EMT Equiz questions (all)

Phases of an ambulance call include all of the following activities, EXCEPT: A. emergency care provided at the scene. B. transport of the patient to the hospital. C. checking equipment on the ambulance. D. transferring the patient to the ambulance.

A. emergency care provided at the scene.

Common duties and responsibilities of EMS personnel at the scene of a motor vehicle crash include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. keeping bystanders at a safe distance. B. assigning all patients a triage category. C. preparing all patients for transportation. D. continual assessment of critical patients.

A. keeping bystanders at a safe distance.

A 50-year-old female is entrapped in her passenger car after it struck a tree. As the rescue team is preparing to extricate her, you quickly assess her and determine that she is breathing shallowly and that her radial pulse is absent. You should: A. maintain spinal stabilization as she is extricated. B. secure her with a short backboard or vest device. C. stabilize her condition before extrication begins. D. begin CPR as the rescue team begins extrication.

A. maintain spinal stabilization as she is extricated.

_____________ is defined as the ability to reach the patient.

Access

Which of the following is the BEST example of gaining simple access to a patient? A. Using a pry bar to open a damaged door B. Entering a vehicle through an open window C. Breaking glass to gain access to the patient D. Removing the roof to access a critical patient

B. Entering a vehicle through an open window

The six-pointed Star of Life emblem identifies vehicles that: A. are staffed by a minimum of one certified advanced EMT (AEMT). B. meet federal specifications as licensed or certified ambulances. C. are equipped with supplies to manage a mass-casualty situation. D. have complied with state regulations for ambulance certification.

B. meet federal specifications as licensed or certified ambulances.

Which of the following is NOT a factor in determining how to protect oneself against the effects of radiation?

Body size

Minimum airway and ventilation equipment that should be carried on every ambulance include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. various sizes of oral and nasal airways. B. Combitubes or laryngeal mask airways. C. mounted and portable suctioning units. D. adult and pediatric bag-valve masks.

Combitubes or laryngeal mask airways.

Which of the following statements regarding cerebral palsy is correct?

Conditions such as brain injury at birth, postpartum infections, and fetal hypoxia can cause cerebral palsy.

Which of the following terrorist groups poses the LEAST threat to a person's physical safety?

Cyber terrorists

Interoperability, an important feature of the NIMS, refers to the ability of: A. the federal government to intervene during any large- or small-scale incident involving terrorism. B. EMS systems and fire departments in the same jurisdiction to effectively work as a team. C. county and state law enforcement agencies to acquire information and pass it along to EMS personnel. D. agencies of different types or from different jurisdictions to communicate with each other.

D. agencies of different types or from different jurisdictions to communicate with each other.

Which of the following is NOT a common role of the EMT at the scene of a HazMat incident?

Decontamination

What should be done for any type of alternative-fuel vehicle that is involved in an accident?

Disconnect the battery.

Which of the following would you expect to encounter in a patient with moderate radiation toxicity?

Hair loss and first-degree burns

Which of the following statements regarding hearing aids is correct?

Hearing aids cannot restore hearing to normal levels.

For which of the following conditions would you MOST likely encounter a ventricular peritoneum shunt?

Hydrocephalus

Which of the following statements regarding transport of patients from a multiple-casualty incident or disaster site is correct?

Immediate-priority patients should be transported two at a time.

Who has overall command of an emergency incident?

Incident commander

According to the START triage system, what should you do if you encounter an unresponsive patient who is not breathing?

Open the airway and reassess breathing status.

Which of the following statements regarding gastrostomy (gastric) tubes is correct?

Patients with a gastrostomy tube may still be at risk for aspiration.

Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of the treatment supervisor?

Primary assessment

The tip of a central venous catheter rests in the:

Vena Cava

When transporting a patient to the hospital, you should:

be safe and get the patient to the hospital in the shortest practical time.

Rescuers have brought you a patient rescued from a structural collapse. You should immediately _________.

begin a rapid assessment

Other than personal safety equipment, which of the following should be the MOST readily accessible item in the back of an ambulance?

bleeding control supplies

You are dispatched to the scene of a building explosion. Upon arrival, you see people frantically fleeing the building, screaming, "Everyone is passing out!" You should:

carefully assess the situation and ensure your own safety.

While using lights and siren, most state laws permit an ambulance to:

carefully exceed the posted speed limit.

Exposure to _________ would MOST likely result in immediate respiratory distress.

chlorine

Vagal nerve stimulators may be an alternative treatment to medication for patients with:

chronic seizure disorders.

A carboy is a container that would MOST likely be used to store and transport:

corrosives.

Most terrorist attacks are:

covert.

A 49-year-old man has been removed from his overturned tanker, which was carrying a hazardous material. The tank ruptured and he was exposed to the material. When rescue personnel bring him to the decontamination area, they note that he is unconscious and has slow, shallow breathing. They should:

cut away all of the patient's clothing and do a rapid rinse to remove as much of the contaminating matter as they can.

Tactical EMS providers are specially trained to function during _________.

dangerous law enforcement operations

You and your partner are the first to arrive at the scene of a motor vehicle accident. As you approach the scene, you can see multiple patients, some walking and others who are still in their vehicles. You should:

declare a multiple-casualty incident and request additional resources.

The process of removing or neutralizing and properly disposing of a hazardous material is called:

decontamination

During a motor vehicle collision involving multiple patients, the incident commander would MOST likely:

designate a safety officer, but retain other command functions.

To evaluate the scene for hazards and identify the number of patients, the EMT should first _________.

do a 360-degree walk-around

The purpose of the incident command system (ICS) is to:

ensure responder and public safety, achieve incident management goals, and ensure the effective use of resources.

As the first-arriving senior EMT at the scene of an incident, you should perform a scene size-up and then:

establish command.

When caring for a morbidly obese patient, you should:

establish his or her chief complaint and then communicate your plan to help.

Injuries or conditions that would be classified as first priority (red tag; immediate) include all of the following, EXCEPT:

fractures of multiple long bones.

As the first-arriving emergency responder at the scene of a suspected terrorist or weapon of mass destruction incident, you should request additional resources as needed and then:

function as the incident commander until additional personnel arrive.

A service dog is easily identified by its:

harness

EMS personnel would MOST likely be called to the residence of a patient receiving home health care when the home care provider:

has recognized a change in the patient's health status.

Your unit has been dispatched to stand by at the scene of a structure fire. There are no injuries of which you are aware. Upon arriving at the scene, you should:

immediately locate the incident commander and ask where the victim is located..

A hiker was injured when he fell approximately 20 feet from a cliff. When you arrive at the scene, a member of the technical rescue group escorts you to the patient, who is positioned on a steep incline. The MOST appropriate method of immobilizing and moving the patient to the ambulance is to:

immobilize his spine with a long backboard and place him in a basket stretcher.

In contrast to simple access, complex access:

involves forcible entry into a vehicle.

General principles for approaching a potential HazMat incident include:

maintaining a safe distance and viewing the scene with binoculars.

In contrast to conductive hearing loss, sensorineural hearing loss is caused by:

nerve damage

Upon arrival at an active law enforcement incident, the EMT should _________.

notify the incident commander

Common activities that occur while you and your partner are en route to the scene of an emergency call include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. assigning tasks to each member of the response team. B. obtaining additional information from the dispatcher. C. apprising the medical director of the nature of the call. D. fastening your seatbelts before the ambulance departs.

obtaining additional information from the dispatcher.

You respond to a residence for a 9-year-old female with Down syndrome who is sick. When you arrive at the scene and assess the patient, you determine that she is unresponsive and has gurgling respirations. You should:

open her airway with a manual maneuver, suction her oropharynx, and insert a simple airway adjunct.

The EMT's primary responsibility during a rescue or extrication situation is _________.

patient care

EMTs are dispatched for a patient in cardiac arrest. When they arrive, they find that the patient is pulseless and apneic and is wearing an external defibrillator vest. In this situation, the EMTs should:

perform CPR and leave the vest in place.

Autism is defined as a: A. psychiatric condition related to an imbalance of serotonin in the brain. B. mental disability caused by insufficient cognitive development of the brain. C. congenital condition caused by factors such as malnutrition or birth complications. D. pervasive developmental disorder characterized by impairment of social interaction.

pervasive developmental disorder characterized by impairment of social interaction.

You and your partner arrive at the scene where a truck has crashed into a small building, injuring eight people. You immediately request additional ambulances and begin the triage process. The first patient that you triage is a young female who is unconscious and apneic. She has an open head injury and her pulse is weak and thready. You should:

place a red tag on her and continue triaging.

When transporting a patient who is secured to a backboard, it is important to:

place deceleration straps over the patient's shoulders.

Pulmonary hemorrhage and inner ear damage are examples of __________ blast injuries.

primary

When introduced into the body, ricin causes:

pulmonary edema and circulatory failure.

In contrast to an automated implanted cardioverter/defibrillator, an internal cardiac pacemaker:

regulates the patient's heart rate if it falls below a preset value.

You have a critically injured patient in the back of your ambulance, ready to be transported. There are other injured patients at the scene and it will be approximately 10 minutes before other ambulances will arrive. Law enforcement personnel are at the scene. You should:

remain at the scene until at least one other ambulance arrives.

When driving an ambulance on a multilane highway in emergency mode, you should:

remain in the extreme left-hand lane.

A persistent or nonvolatile chemical agent can:

remain on a surface for more than 24 hours.

You and your partner are standing by at the scene of a residential fire when you hear the incident commander state, "We have located a victim" over the radio. You should:

remain with the ambulance and wait for fire personnel to bring the victim to you.

Disentanglement involves:

removing a patient from a dangerous position.

A Level 4 hazardous material:

requires specialized gear designed for protection against that particular hazard.

When working at the scene of a motor vehicle crash at night, you should NOT use:

road flares

Signs and symptoms of exposure to a nerve agent include:

salivation, pinpoint pupils, and diarrhea.

According to the JumpSTART triage system, infants or children not developed enough to walk or follow commands, including children with special needs:

should be taken to the treatment area for immediate secondary triage.

Early signs and symptoms of smallpox include all of the following, EXCEPT:

skin blisters.

Common associated conditions in patients with spina bifida include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. hydrocephalus. B. spastic limb movement. C. extreme latex allergy. D. loss of bladder control.

spastic limb movement.

An important aspect in the assessment of a patient who experienced a previous brain injury involves:

speaking with the patient and family to establish what is considered normal for the patient.

As you and your team are removing an unresponsive patient from her wrecked car, you note that she has closed deformities to both of her legs and a deformity to her left humerus. You should:

support the injured extremities and continue removal.

It is 10:30 pm and you have requested air medical transport for a critically injured patient. When you arrive at the designated landing zone, you should:

survey the area for power lines or other hazards.

The reference used as a base for your initial actions at a HazMat incident is:

the Emergency Response Guidebook.

A unique consideration when dealing with a hybrid vehicle is that:

the battery has higher voltage than a traditional vehicle battery.

Which of the following is the most important in protecting EMS providers during an extrication operation?

the scene size up

You receive a call to a residence for an apneic 2-month-old male. When you arrive at the scene, the infant's mother tells you that her son was born prematurely and that his apnea monitor has alarmed four times in the past 30 minutes. Your assessment of the infant reveals that he is conscious and active. His skin is pink and dry, and he is breathing at an adequate rate and with adequate tidal depth. His oxygen saturation reads 98% on room air. You should:

transport the infant to the hospital and bring the apnea monitor with you.

After assessing your patient, you determine that his condition is stable. You provide the appropriate treatment and then load him into the ambulance. While en route to the hospital, you should:

turn your emergency lights off and obey all traffic laws.

The reasons for rescue failure can be referred to by the mnemonic FAILURE. In this mnemonic the "U" stands for:

underestimating the logistics of the incident.

In general, medivac helicopters should be utilized when:

a patient has a time-dependent injury or illness and traffic conditions would cause a significant delay in definitive care.

Characteristics of a safe ambulance operator include:

a positive attitude and tolerance of other drivers.

Characteristic anatomic features of Down syndrome include:

a round head with a flat occiput.

The MOST appropriate location to park your ambulance at a HazMat incident is:

upwind at least 100 feet from the incident.

You are treating a patient who experienced a significant exposure to cyanide. He is semiconscious and is breathing inadequately. The MOST appropriate method of providing assisted ventilations to this patient is to:

use a bag-valve mask.

Your unit and a fire department vehicle are responding to the scene of a patient in cardiac arrest. As you approach an intersection that is highly congested, you should:

use a different siren tone than the fire department vehicle.

The chemical attacks that occurred in Tokyo between 1994 and 1995 were carried out by a(n):

violent religious group.

The process performed to artificially maximize the target population's exposure to a biologic agent, thereby exposing the greatest number of people and achieving the desired result, is called:

weaponization.

As soon as you leave the hospital and are en route back to your station, you should inform the dispatcher:

whether you are back in service.

The LEAST harmful form of ionizing radiation is:

alpha

Cross-contamination occurs when:

an EMT is exposed to a victim who has not yet been decontaminated.

You are assessing a 30-year-old female who presents with respiratory distress and tachycardia after she opened a package that was delivered to her home. The patient tells you that there was a fine white powder on the package, but she did not think it was important. This patient has MOST likely been exposed to:

anthra

A weapon of mass destruction is MOST accurately defined as:

any agent used to bring about mass death, casualties, or massive infrastructural damage.

EMTs are dispatched for a patient whose central venous catheter is malfunctioning. When they arrive and assess the patient, they find bleeding from the tubing attached to the line. The EMTs should:

apply direct pressure to the tubing and transport.

When a helicopter must land on a grade (uneven ground), you should:

approach the aircraft from the downhill side.

Unlike viruses and bacteria, neurotoxins:

are not contagious.

Minimum staffing in the patient compartment of a basic life support (BLS) ambulance includes:

at least one EMT.

If suctioning of the tracheostomy tube is necessary, the EMT should:

attempt to use the patient's suction device first because it is probably already sized correctly.

When parking your ambulance at the scene of a motor vehicle crash, you should position the ambulance:

100 feet past the scene on the same side of the road.

Upon returning to your station following a run, you should disinfect the ambulance as needed. Disinfection is MOST accurately defined as: A. using heat as a means of removing all microbial contaminants. B. killing pathogenic agents with a chemical made for that purpose. C. removing dirt, dust, blood, or other grossly visible contaminants. D. destroying pathogenic agents by using potent disinfection means.

killing pathogenic agents with a chemical made for that purpose.