EMT Operations Practice Test

You've arrived at the scene of what appears to be a domestic dispute over child molestation. You are asking a 5-year-old child about elimination habits. What word would be best to use when questioning this child? A. 'Pee-Pee' B. Urination C. Micturation D. Deltrusion

A. 'Pee-Pee' Explanation: A 5-year-old will not understand urination, micturation or deltrusion. The best term to use in this instance is "pee-pee." (This is a good example where the paramedic needs to correlate life span development and effective communication knowledge.)

When you arrive at the receiving facility you must transfer care to the ED staff... When you arrive at the receiving facility you must transfer care to the ED staff. By giving a report to the attending nursing staff about the past medical history, the patient's complaint assessment, and interventions you have just allowed for what? A. Continuity of care B. Quantum of care C. Prime directive D. Quality transfer of care

A. Continuity of care Explanation: Giving a report to the receiving facility's staff allows for continuity of care and continued care. This not only allows for a more speedy response by the receiving facility but eliminates unneeded repeated assessments and evaluations.

Which of the following patients encountered would the paramedic most likely benefit from critical incident stress management? A. Death of a 4-year-old male patient from a fall. B. Death of an 30-year-old male who was intoxicated while driving. C. Death of a 43-year-old female from an explosion. D. Death of an 82-year-old female from a suicide.

A. Death of a 4-year-old male patient from a fall. Explanation: Death of a child is often a reason for a paramedic to need CISM. In addition a death of a coworker, an extreme threat to the paramedic, or any other significant incident may also be reasons for CISM. What is most important, however, is that the recognition of stress and poor coping on the part of the provider is more important than assuming the use of CISM's should be guided by the nature of the call.

What is the correct procedure for handling a used airway? A. Discard it in a biohazard trash container. B. Clean it with alcohol foam and dry it off. C. Disinfect it with bleach and water solution. D. Sterilize it in an autoclave or boiling water.

A. Discard it in a biohazard trash container. Explanation: The common procedure is to safely dispose of used airways.

Which of the following agencies is responsible for the regulation of EMS radio communications? A. Federal Communications Commission (FCC) B. National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA) C. National Association of Emergency Medical Technicians (NAEMT) D. Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA)

A. Federal Communications Commission (FCC) Explanation: The Federal Communications Commission (FCC) is responsible for the control and regulation of all nongovernmental radio communications within the United States. The National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA) is the governmental agency responsible for developing EMS curricula. The Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) is responsible for disaster response and management. The National Association of Emergency Medical Technicians (NAEMT) is a nongovernmental professional organization dedicated to the advancement of EMS as a profession.

Headlights are often overlooked as part of the emergency warning lighting system. Headlights should be used while______________? A. On the road B. Responding to a call C. Returning from a call D. Transporting to the hospital

A. On the road Explanation: Emergency warning lights are often overlooked in busy high traffic areas. Headlights can make a difference when safety counts. Even during daylight hours headlights increase the chances that the ambulance will be seen. Some headlights are wired to flash when the other emergency warning lights are on which enhances the distance downrange the ambulance can be seen.

While responding to a Hazardous Materials incident, the EMT should approach the scene from _________? A. Up wind, Uphill, Up river B. Up wind, Uphill, down river C. Down wind, Down hill, Down river D. Down wind, Over a hill, Down river

A. Up wind, Uphill, Up river Explanation: When responding to a known HazMat incident, the Emergency responders need to approach the scene from up wind, uphill and up river. This keeps the plume ahead of the responders and avoids exposure of the emergency workers.

In which of the following situations should you call for immediate assistance? A. You must care for two critical patients with gunshot wounds. B. Your patient is a 26-year-old woman in active labor. C. Your patient is a child with fever who has had a brief seizure. D. Your partner is needed to stabilize the cervical spine.

A. You must care for two critical patients with gunshot wounds. Explanation: You could make the argument that you need additional help in the management of each of these situations; however, the one with the most critical need is when you must care for more than one critical patient. Both patients with gunshot wounds need immediate attention, so you should call for backup.

To willfully leave a patient who is in need of care without a signed or verbal refusal of care is ____? A. Allowed if the patient is rude or abusive B. Abandonment C. Implied Refusal D. Against Medical Advice

B. Abandonment Explanation: Abandonment is when continuing care is needed but the patient/EMT relationship is terminated without a refusal or transfer of care.

Which statement about a patient's right to refuse care is correct? A. A child who is old enough to understand danger is old enough to refuse care and transport. B. An adult patient who is of sound mind and understands the consequences can refuse treatment. C. No one can authorize treatment or transport for any other individual, regardless of his or her age. D. EMTs should leave immediately whenever a patient says that he or she will refuse care.

B. An adult patient who is of sound mind and understands the consequences can refuse treatment. Explanation: An adult of sound mind can refuse treatment, but the EMT should first make an effort to clearly explain the consequences; refusal of treatment should be documented in writing.

If a patient refuses treatment and an EMT treats the patient anyway, what crime can the EMT be charged with? A. Medical Malpractice B. Battery C. Slander D. Kidnapping

B. Battery Explanation: To treat a patient without some form of legal consent could be considered Battery

This practice of protecting yourself and your patient from the transfer of bodily fluids is known as what? A. Wearing Gloves B. Body Substance Isolation C. Universal Precautions D. Being Safe

B. Body Substance Isolation Explanation: Body substance isolation is a practice of isolating all body substances (blood, urine, feces, tears, etc.) of individuals undergoing medical treatment, particularly emergency medical treatment of those who might be infected with illnesses such as HIV, or hepatitis so as to reduce as much as possible the chances of transmitting these illnesses

Why is it critical that the paramedic complete an equipment checklist at the beginning of each shift? A. Most medical insurance agencies require a copy of the checklist for ongoing liability coverage B. Completion reduces the risk of liability associated with providing prehospital medical services. C. Checklists are required by the Occupational Safety and Health Administration. D. Completion is mandated by the US Department of Health and Human.

B. Completion reduces the risk of liability associated with providing prehospital medical services. Explanation: Completion of an equipment/supply checklist enables the paramedic to determine the overall preparedness of the ambulance for patient care. Checklists allow the paramedic to ascertain whether all necessary supplies and equipment are present and working as well as the expiration dates on medications carried on the ambulance. This decreases liability associated with providing prehospital emergency medical services by ensuring that everything needed to properly care for a patient is present and in good working order. Missing supplies, malfunctioning equipment, and expired drugs represent sources of liability, especially if they result in improper patient care. The Occupational Safety and Health Administration and US Department of Health and Human Services do not require EMS services to complete an equipment/supply checklist. Finally, insurance agencies do not require the submission of the equipment/supply checklists in order to provide ongoing liability coverage for the service.

Of the following, which item is NOT a desired outcome of continued quality improvement (CQI) programs in an EMS system? A. Provide statistics on call volume, patient profiles, and skills performed. B. Develop and implement a disciplinary policy for any type of variance in care rendered by the EMS providers. C. Allow the opportunity to identify potential topics for continuing education for the system's emergency providers. D. Provide a system of internal checks and balances that assures quality care is delivered, and system weaknesses are identified.

B. Develop and implement a disciplinary policy for any type of variance in care rendered by the EMS providers. Explanation: The benefits of a well-run Continuous Quality Improvement program for an Emergency Medical Service system go well beyond the ability to assess system performance. It allows for the collection of data for statistical analysis, provides a means by which areas of system weakness can be determined and addressed in a checks and balance manner, and also allows the ability to determine what type of continuing education courses may be offered since many times case studies are done on interesting calls. One thing that Continuous Quality Improvement programs should not do is develop and implement punitive recourses, should an area of improvement be identified. This would lead to providers who get better at hiding system weaknesses through inaccurate patient care reports and who are apprehensive to bring up concerns with management.

What are the rules or standards that govern the conduct of EMS professionals? A. Codes B. Ethics C. Standards D. Morals

B. Ethics Explanation: Ethics are rules or standards that govern professional conduct, whereas morals are the individual's perceptions of what is right and wrong. Neither standards nor codes are terms applicable to the concept of the question.

Please answer the following question. During completion of your patient care report, you write the following statement: The patient was obviously intoxicated and intentionally uncooperative. Subjective statements such as this can open the paramedic up to which of the following legal charges? A. Res ipsa loquitur B. Libel C. Malfeasance D. Slander

B. Libel Explanation: Libel is the act of injuring a patient's character through written statements. Documenting personal opinion and derogatory statements expose the paramedic to Libel. Slander is similar to Libel, but refers to false or malicious statements made verbally. Malfeasance is defined as breach of duty by performing a wrongful or unlawful act. Res ipsa loquitur is a legal doctrine sometimes used in support of negligence claims.

When is it acceptable to take a patient directly from the hot zone without going through decontamination? A. When the patient requires life saving interventions B. Never, no matter how sick the patient is they must be decontaminated C. Anytime the EMS commander deems it acceptable D. Only minor exposure patients only

B. Never, no matter how sick the patient is they must be decontaminated Explanation: It is never acceptable to skip the decontamination; the risk of exposure of the EMS crew and other health care providers is too great to allow patients to by-pass decon. Most decon teams are capable of handling life threats as the patient is going through the decontamination process.

What is the first thing you should do after receiving orders from the medical direction physician? A. Carry out the orders immediately. B. Repeat the orders exactly as you heard them. C. Question anything you did not understand. D. Document the orders in your report.

B. Repeat the orders exactly as you heard them. Explanation: To avoid misunderstanding, always repeat medical orders exactly as you heard them. Once you have done that, you can question any order you do not understand or about which you are unclear. When you complete your written patient care report, you should include the order in your report.

It is necessary to wear a mask and eye protection when A. Transporting a patient. B. Suctioning a patient. C. Splinting a closed injury. D. Administering oxygen.

B. Suctioning a patient. Explanation: Wear a mask and eye protection when there is a high probability of splattering, such as when suctioning a patient.

Please answer the following question. You are in charge of devising an ambulance deployment plan for the EMS system within your community. Your goal is to minimize response times while simultaneously using all of the EMS resources in an efficient and cost effective manner. As such, which of the following information would be most valuable in formulating a plan? A. Location of previous ambulance collisions B. Time and location of calls over last 5 years C. Average age of the population D. Socioeconomic status of neighborhoods

B. Time and location of calls over last 5 years Explanation: Determining the time and location of calls over the past five years is critical, since analysis may reveal patterns to which the appropriate number of EMS resources can be matched. If an increase in the number of motor vehicle collisions is seen during morning rush hour, additional units can be deployed to strategic locations so that they can readily access future incidents. Socioeconomic status may be linked to call volume and time, but by itself is not the best criterion for location of resources. Location of previous ambulance collisions is important data, and should be used to minimize collisions, not locate ambulances. While the average age of the population provides a larger picture of the medical needs of the community, as a whole it is not the best factor in dictating the deployment of resources.

EMTs should wear high-efficiency particulate air (HEPA) respirators when they are in contact with patients who have which of the following? A. HIV or AIDS B. Tuberculosis C. Open wounds D. Hepatitis B

B. Tuberculosis Explanation: High-efficiency particulate air (HEPA) respirators are worn when in contact with patients who have airborne infections, such as tuberculosis. HIV/AIDS and hepatitis B are both blood borne pathogens. Contaminants from open wounds would also be blood borne.

The purpose of incident management systems is to provide _____ A. A clear chain of command in case of legal liability. B. A means of evaluating the EMS system's response to an event. C. An orderly method for communications and decision making. D. A training program for First Responders.

C. An orderly method for communications and decision making. Explanation: An incident management system is a coordinated system of procedures that allows for smooth operations at the scene of an emergency.

Which statement about disposable gloves is correct? A. You should remove gloves by grasping the ends of the fingers and pulling them off right side out. B. It is not necessary to wear gloves when suctioning or ventilating a patient with a bag-valve-mask device. C. Gloves protect both you and the patient from the transmission of infectious diseases. D. One pair of gloves is sufficient for any call, no matter how many patients there are.

C. Gloves protect both you and the patient from the transmission of infectious diseases. Explanation: Because gloves protect both you and your patients, most protocols now call for EMTs to wear gloves for any patient contact. Remove gloves by pulling them off inside out, so you do not touch the soiled outer surface; change gloves for each new patient contact.

What law provides protection from legal action to someone who provides help to an injured person? A. No law exists B. Duty to act C. Good Samaritan law D. EMT Registration

C. Good Samaritan law Explanation: Under the common law, Good Samaritan laws provide a defense against torts over the activity of attempted rescue.

Please answer the following question. You are called to a local industrial complex for a potential hazardous materials incident. The dispatcher reports to you that approximately 30 workers have been affected and that several workers have been overcome by fumes. The specialized hazardous materials response team has been dispatched but will arrive approximately 20 minutes after your ambulance. Upon arrival, you are met at the gate by a worker who points to a large white tank next to the building which is the apparent source of the contamination. On the side of the tank you see a multi-colored NFPA 704 symbol with a number four (4) located within the blue diamond, a number one (1) located within the red diamond, a number one (1) located within the yellow diamond, and no indicator located within the white diamond. You are immediately approached by a crowd of approximately fifteen workers who state that they were exposed to fluid which was leaking from the tank. What is your next immediate action? A. Begin to triage the patients and obtain baseline vital signs B. Mix a weak bleach solution and tell the victims to use it to decontaminate their exposed skin C. Have the patients remove their clothing and begin to rinse them with water D. Ask the patients to remain in a single location until the hazardous materials team arrives

C. Have the patients remove their clothing and begin to rinse them with water Explanation: Based upon the fact that the substance involved has already been identified as posing a significant health hazard, time cannot be wasted prior to initiation of field expedient gross decontamination. The universal decontaminating solution is water, and no time should be wasted in beginning to rinse any potential contamination away with it. Removal of the outer layer of clothing will immediately reduce the level of contamination on the victims. It is unreasonable to expect that the victims will wait for the hazardous materials team to arrive and begin decontamination. At no time should EMS personnel jeopardize their own safety by performing physical assessment or obtaining vital signs from potentially contaminated victims. Although weakened bleach solutions are sometimes used for decontamination, water is the best choice when the exact contaminating agent is unknown.

You are dispatched to the scene of a 9 year old girl who has been struck by a car. Police are unable to reach her parents. What gives you the ability to treat the girl? A. Expressed Consent B. Revoked Consent C. Implied Consent D. Informed Consent

C. Implied Consent Explanation: In the absence of a parent or guardian, evaluation, treatment and/or transport of a child should not be delayed pending parental consent. Therefore consent is "implied" assuming the parent would want you to help their child.

While responding, ambulances are particularly at risk of collisions in which areas? A. Pulling out of their bay B. Freeway driving C. Intersections D. Arriving on scene

C. Intersections Explanation: Cars sitting at intersections may block the view of the ambulance operator and cannot see other cars approaching. Cars approaching the intersection when the light is changing may not want to stop and may accelerate through. Additionally, cars sitting at a stop light might not be paying attention and can accelerate without looking.

Upon arriving on any scene, what is the most important action an EMT should do? A. Position him/her self to get out of the squad quickly B. Position the squad for easy access C. Position the squad to protect the scene D. Position the squad a block away and walk up to the scene

C. Position the squad to protect the scene Explanation: Scene safety should be the number one concern for any emergency responder to any scene. By positioning the squad in a way to block the scene from traffic which might not be paying attention then all responders can work with in the scene safely. Ease of access to the vehicle is of concern but not at the risk of scene safety.

You are dispatched to 123 Somewhere Rd to a call for an injured woman... You are dispatched to 123 Somewhere Rd to a call for an injured woman. As you approach the door of the home, a man opens the door and tells you "this is none of your business" and to "get out of here". What is the correct course of action in this case? A. Return to the ambulance and tell dispatch that the patient has refused care B. Reason with the man and explain that the women may need medical attention C. Return to the ambulance drive a safe distance away and call for the police to help D. Barge past the man and help the woman in the home

C. Return to the ambulance drive a safe distance away and call for the police to help Explanation: As an EMT you should never place yourself in harm's way. If you feel a situation may be dangerous you should always wait for assistance from the police.

When arriving at the scene of a possible hazardous materials incident, you would identify hazards by ______ A. Thoroughly investigating the scene yourself. B. Interviewing victims and bystanders. C. Scanning with binoculars from a safe distance. D. Assisting law enforcement officers in the search.

C. Scanning with binoculars from a safe distance. Explanation: Never enter a scene where hazardous materials are present until you have verified that the scene is safe. Use binoculars to survey the scene from a distance in order to identify hazardous materials placards. Consider victims and bystanders contaminated and take appropriate precautions.

Arriving on scene of a multi-car accident... Arriving on scene of a multi-car accident, the in-charge EMT tells dispatch that they have arrived and what they have found. "Squad 3 is on scene. There is a three car accident. All patients are out and walking on the scene." What is this information called? A. Scene arrival notification B. Dispatch information C. Scene size up D. Report to receiving facility

C. Scene size up Explanation: A scene size up allows for several things 1) lets other responding companies know what to expect once they arrive on scene. 2) Allows for an upgrading or downgrading of the assignment. 3) lets dispatch know what to expect in adding extra resources.

As an EMT, you release information on a patient to the newspaper. The patient felt he has been slandered. Which specific area of the law may the patient sue under? A. Federal B. Criminal C. Tort D. Constitutional

C. Tort Explanation: Slander is not considered criminal law. While constitutional and federal law may apply, the best answer is the broad area in all states called "tort law." These types of laws deal with differences between individuals - such as this example where one person was providing information about another person without previous and appropriate consent.

When your patient does not speak English, it is best to A. Avoid speaking to the patient, so you are not misunderstood. B. Write down everything you do, and have the patient sign it. C. Try to find a relative or bystander who can interpret. D. Refuse the call and request a bilingual EMT.

C. Try to find a relative or bystander who can interpret. Explanation: When your patient does not speak English, try to find an interpreter, and be especially careful to avoid misunderstandings. Try using sign language and gestures until an interpreter can be found.

Which of the following represents proper communication with the patient? A. When talking to a 12-year-old: "Do you want to hold your Mommy's hand while I bandage you?" B. When talking to an intoxicated 27-year-old man: "Get up. You are intoxicated and are not injured." C. When talking to a 75-year-old woman: "Ma'am, we think you should go to the hospital to make sure you're OK. Will you come with us?" D. When talking to a 4-year-old child: "I think you've fractured your femur. We'll stabilize you here and transport you to the hospital for surgery."

C. When talking to a 75-year-old woman: "Ma'am, we think you should go to the hospital to make sure you're OK. Will you come with us?" Explanation: Speak respectfully to all patients regardless of intoxication or mental impairment; when talking to a child, consider his or her developmental level.

To be effective, hand washing should continue for at least A. 1-2 minutes. B. 45-50 seconds. C. 25-30 seconds. D. 10-15 seconds.

D. 10-15 seconds. Explanation: Rub your hands together vigorously with soap for at least 10 to 15 seconds, then rinse in running water.

Which of the following patients would be appropriate for air medical transport from your scene? A. 55 year male with an isolated lower leg fracture secondary to stepping in a hole at a construction site B. 55 year male with multiple bee stings with no complaints of shortness of breath, difficulty swallowing or hives C. 55 year male status post fall from standing complaining of ankle swelling and contusion to left elbow. D. 55 year male high speed motor cycle accident vs. a cement highway barrier

D. 55 year male high speed motor cycle accident vs. a cement highway barrier Explanation: The high speed motor cycle mechanism is perhaps the highest degree of concern in this question. The other mechanisms do not have the potential of multiple organ systems being involved. The bee stings, while they are painful, present little risk of being ground transported or even left home to follow their physicians directions if there are no signs of anaphylaxis.

Which statement about patient confidentiality is correct? A. Patients who are cared for in a public place lose their right to confidentiality. B. The right to confidentiality does not apply to minors or to wards of the state. C. The patient who signs a statement releasing confidential information relinquishes all rights to privacy. D. A patient must sign a written release before any confidential information can be disclosed.

D. A patient must sign a written release before any confidential information can be disclosed. Explanation: Patient information can be released only if the patient has signed a specific consent form.

You have called an air medical service to come pick up your accident victim... You have called an air medical service to come pick up your accident victim from your scene. The helicopter contacts you when they are 5 minutes out. They ask for landing zone (LZ) information. Which of the following should be included in this safety brief? A. Over head obstructions B. Type of surface, road way, gravel or field C. High tension power lines a quarter of a mile from the LZ D. All of the above

D. All of the above Explanation: Any obstructions which would interfere with the approach and departure of the aircraft are very important. Power lines are especially critical as they are impossible to see from the air so the air medical crew will rely on the personnel on the ground to point that information out. Type of surface is important to anticipate dust, grass or other debris which will become airborne during landing. High tension power lines which are in the area are equally important as they may be in the approach or departure pattern.

EMS should set up in which zone during a HazMat incident? A. Hot zone B. Warm zone C. Luke warm zone D. Cold zone

D. Cold zone Explanation: The EMS crew is not protected with the appropriate personal protective gear to operate in the hot or warm zones. Patients must be decontaminated thoroughly prior to the EMS sector taking over care of the patient. There are no exceptions here, the potential of exposure to the hazardous material is too great.

Please answer the following question. You are called to the scene of a car versus tree accident. Upon arrival, you find the car to be engulfed in flames, with fire showing from underneath the hood and inside the passenger compartment. You can see that the operator of this vehicle is unconscious and slumped over the steering wheel. Which of the following is your first priority? A. Ensuring safety of any by-standers B. Ensuring safety of the fire department C. Effecting immediate rescue of the patient D. Ensuring safety of you and your partner

D. Ensuring safety of you and your partner Explanation: While all of the answers listed are considered priorities in this scenario, the safety of yourself and your crew must always come first. Your primary responsibility is always to ensure the safety of yourself and your crew. Once this is completed, then the focus can turn to the extrication and management of the patient. Always stay attentive to the scene, however, as things may suddenly change for the worse.

Please answer the following question. As the head of the Quality Assurance Committee for your service, you review all patient care reports prior to passing them on to the medical director. On one trip sheet, you note the following narrative: Patient states that he cannot move his bowls and has had abdomenal pane for three weaks. Patient also states that he has had a fever and took too Tylenol tablets this morming, but then became naseated. What advice would you give the paramedic regarding this report? A. Have the EMT-B do all of the documenting. B. Make up abbreviations for any words he is unsure of how to spell. C. Only document what you know how to spell. D. Get a dictionary and look up any questionable words when documenting.

D. Get a dictionary and look up any questionable words when documenting. Explanation: Proper spelling is critical to prehospital documentation. Documentation containing spelling mistakes looks unprofessional and can cast doubt on the quality of care provided. Therefore, it is best to advise the paramedic to use a dictionary and look up any and all words that he is unsure of how to spell. Having the EMT-Basic document the advanced level care is inappropriate. However, it would not be inappropriate to have the EMT read over the documentation to point out spelling errors. Making up abbreviations for words the paramedic is unsure of how to spell can create additional confusion and is not considered good practice. Just documenting the aspects of patient care for which the paramedic is comfortable with spelling creates incomplete documentation and is likewise inappropriate.

Which of the following statements regarding continuing education is most valued by the public? A. It shows that the paramedic is truly concerned about providing the best B. It satisfies guidelines for the paramedic to meet state recertification. C. It allows the paramedic to maintain their National Registry certification. D. It provides the opportunity for the paramedic to learn of new or changing medications and skills.

D. It provides the opportunity for the paramedic to learn of new or changing medications and skills. Explanation: Since medicine is a constantly evolving profession, the paramedic must stay abreast of current information, techniques, and medications. And while it is true within the profession that state EMS boards and the National Registry of EMTs will define specific requirements for continuing education in order to stay certified, these reasons would be least important to the community. What the community would want most is a paramedic who is abreast of the most current assessment and treatment modalities, so that they would receive the best care possible.

Upon arrival at a local residence, you hear three possible gunshots in your vicinity. What should be your immediate next action? A. Notify dispatch of the situation. B. Notify the local law enforcement agency. C. Proceed into the house since no shooter is visible. D. Leave the scene until it can be secured by law enforcement.

D. Leave the scene until it can be secured by law enforcement. Explanation: If you enter a dangerous scene, you should leave the scene in the ambulance and immediately notify law enforcement so that the scene can be secured. Although it is true that dispatch and law enforcement should be notified, you must first ensure that your safety has been secured.

Please answer the following question. After releasing care of a possible child abuse victim over to the emergency department staff, you are having a discussion with another ambulance crew who was not present at the incident. As you are describing your suspicion that the child's mother is the perpetrator of child abuse, you are overheard by one of the child's family members. What legal violation have you possibly committed? A. Libel B. Malfeasance C. Negligence D. Slander

D. Slander Explanation: Slander is the act of injuring a person's character, name, or reputation by making a false or malicious statement with malicious intent or reckless disregard for the falsity of the statement. If you had put the statement into writing, that would constitute possible Libel. Negligence is a deviation from accepted standards of care. Malfeasance is a form of negligence involving the performance of a wrongful or unlawful act.

Which of the following situations illustrates implied consent? A. You splint the broken arm and leg of a 6-year-old girl with her mother's permission. B. You care for a cardiac patient who asks you to help him take a dose of nitroglycerin. C. You arrive at the scene of a car crash, and the injured driver says, "Please help my child first." D. You provide life support to a man who was found unconscious by bystanders who called EMS.

D. You provide life support to a man who was found unconscious by bystanders who called EMS. Explanation: Implied consent means that, because your adult patient cannot give consent to treatment, you act without it.