EMT study REVIEW chapter 12-17
Hypovolemic shock caused by severe burns is the result of a loss of: A plasma. B red blood cells. C whole blood. D platelets.
A plasma.
The depth of compressions when performing CPR on an adult is: A 1 to 1 ½ inches. B ¾ -1 inch. C 2 to 2.4 inches. D 2 to 3 inches.
C 2 to 2.4 inches.
In the CPR guidelines children are classified as: A 1 year old to signs of puberty B 1 to 8 years old C 2 to 10 years old D 1 to 18 years old
A 1 year old to signs of puberty
You should use the AED to provide up to __ shock(s) followed by ____ cycles of CPR A 1, 5 B 3 stacked, 1 C 3 stacked, 5 D 1, 2
A 1, 5
What Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score would you assign to a patient who open eyes to voice stimuli, is confused, and points to where it hurts? A 12 B 6 C 10 D 14
A 12
Which of the following represents the MOST appropriate method of assisting a patient with his or her prescribed nitroglycerin tablet or spray? A Administer the medication sublingually and allow it to dissolve or absorb. B Encourage the patient to chew the tablet to increase its effectiveness. C Wait 15 minutes and reassess the blood pressure prior to administering another dose. D Place the medication under the tongue and have the patient swallow it.
A Administer the medication sublingually and allow it to dissolve or absorb.
Which of the following is a major difference between angina pectoris and AMI? A Anginal pain typically subsides with rest. B Nitroglycerin has no effect on angina pectoris. C AMI is caused by myocardial ischemia. D Pain from an AMI subsides within 30 minutes.
A Anginal pain typically subsides with rest.
Your patient is a 24-year-old woman with asthma who is struggling to breathe and is very agitated. She has cyanosis of her lips and nail beds, and is cool and clammy to the touch. When you attempt to assist her ventilations with a bag-valve-mask device, she becomes combative and repeatedly pushes the mask away from her face. Which of the following is the BEST option? A Begin transport immediately and attempt to do bag-valve-mask enroute with an EMR and contact medical control at the receiving center. B Have your partner restrain the patient's hands so you can ventilate her. C Wait for the patient's level of consciousness to decrease so that she can no longer resist your attempts to ventilate. D Use a nasal cannula to administer supplemental oxygen.
A Begin transport immediately and attempt to do bag-valve-mask enroute with an EMR and contact medical control at the receiving center.
You are ventilating a 6-year-old child and note that his heart rate has decreased from 70 to 54. Which of the following is the least appropriate treatment? A Check a set of vital signs starting with blood pressure. B Attempt a better mask seal with a second rescuer C Insert an oropharyngeal airway and continue ventilating. D Check the flow of oxygen reaching the bag-valve-mask device.
A Check a set of vital signs starting with blood pressure.
You respond to the scene of a 56-year-old obese female complaining of respiratory distress. She states that she has been feeling weak and a "little sick" for the past two days but the respiratory distress has been getting progressively worse for the past several hours. She states she has "heart problems," suffers from high blood pressure, and takes a "water pill." She is afebrile and has coarse crackles (rales) bilaterally. What is most likely the cause of her respiratory distress? A Congestive heart failure B Pneumonia C Influenza D Aortic aneurysm
A Congestive heart failure
Which of the following is NOT a sign of difficulty breathing? A Curling up in the fetal position B Coughing C Inability to speak full sentences D Decreased level of consciousness
A Curling up in the fetal position
Which of the following is the LEAST important question in obtaining the history of a seizure patient in the prehospital setting? A Does the patient have a family history of seizures? B Did the patient lose control of his bladder? C How did the patient behave during the seizure? D What was the patient doing before the seizure?
A Does the patient have a family history of seizures?
Which of the following is the most common cause of seizures in adults? A Failure to take prescribed medication B AMI C Withdrawal from atenalol D Ocular nerve tumors
A Failure to take prescribed medication
Hepatitis A is acquired primarily through contact with which of the following substances? A Fecal material B Blood C Amniotic fluid D Droplet spray
A Fecal material
Your patient is a 21-year-old female with a history of epilepsy. She is having a convulsion upon your arrival. Which of the following should you do? A Move furniture and other objects away from the patient to prevent injury. B Place a tongue depressor or spoon in the back of the mouth to prevent the patient from swallowing her tongue. C Restrain the patient's extremities to prevent injury from flailing of the arms and legs. D Insert a bite block, cloth, wallet, or similar item between the patient's teeth to prevent her from biting her tongue.
A Move furniture and other objects away from the patient to prevent injury.
Which of the following observations indicate that your patient may have overused his prescription inhaler? A Nervousness B Increased secretions from the airway C Decreased level of consciousness D Decreased heart rate
A Nervousness
Defibrillation is indicated for which of the following situations? A Pulseless ventricular tachycardia B Asystole C Pulseless electrical activity D Pulseless bradycardia
A Pulseless ventricular tachycardia
Which of the following statements regarding the AED and defibrillation is correct? A The AED should not be used to analyze the rhythm of a moving patient. B The AED will shock any rhythm not accompanied by a pulse. C CPR should be performed for 10 minutes before using the AED. D Defibrillation is the first link in the American Heart Association chain of survival.
A The AED should not be used to analyze the rhythm of a moving patient.
When you hear wheezes while auscultating your patient's breath sounds, which of the following is most likely the cause? A The lower air passages in the lungs are narrowed. B There is an upper airway obstruction. C There is elkatrins in the lungs. D This never happens.
A The lower air passages in the lungs are narrowed.
Which of the following BEST describes status epilepticus? A Two or more seizures with tonic-clonic activity without an intervening period of consciousness B A period of drowsiness following tonic-clonic seizures C A seizure involving convulsions on only one side of the body D A seizure that occurs without a known cause
A Two or more seizures with tonic-clonic activity without an intervening period of consciousness
You are first on the scene of a 61-year-old female in need of assistance with her respirations. You have a pocket mask with supplemental oxygen. How can you determine that your artificial ventilation is effective? A You assure oxygen is being delivered at 15 liters per minute with bilateral rise and fall of the chest. B Patient's pulse returns to normal and becomes thready at the radial. C You are assisting respirations at 24 breaths per minute. D Patient's skin color remains the same.
A You assure oxygen is being delivered at 15 liters per minute with bilateral rise and fall of the chest.
Common signs and symptoms of a hypertensive emergency include: A a bounding pulse, a severe headache, and dizziness. B pallor, cool skin, and a temporary loss of hearing. C syncope, a weak pulse, and bleeding from the ears. D tachycardia, pain behind the eyes, and weakness.
A a bounding pulse, a severe headache, and dizziness.
When caring for a patient with documented hypoglycemia, you should be MOST alert for: A a seizure. B an acute abdominal rupture with evisceration. C a febrile convulsion. D an acute stroke.
A a seizure.
Upon arriving at the residence of a patient with a possible cardiac problem, the first and most important action is to: A assess the scene for potential hazards. B request a paramedic unit for assistance. C determine if you need additional help. D gain immediate access to the patient.
A assess the scene for potential hazards.
Alkalosis is a condition that occurs when: A blood acidity is reduced by excessive breathing. B the level of carbon dioxide in the blood increases. C dangerous acids accumulate in the bloodstream. D slow, shallow breathing eliminates too much carbon dioxide.
A blood acidity is reduced by excessive breathing.
In addition to looking for severe bleeding, assessment of circulation in the conscious patient should involve: A checking the radial pulse and noting the color, temperature, and condition of his or her skin. B applying a pulse oximeter probe to the finger to determine if peripheral perfusion is adequate. C taking a blood pressure and determining if the patient is alert and oriented or confused. D palpating the carotid pulse to determine the approximate rate and checking capillary refill time.
A checking the radial pulse and noting the color, temperature, and condition of his or her skin.
The respiratory distress that accompanies emphysema is caused by: A chronic stretching and damage of the alveolar walls. B repeated exposure to drinking ETOH. C massive constriction of the bronchioles. D acute fluid accumulation in the alveoli.
A chronic stretching and damage of the alveolar walls.
Ischemic heart disease is MOST accurately defined as: A decreased blood flow to one or more portions of the myocardium. B absent myocardial blood flow due to a blocked coronary artery. C death of a portion of the heart muscle due to a decrease in oxygen. D decreased blood flow to the heart muscle due to coronary dilation.
A decreased blood flow to one or more portions of the myocardium.
A 29-year-old male complains of a severe headache and nausea that has gradually worsened over the past 12 hours. He is conscious, alert, and oriented and tells you that his physician diagnosed him with migraine headaches. He further tells you that he has taken numerous different medications, but none of them seem to help. His blood pressure is 132/74 mm Hg, his pulse is 110 beats/min and strong, and his respirations are 20 breaths/min and adequate. In addition to high-flow oxygen, further treatment should include: A dimming the lights in the back of the ambulance and transporting without lights and siren. B assisting him with his migraine medication and transporting without lights and siren. C placing him in a supine position and transporting with lights and siren to a stroke center. D applying warm compresses to the back of his neck and transporting with lights and siren.
A dimming the lights in the back of the ambulance and transporting without lights and siren.
A patient whose speech is slurred and difficult to understand is experiencing: A dysarthria. B dysphagia. C aphasia. D paraplegia.
A dysarthria.
The anterior aspect of the cerebrum controls: A emotion. B heart rate. C breathing. D ESP.
A emotion.
Neurogenic shock occurs when: A failure of the nervous system causes widespread vasodilation. B there is too much blood to fill a smaller vascular container. C the spinal cord is severed and causes massive hemorrhaging. D massive vasoconstriction occurs distal to a spinal cord injury.
A failure of the nervous system causes widespread vasodilation.
Gastric distention will MOST likely occur: A if you ventilate a patient too fast. B in patients who are intubated. C when the airway is completely obstructed. D when you deliver minimal tidal volume.
A if you ventilate a patient too fast.
The underlaying pathophyiology of Asthma is caused by a response of the: A immune system. B respiratory system. C endocrine system. D cardiovascular system.
A immune system.
In contrast to the assessment of a trauma patient, assessment of a medical patient: A is focused on the nature of illness, the patient's chief complaint, and his or her symptoms. B requires a thorough head-to-toe exam that involves a detailed assessment of all body systems. C is not as complex for the EMT because most patients typically present with classic symptoms. D almost exclusively focuses on physical signs that indicate the patient is experiencing a problem.
A is focused on the nature of illness, the patient's chief complaint, and his or her symptoms.
An acute myocardial infarction (AMI) occurs when: A myocardial tissue dies secondary to an absence of oxygen. B coronary artery dilation decreases blood flow to the heart. C the entire left ventricle is damaged and cannot pump blood. D the heart muscle progressively weakens and dysfunctions.
A myocardial tissue dies secondary to an absence of oxygen.
It is especially important to assess pulse, sensation, and movement in all extremities as well as pupillary reactions in patients with a suspected ___________ problem. A neurologic B respiratory C cardiac D endocrine
A neurologic
A 70-year-old female was recently discharged from the hospital following a total hip replacement. Today, she presents with restlessness, tachycardia, and a blood pressure of 100/64 mm Hg. Her skin is warm and moist. You should be MOST suspicious that she is experiencing: A septic shock. B pump failure. C a local infection. D decompensated shock.
A septic shock.
A 70-year-old female was recently discharged from the hospital following a total hip replacement. Today, she presents with restlessness, tachycardia, and a blood pressure of 100/64 mm Hg. Her skin is warm and moist. You should be MOST suspicious that she is experiencing: A septic shock. B pump failure. C decompensated shock. D a local infection.
A septic shock.
Which of the following conditions is NOT a common cause of seizures? A severe hypovolemia B acute hypoglycemia C poisoning or overdose D acute alcohol withdrawal
A severe hypovolemia
The left cerebral hemisphere controls: A the right side of the body. B heart rate and pupil reaction. C the right side of the face. D breathing and blood pressure.
A the right side of the body.
When obtaining medical history information from the family of a suspected stroke patient, it is MOST important to determine: A when the patient last appeared normal. B if the patient has been hospitalized before. C if there is a family history of a stroke. D the patient's overall medication compliance.
A when the patient last appeared normal.
To ensure that you will deliver the appropriate number of chest compressions during one-rescuer adult CPR, you should compress the patient's chest at a rate of about _______ per minute. A 90 - 100 B 100 - 120 C 110 D 100
B 100 - 120
What is the 4th link in the pediatric out of the hospital chain of survival? A Rapid defibrillation or AED B ALS C calling 911 D High-quality CPR
B ALS
Which of the following inhalers would NOT be used to reverse an asthma attack? A Ventolin B Asprin C Proventil D Albuterol
B Asprin
For an unresponsive patient less than 1 year of age, you would check for a pulse at the: A Carotid artery. B Brachial artery. C Femoral artery. D Radial artery.
B Brachial artery.
Which of the following medications is indicated in the treatment of a 52-year-old male with difficulty breathing and a history of emphysema? A Oral glucose B Bronchodilators C Activated charcoal D Nitroglycerin
B Bronchodilators
External bleeding may be classified according to types. Which one of the following is one of those types? A Liver bleeding B Capillary bleeding C Cardiac bleeding D Brain bleeding
B Capillary bleeding
You should check for a pulse in an unresponsive Child at the; A Brachial artery B Carotid or Femoral artery C Popliteal artery D Radial or Ulna artery
B Carotid or Femoral artery
You are treating a male patient with chest pain caused by the complete occlusion of one of the coronary arteries. What would you most likely expect with this patient? A His pain will be alleviated with nitroglycerin. B His pain will not be alleviated with Any of these medications. C His pain will go away with oxygen. D His pain will be reduced with aspirin.
B His pain will not be alleviated with Any of these medications.
Which of the following groups is at greatest risk of contracting and transmitting tuberculosis? A People with blond hair B Those with suppressed immune systems C Anyone with another communicable disease D Cattle farmers
B Those with suppressed immune systems
The MOST effective treatment for ventricular fibrillation or pulseless ventricular tachycardia is: A advanced airway care. B prompt, rapid defibrillation. C cardiac drug therapy. D effective CPR.
B prompt, rapid defibrillation.
When a patient goes into sudden cardiac arrest they require an AED. AED is used to convert what irregular heart rhythms? A Pulseless ventricle tachycardia B Ventricular fibrillation and pulseless ventricular tachycardia C Ventricular fibrillation and pulseless heart activity D Pulseless electrical activity
B Ventricular fibrillation and pulseless ventricular tachycardia
When should the EMT most likely expect to hear wheezes in a patient complaining of shortness of breath secondary to an asthma attack? A In between breaths B While breathing out C Never D While breathing in
B While breathing out
Which of the following patients is in decompensated shock? A a 23-year-old restless male with cool, clammy skin and tachycardia B a 20-year-old female that is unresponsive with absent radial pulses and dilated pupils C a 32-year-old male with anxiety and a systolic blood pressure of 110 mm Hg D a 28-year-old female with pale skin and rapid, respirations
B a 20-year-old female that is unresponsive with absent radial pulses and dilated pupils
Which of the following medications is NOT used to treat patients with a history of seizures? A phenytoin (Dilantin) B acetaminophen C carbamazepine (Tegretol) D phenobarbital
B acetaminophen
A 62-year-old man with a history of congestive heart failure presents with severe respiratory distress and an oxygen saturation of 82%. When you auscultate his lungs, you hear widespread rales. He is conscious and alert, is able to follow simple commands, and can only speak in two- to three-word sentences at a time. You should: A force fluid from his alveoli by hyperventilating him with a bag-mask device at a rate of at least 20 breaths/min. B apply a continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) device, monitor his blood pressure, and observe him for signs of improvement or deterioration. C place him in a supine position and assist his ventilations with a bag-mask device and high-flow oxygen. D place him in a position of comfort, deliver oxygen via nasal cannula, and closely monitor his breathing.
B apply a continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) device, monitor his blood pressure, and observe him for signs of improvement or deterioration.
Which of the following cardiac arrhythmias is characterized by a complete absence of myocardial electrical and mechanical activity? A pulseless electrical activity B asystole C ventricular fibrillation D ventricular tachycardia
B asystole
Which of the following MOST accurately describes the cause of an acute ischemic stroke? A acute atherosclerotic disease B blockage of a cerebral artery C narrowing of a carotid artery D rupture of a cerebral artery
B blockage of a cerebral artery
What is the 3rd link in the pediatric out of the hospital chain of survival? A Rapid defibrillation or AED B calling 911 C Prevention D High-quality CPR
B calling 911
The respiratory distress that accompanies emphysema is caused by: A acute fluid accumulation in the alveoli. B chronic stretching and damage of the alveolar walls. C repeated exposure to drinking ETOH. D massive constriction of the bronchioles.
B chronic stretching and damage of the alveolar walls.
After the patient's airway is intubated during two-rescuer CPR, you should: A decrease the compression rate to about 80 per minute. B deliver one rescue breath every 6 seconds. C pause compressions to deliver ventilations. D increase rescue breathing to a rate of 12 breaths/min.
B deliver one rescue breath every 6 seconds.
Nitroglycerin relieves cardiac-related chest pain by: A contracting the smooth muscle of the coronary and cerebral arteries. B dilating the coronary arteries and improving cardiac blood flow. C constricting the coronary arteries and improving cardiac blood flow. D increasing the amount of work that is placed on the myocardium.
B dilating the coronary arteries and improving cardiac blood flow.
A patient who is possibly experiencing a stroke is NOT eligible for thrombolytic (fibrinolytic) therapy if he or she: A has a GCS score that is less than 8. B has bleeding within the brain. C is older than 60 years of age. D has had a prior heart attack.
B has bleeding within the brain.
Vaccination against the hepatitis A virus is unnecessary if you: A have a weak immune system. B have been infected in the past. C received a hepatitis B vaccination. D are older than 35 years of age.
B have been infected in the past.
You are dispatched to an apartment complex where a 21-year-old female has apparently overdosed on several narcotic medications. She is semiconscious and has slow, shallow respirations. You should: A apply oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask and transport at once. B insert a nasopharyngeal airway and begin assisted ventilation. C insert an oropharyngeal airway and perform oral suctioning. D place her in the recovery position and monitor for vomiting.
B insert a nasopharyngeal airway and begin assisted ventilation.
The AED is MOST advantageous to the EMT because: A it is lightweight, easy to use, and safe for the EMT who is using it. B it delivers prompt defibrillation to patients with ventricular fibrillation. C it delivers an unlimited number of shocks with the same amount of energy. D it is cheap.
B it delivers prompt defibrillation to patients with ventricular fibrillation.
As an EMT, your best clue indicating the possibility of shock from internal bleeding may be the presence of: A swelling or pain over arm injuries. B mechanism of injury. C Headache and vision changes. D painful, swollen, or deformed extremities.
B mechanism of injury.
You are transporting a patient who is experiencing frequent discharges of her automatic implanted cardiac defibrillator. En route to the hospital you are caring for the patient in the back of the ambulance. To protect yourself from being shocked if the defibrillator discharges, you should: A make sure you do not touch the patient directly. B not worry, since the defibrillator does not pose a danger to others. C limit direct contact with the patient. D wear protective gloves that cannot conduct electricity.
B not worry, since the defibrillator does not pose a danger to others.
You and your partner arrive at the side of a 60-year-old woman who suddenly collapsed about 7 minutes ago. She is unresponsive, apneic, and pulseless. You should: A apply the AED if there is no response after 10 cycles of CPR. B perform cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) for about 2 minutes and then apply the AED. C immediately call the doctor and ask for directions. D begin CPR at a compression to ventilation ratio of 15:2.
B perform cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) for about 2 minutes and then apply the AED.
Sinus tachycardia is differentiated from a normal sinus rhythm by the: A shape of the P waves. B rapid heart rate over 100 C consistency of the P-R intervals. D width of the QRS complexes.
B rapid heart rate over 100
When assessing for fluid collection in the lungs during auscultation of lung sounds, you should: A pay special attention to the high pitched sound coming from the airway. B start at the lower lung fields and determine at which level you start hearing clear breath sounds. C use an EKG to determine D note the presence of a high-pitched whistling sound, which is an indicator of fluid in the lungs.
B start at the lower lung fields and determine at which level you start hearing clear breath sounds.
A transient ischemic attack (TIA) occurs when: A medications are given to dissolve a cerebral blood clot. B the normal body processes destroy a clot in a cerebral artery without long term neurological deficits. C a small cerebral artery ruptures and causes minimal damage. D signs and symptoms resolve spontaneously within 4 days.
B the normal body processes destroy a clot in a cerebral artery without long term neurological deficits.
Acute pulmonary edema would MOST likely develop as the result of: A severe hyperventilation. B toxic chemical inhalation. C an upper airway infection. D CVA.
B toxic chemical inhalation.
When performing CPR on a child, you should compress the chest: A 70 to 80 times per minute. B with one or two hands. C to a depth of 2″ to 3″. D until a radial pulse is felt.
B with one or two hands.
Two days after treating a 34-year-old patient with tuberculosis, you are given a tuberculin skin test, which yields a positive result. This MOST likely indicates that: A you are actively infected with tuberculosis and should be treated immediately. B you were exposed to another infected person prior to treating the 34-year-old patient. C you contracted the disease by casual contact instead of exposure to secretions. D you have the disease but it is dormant in your body, but will probably never cause symptoms.
B you were exposed to another infected person prior to treating the 34-year-old patient.
Rescue breathing for an Infant you should provide how many breaths per minute? A 20 to 24 breaths per minute B 10 to 12 breaths per minutes C 12 to 20 breaths per minute D 6 to 10 breaths per minute
C 12 to 20 breaths per minute
What is the rate and depth of chest compressions on a Infant? A 100 to 120 compressions per minute and at least 2 inches deep or 1/3 the AP depth of the chest B A rate of 60 to 80 compressions per minute at a depth of 1 inch or 1/3 the AP depth of the chest C 100 to 120 compressions per minute and 1 1/2 inches deep or 1/3 the AP depth of the chest D At least 100 compressions per minute and 2 inches deep or 1/4 the AP depth of the chest
C 100 to 120 compressions per minute and 1 1/2 inches deep or 1/3 the AP depth of the chest
A patient who demonstrates any one of the three symptoms from the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale has a ______ percent chance of having an acute stroke. A 30 B 10 C 70 D 100
C 70
Which of the following patients should have an automated external defibrillator applied? A A 67-year-old man with severe, crushing chest pain that is not relieved by nitroglycerin B A 6-month-old in severe respiratory distress C A 19-year-old college athlete who collapsed during football practice and is pulseless and apneic D A 40-year-old female in cardiac arrest due to chest injuries sustained in a motor vehicle crash
C A 19-year-old college athlete who collapsed during football practice and is pulseless and apneic
Which of the following is the way in which the heart muscle receives oxygen? A Blood surrounds the heart in the pericardial sac. B Blood from the pulmonary vein enters capillaries in the myocardium. C Blood from the aorta enters the coronary arteries. D Blood from the left ventricle enters capillaries in the myocardium.
C Blood from the aorta enters the coronary arteries.
The death of brain tissue due to deprivation of oxygen because of a blocked or ruptured artery in the brain is known as which of the following? A Transient ischemic attack B Seizure C CVA D Aphasia
C CVA
To determine whether or not a child has a pulse, you would assess the __________ artery. A Brachial B Ulna C Carotid D Radial
C Carotid
Which of the following is the LEAST important question in obtaining the history of a seizure patient in the prehospital setting? A How did the patient behave during the seizure? B Did the patient lose control of his bladder? C Does the patient have a family history of seizures? D What was the patient doing before the seizure?
C Does the patient have a family history of seizures?
Which of the following BEST describes an appropriate shock sequence for the patient in pulseless VT? A Shock, pulse check, shock, pulse check, shock, pulse check B Shock, shock, shock, shock C Shock, 2 minutes of CPR, analyze, shock again D Shock, shock, shock, pulse check, 2 minutes of CPR, shock, shock, shock
C Shock, 2 minutes of CPR, analyze, shock again
Which breath sound is the EMT most likely to hear when caring for an adult male with a partial airway obstruction that occurred while eating steak? A Wheezes B Crackles C Stridor D Rhonchi
C Stridor
Which of the following is a possible side effect of a prescribed inhaler for respiratory problems? A Decreased heart rate B Trapped air in the lungs C Tremors D Sleepiness
C Tremors
Which of the following is a possible side effect of a prescribed inhaler for respiratory problems? A Sleepiness B Trapped air in the lungs C Tremors D Decreased heart rate
C Tremors
Which of the following MOST accurately describes a simple partial seizure? A a generalized seizure without incontinence B a seizure that causes the patient to stare blankly C a seizure that begins in one extremity D a seizure that is not preceded by an aura
C a seizure that begins in one extremity
The MOST appropriate treatment for an awake patient with a mild upper airway obstruction includes: A visualizing the airway and removing the obstruction. B advising the patient not to make any attempts to cough. C administering oxygen and transporting immediately. D performing five back blows and five abdominal thrusts.
C administering oxygen and transporting immediately.
The determination of whether a medical patient is a high-priority or low-priority transport is typically made: A once the patient's baseline vital signs are known. B as soon as the patient voices his or her chief complaint. C after the primary assessment has been completed. D upon completion of a detailed secondary assessment.
C after the primary assessment has been completed.
A percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA) restores blood flow to the ischemic myocardium by: A a healthy artery or vein from the body is connected, or grafted, to the blocked coronary artery. B scraping fatty deposits off of the lumen of the coronary artery. C dilating the affected coronary artery with a small inflatable balloon. D bypassing the coronary artery with a vessel from the chest or leg.
C dilating the affected coronary artery with a small inflatable balloon.
Prior to attaching the AED to a cardiac arrest patient, the EMT should: A perform CPR for 30 seconds. B assess for a pulse for 20 seconds. C dry the chest off if it is wet. D contact medical control.
C dry the chest off if it is wet.
Risk factors for AMI that cannot be controlled include: A lack of exercise. B excess stress. C family history. D hyperglycemia.
C family history.
When performing a secondary assessment on a conscious patient with nontraumatic abdominal pain and stable vital signs, you should: A only palpate tender areas of the abdomen. B skip assessing the patient and prepare the patient for transport first. C focus on his or her chief complaint. D cut off their cloths to expose and examine him or her from head to toe.
C focus on his or her chief complaint.
Signs and symptoms of a hypertensive emergency would MOST likely be delayed in patients who: A have had a stroke in the past. B are older than 40 years of age. C have chronic hypertension. D regularly take illegal drugs.
C have chronic hypertension.
The MOST significant risk factor for a hemorrhagic stroke is: A heavy exertion. B diabetes mellitus. C hypertension. D severe stress.
C hypertension.
The secondary assessment of a medical patient: A is never done on any patients in EMS. B is typically limited to a focused exam for patients who are unconscious. C is not practical if the patient is critically ill or your transport time is short. D should be performed at the scene, especially if the patient is critically ill.
C is not practical if the patient is critically ill or your transport time is short.
You and your EMT partner arrive at the residence of a 50-year-old man who complains of weakness. Your primary assessment reveals that he is critically ill and will require aggressive treatment. The closest hospital is 25 miles away. You should: A perform no treatments on scene and load him into the ambulance, begin transport, and perform all treatment en route to the hospital. B perform a detailed secondary assessment, assess his vital signs, and then transport rapidly. C manage all threats to airway, breathing, and circulation and consider requesting an ALS unit. D administer oxygen via nonrebreathing mask and obtain as much of his medical history as possible.
C manage all threats to airway, breathing, and circulation and consider requesting an ALS unit.
Leads V1 and V2 in a 12-lead ECG should be positioned: A 2″ away from both sides of the xiphoid process. B on each side of the upper sternum at the first intercostal space. C on each side of the sternum at the fourth intercostal space. D approximately 1″ apart, directly over the sternum.
C on each side of the sternum at the fourth intercostal space.
There are two types of seizures; if your patient is having a seizure that affects only one body part and does not cause her to lose consciousness, it is called a: A tonic-clonic seizure. B postictal seizure. C partial seizure. D generalized seizure.
C partial seizure.
During your treatment of a woman in cardiac arrest, you apply the AED, analyze her cardiac rhythm, and receive a "no shock advised" message. This indicates that: A she has a pulse and does not need CPR. B the AED has detected asystole. C she is not in ventricular fibrillation. D the AED detected patient motion.
C she is not in ventricular fibrillation.
When the myocardium requires more oxygen: A the heart contracts with less force. B the AV node conducts fewer impulses. C the arteries supplying the heart dilate. D the heart rate decreases significantly.
C the arteries supplying the heart dilate.
A patient who is experiencing aphasia is: A not able to swallow without choking. B experiencing a right hemispheric stroke. C unable to produce or understand speech. D usually conscious but has slurred speech.
C unable to produce or understand speech.
Nitroglycerin is contraindicated in patients: A who have taken up to two doses. B with a history of an ischemic stroke. C who have experienced a head injury. D with a systolic blood pressure less than 120 mm Hg.
C who have experienced a head injury.
Distributive shock occurs when: A severe bleeding causes tachycardia in order to distribute blood to the organs faster. B an injury causes restriction of the heart muscle and impairs its pumping function. C widespread dilation of the blood vessels causes blood to pool in the vascular beds. D lasers are shot into the eye.
C widespread dilation of the blood vessels causes blood to pool in the vascular beds.
The heart's primary pacemaker is the: A atrioventricular (AV) node. B internodal pathway. C ventricular bundle of His. D sinoatrial (SA) node.
D sinoatrial (SA) node.
Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score for a patient who has eyes open when you walk up, is confused to your questions, and follows your commands? A 11 B 13 C 10 D 14
D 14
An apneic infant or child should be ventilated a maximum of _______ times per minute. A 15 B 30 C 10 D 20
D 20
Assuming your protocol allows the administration of nitroglycerin when certain conditions exist, what is the maximum number of tablets to be administered in the prehospital setting? A 4 B 1 C 2 D 3
D 3
You are on the scene of a 65-year-old female patient in cardiac arrest. CPR is in progress and the AED has been applied. The AED advises shock. After defibrillating the patient, what is your next intervention? A Insert a Combitube. B Place in the recovery position. C Check for a pulse. D Continue CPR.
D Continue CPR.
Which of the following is the basis for applying an AED only to patients who are not breathing and who do NOT have a pulse? A Defibrillators recognize ventricular fibrillation, which may be accompanied by a pulse. B AEDs will shock any person it is attached to. C Defibrillators will shock asystole, which may occur in patients who are conscious. D Defibrillators recognize ventricular tachycardia, which may be accompanied by a pulse.
D Defibrillators recognize ventricular tachycardia, which may be accompanied by a pulse.
Which of the following statements regarding anaphylactic shock is MOST correct? A Anaphylactic shock is the result of immune system failure due to a highly toxic exposure. B Sensitized people will experience less severe reactions upon subsequent exposure. C Anaphylactic shock occurs a few hours after a person is sensitized to an allergen. D Each subsequent exposure following sensitization often produces a more severe reaction.
D Each subsequent exposure following sensitization often produces a more severe reaction.
What mode of transmission most accurately describes the route of spreading hepatitis A? A Unprotected sex B Respiratory droplet C Bloodborne D Fecal-oral
D Fecal-oral
Which of the following statements regarding nitroglycerin is correct? A The potency of nitroglycerin is increased when exposed to light. B A maximum of five nitroglycerin doses should be given to a patient. C Nitroglycerin should be administered between the cheek and gum. D Nitroglycerin usually relieves anginal chest pain within 5 minutes.
D Nitroglycerin usually relieves anginal chest pain within 5 minutes.
After the administration of a prescribed inhaler, which of the following should the EMT NOT reassess? A Pulse B Respirations C Mental status D Pupillary size
D Pupillary size
What is the primary effect on the body when an EMT assists a patient with a prescribed inhaler if the patient is short of breath? A Dissolved mucus in the airways B Decreased heart rate C Increased contraction of the diaphragm D Relaxation of the bronchioles
D Relaxation of the bronchioles
Limiting time spent at a scene can be especially important if the mechanism of injury suggests that the patient could go into shock. In order to keep the time at the scene to a minimum, which of the following assessments or treatments should not be performed on the scene? A ABCs with spinal precautions B Immobilization C Rapid trauma exam D Splinting swollen extremities
D Splinting swollen extremities
Which of the following conditions often requires transport to a hospital with specialized capabilities that may not be available at the closest hospital? A diabetes and migraines B asthma and shock C seizures and infection D stroke and heart attack
D stroke and heart attack
You are transporting a 50-year-old male patient whom you successfully defibrillated at the scene. You are 5 minutes away from the hospital when the patient goes back into cardiac arrest. Which of the following is the best course of action? A Tell the driver to stop and assist you with CPR, and request another unit for assistance. B Analyze the cardiac rhythm and deliver shocks as necessary. C Initiate CPR and continue transporting. D Tell the driver to stop, analyze the cardiac rhythm, and deliver a shock as necessary.
D Tell the driver to stop, analyze the cardiac rhythm, and deliver a shock as necessary.
Which of the following is a benefit of using small-volume nebulizers for the treatment of respiratory problems? A Nebulized medications have fewer side effects than aerosolized medications from an inhaler. B The patient can easily carry this equipment in a purse or pocket. C They will work even when the patient's ventilations are inadequate. D They allow greater exposure of the patient's lungs to the medication.
D They allow greater exposure of the patient's lungs to the medication.
Most prehospital cardiac arrests occur as the result of: A an acute ischemic stroke. B severe blunt trauma. C obstruction of the airway. D a cardiac arrhythmia.
D a cardiac arrhythmia.
CPR should be initiated when: A the carotid pulse is very weak. B rigor mortis is obvious. C signs of putrefaction are present. D a valid living will with DNR is unavailable.
D a valid living will with DNR is unavailable.
In what area of the lungs does respiration occur? A capillaries B trachea C bronchi D alveoli
D alveoli
An area of swelling or enlargement in a weakened arterial wall is called: A an embolism. B a thrombus. C atherosclerosis. D an aneurysm.
D an aneurysm.
You receive a call for a 70-year-old female with respiratory distress. Her husband tells you that she has congestive heart failure; however, he does not think that she has been taking her medications as prescribed. The patient is laboring to breathe that is slowing down with falling heart rate and appears tired with cyanosis around her lips. You should: A apply a pulse oximeter and obtain vital signs. B obtain a complete list of all of her medications. C administer oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. D assist her ventilations with a bag-mask device.
D assist her ventilations with a bag-mask device.
When treating an 80-year-old patient who is in shock, it is important to remember that: A medications older patients take for hypertension often cause an unusually fast heart rate. B older patients compensate well in shock. C the older patient's central nervous system usually reacts more briskly to compensate for shock. D changes in gastric motility may delay gastric emptying, which increases the risk for vomiting.
D changes in gastric motility may delay gastric emptying, which increases the risk for vomiting.
When would it be MOST appropriate for a patient to take his or her prescribed nitroglycerin? A sharp stabbing chest pain that lasts longer than 10 to 15 minutes B an acute onset of dizziness during a period of exertion C difficulty breathing that awakens the patient from sleep D chest pain that does not subside with rest
D chest pain that does not subside with rest
You are dispatched to a residence for a 40-year-old female who fainted. Upon your arrival, the patient is conscious and alert, and states that she is fine. Her husband tells you that she fainted after receiving news that her sister was killed in a car crash. You offer oxygen to the patient, but she refuses to accept it. At this point, your primary concern should be to: A advise her that she needs to go to the hospital. B provide emotional support regarding her sister. C obtain baseline vital signs and a medical history. D determine if she was injured when she fainted.
D determine if she was injured when she fainted.
Shock is the result of: A temporary dysfunction of a major organ. B the body's maintenance of homeostasis. C widespread constriction of the blood vessels. D hypoperfusion to the cells of the body.
D hypoperfusion to the cells of the body.
Which of the following is a function of the sympathetic nervous system? A spasming of nerves to the digestive system B turning hair gray C constricting pupils D increases in the heart and respiratory rates
D increases in the heart and respiratory rates
Which of the following conditions would make you suspect shock, A homeostasis B vision changes C headache D infection
D infection
The normal heart rate on an EKG is known as; A normal heart rhythm (NHR) B normal electrical rhythm (NER) C normal ventricular rhythm (NVR) D normal sinus rhythm (NSR)
D normal sinus rhythm (NSR)
When applying the 4-lead ECG electrodes to a patient, the white (negative) lead should be placed: A on the left upper arm. B to the left of the sternum. C on the left side of the abdomen. D on the right shoulder.
D on the right shoulder.
In order for efficient pulmonary gas exchange to occur: A there must be low quantities of pulmonary surfactant to allow for full alveolar expansion. B the percentage of inhaled carbon dioxide must exceed the percentage of inhaled oxygen. C the pulmonary capillaries must be completely constricted and the alveoli must be collapsed. D oxygen and carbon dioxide must be able to freely diffuse across the alveolar-capillary membrane.
D oxygen and carbon dioxide must be able to freely diffuse across the alveolar-capillary membrane.
You are transporting a 33-year-old male who was involved in a motor vehicle crash at a high rate of speed. You have addressed all immediate and potentially life-threatening conditions and have stabilized his condition with the appropriate treatment. With an estimated time of arrival at the hospital of 20 minutes, you should: A wait on scene for an ALS rendezvous. B repeat your secondary assessment. C take his vital signs in 15 minutes. D reassess his primary assessment and vital signs every 5 minutes.
D reassess his primary assessment and vital signs every 5 minutes.
Which of the following conditions is NOT a common cause of seizures? A acute alcohol withdrawal B acute hypoglycemia C poisoning or overdose D severe hypovolemia
D severe hypovolemia
A generalized seizure is characterized by: A a blank stare and brief lapse of consciousness. B unconsciousness for greater than 30 minutes. C a core body temperature of greater than 103°F (40°C). D severe twitching of all the body's muscles.
D severe twitching of all the body's muscles.
Ventricular tachycardia causes hypotension because: A aortic dissection occurs. B blood backs up into the arms causing edema. C the volume of blood returning to the atria increases. D the left ventricle does not adequately fill with blood.
D the left ventricle does not adequately fill with blood.
Most patients are instructed by their physician to take up to _______ doses of nitroglycerin before calling EMS. A four B five C two D three
D three
You respond to a residence for a child who is having a seizure. Upon arrival at the scene, you enter the residence and find the mother holding her child, a 2-year-old male. The child is conscious and crying. According to the mother, the child had been running a high fever and then experienced a seizure that lasted approximately 3 minutes. You should: A cover the child with wet towels and give oxygen via nasal cannula. B call medical control and request permission to give the child aspirin. C advise the mother to take her child to the doctor the following day. D transport the child to the hospital and reassure the mother en route.
D transport the child to the hospital and reassure the mother en route.
The descending aorta divides into the two iliac arteries at the level of the: A nipple line. B pubic symphysis. C xihoid process. D umbilicus.
D umbilicus.
Which of the following clinical signs is unique to anaphylactic shock? A hypotension B dizziness C pallor D wheezing
D wheezing
The color of the arm leads on the EKG are: A red and white B back and red C green and red D white and black
D white and black