EMT-I Chapter 2
Chemicals that become ionic conductors when dissolved in water are called: A. electrolytes. B. ions. C. exocytes. D. endocytes.
A. electrolytes.
If the concentration of H+ increases, the pH of the blood will: A. increase. B. remain unchanged. C. decrease. D. increase, then decrease.
C. decrease.
In adults, most bone marrow in the long bones of the extremities contains: A. red blood cells. B. endosteum. C. fat. D. leukocytes.
C. fat.
Phagocytosis is the process by which: A. microbes destroy monocytes. B. phagocytes are produced. C. monocytes digest microbes. D. phagocytes are destroyed.
C. monocytes digest microbes.
Blood enters the right atrium of the heart from the: A. vena cava and aorta. B. aorta and coronary sinus. C. pulmonary vein and aorta. D. vena cava and coronary sinus.
D. vena cava and coronary sinus.
Which portion of the spinal column articulates with the pelvis? A. Sacral B. Lumbar C. Thoracic D. Coccyx
A. Sacral
Freshly oxygenated blood is returned to the left atrium via the: A. pulmonary arteries. B. pulmonary veins. C. inferior vena cava. D. superior vena cava.
B. pulmonary veins.
Systemic vascular resistance is the resistance to blood flow within all the blood vessels, EXCEPT the: A. mesenteric vessels. B. pulmonary vessels. C. coronary vessels. D. cerebral vessels.
B. pulmonary vessels.
The term inotropy refers to the: A. rate of cardiac contraction. B. strength of myocardial contraction. C. control of electrical conduction. D. degree of ventricular irritability.
B. strength of myocardial contraction.
As an electrical impulse travels down the electrical conduction system, it transiently slows at the: A. sinoatrial node. B. interatrial septum. C. AV node. D. bundle of His.
C. AV node.
What body system is comprised of various glands located throughout the body? A. Nervous system B. Urinary system C. Endocrine system D. Respiratory system
C. Endocrine system
Which two pairs of cranial nerves do NOT exit from the brainstem? A. Abducens and trochlear B. Vestibulocochlear and glossopharyngeal C. Optic and olfactory D. Vagus and trigeminal
C. Optic and olfactory
The most inferior portion of the heart is called the: A. base. B. volar. C. apex. D. dorsum.
C. apex.
How many milliliters per kilogram (mL/kg) of blood are contained within the average adult male's body? A. 60 B. 90 C. 80 D. 70
D. 70
Cells or organs that selectively remove, concentrate, or alter materials in the blood and then secrete them back into the body are called: A. hormones. B. neurotransmitters. C. neoplasms. D. glands.
D. glands. glands - a specialized cell, group of cells, or organ of endothelial origin that selectively removes materials from the blood, concentrates or alters them, and secretes them for further use in the body or for elimination from th neoplasms - a new and abnormal growth of tissue in some part of the body, especially as a characteristic of cancer. neurotransmitter - a chemical substance that is released at the end of a nerve fiber by the arrival of a nerve impulse and, by diffusing across the synapse or junction, causes the transfer of the impulse to another nerve fiber, a muscle fiber, or some other structure.
The femoral artery gives rise to all of the following arteries, EXCEPT the: A. popliteal arteries. B. posterior tibial arteries. C. dorsalis pedis arteries. D. iliac arteries.
D. iliac arteries.
An unconscious, adequately breathing patient should be placed in the recovery position, which is: A. semi-sitting. B. prone. C. supine. D. laterally recumbent.
D. laterally recumbent.
To prevent the tissues from becoming edematous, the __________ system must absorb excess fluid and return it to the central venous circulation. A. cardiovascular B. endocrine C. hematologic D. lymphatic
D. lymphatic
If too much water enters a cell during osmosis, it will burst. This process is called: A. viscosity. B. diffusion. C. crenation. D. lysis.
D. lysis. Lysis - the disintegration of a cell by rupture of the cell wall or membrane. Viscosity - the state of being thick, sticky, and semifluid in consistency, due to internal friction. Diffusion - particles moving from a higher concentration to a lower concentration. Crenation - A process resulting from osmosis in which red blood cells, in a hypertonic solution, undergo shrinkage and acquire a notched or scalloped surface.
The topographic term used to describe the location of body parts that are closer to the midsagittal plane is: A. midaxillary. B. lateral. C. midclavicular. D. medial.
D. medial.
The normal pH of the human body ranges from: A. 7.35 - 7.45. B. 7.50 - 7.55. C. 7.25 - 7.30. D. 7.60 - 7.75.
A. 7.35 - 7.45.
Increased myocardial contractility secondary to stretching of the myocardial walls is called the: A. Frank-Starling effect. B. Ernest-Henry effect. C. Frank-Beck mechanism. D. Beck-Cushing's reflex.
A. Frank-Starling effect. In other words, as a larger volume of blood flows into the ventricle, the blood will stretch the walls of the heart, causing a greater expansion during diastole, which in turn increases the force of the contraction and thus the quantity of blood that is pumped into the aorta during systole.
What are the functions of the pancreas? A. Production of insulin and certain enzymes that aid in digestion. B. Production of renin and regulation of blood pressure. C. Concentration and storage of bile until it is needed for digestion. D. Storage and movement of food into the small intestine.
A. Production of insulin and certain enzymes that aid in digestion. Exocrine Function: The pancreas contains exocrine glands that produce enzymes important to digestion. The endocrine component of the pancreas consists of islet cells (islets of Langerhans) that create and release important hormones directly into the bloodstream. Two of the main pancreatic hormones are insulin, which acts to lower blood sugar, and glucagon, which acts to raise blood sugar
Which of the following describes the Trendelenburg's position? A. The body is supine on an incline with the feet higher than the head. B. The body is supine with the both the head and the legs elevated. C. The head is elevated at a 45° angle and the legs are elevated 8″. D. The body is turned onto the left side with the head elevated 6″.
A. The body is supine on an incline with the feet higher than the head.
The chemical neurotransmitter of the parasympathetic nervous system is: A. acetylcholine. B. norepinephrine. C. epinephrine. D. acetylcholinesterase.
A. acetylcholine. Acetylcholine - a compound that occurs throughout the nervous system, in which it functions as a neurotransmitter.
Proteins of the immune system that recognize foreign substances is/are called: A. antibodies. B. bilirubin. C. antigens. D. pathogens.
A. antibodies. Antibodies - a blood protein that combines chemically with substances that the body recognizes as alien, such as bacteria, viruses, and foreign substances in the blood. Bilirubin - an orange-yellow pigment formed in the liver by the breakdown of hemoglobin and excreted in bile. Antigen - a toxin or other foreign substance that induces an immune response in the body, especially the production of antibodies. Pathogen - a bacterium, virus, or other microorganism that can cause disease.
Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) targets the adrenal cortex and causes it to secrete: A. cortisol. B. calcitonin. C. adrenaline. D. antidiuretic hormone.
A. cortisol. Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) is a hormone produced in the anterior, or front, pituitary gland in the brain. The function of ACTH is to regulate levels of the steroid hormone cortisol, which released from the adrenal gland.
The term anemia is defined as: A. deficiency of red blood cells. B. excessive white blood cells. C. excessive red blood cells. D. deficiency of white blood cells.
A. deficiency of red blood cells. Anemia - is usually defined as a decrease in the total amount of RBC or hemoglobin in the blood. It can also be defined as a lowered ability of the blood to carry oxygen.
The first portion of the small intestine that receives food from the stomach is the: A. duodenum. B. jejunum. C. ilium. D. ileum.
A. duodenum.
A 2-year-old child has experienced a proximal humeral fracture involving the growth plate. This plate is also called the: A. epiphyseal plate. B. metaphyseal plate. C. endosteum plate. D. diaphyseal plate.
A. epiphyseal plate. The epiphyseal plate is a hyaline cartilage plate in the metaphysis at each end of a long bone. The plate is found in children and adolescents; in adults, who have stopped growing, the plate is replaced by an epiphyseal line.
The __________ nerve carries parasympathetic stimulation to the salivary glands, lacrimal gland, and the glands of the nasal cavity and palate. A. facial B. vagus C. abducens D. trigeminal
A. facial
The large opening at the base of the skull is called the: A. foramen magnum. B. mastoid process. C. vertebral foramen. D. lamboid suture.
A. foramen magnum.
Following blunt head trauma, a patient becomes combative and verbally abusive. This suggests injury to the: A. frontal lobe. B. thalamus. C. brainstem. D. temporal lobe.
A. frontal lobe. The thalamus is involved in several functions of the body including: Motor Control. Receives Auditory, Somatosensory, and Visual Sensory Signals. Relays Sensory Signals to the Cerebral Cortex The brain stem controls basic body functions such as breathing, swallowing, heart rate, blood pressure, consciousness, and whether one is awake or sleepy. The brain stem consists of the midbrain, pons, and medulla oblongata.
A normally balanced condition of the body that is resistant to change is called: A. homeostasis. B. hemostasis. C. gluconeogenesis. D. glycogenolysis.
A. homeostasis. hemostasis - the stopping of a flow of blood. Gluconeogenesis - a metabolic pathway that results in the generation of glucose from certain non-carbohydrate carbon substrates. Glycogenolysis is the breakdown of glycogen to glucose-6-phosphate and glycogen.
As electricity travels down the left and right bundle branches, it first stimulates the: A. interventricular septum. B. purkinje fibers. C. interatrial pathways. D. ventricular myocardium.
A. interventricular septum. https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=3IrjBWhdZ6s
A trauma patient complains of pain to the costovertebral angle. The organ(s) MOST likely injured is/are the: A. kidneys. B. liver. C. bladder. D. spleen.
A. kidneys. The costovertebral angle is the acute angle formed on either side of the human back between the twelfth rib and the vertebral column.
The heart muscle lies within a space in the thoracic cavity called the: A. mediastinum. B. hemithorax. C. endocardium. D. pericardium.
A. mediastinum.
Normal inspiration is the result of: A. negative pressure in the thoracic cavity. B. air passively entering the lungs. C. diaphragmatic relaxation. D. positive pressure in the thoracic cavity.
A. negative pressure in the thoracic cavity.
Agonal respirations can be described as: A. occasional gasping breaths. B. slow deep breaths. C. rapid irregular breaths. D. slow irregular breaths.
A. occasional gasping breaths.
The __________ nerve innervates the muscles that cause motion of the eyeballs and upper lid. A. oculomotor B. abducens C. optic D. trochlear
A. oculomotor Innervates - supply (an organ or other body part) with nerves. The oculomotor nerve is the third cranial nerve. It enters the orbit via the superior orbital fissure and innervates muscles that enable most movements of the eye and that raise the eyelid
During your assessment of a patient, you note that he is bradycardic, hypotensive, and salivating. These clinical findings suggest: A. parasympathetic nervous system stimulation. B. sympathetic nervous system stimulation. C. parasympathetic nervous system depression. D. sympathetic nervous system depression.
A. parasympathetic nervous system stimulation.
All of the following are facial bones, EXCEPT the: A. parietal. B. maxilla. C. lacrimal. D. palatine.
A. parietal. The parietal bone is at the back of the head. The palatine bone is behind the maxilla. The maxilla is the upper jaw. The lacrimal bone is in the eye socket of the face.
The thick fibrous sac that surrounds the heart is called the: A. pericardium. B. myocardium. C. epicardium. D. endocardium.
A. pericardium.
As blood enters the lungs, it enters the alveoli by passing across the: A. pulmonary capillary. B. pulmonary arteriole. C. pulmonary venule. D. pulmonary artery.
A. pulmonary capillary.
In response to shock or stress, sympathetic nervous system stimulation causes: A. vasoconstriction. B. slowing of the heart rate. C. shunting of blood to the extremities. D. increased gastrointestinal function.
A. vasoconstriction. Sympathetic nervous system stimulation causes vasoconstriction of most blood vessels, including many of those in the skin, the digestive tract, and the kidneys. This occurs as a result of activation of alpha-1 adrenergic receptors by norepinephrine released by post-ganglionic sympathetic neurons. These receptors exist throughout the vasculature of the body but are inhibited and counterbalanced by beta-2 adrenergic receptors (stimulated by epinephrine release from the adrenal glands) in the skeletal muscles, the heart, the lungs, and the brain during a sympatho-adrenal response. The net effect of this is a shunting of blood away from the organs not necessary to the immediate survival of the organism and an increase in blood flow to those organs involved in intense physical activity.
Shortly after its point of origin, the subclavian artery gives rise to the: A. vertebral arteries. B. carotid arteries. C. popliteal arteries. D. brachial arteries.
A. vertebral arteries.
Which of the following vessels or structures is NOT part of the pulmonary circulation? A. Alveolar capillary B. Descending aorta C. Pulmonic valve D. Pulmonary artery
B. Descending aorta
Which of the following is NOT a peripheral pulse in the adult? A. Popliteal B. Femoral C. Radial D. Brachial
B. Femoral
What is the function of the lymphatic system? A. Production of antibodies that destroy bacteria. B. Filtration of debris and bacteria from the blood. C. Prevention of viruses from entering the body. D. Secretion of hormones to regulate other body functions.
B. Filtration of debris and bacteria from the blood. The other main function is that of defense in the immune system. Lymph is very similar to blood plasma: it contains lymphocytes and other white blood cells.
What is the cribriform plate? A. Superior surface of the cranial vault that protects the cerebrum. B. Horizontal bone through which the olfactory nerve filaments pass. C. Opening through which the brainstem passes from the cerebrum. D. Saddle-shaped depression in the middle of the sphenoid bone.
B. Horizontal bone through which the olfactory nerve filaments pass.
What is the function of a baroreceptor? A. Monitoring the pH of cerebrospinal fluid. B. Monitoring changes in arterial pressure. C. Sensing changes in arterial oxygen levels. D. Sensing the arterial level of carbon dioxide.
B. Monitoring changes in arterial pressure. Baroreceptors are sensors located in the blood vessels of all vertebrate animals. They sense the blood pressure and relay the information to the brain, so that a proper blood pressure can be maintained.
Which of the following pairs of cranial nerves only carry sensory fibers? A. Oculomotor, trigeminal, and abducens B. Olfactory, optic, and vestibulocochlear C. Vagus, trochlear, and spinal accessory D. Facial, hypoglossal, and glossopharyngeal
B. Olfactory, optic, and vestibulocochlear Olfactory nerve - nerves for the nose Optic Nerve - nerves for the eyes Vestibulocochlear nerve - nerves for the ears The abducens nerve controls the eye's lateral rectus muscle, which moves the eye sideways, away from the nose. The trigeminal nerve is responsible for sensation in the face and motor functions such as biting and chewing. The vagus nerve interfaces with parasympathetic control of the heart, lungs and digestive tract. The trochlear nerve supplies the superior oblique muscle of the eyeball. The accessory nerve controls the sternocleidomastoid muscle 9tilts and rotates the head) and the trapezius muscle has several actions on the scapula, including shoulder elevation and abduction of the arm. The facial nerve controls the muscles of facial expression, and functions in the conveyance of taste sensations from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue and oral cavity. Hypoglossal nerve is involved in controlling tongue movements required for speech and swallowing. The glossopharyngeal nerve is a mixed nerve that carries afferent sensory and efferent motor information.
Which layer of the blood vessel wall is composed of elastic tissue and smooth muscle cells? A. Tunica adventitia B. Tunica media C. The lumen D. Tunica intima
B. Tunica media
The cell membrane is selectively permeable, which means that it: A. will allow any substance to readily pass through it. B. allows only certain substances to pass through it. C. only allows sodium and chloride to pass through it. D. only allows potassium and calcium to pass through it.
B. allows only certain substances to pass through it. A selectively permeable cell membrane is one that allows certain molecules or ions to pass through it by means of active or passive transport
After the aorta arises from the left ventricle, it first: A. descends and branches into the abdominal aorta. B. ascends and branches into the coronary arteries. C. descends and branches into the iliac arteries. D. ascends and branches into the thoracic aorta.
B. ascends and branches into the coronary arteries. Coronary Artery - an artery supplying blood to the heart.
The first two cervical vertebrae, in order, are called: A. odontoid and atlas. B. atlas and axis. C. axis and dens. D. dens and odontoid.
B. atlas and axis. Odontoid - a toothlike projection from the second cervical vertebra on which the first vertebra pivots. The dens (odontoid process) is the most pronounced feature, and exhibits a slight constriction or neck where it joins the main body of the vertebra.
The sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves arise from the: A. adrenal nervous system. B. autonomic nervous system. C. voluntary nervous system. D. somatic nervous system.
B. autonomic nervous system.
An elderly woman slipped on a throw rug and fractured her hip. This type of fracture could involve any of the following bony structures, EXCEPT the: A. trochanter. B. iliac crest. C. femoral head. D. femoral neck.
B. iliac crest.
Detoxification of toxic substances, production of bile, and production of certain clotting factors are all functions of the: A. gallbladder. B. liver. C. pancreas. D. kidney.
B. liver.
The movement of a solvent from an area of low solute concentration to an area of high solute concentration is called: A. crenation. B. osmosis. C. passive transport. D. diffusion.
B. osmosis. Crenation - A process resulting from osmosis in which red blood cells, in a hypertonic solution, undergo shrinkage and acquire a notched or scalloped surface. Passive transport is a movement of biochemicals and other atomic or molecular substances across cell membranes without need of energy input. Unlike active transport, it does not require an input of cellular energy because it is instead driven by the tendency of the system to grow in entropy. Diffusion- the process whereby particles move from a region of higher concentration to one of lower concentration.
The study of the body functions in a diseased state is called: A. anatomy. B. pathophysiology. C. physiology. D. pathogenesis.
B. pathophysiology.
All of the following are formed components of the blood, EXCEPT: A. white blood cells. B. plasma. C. red blood cells. D. platelets.
B. plasma.
During an acidotic state, the kidneys attempt to maintain a normal pH by: A. retaining hydrogen ions. B. retaining bicarbonate. C. secreting hydrogen ions. D. excreting bicarbonate.
B. retaining bicarbonate. High pH 14 (acidic) -> Neutral (7)<- Low pH 0 (alkalotic) 7.35-7.45 norm for humans Bicarbonate is secreted by the stomach, it is necessary for digestion. It's also basically a base.
Ventricular muscle contraction and the pumping of blood throughout the body occur during: A. diastole. B. systole. C. the cardiac cycle. D. asystole.
B. systole.
The axial skeleton is composed of: A. all skeletal structures below the pelvis. B. the skull, face, thoracic cage, and vertebral column. C. the upper and lower extremities. D. the ribs, pelvic girdle, and upper and lower extremities.
B. the skull, face, thoracic cage, and vertebral column.
The transverse plane divides the body into the: A. front and back. B. top and bottom. C. proximal and distal aspects.
B. top and bottom.
In the pregnant patient, the secretion of oxytocin causes: A. decreased milk production in the breasts. B. uterine smooth muscle contraction. C. thickening of the uterine wall for implantation. D. uterine smooth muscle relaxation.
B. uterine smooth muscle contraction. Oxytocin is released at the end of fetal development (sometimes during), and results in uterine contraction, making it one of the most important hormones at birth (the other is progesterone, which gets HUGE right before birth). The coolest thing about oxytocin during parturition is that it's controlled under a positive feedback cycle. Goes like this (in the very, very simplified version): 1) Baby is big and heavy, and presses against the cervix. 2) Cervix feels the burn and stretches a little. 3) The muscle stretching of the cervix triggers receptors which send nerve impulses to the brain. 4) Brain releases oxytocin. 5) Oxytocin further softens and dilates the cervix. 6) Baby weight pushes downward on the softened cervix and stretches it. 7) Lather, rinse, repeat. 8) BABY!!! "Positive feedback" is the stretching of the cervix which promotes oxytocin, which promotes stretching, which promotes MORE oxytocin. The actions of the hormone trigger the release of more hormone. Oxytocin it's SO important that oxytocin analogues (drugs that mimic oxytocin, such as Pitocin) are used to induce labor, and oxytocin receptor antagonists (which block the actions of oxytocin, like the drug Tractocile) are used to stop premature labor and uterine contractions.
How many pairs of ribs are attached anteriorly to the sternum? A. 6 B. 8 C. 10 D. 12
C. 10
Extracellular fluid accounts for what percentage of all body fluid? A. 15 % B. 20 % C. 25% D. 30%
C. 25% Extracellular fluid - all body fluid outside the cells
A newborn's total body water is approximately: A. 50% of total body weight. B. 60% of total body weight. C. 80% of total body weight. D. 40% of total body weight.
C. 80% of total body weight.
Which of the following organs occupies all four abdominal quadrants? A. Liver and spleen B. Stomach and pancreas C. Small intestine and colon D. Colon and pancreas
C. Small intestine and colon
Which cranial nerve passes through the internal auditory meatus and provides the senses of hearing and balance? A. Glossopharyngeal B. Trochlear C. Vestibulocochlear D. Trigeminal
C. Vestibulocochlear The vestibulocochlear nerve transmits sound and equilibrium information from the inner ear to the brain. The trochlear nerve supplies the superior oblique muscle of the eyeball. The glossopharyngeal nerve is a mixed nerve that carries afferent sensory and efferent motor information. The trigeminal nerve is a nerve responsible for sensation in the face and motor functions such as biting and chewing.
The ilium is defined as the: A. lower part of the small intestine. B. ligament that overlies the femoral vessels. C. bony prominence of the pelvis. D. structure that overlies the bladder.
C. bony prominence of the pelvis.
The primary waste product of metabolism is: A. glycogen. B. lactic acid. C. carbon dioxide. D. glucose.
C. carbon dioxide.
The primary respiratory stimulus in a healthy adult is a/an: A. decreased venous level of carbon dioxide. B. decreased arterial oxygen level. C. increased arterial carbon dioxide level. D. increased pH level of the venous blood.
C. increased arterial carbon dioxide level
Stimulation of beta receptors of the sympathetic nervous system results in: A. bronchoconstriction. B. peripheral vasoconstriction. C. increased myocardial contractility. D. decreased heart rate.
C. increased myocardial contractility. The sympathetic nervous system is involved in the stimulation of activities that prepare the body for action, such as increasing the heart rate, increasing the release of sugar from the liver into the blood, and other generally considered as fight-or-flight responses.
A medication that possesses a positive chronotropic effect is one that: A. decreases heart rate. B. decreases cardiac contractility. C. increases heart rate. D. increases the conduction of electricity.
C. increases heart rate. Chronotropic drugs may change the heart rate and rhythm by affecting the electrical conduction system of the heart and the nerves that influence it, such as by changing the rhythm produced by the sinoatrial node. Positive chronotropes increase heart rate; negative chronotropes decrease heart rate.
The sebaceous glands of the skin secrete sebum, which: A. allows the body to cool itself through sweating. B. contracts the muscles that pull hair into an erect position. C. keeps the skin soft and prevents cracking. D. kills microorganisms on the skin surface.
C. keeps the skin soft and prevents cracking.
Nonfunctional erythrocytes are destroyed in the spleen by cells called: A. monocytes. B. phagocytes. C. macrophages. D. leukopha
C. macrophages. Macrophages remove dying or dead cells and cellular debris. Erythrocytes have a lifespan on average of 120 days and so are constantly being destroyed by macrophages in the spleen and liver. Phagocytes are found in essentially all tissues, where they patrol for potential pathogens by amoeboid movement. Monocytes are a type of white blood cell, or leukocyte. They are the largest type of leukocyte and can differentiate into macrophages and they can acquire some features of dendritic cells. As a part of the vertebrate innate immune system monocytes also influence the process of adaptive immunity. Leukopenia - a reduction in the number of white cells in the blood, typical of various diseases. (What the hell is leukopha?)
The layer of tissue that lines the inside of the chest cavity is called the: A. pulmonary pleura. B. visceral pleura. C. parietal pleura. D. thoracic pleura.
C. parietal pleura.
The pneumotaxic center is located in the __________, and functions by: A. medulla oblongata; causing forced inspiration or expiration. B. medulla oblongata; causing inspiration when stimulated. C. pons; inhibiting the dorsal respiratory group and increases the speed and depth of breathing. D. pons; exciting the dorsal respiratory group, prolonging inspiration, and decreasing the respiratory rate.
C. pons; inhibiting the dorsal respiratory group and increases the speed and depth of breathing. The pons contains nuclei that relay signals from the forebrain to the cerebellum, along with nuclei that deal primarily with sleep, respiration, swallowing, bladder control, hearing, equilibrium, taste, eye movement, facial expressions, facial sensation, and posture.
The most common solvent in the body, in which solutes or other substances will dissolve, is: A. bile. B. plasma. C. water. D. blood.
C. water.
How do the blood vessels of the skin respond to cold temperatures? A. Dilation, which diverts blood away from the skin. B. Dilation, which pulls blood to the skin's surface. C. Constriction, which pulls blood to the skin's surface. D. Constriction, which diverts blood away from the skin.
D. Constriction, which diverts blood away from the skin. As it becomes colder, your blood vessels and muscles constrict, preventing your blood from flowing as much, which is why your skin and body are cold. When the temperature is rising, the blood vessels and muscles dilate, giving the blood more space to flow. As well as, when the temperature is warmer, the particles in the blood move faster, causing the blood to move faster. That's why when you're cold, it's harder to move around physically.
Which of the following is NOT a type of white blood cell? A. Basophil B. Neutrophil C. Eosinophil D. Histamine
D. Histamine Basophil - a basophilic white blood cell. Basophils contain anticoagulant heparin, which prevents blood from clotting too quickly. Neutrophil - a neutrophilic white blood cell. They form an essential part of the innate immune system. Eosinophils are a variety of white blood cells and one of the immune system components responsible for combating multicellular parasites and certain infections in vertebrates. Histamine - a compound that is released by cells in response to injury and in allergic and inflammatory reactions, causing contraction of smooth muscle and dilation of capillaries.
What part of the brain regulates a person's level of consciousness? A. Medulla oblongata B. Pons C. Midbrain D. Reticular activating system
D. Reticular activating system
What type of valves are the aortic and pulmonic valves? A. Chordis B. Papillary C. Atrioventricular D. Semilunar
D. Semilunar
The term perfusion is defined as: A. effective exchange of O2 and CO2 in the lungs. B. the production of waste products from metabolism. C. sufficient removal of waste products from the body. D. adequate circulation of blood to the body's cells.
D. adequate circulation of blood to the body's cells.
Molecules that bind to a cell's receptor and trigger a response by that cell are called: A. steroids. B. hormones. C. antagonists. D. agonists.
D. agonists. Antagonists - a substance that interferes with or inhibits the physiological action of another. Hormone - a regulatory substance produced in an organism and transported in tissue fluids such as blood or sap to stimulate specific cells or tissues into action.
When oxygen levels are low or absent, the cells revert to a process of: A. anaerobic anabolism. B. aerobic metabolism. C. aerobic catabolism. D. anaerobic metabolism.
D. anaerobic metabolism. Anaerobic metabolism is the creation of energy through the combustion of carbohydrates in the absence of oxygen. This occurs when the lungs cannot put enough oxygen into the bloodstream to keep up with the demands from the muscles for energy. It generally is used only for short bursts of activity. Aerobic metabolism is the creation of energy through the combustion of carbohydrates, amino acids and fats in the presence of oxygen. The body burns sugars, fats, and proteins. Metabolism is a biochemical process that allows an organism to live, grow, reproduce, heal, and adapt to its environment. Anabolism and catabolism are two metabolic processes, or phases. Anabolism refers to the process which builds molecules the body needs; it usually requires energy for completion. Catabolism refers to the process that breaks down complex molecules into smaller molecules; it usually releases energy for the organism to use.
The renin-angiotensin system in the kidneys helps to regulate: A. cardiac contractility. B. heart rate. C. the release of ADH. D. blood pressure.
D. blood pressure. One of the important functions of the kidneys is to regulate blood pressure. Healthy kidneys make hormones such as renin and angiotensin. These hormones regulate how much sodium (salt) and fluid the body keeps, and how well the blood vessels can expand and contract.
The midbrain, pons, and medulla collectively form the: A. cerebral cortex. B. hypothalamus. C. diencephalon D. brainstem.
D. brainstem.
The vagus nerve: A. carries parasympathetic fibers to the salivary (parotid) glands. B. provides motor innervation to the muscles of the pharynx. C. provides motor innervation to the muscles of chewing (mastication). D. carries parasympathetic fibers to the thoracic and abdominal organs.
D. carries parasympathetic fibers to the thoracic and abdominal organs. The vagus nerve supplies motor parasympathetic fibres to all the organs except the suprarenal (adrenal) glands, from the neck down to the second segment of the transverse colon. The vagus also controls a few skeletal muscles.
The ascending reticular activating system in the brain is responsible for: A. heart rate and blood pressure. B. balance and movement. C. blood vessel diameter. D. maintaining consciousness.
D. maintaining consciousness. The reticular activating system (RAS), or extrathalamic control modulatory system, is a set of connected nuclei in the brains of vertebrates that is responsible for regulating wakefulness and sleep-wake transitions.
Following a head injury, a patient complains of double vision. This suggests injury to the: A. frontal lobe. B. parietal lobe. C. temporal lobe. D. occipital lobe.
D. occipital lobe.
The primary function of the antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is:: A. constriction of the blood vessels. B. facilitation of water excretion. C. increased renal output of urine. D. promotion of water retention
D. promotion of water retention ADH - relatively small molecule that is released by the pituitary gland at the base of the brain after being made in the hypothalamus. ADH has an antidiuretic action that prevents the production of dilute urine (and so is antidiuretic)
In addition to facilitating the uptake of sugar into the cells, insulin is also responsible for: A. the production of amino acids and carbohydrates. B. the chemical conversion of glycogen to glucose. C. stimulating the liver and kidneys to produce glucose. D. the chemical conversion of glucose to glycogen.
D. the chemical conversion of glucose to glycogen. This hormone, insulin, causes the liver to convert more glucose into glycogen (process is called glycogenesis).
The process of moving air in and out of the lungs is called: A. oxygenation. B. respiration. C. tidal volume. D. ventilation.
D. ventilation.
