any time of the day or night. C. SIDS is most commonly the result of an overwhelming infection. D. The cause of death following SIDS can be established by autopsy.

b

Which of the following statements regarding the persistency and volatility of a chemical agent is correct? Select one: A. Sarin, a powerful nerve agent, is nonvolatile and can remain on a surface for long periods. B. VX, a highly persistent nerve agent, can remain in the environment for weeks to months. C. Sulfur mustard, a vesicant agent, is generally considered to have a low level of persistence. D. Lewisite, a vesicant agent, is nonvolatile and evaporates quickly in an optimum temperature.

b

Which of the following statements regarding trench rescue is correct? Select one: A. Most deaths involving cave-ins are caused by head injury. B. Ground vibration is a primary cause of secondary collapse. C. A trench deeper than 10 feet should be shored prior to entry. D. Rescue vehicles should park at least 250 feet from the scene.

b

Which of the following statements regarding twins is correct? Select one: A. Twins are typically larger than single infants. B. Most twins are born within 45 minutes of each other. C. Identical twins are typically of different gender. D. Fraternal twins have two cords coming from one placenta.

b

Which of the following would indicate that the endotracheal tube is NOT in the trachea? Select one: A. Steady increase in the oxygen saturation B. Absence of an end-tidal CO2 waveform C. Absence of sounds over the epigastrium D. Decreased resistance when ventilating

b

Which of your senses can be safely used to identify a HazMat incident? Select one: A. Sight and touch B. Sight and sound C. Sound and smell D. Smell and sight

b

While caring for a patient, the EMT states to her partner, "Why even splint the patient's leg if they're only going to remove it in the ED?" This statement indicates that: Select one: A. the EMT is being realistic in her thinking. B. the EMT's focus is not on the common goal. C. the patient's leg does not require splinting. D. the EMT does not trust the hospital staff.

b

While en route to a call for a patient in cardiac arrest, you approach a stopped school bus with its red warning lights flashing. You should: Select one: A. slowly and carefully pass the bus on the left side. B. stop and wait until the warning lights stop flashing. C. back up and take an alternate route to the scene. D. pass the bus only after all the children have exited.

b

With age, the spine stiffens as a result of shrinkage of the intervertebral disc spaces, and the vertebrae become brittle. This increases the risk of: Select one: A. spinal cord tearing. B. compression fractures. C. distracting injuries. D. severe kyphosis.

b

You are attending to a 66-year-old male patient in cardiac arrest. As you gather history and begin the resuscitation, an Advanced Life Support (ALS) provider arrives on scene. You should: Select one: A. pause the resuscitation and provide a patient care report as quickly as possible. B. ensure that CPR is ongoing by the other providers present and then provide a patient care report off to the side. C. . continue the resuscitation and provide a patient care report while you work. D. stay focused on the resuscitation and allow the ALS provider to make his or her own assessment.

b

A 26-year-old female who is 34 weeks pregnant is experiencing a seizure. Her husband tells you that her blood pressure has been high and that she had been complaining of a headache for the past few days. You should: Select one: A. administer oral glucose for presumed hypoglycemia and transport. B. elevate her legs to improve brain perfusion and keep her warm. C. place her on her side, administer high-flow oxygen, and transport. D. insert an oral airway and ventilate her with a bag-valve mask.

c

A 69-year-old female was involved in a motor vehicle crash. She is semiconscious with a blood pressure of 80/50 mm Hg and a heart rate of 74 beats/min that is weak. Her daughter, who was uninjured in the crash, tells you that her mother has a history of hypertension and takes beta-blockers. Considering the fact that this patient is probably in shock, what is the MOST likely explanation for the absence of tachycardia? Select one: A. Intrathoracic bleeding and cardiac compression B. Deterioration of the cardiac conduction system C. The effects of her antihypertensive medication D. Failure of the parasympathetic nervous system

c

A 70-year-old man complains of a sudden onset of difficulty breathing. He has dried blood on his lips and is very anxious. His left leg is red, swollen, and painful. The EMT should: Select one: A. suspect severe pneumonia. B. apply a cold pack to his leg. C. administer high-flow oxygen. D. position the patient supine.

c

A 77-year-old female presents with an acute onset of altered mental status. Her son is present and advises that she has a history of hypertension, atrial fibrillation, type 2 diabetes, and glaucoma. He further advises that she takes numerous medications and that she is normally alert. When you assess this patient, it is important to note that: Select one: A. because of her age and medical history, you should suspect Alzheimer disease. B. her mental status is likely the result of hypoglycemia and you should give her sugar. C. the patient is experiencing delirious behavior, which suggests a new health problem. D. dementia typically presents as an acute onset of deterioration of cognitive function.

c

A patient in respiratory arrest at the scene of a multiple-casualty incident would typically be classified as a fourth priority (black tag; expectant) patient, unless: Select one: A. he or she has signs of an injury to the cervical spine. B. he or she has external signs of severe thoracic trauma. C. there are enough resources to provide care for him or her. D. there are at least three other patients in respiratory arrest.

c

A patient requires medication, but does not require additional fluids. The EMT would MOST likely be asked to prepare: Select one: A. a 250-mL bag of fluid. B. Microdrip tubing. C. a saline lock. D. Macrodrip tubing.

c

A precipitous labor and delivery is MOST common in women who: Select one: A. are younger than 30 years of age. B. have gestational diabetes. C. have delivered a baby before. D. are pregnant for the first time.

c

A specific legal document that directs relatives and caregivers regarding the medical treatment that may be given to patients who cannot speak for themselves is called a(n): Select one: A. physician directive. B. power of attorney. C. advance directive. D. statute of care.

c

A surgical procedure that creates an opening between the intestine and the surface of the body that allows for elimination of waste products is called a(n): Select one: A. gastric stoma. B. gastrostomy. C. colostomy. D. intestinal shunt.

c

According to the JumpSTART triage system, if a pediatric patient is not breathing, you should: Select one: A. triage him or her as expectant. B. open the airway and reassess breathing. C. immediately check for a pulse. D. give five rescue breaths and reassess.

c

As a triage supervisor, you: Select one: A. are responsible for providing initial treatment to all patients. B. must prepare patients for transport before they leave the triage area. C. must not begin treatment until all patients have been triaged. D. should communicate with area hospitals regarding their capabilities.

c

Because hearing-impaired patients typically have more difficulty hearing high-frequency sounds, it is important for you to: Select one: A. speak in a monotone voice. B. try basic sign language first. C. lower the pitch of your voice. D. increase the pitch of your voice.

c

Causes of delirium in the older patient include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. low blood sugar level. B. acute hipovolemia. C. Alzheimer disease. D. decreased cerebral perfusion.

c

Cerebral palsy is a condition that results from damage or injury to the: Select one: A. peripheral nervous system. B. spinal cord. C. brain. D. voluntary muscles.

c

Command functions under the incident command system include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. liaison officer. B. public information officer C. triage officer. D. safety officer.

c

Common complications associated with central venous catheters include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. clotting of the line. B. bleeding around the line. C. rupture of a central vein. D. a local infection.

c

Down syndrome is a genetic defect that occurs as the result of: Select one: A. a separation of chromosome 21. B. an extra pair of chromosomes. C. a triplication of chromosome 21. D. a sperm that contains 24 chromosomes.

c

EMTs are dispatched for a fall. The patient, a 16-year-old female with Down syndrome, is experiencing difficulty walking and says that her fingers "feel like needles." The EMTs should suspect: Select one: A. an intracranial hemorrhage. B. hydrocephalus. C. a cervical spine injury. D. a seizure.

c

Extrication is defined as: Select one: A. using heavy equipment to access a patient. B. dismantling an automobile to remove a victim. C. removal from a dangerous situation or position. D. immobilizing a patient before moving him or her.

c

Following delivery of a full-term baby, you have properly cared for the baby and have clamped and cut the umbilical cord. During transport, you note that the mother is experiencing moderate vaginal bleeding. You should: Select one: A. place her legs together and position her on her left side. B. carefully insert a sterile trauma dressing into her vagina. C. firmly massage the uterine fundus with a circular motion. D. elevate her legs 6 to 8 inches and cover her with a blanket.

c

General guidelines for safe ambulance driving include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. avoiding routes with heavy traffic congestion. B. assuming that other drivers will not see you. C. regularly using the siren as much as possible. D. avoiding one-way streets whenever possible.

c

Health care teams that infrequently train and work together: Select one: A. are unable to accomplish their tasks. B. often work better under pressure. C. can create delays in patient care. D. need less-explicit verbal direction.

c

Hyperventilation during the preoxygenation phase of endotracheal intubation: Select one: A. provides a better oxygen reserve for the patient. B. is acceptable if done for fewer than 2 minutes. C. can cause gastric distention and hypotension. D. will decrease the likelihood of aspiration.

c

If a problem with a team member is not directly or immediately impacting patient care, the team leader should: Select one: A. ignore the problem to avoid conflict. B. engage the team member at once. C. discuss the problem after the call. D. contact the medical director at once.

c

If a technical rescue team is required at the scene, but is not present when you arrive, you should: Select one: A. don personal protective equipment and begin the rescue process. B. remain with your ambulance until the rescue team arrives at the scene. C. check with the incident commander to ensure that the team is en route. D. have fire personnel initiate the rescue process if they are at the scene.

c

In determining the potential for a terrorist attack, you should routinely observe all of the following on every call, EXCEPT: Select one: A. victim's statements. B. the type of call. C. weather conditions. D. the location type.

c

In which of the following situations would the EMTs MOST likely utilize a police escort? Select one: A. The EMTs are transporting a critical pediatric patient through traffic. B. The weather is treacherous and there are numerous roads washed out. C. The EMTs are unfamiliar with the location, but the police officer knows the area. D. The call is dispatched as an unresponsive patient with CPR in progress.

c

Maintaining a cushion of safety when operating an ambulance means: Select one: A. driving at the posted speed limit, regardless of the patient's condition, and routinely using your lights and siren when driving on a freeway. B. driving about 2 to 3 seconds behind any vehicles in front of you and exceeding the posted speed limit by no more than 20 to 25 mph. C. keeping a safe distance between your ambulance and the vehicles in front of you and remaining aware of vehicles potentially hiding in your mirrors' blind spots. D. remaining in the far right-hand lane when transporting a critical patient and refraining from passing other motorists on the left side.

c

Nerve agents, a class of chemicals called organophosphates, were first discovered while in search of a superior: Select one: A. vaccine. B. antibiotic. C. pesticide. D. detergent.

c

Placards and labels on a storage container are intended to: Select one: A. broadly classify chemicals as being explosive or nonexplosive. B. advise responders of the appropriate neutralizing measures. C. give a general idea of the hazard inside that particular container. D. provide specific information about the chemical being carried.

c

Points of distribution (PODs) are strategically placed facilities where: Select one: A. chemical weapons are manufactured and distributed. B. weapons of mass destruction are distributed. C. antidotes, antibiotics, and vaccines are distributed. D. chemical and biologic weapons are stockpiled.

c

Sedentary behavior while healing from a hip fracture would MOST likely predispose the older patient to: Select one: A. ischemic stroke. B. heart failure. C. pneumonia. D. osteoporosis.

c

Situational awareness is MOST accurately defined as: Select one: A. predicting the presence of certain hazards at the scene after receiving initial information from the dispatcher. B. performing an initial scan of the scene in order to identify hazards that will pose an immediate threat to you and your crew. C. the ability to recognize any possible issues once you arrive at the scene and act proactively to avoid a negative impact. D. an ongoing process of information gathering and scene evaluation to determine appropriate strategies and tactics.

c

The EMT's responsibility during search-and-rescue operations is to _________. Select one: A. assist in the search on foot B. assume medical command C. wait at the staging area until the patient is located D. direct other incoming EMS units

c

The concept of consistent care across the entire health care team from first patient contact to patient discharge is called: Select one: A. patient care advocacy. B. the scope of practice. C. the continuum of care. D. the standard of care.

c

The function of the National Incident Management System (NIMS) is to: Select one: A. facilitate a standard method of incident command for natural disasters. B. prepare for the potential of a nuclear attack against the United States. C. prepare for, prevent, respond to, and recover from domestic incidents. D. educate city and county governments regarding foreign terrorist attacks.

c

The leading cause of death in the geriatric patient is: Select one: A. altered mental status. B. arthritis. C. heart disease. D. hypertension.

c

The purpose of the pediatric assessment triangle (PAT) is to: Select one: A. facilitate a rapid head-to-toe assessment of the child by visualization only. B. gather critical data by performing a rapid hands-on assessment of the child. C. allow you to rapidly and visually form a general impression of the child. D. determine if the child's vital signs are within the age-appropriate limits.

c

The reasons for rescue failure can be recalled by the mnemonic FAILURE. According to this mnemonic, the "U" stands for: Select one: A. underutilizing personnel at the scene. B. undertrained to correctly utilize equipment. C. underestimating the logistics of the incident. D. unprepared to effectively manage the scene.

c

The scene size-up at a motor vehicle crash or other incident: Select one: A. is a quick visual assessment of the scene prior to entry. B. determines who is allowed to safely enter the hot zone. C. is an ongoing process until the incident is terminated. D. should be performed by the most experienced EMT.

c

The stooped posture of some older people, which gives them a humpback appearance, is called: Select one: A. miosis. B. scoliosis. C. kyphosis. D. arthritis.

c

To minimize distractions and confusion when assessing an older patient, you should: Select one: A. elevate your voice and speak directly to the patient. B. dismiss the family members from the room or area. C. have only one EMT speak to the patient at a time. D. perform a physical exam and then talk to the patient.

c

Unlike a multiple-casualty incident, a natural disaster: Select one: A. usually does not require the incident command system process. B. exists when there are more than 100 critically injured patients. C. often requires personnel to remain on scene for several days. D. is typically short-lived and does not require as much manpower.

c

Unlike viral agents, bacterial agents: Select one: A. are usually not treatable. B. do not replicate in the body. C. respond to antibiotics. D. are far less infectious.

c

When a rehabilitation area is established at the scene of a multiple-casualty incident, it should: Select one: A. provide rehabilitative services to both responders and patients. B. be staffed by the treatment supervisor and at least one physician. C. be in a location that prevents visualization of the scene itself. D. be mandated that responders participate in a defusing session.

c

When administering oxygen to a frightened child, it would be MOST appropriate to: Select one: A. use a nasal cannula instead of a nonrebreathing mask. B. tightly secure the oxygen mask straps to the face. C. place oxygen tubing through a hole in a paper cup. D. have a parent restrain the child as you give oxygen.

c

When arriving at the scene of an overturned tractor-trailer rig, you note that a green cloud is being emitted from the crashed vehicle. The driver is still in the truck; he is conscious but bleeding profusely from the head. After notifying the hazardous materials team, you should: Select one: A. park downhill from the scene. B. ask the driver to exit the vehicle. C. position the ambulance upwind. D. quickly gain access to the patient.

c

When assessing a 78-year-old female who complains of shortness of breath, the EMT should: Select one: A. conclude that the patient is experiencing a heart attack. B. give oxygen only if the patient has labored breathing. C. determine the position in which the patient normally sleeps. D. place the patient supine to see if the problem worsens.

c

When caring for a patient who is visually impaired, it is important to: Select one: A. allow a service dog to remain with the patient at all times, even if the patient is critically ill. B. leave items such as canes and walkers at the residence if the patient will be carried on a gurney. C. tell him or her what is happening, identify noises, and describe the situation and surroundings. D. stand to the side of the patient when speaking if his or her peripheral vision is impaired.

c

When caring for an elderly patient who is hearing impaired, you should: Select one: A. speak directly into his or her ear with an elevated tone. B. request that he or she communicates with you by writing on paper. C. recall that elderly patients often have difficulty hearing high-frequency sounds. D. remember that most hearing-impaired patients can read lips.

c

When documenting a case of suspected elder abuse, it is MOST important for the EMT to: Select one: A. document his or her perceptions of the event. B. list the names of all of the suspected abusers. C. avoid documenting any unsupported opinions. D. theorize as to why the patient was abused.

c

When enlisting the help of an interpreter who signs, it is important for you to ask the interpreter to: Select one: A. avoid any kind of lip movement while he or she is signing with the patient. B. voice what he or she is signing while communicating with the patient. C. report exactly what the patient signs and not to add any commentary. D. document the answers to the questions that the patient has responded to.

c

When victims involved in a multiple-casualty incident are moved to the treatment area: Select one: A. they will be rapidly assessed and prioritized according to their injuries. B. definitive care is provided and preparations for transport will be made. C. secondary triage is performed and the appropriate treatment is rendered. D. all uninjured patients are placed in a holding area and closely observed.

c

Which of the following MOST accurately describes a mass-casualty incident? Select one: A. An incident where patients have been exposed to hazardous materials B. An incident in which at least half of the patients are critically injured C. An incident that greatly taxes or depletes a system's available resources D. An incident that involves more than five critically injured or ill patients

c

Which of the following agents blocks the body's ability to use oxygen and possesses an odor similar to almonds? Select one: A. Phosgene oxime B. Carbon monoxide C. Hydrogen cyanide D. Organophosphates

c

Which of the following assessment findings should concern the EMT the MOST when assessing a child who experienced a seizure? Select one: A. Tachycardia B. Short postictal phase C. Neck stiffness D. High fever

c

Which of the following conditions would MOST likely be encountered in a patient with cerebral palsy? Select one: A. Type 2 diabetes B. Brain tumors C. Seizure disorder D. Paralysis

c

Which of the following duties or responsibilities does NOT fall within the realm of the medical branch of the incident command system? Select one: A. Transport B. Treatment C. Extrication D. Triage

c

Which of the following is NOT generally considered an obstetrical emergency? Select one: A. Significant bleeding after delivery of the placenta B. Failure of the placenta to deliver after 30 minutes C. Return of contractions following delivery of the baby D. More than 500 mL of blood loss before placental delivery

c

Which of the following observations or statements represents the "E" in the GEMS diamond? Select one: A. Elderly patients present atypically and deserve your respect. B. The patient's medications have not been filled in 2 months. C. The patient's residence is cold due to a malfunctioning heater. D. A patient is assisted with his or her activities of daily living.

c

Which of the following questions is of LEAST pertinence when the EMT is determining whether or not to declare a multiple-casualty incident and activate the incident command system? Select one: A. How many seriously injured patients can be effectively cared for in my ambulance? B. What will happen if there are more than two patients that require emergency care? C. How many paramedics are able to respond to the scene and provide advanced care? D. How long will it take for additional resources to arrive at the scene once requested?

c

Which of the following statements regarding storage containers and hazardous materials is correct? Select one: A. The Emergency Response Guidebook tells you the type and color of container used to store hazardous materials. B. Steel utility drums are used to contain acids, bases, and other corrosive chemicals and substances. C. In most cases, there is no correlation between the color of the container and the possible contents. D. Red phosphorus from a drug laboratory is found in a blue container that is clearly labeled.

c

Which of the following would be the MOST practical method of communicating with a hearing-impaired patient until his or her hearing aids can be located? Select one: A. Attempting to use body language to determine the problem B. Contacting dispatch and requesting a sign language interpreter C. Using a piece of paper and writing utensil to ask questions D. Using a high-pitched voice while speaking directly into the ear

c

While examining a woman in labor, you see the umbilical cord protruding from the vagina. You should: Select one: A. carefully push the cord back into the vagina. B. cover the umbilical cord with a dry dressing. C. push the infant's head away from the cord. D. gently pull on the cord to facilitate delivery.

c

You and your partner are both male and are attending to a 28-year-old female patient complaining of diffuse abdominal pain. The patient is 34 weeks pregnant with her first child. The patient refuses to allow you to examine her, and her husband informs you that their culture does not allow males to examine or care for pregnant women. You should: Select one: A. call for the police to ensure that patient assessment is carried out. B. insist that the patient requires proper care and that requires an adequate physical assessment and that you cannot be responsible for the outcome. C. respect the patient's wishes, ensure that the appropriate documentation is completed, and transport the patient. D. inform the patient that by calling for an ambulance, she is agreeing to the care provided and continue with your assessment and management.

c

You are attempting to gain access to a patient who was injured when his truck struck another vehicle from behind. The patient is conscious and alert, but is screaming in pain. You try to open the door, but it is locked. You should: Select one: A. break the window and unlock the door. B. request the rescue team to extricate him. C. ask the patient if he can unlock the door. D. use a pry bar to attempt to open the door.

c

You are attending to a 23-year-old female patient who is 16 weeks pregnant with her second child. The patient has apparently fallen and sustained an injury to her upper right arm. When you ask about the incident history, the patient is reluctant to explain what happened and becomes very quiet. Based on this information, you should: Select one: A. ask more detailed questions and press the issue until you have a more detailed understanding of the incident. B. immediately remove the patient from the environment and transport. C. continue your care in a private area, document any details regarding the scene and the incident, and reassure her as you provide care. D. contact police and remain at the scene until they arrive and escort you to the hospital.

c

You are attending to a 68-year-old female patient in cardiac arrest. An ALS provider arrives shortly after you do and the transfer of care is made. The ALS provider asks that you assist in the endotracheal intubation. As part of this process, you may be required to: Select one: A. ventilate and preoxygenate the patient but not handle any of the equipment required for the intubation. B. perform the intubation with assistance. C. help position the patient for a better view of the airway during the procedure. D. visualize the airway and look for any potential complications in advance of the intubation.

c

You are attending to a patient who was experiencing abdominal pain at a local shopping mall. The patient sitting on a bench and appears in moderate distress. You are met by a first responder at the scene who wishes to provide you with a patient care report. Your best course of action is to: Select one: A. listen to the report while you perform a primary survey and render care to the patient. B. move the responder out of the way and begin patient care. C. listen to the responder while your partner performs a primary survey. D. ask the responder to wait and take their report after you have completed a primary survey.

c

You are organizing a group of EMTs to provide triage in a mass-casualty exercise. In order for the group to be successful, it is essential that: Select one: A. individuals understand that their roles will all be accomplished the same way. B. individuals understand that this is a one-time exercise and that things will change in the field. C. individuals have an understanding of how the group will accomplish its goals. D. individual goals are accomplished.

c

A 33-year-old woman who is 36 weeks pregnant is experiencing vaginal bleeding. During transport, you note that she suddenly becomes diaphoretic, tachycardic, and hypotensive. You should: Select one: A. carefully place sterile gauze into her vagina. B. position her supine and elevate her legs 12 inches. C. ventilate her with a bag-valve mask. D. place her in a left lateral recumbent position.

d

A 75-year-old woman complains of shortness of breath. Which of the following findings should alert the EMT to the possibility of a pulmonary embolism? Select one: A. The patient's abdomen is swollen. B. The patient is prescribed an inhaler. C. Frequent urinary tract infections D. History of deep venous thrombosis

d

A portable oxygen cylinder should have a minimum capacity of ____ of oxygen. Select one: A. 250 L B. 750 L C. 1,000 L D. 500 L

d

A pregnant trauma patient may lose a significant amount of blood before showing signs of shock because: Select one: A. blood is shunted to the uterus and fetus during major trauma. B. pregnancy causes vasodilation and a lower blood pressure. C. pregnant patients can dramatically increase their heart rate. D. pregnant patients have an overall increase in blood volume.

d

A supervisor who has more than seven people reporting to him or her: Select one: A. should assign a specific task to each person reporting to him or her and regularly follow up to ensure that the tasks were carried out. B. is more beneficial to the overall effort than a supervisor with fewer personnel because his or her team can accomplish more tasks. C. should regularly report to the incident commander (IC) to inform him or her of the functions that his or her team is performing. D. has exceeded an effective span of control and should divide tasks and delegate the supervision of some tasks to another person.

d

A type _____ ambulance features a conventional, truck cab-chassis with a modular ambulance body that can be transferred to a newer chassis as needed. Select one: A. II B. III C. IV D. I

d

A viral infection that may cause obstruction of the upper airway in a child is called: Select one: A. bronchitis. B. asthma. C. epiglottitis. D. croup.

d

Abruptio placenta occurs when: Select one: A. the placenta develops over and covers the cervical opening. B. the placenta affixes itself to the outer layer of the uterus. C. a tear in the placenta causes severe internal hemorrhage. D. the placenta prematurely separates from the uterine wall.

d

According to the "E" in the DOPE mnemonic, which of the following actions should you perform to troubleshoot inadequate ventilation in a patient with a tracheostomy tube? Select one: A. Attempt to pass a suction catheter into the tube. B. Look for blood or other secretions in the tube. C. Listen to breath sounds to assess for a pneumothorax. D. Check the mechanical ventilator for malfunction.

d

According to the JumpSTART triage system, if a pediatric patient has a respiratory rate of 40 breaths/min, you should: Select one: A. assign an immediate category. B. assess neurologic status. C. look for posturing. D. assess for a distal pulse.

d

After recognizing that an incident involves a hazardous material, you should contact the hazardous materials team and then: Select one: A. identify the chemical using the Emergency Response Guidebook. B. don standard equipment before gaining access to any patients. C. not allow anyone within 25 feet to 50 feet of the incident scene. D. take measures to ensure the safety of yourself and others.

d

After the fetus has descended into the pelvis at the end of the third trimester, many mothers experience: Select one: A. an urge to push. B. a bloated feeling. C. mid-back pain. D. easier breathing.

d

Airway management can be challenging in patients with Down syndrome because their: Select one: A. occiput is round, which causes flexion of the neck. B. tongue is relatively small and falls back in the throat. C. mandible is large, which inhibits a mask-to-face seal. D. teeth are misaligned and they have a large tongue

d

An attack on an abortion clinic would MOST likely be carried out by a(n): Select one: A. doomsday cult. B. violent religious group. C. extremist political group. D. single-issue group.

d

An infant is considered to be premature if it: Select one: A. is born before 40 weeks' gestation or weighs less than 7 lb. B. is born before 38 weeks' gestation or weighs less than 6 lb. C. weighs less than 5.5 lb or is born before 37 weeks' gestation. D. weighs less than 5 lb or is born before 36 weeks' gestation.

d

At a very large incident, the __________ section is responsible for managing the tactical operations usually handled by the incident commander on routine EMS calls. Select one: A. finance B. planning C. logistics D. operations

d

At present, the likelihood of a nuclear attack against the United States is very low because: Select one: A. all nuclear devices or weapons that different countries are in possession of are currently accounted for. B. the United States has an effective early warning system to detect an incoming nuclear missile. C. other than the United States, no other countries are currently in possession of nuclear weapons. D. terrorist nations do not have the ability to deliver a nuclear weapon via missile or bomb.

d

Because a tracheostomy tube bypasses the nose and mouth: Select one: A. bleeding or air leakage may occur around the tube. B. severe swelling of the trachea and bronchi can occur. C. the risk of a local infection is significantly high. D. secretions can build up in and around the tube.

d

Before positioning an infant or child's airway, you should: Select one: A. put padding behind his or her head. B. rule out an injury to the spinal cord. C. thoroughly suction his or her airway. D. place him or her on a firm surface.

d

Burn patients without airway compromise and patients with multiple bone or joint injuries should be marked with a __________ triage tag at a mass-casualty incident. Select one: A. black B. green C. red D. yellow

d

Burns in children are commonly caused by all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. exposure to caustic chemicals. B. hot items on a stovetop. C. scalding water in a bathtub. D. entrapment in a structural fire.

d

By the 20th week of pregnancy, the uterus is typically at or above the level of the mother's: Select one: A. superior diaphragm. B. xiphoid process. C. pubic bone. D. belly button.

d

Cerebral palsy is characterized by poorly controlled ________ movement. Select one: A. eye B. extremity C. neck D. body

d

Clouding of the lenses of the eyes is called: Select one: A. glaucoma. B. conjunctivitis. C. retinitis. D. cataracts.

d

Common causes of depression in the elderly include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. chronic medical conditions. B. alcohol abuse and dependence. C. prescription medication use. D. an acute onset of dementia.

d

Common causes of syncope in older patients include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. acute hypotension. B. blood volume loss. C. venous pooling. D. vasoconstriction.

d

Delivering a patient to the hospital involves all of the following activities, EXCEPT: Select one: A. completing a detailed written report. B. restocking any disposable items you used. C. informing the dispatcher of your arrival. D. giving a verbal report to the clerk.

d

During a HazMat incident, you are working in the treatment area. As patients are removed from the danger zone, you should: Select one: A. retrieve patients from the decontamination area and begin treatment. B. quickly decontaminate the patients and begin assessing them. C. perform a rapid assessment and then have them decontaminated. D. remain where you are and have the patients brought to you.

d

During your visual inspection of a 25-year-old woman in labor, you see the baby's head crowning at the vaginal opening. What should you do? Select one: A. Maintain firm pressure to the head until it completely delivers. B. Tell the mother not to push and transport her immediately. C. Place your fingers in the vagina to assess for a nuchal cord. D. Apply gentle pressure to the baby's head as it delivers.

d

EMTs and other health care providers function as a true team when they work: Select one: A. under standing orders. B. independently. C. dependently. D. interdependently.

d

EMTs arrive at the scene of an ill person. The EMR, who arrived before the EMTs, advises that the patient had a syncopal episode. The patient is conscious and alert and remains so throughout transport. When transferring patient care to the emergency department nurse, the EMT should advise the nurse that: Select one: A. the EMR was probably mistaken about the episode. B. she should contact the EMR about the incident. C. there is no evidence to support the syncopal episode. D. the patient had a reported syncopal episode.

d

Following delivery of a pulseless and apneic infant who has a foul odor, skin sloughing, and diffuse blistering, you should: Select one: A. begin full resuscitation and transport. B. report the case to the medical examiner. C. dry the infant off to stimulate breathing. D. provide emotional support to the mother.

d

Following proper decontamination, a 30-year-old male is brought to you. He is semiconscious and has rapid, shallow respirations. A quick visual assessment reveals no obvious bleeding. You should: Select one: A. administer high-flow oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. B. perform a rapid assessment to locate critical injuries. C. ask a firefighter what the patient was exposed to. D. begin some form of positive-pressure ventilation.

d

For every emergency request, the dispatcher should routinely gather and record all of the following information, EXCEPT the: Select one: A. caller's phone number. B. location of the patient(s). C. nature of the call. D. patient's medical history.

d

If a newborn's heart rate is less than 60 beats/min following delivery, you should: Select one: A. resuction the mouth only. B. flick the soles of his or her feet. C. begin chest compressions. D. provide ventilations for 30 seconds.

d

If the situation allows, a child should be transported in a car seat if he or she weighs less than _____ lb. Select one: A. 50 B. 70 C. 60 D. 40

d

In contrast to abruptio placenta, placenta previa: Select one: A. is caused by hypertension or abdominal trauma. B. is typically associated with severe abdominal pain. C. may present without significant abdominal pain. D. may not present with heavy vaginal bleeding.

d

In order to accomplish the goal of primary triage, it is important to: Select one: A. perform a rapid assessment on all patients who appear to be unstable. B. take no more than 2 minutes to determine the patient's status. C. begin life-saving care immediately upon detecting critical injuries. D. keep the triage assessment brief and the patient categories basic.

d

In preparing for a disaster, EMS systems should have enough supplies for at least a ______ period of self-sufficiency. Select one: A. 96-hour B. 48-hour C. 24-hour D. 72-hour

d

Many older victims of physical abuse may make false statements or lie about the origin of their injuries because: Select one: A. most elderly patients have dementia. B. they are protective of the abuser. C. they do not want to be bothersome. D. they fear retribution from the abuser.

d

Most terrorist attacks: Select one: A. occur within the continental United States. B. are carried out by fewer than three people. C. involve the use of nuclear explosive devices. D. require multiple terrorists working together.

d

Signs and symptoms of preeclampsia include: Select one: A. dysuria and constipation. B. dyspnea and bradycardia. C. marked hypoglycemia. D. headache and edema.

d

Talking about an elderly patient in front of him or her to other members of the family: Select one: A. is usually beneficial because the patient's cognitive skills are typically impaired. B. often causes the patient to become paranoid and untrusting of your help. C. will anger the patient and result in his or her refusal to accept care or transport. D. may cause the patient to think that he or she has no say in making decisions.

d

The Centennial Park bombing during the 1996 Summer Olympics is an example of: Select one: A. an ecoterrorist attack. B. apocalyptic violence. C. state-sponsored terrorism. D. domestic terrorism.

d

The EMT should be MOST concerned when a child presents with fever and: Select one: A. ear pain. B. a headache. C. chills. D. a rash.

d

The MOST common and usually the most serious ambulance crashes occur at: Select one: A. stop signs. B. stop lights. C. railroad crossings. D. intersections.

d

The ONLY indications for placing your gloved fingers in the vagina during delivery are: Select one: A. nuchal cord and presentation of an arm or leg. B. limb presentation and severe vaginal hemorrhage. C. vertex presentation and delivery of the placenta. D. breech presentation and prolapsed umbilical cord.

d

The __________ area is where incoming ambulances meet and await further instructions at the scene of a multiple-casualty incident. Select one: A. transportation B. triage C. support D. staging

d

The means by which a terrorist will spread a particular agent is called: Select one: A. aerosolization. B. incubation. C. weaponization. D. dissemination.

d

The process of removing dirt, dust, blood, or other visible contaminants from a surface or equipment is called: Select one: A. disinfection. B. sterilization. C. high-level disinfection. D. cleaning.

d

The skin lesions associated with smallpox: Select one: A. develop early during the disease. B. are of different shapes and sizes. C. initially form on the lower trunk. D. are identical in their development.

d

The term used when individual units or different organizations make independent, and often inefficient, decisions regarding an incident is called: Select one: A. undermining. B. logistical chaos. C. single command. D. freelancing.

d

The type and severity of wounds sustained from incendiary and explosive devices primarily depend on the: Select one: A. type of material used to manufacture the device. B. pressure that is generated from the explosion itself. C. size of the structure that was involved in the explosion. D. patient's distance from the epicenter of the explosion.

d

The umbilical cord: Select one: A. carries blood away from the baby via the artery. B. contains two veins and one large umbilical artery. C. separates from the placenta shortly after birth. D. carries oxygen to the baby via the umbilical vein.

d

The vagina and the neck of the uterus comprise the: Select one: A. womb. B. cervix. C. fundus. D. birth canal.

d

Under what circumstances is a left ventricular assist device used? Select one: A. To reduce ventricular pumping force in patients with aortic aneurysms B. To permanently replace the function of one or both of the ventricles C. To ensure that the ventricles contract at an adequate and consistent rate D. As a bridge to heart transplantation while a donor heart is being located

d

Upon arrival at a motor vehicle crash, the EMT should: Select one: A. turn off the emergency flashing lights and headlights. B. turn off the ambulance and set the emergency brake. C. park at least 300 feet away from the accident scene. D. leave only the essential warning lights activated.

d

Upon arriving at the scene of a major motor vehicle crash at night, you find that the safest place to park your ambulance is in a direction that is facing oncoming traffic. You should: Select one: A. turn all warning lights off. B. place a flare near the crash. C. quickly access the patient. D. turn your headlights off.

d

Upon arriving at the scene of a possible hazardous materials (HazMat) incident involving several patients, you should: Select one: A. divert traffic away from the scene. B. rope off the entire perimeter. C. retrieve all critical patients. D. carefully assess the situation.

d

Upon delivery of an infant's head, you note that the umbilical cord is wrapped around its neck. You should: Select one: A. give high-flow oxygen to the mother and transport. B. immediately clamp and cut the umbilical cord. C. provide free-flow oxygen to the infant and transport. D. attempt to slip the cord gently over the infant's head.

d

Viral hemorrhagic fevers (VHF), such as Ebola, cause the blood to: Select one: A. become thick and spontaneously clot. B. engorge the brain and cause hemorrhaging. C. attack the bone marrow and destroy cells. D. seep out of the blood vessels and tissues.

d

When a child is struck by a car, the area of greatest injury depends MOSTLY on the: Select one: A. height of the child and the speed at which the car was traveling. B. speed at which the car was traveling when impact occurred. C. size of the child and the height of the bumper upon impact. D. age of the child and the size of the car that struck him or her.

d

When a child is struck by a car, the area of greatest injury depends MOSTLY on the: Select one: A. speed at which the car was traveling when impact occurred. B. size of the child and the height of the bumper upon impact. C. height of the child and the speed at which the car was traveling. D. age of the child and the size of the car that struck him or her.

d

When assessing an 8-year-old child, you should: Select one: A. refrain from taking a blood pressure. B. rely solely on the parent for information. C. use a toe-to-head assessment approach. D. talk to the child, not just the caregiver.

d

When being tailgated by another vehicle while responding to an emergency call, you should: Select one: A. stop the ambulance and confront the driver. B. increase your speed to create more distance. C. slam on the brakes to frighten the tailgater. D. slow down and allow the driver to pass you.

d

When caring for patients with cerebral palsy, it is important to remember that: Select one: A. most patients have the ability to walk, but have an unsteady gait. B. hearing aids are usually ineffective for patients with hearing loss. C. they are unable to walk and are totally dependent upon you. D. their limbs are often underdeveloped and are prone to injury.

d

When determining the exact location and position of the patient(s) in a wrecked vehicle, you and your team should routinely consider all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. hazards that pose a risk to rescuers. B. the position of the crashed vehicle. C. the possibility of vehicle instability. D. the make and model of the vehicle.

d

When working as an independent health care group member, the EMT should expect that he or she: Select one: A. will be specifically instructed on how to perform a specific task. B. will rely on the group leader for making virtually all decisions. C. will receive no support or guidance from an EMS supervisor. D. does not have to wait for an assignment before performing a task.

d

Which of the following chemicals is a nerve agent? Select one: A. Chlorine B. Phosgene C. Lewisite D. Soman

d

Which of the following chemicals requires identification with a placard, regardless of how many pounds the shipment weighs? Select one: A. Nonflammable gases B. Flammable liquids C. Air-reactive solids D. Water-reactive solids

d

Which of the following does NOT usually contribute to or cause obesity? Select one: A. High caloric intake B. Low metabolic rate C. Genetic predisposition D. Rapid metabolism

d

Which of the following findings is LEAST suggestive of child abuse? Select one: A. Burns to the hands or feet that involve a glove distribution B. An unexplained delay in seeking medical care after the injury C. Evidence of alcohol consumption or drug use at the scene D. Consistency in the method of injury reported by the caregiver

d

Which of the following groups of people is associated with the lowest risk of meningitis? Select one: A. Children with HIV/AIDS B. Children with shunts C. Newborns D. Females

d

Which of the following is an example of regional equipment or supplies? Select one: A. Inhaled bronchodilator B. Oral glucose C. Vacuum splint D. DuoDote Auto-Injector

d

Which of the following statements regarding anthrax is correct? Select one: A. Anthrax is a deadly virus that replicates. B. Cutaneous anthrax has a 90% mortality rate. C. There is presently no vaccine against anthrax. D. Pulmonary anthrax is the most deadly form.

d

Which of the following statements regarding autism is correct? Select one: A. Autism affects females four times greater than males. B. Impairment of motor activity is a classic sign of autism. C. The majority of patients with autism do not speak at all. D. Most cases of autism are diagnosed by 3 years of age.

d

Which of the following statements regarding gestational diabetes is correct? Select one: A. The onset of gestational diabetes typically manifests with hypoglycemia. B. Gestational diabetes results in permanent diabetes mellitus after delivery. C. Diet and exercise are typically ineffective in controlling gestational diabetes. D. In some cases, women with gestational diabetes require insulin injections.

d

Which of the following statements regarding suctioning of a newborn's mouth and oropharynx is correct? Select one: A. If the head delivers facedown, the mouth and nose should be suctioned at once. B. Suctioning should be performed on all newborns immediately following delivery. C. Newborns rapidly expel fluid from their lungs and do not require suctioning. D. Suctioning is indicated prior to cutting the cord if respiratory distress is present.

d

Which of the following statements regarding the rapid extrication technique is correct? Select one: A. It involves rapidly removing a patient from his or her vehicle after immobilizing him or her with a short backboard. B. Rapid extrication involves the use of heavy equipment to disentangle a patient from his or her crashed vehicle. C. The only indication for performing a rapid extrication is if the patient is not entrapped and is in cardiac arrest. D. The rapid extrication technique is indicated if the scene is unsafe and the patient is not entrapped in his or her vehicle.

d

Which of the following statements regarding the unified command system is correct? Select one: A. Ideally, the unified command system is used for short-duration, limited incidents that require the services of a single agency from one jurisdiction. B. The unified command system is one in which one person is in charge, even if multiple agencies respond to a disaster or mass-casualty incident. C. In a unified command system, there are separate ICs for fire, police, EMS, and any other agencies that respond to the incident. D. Under the unified command system, plans are drawn up in advance by all cooperating agencies that assume a shared responsibility for decision making.

d

Which of the following statements regarding the use of the warning lights and siren on the ambulance is correct? Select one: A. Warning lights and siren should be avoided, even if the patient is unstable. B. It is generally acceptable to increase your speed if lights and siren are in use. C. If the patient is stable, you may use the warning lights without the siren. D. If it is necessary to use the siren, you should tell the patient beforehand.

d

You are approaching an overturned tanker truck to assess the driver, who appears to be unresponsive. As you get closer to the vehicle, you note the smell of noxious fumes and find that you are in the midst of a vapor cloud. What should you do? Select one: A. Remain where you are and perform a visual assessment of the patient. B. Cover your face with your shirt and quickly extricate the injured driver. C. Realize that you are in the danger zone and prevent others from entering. D. Exit the area immediately and gather information for the HazMat team.

d

You are assessing a 440-lb man who complains of shortness of breath and lower back pain. The patient is conscious and alert, his blood pressure is 148/98 mm Hg, and his heart rate is 120 beats/min. Your MOST immediate action should be to: Select one: A. ask a member of your team to locate the best route to move him to the ambulance. B. perform a secondary assessment, focusing on his respiratory system and back. C. notify the receiving facility and advise them of the patient's weight and status. D. avoid placing him in a supine position if possible and administer oxygen.

d

You are assessing a 70-year-old female who complains of intense thirst, frequent urination, and dizziness. She has a history of type 2 diabetes, heart disease, rheumatoid arthritis, and gout. Her blood glucose reads "high." She is conscious, but confused. Her blood pressure is 92/52 mm Hg, her pulse rate is 130 beats/min and weak, and her respirations are 22 breaths/min and shallow. This patient's clinical presentation is MOST consistent with: Select one: A. diabetic ketoacidosis. B. acute renal failure with associated hyperglycemia. C. hyperglycemia with moderate dehydration. D. hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome.

d

You are at a mass-casualty scene and in the process of organizing a group to be responsible for ongoing patient care. In order for the group to be successful: Select one: A. individual goals are accomplished. B. all individuals have the same roles. C. individuals see this as a one-time exercise and that the group may change. D. individuals have an understanding of how the group will accomplish its goals.

d

You are at the scene of multiple-casualty incident when your partner slips and falls, injuring his leg. He is alert and responds appropriately to your questions. His respirations are 20 breath/min and his radial pulses are strong. What triage category should you assign your partner? Select one: A. Minimal B. Delayed C. Expectant D. Immediate

d

You are called to the scene of a 56-year-old female patient who was the driver of a car that struck a telephone pole. The patient is sitting in her vehicle with her seat belt on and the air bag has deployed. A bystander approaches as you arrive and informs you that he is an off-duty firefighter and was first on the scene. The bystander wishes to provide you with a patient care report. You should: Select one: A. ask the bystander to wait and you will take their report after you have finished your assessment. B. listen to the report while you perform a primary survey and render care to the patient. C. ask the bystander for any formal identification and listen to the report once it is verified. D. ask your partner to perform the primary survey while you listen to the report.

d

You are en route to an emergency call when you approach a slow-moving vehicle on a two-way road. You can see oncoming traffic in the other lane. The driver has his windows up and does not realize that you are behind him. You should: Select one: A. quickly pass the vehicle on the left side. B. use your public address system to alert the driver. C. pass the driver on the right-hand shoulder. D. remain at a safe distance until it is safe to pass.

d

You are standing by at the scene of a hostage situation when the incident commander advises you that one of his personnel has been shot. The patient is lying supine in an open area and is not moving. As the SWAT team escorts you to the patient, you should: Select one: A. perform a rapid assessment and move him to a place of safety. B. treat only critical injuries before moving him to a safe place. C. limit your primary assessment to airway and breathing only. D. grab him by the clothes and immediately move him to safety.

d

You have just delivered a premature baby. Your assessment reveals that he is breathing adequately; however, his heart rate is 90 beats/min. You should: Select one: A. assess his skin color and give free-flow oxygen as needed. B. clamp and cut the umbilical cord and keep him warm. C. begin chest compressions and reassess in 30 seconds. D. keep him warm and ventilate with a BVM.

d