EOP

Where is the common bile duct attached to? a. Hepatoduodenal ligament b. Falciform ligament c. Gastrosplenic ligament d. Periumbilical ligament

A

Which ONE of the following statements is MOST CORRECT? a. Sharpey's fibres connect the periosteum to the bone especially at the ligaments and tendons b. Periosteum covers all of bone including the hyaline cartilage c. Periosteum is not involved in bone repair from injury

A

Which of the following is MOST CORRECT? a. The lateral boundary of the axilla is the intertubercular groove of the humerus

A

Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for rheumatoid arthritis? a. Family history b. Citrullation arginine thing c. HLA genes HLADRB1 and 2 d. Cigarette smoking e. Nuclear antibodies

E

Which of these is MOST LIKELY the bacterial cause of dysentery? a. Shigella sonnei b. Escherichia coli c. Salmonella d. Vibrio cholera e. Campylobacter jejuni

E

An 80 year old man presents with GFR 15, and End-Stage Kidney Disease. What is the most common presenting illness a. Lower limb oedema

A

How does lactose intolerance occur? a. Lactose accumulation

A

Which ONE of the following treatments are recommended for pain relief in metastatic cancer? a. NSAID + panadol + weak opioid

A

Why is personality important? a. It is the primary factor in determining pain

A

These structures can be seen in a cross-section through the body of the penis, except A. Corpora cavernosa B. Bulbospongiosus muscle C. Corpus spongiosum D. Septum penis E. Crura

B

Which of the following regarding tumour is MOST CORRECT? a. Benign neoplasm never led to death b. Malignancy is characterized by tissue invasion

B

Which of these features is consistent with Haversian systems? a. Each blood vessel does not go between more than one Haversian canal b. Osteocytes are sitting in the lamellar bone c. Osteoblast is in the canaliculi d. Interstitial lamellae wrap around all the Haversian systems e. One osteoblast per Haversian system

B

Normal ageing is MOST OFTEN associated with: a. Loss of fluid and crystallised intelligence b. Memory loss to all parts and slower ability to recall c. Difficulty in performing competing tasks d. Loss of semantic memory with decreased vocabulary

C

The shape of the graph of enzymatic reaction against pH is a. Sigmoid b. Rectangular hyperbola c. Bell-shaped d. Linear

C

What is the function of Angiotensin II? a. Renin stimulation b. Vasodilation c. Aldosterone stimulation d. Increased sodium reabsorption e. Increase in renal perfusion pressure

D

Which of these fibres is supplied by the facial nerve? a. Parasympathetic fibres to the parotid gland b. Motor fibres to tensor tympani c. Somatic motor fibres to the masseter d. Parasympathetic fibres to the submandibular ganglion e. Sensory fibres to the cornea

D

A lesion of the inferior frontal gyrus in the left hemisphere is MOST LIKELY to produce: a. Hemiplegia on the right side b. Loss of recent memory c. Cognitive deficits d. Impaired comprehension of spoken language e. Impairment of the expressive (motor) aspects of speech

E

Which of the following are associated with age-related changes in the elderly? a. Increase in degeneration of white matter b. Increase in Lewy bodies c. Increase in amyloid plaques and neurofibrillary tangles d. A and B e. A and C

E

CT cross section image of a left MCA infarction. What clinical presentation will he most likely have? a. Dysphasia b. Sensory loss of his right side of the face c. Ptosis of right eye d. Left homonymous hemianopia e. Dysarthria

A

Which lists of vaccines below are live vaccines? a. Sabin, measles, mumps & BCG

A

Which of the following statements about pneumonia is TRUE? a. The causative agent of pneumonia varies with age in childhood

A

In acute pancreatitis, all of these enzymes can cause tissue damage EXCEPT a. Trypsin b. Elastase c. Amylase d. Chymotrypsin e. Phospholipase

C

Enzymes speed up reactions by lowering the: a. Free energy change b. Temperature or pH c. Equilibrium d. Activation energy e. Transition state

D

Which fact about Campylobacter is INCORRECT? (collation of repeated questions) a. Spread through food handling b. Infected individuals are infective for several weeks c. Gram-negative rod d. Gram-positive bacilli e. Reacts positive to catalase and oxidase tests and grows on CBA

D

With regard to the knee joint, which ONE is the MOST CORRECT? a. Lateral meniscus tightly adheres to the fibular collateral ligament b. Popliteus muscle involved in 'locking' the knee joint c. Cruciate ligaments are contained within the synovial cavity d. Collateral ligaments are tightened / stretched when the knee is flexed

D

A tumour in the head of the pancreas will interfere with which of the following: a. Coeliac trunk b. Splenic artery c. Portal vein d. Inferior vena cava e. Bile duct

E

Which statement about ovulation is correct? a. Progesterone peaks during ovulation b. 0.5˚C decrease in basal body temperature c. Oestrogen peaks during ovulation d. Cervical mucus becomes viscous e. Vaginal cells become flattened

E

A 35 year-old woman has increased glucose intolerance. We put her on a diet, exercise and behavioural change programme. Which one is CORRECT? a. Reduces incidence of type II diabetes by 60% b. Prevents type 1 diabetes c. Reduces weight by 19kg d. Reduces incidence of ketonaemia e. Increases insulin resistance by 50%

A

A 39-year-old woman, who has never been pregnant, has been married for two years to a 54-year-old healthy man and now presents for evaluation for infertility. They have regular unprotected coitus (sexual intercourse) and his semen analysis is normal. Her menarche was at age 13 and she has always had a regular 26-28 days cycle. To confirm that she is ovulating, you would a. Estimate the mid-luteal serum progesterone level b. Ask her to keep a temperature chart c. Perform a laparoscopy d. Perform a post-coital test

A

In terms of the classical model of long-term potentiation, which receptor is IMPORTANT for the expression of LTP (long-term potentiation) in excitatory neurotransmission? a. AMPA glutamate receptor b. NMDA glutamate receptor c. GABA-A receptor d. Metabotropic glutamate receptor e. Muscarinic acetylcholine receptor

A

Mechanism of action of aciclovir (the options were really long but this is the gist of it) A. Aciclovir is phosphorylated by viral thymidine kinase , which is then phosphorylated by the host enzyme into a triphosphate, and inhibits DNA polymerase C. Inhibitor of something else

A

Minute ventilation is increased in pregnancy BECAUSE tidal volume is increased. a. Both the assertion and reason are correct and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion b. Both the assertion and reason are correct but the reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion c. The assertion is correct but the reason is false d. The assertion is incorrect but the reason is true e. Both the assertion and reason are incorrect

A

The GP would refer William to the endocrinologist for hypothyroidism if he experienced: a. Weight gain, height below 5th percentile, bruising, lethargy and constipation b. Weight gain, sleepless nights and increased perspiration c. Weight loss, intolerance to heat and irritability d. Weight loss, sparse hair and muscle wasting e. Polyuria and polydipsia

A

The duodenum a. Is mainly retroperitoneal b. Is related posteriorly to the left ureter c. Crosses anteriorly to the superior mesenteric artery d. None of the above

A

The following are all attached to the perineal body except A. piriformis B. Deep transverse perenei C. External anal sphincter D. Superficial transverse perenei E. Bulbospongiosus

A

The following statements about pharmacokinetics are correct except: A. Lipophillic drugs have low vd B. Metabolism of drug will lead to hydrophilicity C. Most drugs are lipophillic

A

What is INCORRECT about the median nerve? a. Supplies anterior compartment of the arm b. Supplies forearm flexors c. From the medial and lateral cords d. Supplies the thenar muscles e. Supplies pronator muscles

A

What is MOST CORRECT regarding the function of CN9 (glossopharyngeal nerve)? a. Taste to posterior tongue b. Protrudes tongue c. Facial expression d. Lowers heart rate e. Hearing

A

What is most correct in regards to the structure of the spleen? A. It has periarterial sheaths of lymphocytes in the white pulp (possibly correct) B. The white pulp destroys red blood cells (or something along those lines)

A

What is most correct regarding metabolic bone disease? A. Adults absorb less than a ⅓ of their dietary calcium B. Pagets is due to a generalised increase in osteoclast activity affecting the entire skeleton

A

Which of these is INCORRECT regarding the CNS? a. Myelin is made by Schwann cells

A

Which of these was NOT in the Nuremberg code? a. Inexperienced researchers can conduct research as long as they are supervised b. For an experiment to be conducted, it must have had animal investigations and be based on existing disease theory c. For an experiment to be conducted, it must be clearly shown the benefits should outweigh the risks

A

A component of pain of osteoarthritis of the knee is likely to be due to neural actions of peptides BECAUSE inflamed synovium produces arachidonic acid metabolites. a. Both the assertion and reason are correct and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion b. Both the assertion and reason are correct but the reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion c. The assertion is correct but the reason is false d. The assertion is incorrect but the reason is true e. Both the assertion and reason are incorrect

B

List the following in the correct order: 1. Appraising 2. Asking (the patient) 3. Acquiring 4. Asking (the question) 5. Assessing and adjusting 6. Applying a. 231465 b. 243165 c. 243615 d. 423615 e. 234156

B

Regarding aspirin poisoning, which ONE of the following statements is MOST CORRECT? a. In overdose, hepatic metabolism is the primary method of aspirin elimination b. Aspirin elimination increases when urine pH > 4 c. In overdose, elimination of aspirin changed from zero order to first order kinetics d. Increasing urine volume increases aspirin elimination e. Aspirin poisoning precipitates metabolic alkalosis

B

Regarding labour, which ONE is MOST CORRECT? a. Cervical softening by nitric oxide b. Contractions due to prostaglandins c. Oxytocin release by maternal anterior pituitary d. Lower uterine contractions

B

Which ONE of the following statements about fever in a patient with an infection is MOST CORRECT? a. Immune responses are impaired in the setting of fever b. Increased metabolic demand due to fever may aggravate pre-existing cardiac failure c. Bacterial endotoxins cause fever by increasing PG synthesis in phagocytes d. It is associated with increased risk of stroke in an elderly patient e. The prognosis is worse if the patient's temperature is not controlled

B

Which ONE of the following statements about metformin in the treatment of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) is MOST CORRECT? a. It is associated with weight gain b. It may cause lactic acidosis c. It is an incretin d. It may increase cholesterol levels e. It increases insulin secretion from the pancreas

B

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be directly affected by the parasympathetic system? a. Heart rate b. Vascular tone c. Micturition

B

Which of these statements about the repolarisation phase of a typical action potential is most correct? A. modulated by active transport of Na+ and K+ B. increased membrane conductance to K+ C. increased membrane permeability to Na+ D. decreased membrane permeability to K+

B

Which one is MOST CORRECT? a. Tamoxifen is an oestrogen b. Tamoxifen is an inhibitory competitor with estradiol for oestrogen receptors c. Tamoxifen can be taken orally d. Tamoxifen is used as an oral contraceptive e. Research trials have not shown resistance to tamoxifen

B

Which one of the following drugs is used to treat glaucoma? A. Tropicamide B. Carbachol C. Phenylephrine D. Hexamethonium

B

Which ONE of the following structures passes through the parotid gland, and may be damaged by a tumour of that gland? a. Chorda tympani b. Accessory nerve c. Facial nerve d. Internal jugular vein e. Trigeminal nerve

C

Which one would least likely cause obstructive jaundice? A. Cholangiocarcinoma of the common hepatic duct B. Choledocholithiasis of the common bile duct C. Trauma to the cystic duct during surgery D. Carcinoma of the head of the pancreas E. Enlargement of lymph nodes in the portal hepatis

C

All of the following structures are present in the hilum of the left lung except; a. A main bronchus b. Branches of the vagus nerve c. Pulmonary veins d. The phrenic nerve e. A pulmonary artery

D

All of these contribute to not being able to control infectious disease/malaria in developed countries except: a. Lack of good surveillance system b. Decreasing compliancy to vaccines c. Decreased funding to vaccination programs d. Enough funds

D

Progestin-Only oral contraception works by inhibiting which one of the following processes: A. Release of GnRH by the anterior pituitary B. Implantation C. Maintaining the corpus luteum D. Passage of sperms E. Development of endometrium

D

QMP question about NNT a. NNT = 1/RRR = 2 people b. NNT = (1/(control rate/rate))...?? c. NNT = EER-AAR d. NNT = 1/ARR = 11 people e. NNT = RRR/ARR

D

Referring to the same pictures in Q22, which one of the following statements about the EMG is MOST CORRECT? a. The EMG is rectified and has a median frequency of 3Hz b. The EMG is un-rectified and has a maximum amplitude of 2mV c. The EMG is rectified and has a median frequency of 2Hz d. The EMG is un-rectified and has a maximum amplitude of 1mV e. The EMG is rectified and has a maximum amplitude of 3mV

D

Which ONE of the following statements is MOST CORRECT? a. Pharmacogenomics helps us understand why all patients respond equally well to drugs b. An agonist is defined as a drug that can block receptors c. Pharmacodynamics is the study of how levels of a drug change in the bloodstream over time. d. Pharmacokinetics is the study of how drugs are absorbed, metabolized and excreted.

D

When does central sensitisation occur? a. When hot/cold receptors have not reduced pain b. When the nerves are damaged c. In serious injury/trauma d. Only in inflammation of the joints e. Only over the distribution of a limb after amputation

E

Where does the parotid gland duct open into? a. Sublingual folds b. Lateral to the sublingual frenulum c. Sublingual ducts d. Tonsillar fossa e. Lateral to the upper crown molars

E

What is the composition of adult haemoglobin? a. HbA1, HbA2, HbF

A

Which one of these is not a precursor to gluconeogenesis? a. Acetyl CoA b. Oxaloacetate c. Alanine and asparate d. TCA cycle intermediates e. Glycerol

A

3. What best describes the type of inhibition shown? [Substrate and drug bind at same site] a. Competitive b. Non-competitive c. Michaelis-Menten d. Irreversible e. Induced fit

A

3yo, what stage of Piaget's model would he be entering now? a. Sensorimotor with symbolic play b. Pre-operational with fantastical thinking

A

All of the following are tests done for Giardia lamblia EXCEPT a. Iodine staining b. Fluorescent staining c. MacConkey agar culture d. Direct microscopy on cysts and oocytes e. Blood in faecal sample

C

All of the following statements regarding valvular incompetence are true EXCEPT a. It can occur as a result of infective endocarditis b. Aortic valve incompetence can be due to papillary necrosis c. Tricuspid incompetence can cause a high velocity jet regurgitating from right ventricle to the right atrium d. Mitral incompetence can result from left ventricular dilation e. Aortic valve incompetence can cause a 'collapsing' pulse

B

All of the following structures have a close anatomical relation with the apex of the left lung EXCEPT for: a. Recurrent laryngeal nerve b. Azygos Vein c. Phrenic Nerve d. Stellate Ganglion e. T1 ventral rami

B

All of these maintain the longitudinal arch except for: a. Spring ligament b. Deltoid ligament c. Plantar aponeurosis d. Flexor hallucis longus e. Anterior tibialis tendon

B

Articular tubercle of rib A. Radiate ligament B. Lateral costotransverse ligament C. External intercostal membrane D. Subcostal E. External intercostal muscle

B

The most common form of resistance to penicillin is a. Altered uptake b. Altered metabolic pathway c. Enzyme-mediated d. Altered transport e. Altered target site

C

Assuming typical physiological intracellular and extracellular fluid composition, which change would cause water to move out of a red blood cell? a. Leaky Cl- ion channels b. Leaky K+ ion channels c. Leaky Na+ ion channels d. Increased hydrostatic pressure outside the cell membrane e. Decreased protein concentration outside the cell membrane

B

What is the most correct about fracture healing? A. Something about granulation tissue B. Inflammation facilitates the healing process C. Hard callus something D. The fracture line plays a minimal role in the remodelling process E. Endochondral ossification involves calcification by osteoclasts

B

All of the following cells are present in the lesions of pulmonary tuberculosis except: A. Giant multinucleated cells B. Plasma cells C. Lymphocytes D. Epitheliod cells E. Fibroblast cells

B

(Mammogram of a 58-year-old woman). Which ONE of the following features is INCONSISTENT with breast carcinoma? a. Stellate scar b. Well-circumscribed margin c. Focal calcification d. Spiculated border e. Higher density tissue surrounding lesion

B

Protrusions of the IV disc usually occur a. Anteriorly b. Posterolaterally

B

Which ONE of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be used by bacteria to evade immune responses? a. Inhibition of complement activation b. Inhibition of phagocytosis c. Inactivation of antibodies d. Destruction of CD4+ T cells e. Colonisation of safe zones

D

Which ONE of the following is the BEST DESCRIPTION of the acid base status of a person with an arterial blood pH of 7.34, PCO2 of 29mmHg and a plasma bicarbonate concentration of 15 mmol/L? a. Normal b. Respiratory alkalosis c. Respiratory acidosis d. Metabolic acidosis e. Metabolic alkalosis

D

T1DM is BEST CHARACTERISED by a. Anti-insulin antibodies b. Normal sensitivity of peripheral tissues to insulin c. An abnormal glucose tolerance test d. Depletion of pancreatic islet beta cells e. Initial presentation with hyperosmolar non-ketotic coma

D

When is a normally developing child able to string two words together? a. 6 months b. 10 months c. 12 months d. 24 months e. 30 months

D

Which muscles help the lateral rotation of shoulder? a. anterior fibres of deltoid b. latissimus dorsi c. pectoralis major d. infraspinatus e. teres major

D

Which of these infections can be prevented by a killed vaccine? A Measles B Tetanus C Hepatitis B D Influenza E Tuberculosis

D

By 12 months, a baby can do everything EXCEPT a. Point + use precise pincer grip b. Crawl well c. Wave bye-bye d. Babble some words e. Draw a circle

E

Catherine has intermittent diarrhea, low grade fever, nausea, vomiting for 2 days. Alex had it a couple of weeks ago too. What is the most likely cause of her diarrhoea? A. Shigella spp. B. Campylobacter spp. C. Salmonella spp. D. Giardia lamblia E. Norovirus

E

Most of the clinical effects of arteriosclerosis result from a. Rupture of fatty streak b. Arterial stenosis of fibrin plaque c. Thrombosis superimposed on fibrin plaque d. Haemorrhage into lipid-rich plaque e. Thrombosis superimposed on lipid-rich plaque

E

Which enzyme is NOT activated in acute pancreatitis? a. Trypsin b. Elastase c. Amylase d. Chymotrypsin e. Phospholipase

E

Which of the following are NOT characteristic of a metabolic syndrome: a. Increase in insulin resistance b. Increase in serum LDL c. High blood pressure d. Low HDL e. Low insulin in serum

E

Which of these is NOT a primary emotion? a. Sadness b. Surprise c. Disgust d. Fear e. Guilt

E

Structures which are retroperitoneal a. Head of pancreas b. Tail of pancreas c. Appendix d. Caecum e. Sigmoid colon

A

What does ACTH NOT do? a. Act on the renal collecting tubules

A

Which is true about NPY? a. It increases appetite

A

Which of the following is MOST CORRECT about C7? a. Supplies the middle finger of the hand b. Supplies the upper trunk of the brachial plexus c. Contributes to the ulnar nerve

A

Which of the following is a bronchodilator? a. Adrenaline b. Acetylcholine c. Sulphur dioxide

A

Which of these is NOT a resistance mechanism of bacteria? a. Activates the antibiotic b. Change of drug target site c. Enzymes modifying enzyme d. Active efflux of enzyme e. Reduced permeability

A

(Practical question) Which type of contraction was used to investigate the influence of the length of muscle on the force of the toad leg muscle? a. Isotonic b. Isometric c. Isokinetic d. Eccentric e. Shortening

B

Which of the following features of the veins is NOT correct? a. The left and right brachiocephalic veins combine to form the superior vena cava b. The cephalic vein empties into the brachial vein c. The inferior vena cava is right of the abdominal aorta d. The great saphenous vein empties into the femoral vein

B

Which of the following is NOT a hallmark of cancer cells? a. Self-sufficiency in growth factors b. Induction of apoptosis c. Insensitivity to anti-growth signals d. Sustained angiogenesis e. Tissue invasion and metastases

B

Which of these is NOT characteristic of atrial fibrillation? a. Irregularly regular beat b. Irregular QRS complex c. Irregular P wave

B

With regard to cranial nerves, which ONE of the following is MOST CORRECT? a. The hypoglossal nerve passes inferior to the external carotid artery b. The hypoglossal nerve innervates the intrinsic muscles of the tongue c. The hypoglossal nerve passes though the foramen magnum d. The hypoglossal nerve supplies taste to the anterior tongue

B

With regard to pharmacology, which is LEAST correct? a. Tachyphylaxis refers to the tolerance buildup towards a drug b. ED50 higher means a drug is more potent c. Antagonists will shift the curve

B

With regard to randomised controlled trials (RCTs), which ONE of the following statements is MOST CORRECT? a. Individuals are assigned to groups according to their exposure to a risk factor under investigation b. There is a control group that is assigned to take a placebo or comparison intervention c. An RCT is always "blinded", i.e. the researchers and the health care workers who randomise, treat and assess the individuals do not know to which groups the patients are assigned d. An RCT compares the association between cases and a possible cause, with the association between the same possible cause and people who do not have the health state we are interested in (the controls) e. RCTs are retrospective

B

Regarding the molecule that is used to assess glomerular filtration rate (GFR), which of the following is MOST CORRECT? a. Net excretion b. Glucose transporters affected c. It must be filtered at the same rate as it is excreted d. It undergoes secretion e. It cannot exist in the renal vein

C

Which of the following would you expect a 1-year-old to be doing? a. Hopping on one leg b. Drawing stick figures c. Walk 3-4 steps unaided

C

Which one of the following stimulates renin release? a. Angiotensin II b. Angiotensinogen c. Renal sympathetic nerves d. An increase in renal perfusion pressure e. Increased sodium chloride at the macula densa

C

Which statement is the MOST CORRECT regarding pancreas? A. The head of the pancreas has only one duct B. The tail is towards the 2nd part of duodenum C. Portal vein forms posterior to the neck D. Splenic vein runs inferiorly E. The body of the pancreas is traversed by biliary duct

C

With regard to the adrenal glands, which ONE of the following is MOST CORRECT? a. Has no capsule b. Zona glomerulosa is closest to the medulla c. Zona fasciculata has cuboidal cells arranged in columns d. Zona reticularis produces noradrenaline and adrenaline e. Medulla is arranged into three separate areas

C

With regard to the following statement about the pyloro-duodenal junction, select the BEST answer. a. The epithelium shifts from stratified squamous in the pylorus to simple columnar in the duodenum. b. Villi and microvilli are features of the pyloric part of the stomach c. Mucus-secreting Brunner's glands are a unique feature of the duodenum d. There is no band of smooth muscle in the muscularis externa of the small intestine e. The duodenum has many parietal cells in the intestinal glands

C

4. Which of the following is MOST CORRECT regarding the stomach? A. Parietal (oxyntic) cells have receptors for intrinsic factor B. Vagal efferent act on stomach via nicotinic receptor C. Distension of stomach inhibit gastrin secretion D. D cells release somatostatin that acts locally to inhibit gastrin release E. Pepsin is activated in pH>5

D

Which of the following prevention methods for rheumatoid arthritis is INCORRECT? a. Physiotherapy in exercising and strengthening the muscles b. Physiotherapy helps to increase range of movement c. Occupational therapy to assist in completing activities at work d. Weight loss and exercise will prevent the progression of rheumatoid arthritis e. Fish oil has some benefits in relieving the pain of RA

D

Which of the following regarding childhood vaccinations is INCORRECT? a. Unvaccinated children benefit from high levels of vaccination in the population b. Haemophilus influenzae type B is rare in Australia due to vaccine c. Pneumococcal infection protects against meningitis d. Measles vaccine should be given as soon as possible after birth e. Rubella vaccination reduces the number of congenital defects in the population

D

Which of the following regarding contraceptive methods is INCORRECT? a. Infertility may persist for many months after contraception with depot provera b. Injection of progesterone prevents ovulation c. The oral contraceptive pill is used to treat dysmenorrhea as it prevents release of PGF-2 alpha d. Emergency contraception is only effective if taken 24 hours after intercourse e. The COCP interacts with other drugs because they affect metabolism of oestrogen in the liver

D

Which of the following regarding subdural haemorrhage is MOST CORRECT? a. Meningeal photophobia is a common symptom b. Shearing of the cortical bridging arteries c. Rupture of berry aneurysms d. More likely to occur if there is cerebral atrophy e. Resolved spontaneously by lysis of clotted blood

D

Which of the following statements about globin chain disorders is true? a. Persistence of foetal haemoglobin is a common cause of reduced exercise tolerance b. Thalassaemias are the most common cause of structural change in a globin chain c. Loss of an alpha chain gene leads to stillbirths d. Homozygous beta thalassaemia causes microcytic hypochromic anemia e. Haemoglobin S increases the risk of developing malaria

D

Which of these is MOST CORRECT? a. Intrinsic pathway of apoptosis is caused by death factors binding to cell b. Extrinsic pathway of apoptosis is caused by Bax protein binding to mitochondrial membrane c. Necrosis requires activation of MAP kinase d. Apoptosis involves a series of protease activation steps e. Necrosis involves a series of protein phosphorylation steps

D

Which of these is most TRUE about the trachea? a. Its lining consists of pseudostratified columnar epithelium with goblet cells b. It moves anteriorly with swallowing c. It has a complete ring of cartilage d. It bifurcates at 5th-6th thoracic vertebrae e. Its posterior relation is the longus colli

D

Which option BEST describes a characteristic of ß-thalassaemia trait? a. Severe anaemia b. Reduced HbA2 c. Reduced red cell count d. Reduced red cell mean cell volume (MCV) e. Reduced HbF

D

Which statement about the ejaculatory duct is MOST CORRECT? a. It connects with the bulbospongiosus gland and the seminal vesicle b. It connects at the prostatic utricle c. It is palpable by the finger in a per rectal examination d. It travels through the middle of the prostate on either side e. It exits in two openings in the spongy urethra

D

Which statement regarding the male urogenital tract is MOST CORRECT? a. Sperm undergoes mitosis to become haploid b. Sertoli cells secrete testosterone c. Testes are not encapsulated structures d. The prostate gland is encapsulated and contains alveoli that produce seminal fluid e. The epididydmis connects the seminiferous tubules directly to the ductus deferens and is not involved in the storage of sperm

D

With regard to HIV counseling, which ONE of the following statements is MOST CORRECT? a. A doctor may not order a HIV test without obtaining consent from the patient b. In Australia, there is a comprehensive testing process for HIV diagnosis which may take several days c. The doctor must advise the patient directly of the HIV result d. A component of pre-test counseling is to arrange post-test counseling e. The doctor must advise the patient that if the HIV test is positive, the patient must inform his partner

D

With regard to RSV, which ONE of the following statements is MOST CORRECT? a. It is a common cause of severe respiratory infection in older primary school children b. It causes mouth ulcers and a maculopapular rash c. It is a herpes virus d. It is the most common cause of bronchiolitis in infants e. It is spread primarily via the faeco-oral route

D

With regard to foetal growth, all of the following are INCORRECT EXCEPT a. Teenagers have larger babies on average than older women b. Indigenous Australians have on average a higher birth weight than non-Indigenous Australians c. A male baby's birth weight is lower than a female baby's birth weight d. Gestational diabetes can lead to larger baby in gestation e. IVF impairs foetal growth even in singleton babies

D

With regard to the effects of alcohol on the liver, which ONE of the following statements is LEAST CORRECT? a. Binge drinking can result in fatty liver (hepatic steatosis) b. Alcohol induces the hepatic enzyme GGT (gamma-glutamyltransferase) c. Alcoholic hepatitis is associated with hepatocyte necrosis and intracellular accumulation of Mallory's hyaline d. Chronic high-risk drinking results in cirrhosis of the liver in the majority of cases e. In cirrhosis, peri-sinusoidal fibrosis contributes to portal hypertension

D

With regard to the following statements about epithelium, select the ONE BEST answer a. Epithelium has a good blood supply of its own b. Cilia on the surface of some epithelial cells increase the absorptive area c. The epithelium of the oesophagus is simple columnar d. The epithelium that lines cardiovascular passageways is known as endothelium e. Simple squamous epithelium consists of tall cells

D

With regard to the histology of muscle, which ONE of the following statements is MOST CORRECT? a. Striated muscle resides in the small intestine b. Skeletal muscle cells have single centrally placed nuclei c. Smooth muscle cells have distinct banding patterns (striations) d. Cardiac muscle cells have intercalated discs e. Smooth muscle cells are multinucleated

D

With regard to the liver, which ONE of the following is MOST CORRECT? a. It is covered by the 9-11th rib on the left side b. It is usually in contact with the spleen c. The left colic flexure is related to the inferior margin d. It is related to the heart and the base of the lungs by its diaphragmatic surface e. It is always located in the left hypochondrium and epigastrium

D

With regard to the muscles in respiration, which ONE of the following is the MOST CORRECT? a. Main muscle of expiration is diaphragm b. External intercostals prevent intercostal space from bulging out c. Internal intercostals are active in passive expiration d. Abdominal muscles are used in forced expiration e. Sternomastoid causes nasal flaring

D

With regard to the oesophagus, which ONE of the following statements is MOST CORRECT? a. It is followed by the right phrenic nerve into the abdominal cavity b. Its lower 1/3rd has a mixture of smooth and skeletal muscle fibres c. Its middle 1/3rd has smooth muscle fibres d. It has skeletal muscle fibres comprising the superior 1/3rd e. It has simple columnar epithelium

D

(EMG of biceps and triceps). Picture A had a small biceps vibration with no triceps. Picture B had small biceps and triceps of equal frequency and force. Picture C had very small biceps but very high frequency and a bit higher triceps than in picture B. Match these pictures, in order, to the following scenarios 1: A weak movement 2: A high frequency movement 3: A movement unrelated to either muscle a. ABC b. BCA c. BAC d. CBA e. ACB

E

A man presents with URTI complicated by asthma and is given glucocorticoids. What enzyme does glucocorticoids act on? a. Cyclo-oxygenase b. Lipo-oxygenase c. Glucose-6-fructose d. Peroxidase e. Phospholipase A2

E

Footballer injures his lateral leg just distal to the head of the fibula. Which is the MOST CORRECT? a. Weakness in plantar flexion of the ankle joint b. Loss of ability to invert foot c. Abnormality of sensory sensation in the medial aspect of the leg d. Weakness in flexion of the toes e. Abnormality of sensation in the skin of dorsal aspect of the foot

E

Guy in the scenario with a twin brother who has depression. He is worried that he will get it also. What should you tell him? a. He has a very high risk of getting depression b. He used to have a high chance of getting autism when he was a child c. He will have a high chance of getting Alzheimer's if his brother also has it d. He has a low chance of getting obsessive disorders e. Although there is some degree of genetics, concordance in monozygotic twins is not very significant in depression

E

In Australia, which ONE of the following results in the most deaths? A) Cancer B) Mental illness C) Injuries D) Diabetes mellitus E) Cardiovascular disease

E

In a hospital setting, which of the following is Methicillin Resistant Staphylococcus Aureus (MRSA) MOST LIKELY to cause? a. Septicaemia b. Joint infections c. Pneumonia d. Urinary tract Infection e. Wound infections

E

In children who follow vegan or vegetarian diets, which vitamin / nutrient is likely to be deficient? a. Vitamin C b. Vitamin D c. Pentathenoic acid d. Folate e. Vitamin B12

E

Regarding endothelial cells, which of the following is CORRECT? a. They are involved in immunoregulation b. They are macropahges and aid in antigen-presenting c. They proliferate and migrate in a process called intimal hyperplasia d. They protect the body from microorganisms e. They normally line arteries and veins to form a non-thrombogenic surface

E

Regarding lactation, which ONE of the following statements is MOST CORRECT? a. Myoepithelial cells play no role in milk ejection b. Dopamine stimulates prolactin release c. Prolactin is released from the posterior pituitary gland d. Milk ejection is stimulated by prolactin e. The fall in maternal oestrogen levels after delivery contributes to the onset of lactogenesis

E

Regarding the spinal cord, which ONE of the following statements is MOST CORRECT? a. It contains primary sensory neurons in its dorsal horn b. It has increased amounts of white matter in the lumbosacral and spinal enlargements c. It is made up of 29 spinal segments d. It has a prominent midline groove on its dorsal surface e. It usually ends caudally at the level of the L1/2 intervertebral disc

E

Regarding the structure of the typical adult pelvis, which is correct? A) females have a smaller subpubic arch B) females typically have larger muscle attachments C) females typically have a narrower space between the ischial spines D) females have a heart shaped pelvic cavity E) the subpubic angle is generally greater in females than in males

E

The last stage of fracture healing is a. Soft callus b. Haematoma c. Inflammation d. Hard callus e. Lamellar bone

E

The lunate: a. Lies in the proximal row of the carpal bones between the scaphoid and trapezium b. Articulates with the hamate c. Provides attachment for the flexor carpi ulnaris d. Provides attachment for the flexor retinaculum e. Articulates with the radius

E

The posterior cerebral artery supplies all of the following EXCEPT a. Cerebral peduncles b. Splenium of the corpus callosum c. Primary visual cortex d. Occipitotemporal lobe e. Primary auditory cortex

E

The same lady came in with dysuria and frequency of urination for 2 days. What are the following parameters that will help diagnose a UTI in this patient a. >10^6 PMN/L, <10^6 RBCs/L, >10^8 bacteria/L b. >10^6 PMN/L, >10^8 cells/L bacteria, clinical symptoms of UTI c. >10^8 PMN/L, >10^8/L of a predominant bacterium, clinical symptoms of UTI d. >10^8 PMN/L, >10^6/L red blood cells, >10^8/L bacteria, 10 epithelial cells e. >10^8 PMN/L, >10^8/L of a single bacterium, clinical symptoms of UTI

E

What contributes MOST to global warming? a. Technologies have been developed to allow us to retrieve the carbon that we release b. Greenhouse gas result in increase solar energy getting to earth, therefore increase sea and land temperature c. There have been several national and international agreements that have managed to significantly reduce greenhouse gas emissions d. Scientists predict a 4˚C rise in global temperature if nothing is done to reduce greenhouse gases / global warming e. CO2 and methane, which are produced by the consumption of coal, natural gas and crude oil, are the most significant contributor to greenhouse gases

E

Which ONE of the following statements concerning the nervous system is MOST CORRECT? a. The autonomic nervous system controls skeletal muscles in the body b. The central nervous system is located in the centre of the body c. The peripheral nervous system conveys information mainly away from the central nervous system d. The somatic nervous system is concerned with internal organs of the body e. The peripheral nervous system includes motor and sensory nerves and sensory ganglia

E

Which ONE of the following statements is CORRECT? The process of bacteria being absorbed by cells and fusion with a cell organelle for digestion is: a. Apoptosis and fusion with lysosomes b. Endocytosis and fusion with peroxisomes c. Fission and fusion with endosomes d. Glycolysis and fusion with mitochondria e. Phagocytosis and fusion with lysosomes

E

Which fact about Campylobacter is INCORRECT? (collation of repeated questions) a. Spread through food handling b. Infected individuals are infective for several weeks c. Gram-negative rod d. Reacts positive to catalase and oxidase tests and grows on CBA e. Grows on MacConkey agar, positive to catalase but negative to oxidase test

E

Which is INCORRECT about tuberculosis? a. Can survive in macrophages b. Isoniazid is a first-line treatment c. Isoniazid can be used prophylactically for family in contact with someone with TB d. Rifampicin blocks DNA dependent RNA polymerase and also kills Gram negative bacteria e. Tuberculosis is high sensitive to glycopeptide antibiotics such as vancomycin

E

Which is MOST CORRECT about HIV virus? a. It is a DNA virus b. It causes infection by binding to MHC class II receptors c. It does not replicate during the asymptomatic period in lymph nodes d. Causes reduction in CD4 lymphocytes that is below the reference range in asymptomatic phase E. Primary infection elicits a strong, specific anti-HIV CD8+ cytotoxic cell response

E

Which is MOST CORRECT regarding statins? a. They are not commonly prescribed in Australia due to issues regarding safety and efficacy b. They are given via the intramuscular route c. They cause LDL levels to be increased and HDL levels to be decreased d. They decrease absorption of bile e. They are used as an adjunct to diet to treat hypercholesterolaemia

E

Which is the MOST CORRECT about osteoarthritis? a. Bony swellings in the PIP and MCP joints but not DIP are indicative of osteoarthritis b. Worse with rest but better with activity is osteoarthritis c. Soft tissue swelling in the joints is indicative of osteoarthritis d. Something to do with the wrist and how this indicates osteoarthritis e. Bony swellings in the DIP and PIP joints are indicative of osteoarthritis

E

Which of the following about PTU (propylthiouracil) is INCORRECT? a. It inhibits thyroperoxidase b. It is orally available c. It is used in hyperthyroidism d. It prevents the de-iodination of T4 to T3 e. It is used by breastfeeding women

E

Which of the following blood vessels drains blood from the upper limb? A. Common carotid artery B. Internal jugular vein C. External jugular vein D. Inferior vena cava E. Subclavian vein

E

Which of the following structures of the tongue is CORRECT? A. Longitudinal intrinsic muscles reduce the transverse dimensions of the tongue B. Circumvallate papillae are located posterior to sulcus terminalis C. Glossopharyngeal innervates anterior ⅔ of the tongue D. Fungiform papillae lie beneath the tongue E. Foliate papillae are located on the tongue margin

E

Which of the following tests would be done to determine tumour staging after a diagnosis of breast cancer? a. HER2 receptor status of the tumour b. Full blood count c. Ultrasound of contralateral breast d. Pap smear e. Whole body bone scan

E

Which of these is MOST CORRECT for renal acid-base homeostasis? a. The kidney excretes full load of volatile acid b. Most acid is excreted as free protons c. The adult body must excrete 200 mL every 24 hours d. For every proton excreted a bicarbonate is generated back into the blood e. For every bicarbonate that is reabsorbed a proton is excreted in the urine

E

Which of these is NOT part of the medial wall of the nasal cavity? a. Vomer bone b. Perpendicular bone of the ethmoid c. Nasal crest of the maxilla d. Nasal spine of the frontal bone e. Perpendicular plate of the palatine

E

Which of these is a non-hormonal receptor drug treatment for menopause vasomotor symptoms? a. Oestrogen b. ß2 c. α1 d. Serotonin e. GABA treats hot flushes

E

You are conducting research on the prevention of skin cancers. A search on Medline using the following MeSH headings returned the following results: 1. exp Skin Neoplasia/ 2. exp Preventative Measures/ 3. 1 and 2 Which option would be the best way of reducing the number of search returns? a. Add term to the search: Sunscreening Agents/ OR Protective Clothing/ b. Refine the search to only display review articles and other EBM articles. c. Refine the search to only display articles in English and with full text available. d. Change the search terms to use focus instead of explode so: 1. *Skin Neoplasia/ 2. *Preventative Measures/ e. Change the search terms to include focus and relevant subheadings so: 1. exp *Skin Neoplasia/pc (Prevention and control) 2. exp *Preventative Measures/

E

You have an elderly patient who has been diagnosed with terminal cancer but the family asks you not to tell them because they think it'll be too much for them to deal with. As the doctor, what do you do? a. Tell patient anyway b. Follow family's wishes c. Tell patient only if they ask d. Talk to family about advantages and disadvantages of telling patient but final decision is theirs e. Talk to family about advantages and disadvantages of telling patient but remind them that your responsibility is to the patient

E

Which is INCORRECT for the pharmacotherapy of heart failure? (conflict - too many answers) A. Aldosterone antagonist spironolactone has shown to have beneficial effects B. Beta-agonists are used in the short-term, and for acute severe cardiac failure C. Candesartan showed improved benefits / lower mortality rates when used with other standard drug therapy D. Carvedilol is a non-selective alpha- and beta-adrenoceptor antagonist E Digoxin inhibits membrane Na+/K+/ATPase to increase contractility F. ACE inhibitors are able to block AT1 receptors G. Dobutamine is used in acute cardiac failure

F

Daughter has an autosomal dominant disease. Both parents are normal. What does it mean for the next child? a. ½ chance of being normal

A

Which is CORRECT regarding T3 and T4? a. T4 has a stronger feedback control

A

Which is INCORRECT about the OCP? a. It kills the sperm b. It induces conditions which make it harder for the sperm to fertilise the ova c. It prevents implantation d. It prevents ovulation

A

In which cortical area is somatotopic organisation found? a. Broca's speech area b. Prefrontal cortex c. Primary motor cortex d. Primary olfactory cortex e. Auditory cortex

C

Which of the following is least likely to cause erectile dysfunction? a. Age b. Obesity c. Prostate cancer d. Smoking e. Anxiety and stress

C

With regard to lymph drainage, which ONE of the following is MOST CORRECT? a. The breast drains straight to the supraclavicular and inferior cervical b. The pectoral lymph node sits on the pectoralis major c. The apical lymph nodes drain into the right lymphatic duct d. Subscapular nodes are usually the first ones to be affected by breast carcinomas e. Something about humeral nodes

C

With regard to outbreak surveillance systems, which ONE of the following is of the LEAST IMPORTANCE? a. Completeness of data set b. Accuracy of data set c. Age of data set d. Accessibility of data set e. Reliability of data set

C

With regard to the 1st part of the duodenum, which ONE of the following statements is MOST CORRECT? a. It lies on the medial wall of the right kidney b. It is connected to the ligamentum teres by the hepatoduodenal ligament c. A penetrating ulcer on its posterior wall would damage the gastroduodenal artery d. The hepatopancreatic ampulla opens into it e. It is at the root of the mesentery

C

Regarding acute inflammation, all of the following statements are true, EXCEPT: A. It is controlled by chemical mediators B. It can be painful as a result of sensitisation of pain fibres C. It results from cell and tissue injury D. It requires treatment by antibiotics E. It can result in production of pus due to an influx of neutrophils

D

Regarding radiotherapy, all of the following statements are true, EXCEPT a. Health workers in radiation oncology departments are monitored by radiation safety equipment b. The daily dose is called a 'fraction' c. Brachytherapy refers to placing a radioactive source into the tumour itself d. Radiation cannot be given concurrently with chemotherapy e. Systemic radioactive isotopes are used for cancers that have receptors for their uptake

D

Regarding the rapid depolarising phase of the action potential in a typical neuron, which ONE of the following is MOST CORRECT? a. It is mediated by the active membrane transport of Na+ and K+ b. It is terminated by the inactivation of K+ channels and activation of Na+ channels c. It has a peak amplitude independent from the Na+ equilibrium potential d. It is initiated by the activation of voltage-dependent Na+ channels e. It is due to a decrease in the permeability of the membrane to K+

D

(Picture of the lung with a large, single tumour mass around hilum.). Based on the picture, which of the following is INCORRECT? a. This lesion has an aetiological association with smoking b. This lesion is associated with haemoptysis and cough c. This lesion is likely to be associated with cachexia d. This lesion is likely to have spread to the hilum e. This lesion is a result of lung metastasis

E

(Virtual slide shows a section of a pancreas of a man with long standing type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM)). Which of the following statements is MOST CORRECT? a. The exocrine pancreas is atrophic b. The islet of Langerhans shows the effects of an auto-immune mediated destruction c. The islet of Langerhans exhibit coagulative necrosis d. Activated enzymes from the exocrine pancreas has caused injury to the islets of Langerhans e. The islet of Langerhans exhibit amyloid deposition

E

With regard to the human body, which ONE of the following is MOST CORRECT in relation to thermoregulation? a. Heat movement from core to shell is mediated by conduction and radiation b. Fat means heat is lost more in a warm subject or warm temperature c. 60% of heat is lost from the nude body in 25˚C due to conduction d. Metabolic heat production is greatest after a meal high in carbohydrates e. Evaporation is the main form of heat loss when ambient temperature is greater than core temperature

E

Which of the following about tricyclic antidepressants is LEAST CORRECT? a. It has an almost immediate effect b. It can result in weight gain or hypotension c. It may have an anti-nicotinic and anti-muscarinic effect d. It decreases the reuptake of serotonin and dopamine

A

Which of the following antibiotics is MOST appropriate for the treatment of penicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus? a. Flucloxacillin b. Amoxicillin c. Ticarcillin d. Vancomycin e. Clarithromycin

A

All of the following statements about enzymes are true, EXCEPT: A) Enzymes allow thermodynamically unfavourable reactions to proceed B) Enzymes speed up the attainment of equilibrium of a chemical reaction C) Competitive enzyme inhibitors can bind to the active site and block substrate binding D) A cofactor is an ion or non-protein compound required for enzyme activity E) Enzymes accelerate reaction rates by lowering activation energy barriers

A

All of the following statements are about the heart and circulation are correct EXCEPT a. The arteries contain 65-70% of the blood volume b. Resistance to blood flow occurs in the arterioles c. An increase in venous return will automatically result in an increase in cardiac output d. Cardiac output can increase from 5 to 25 litres per minute during exercise e. The brain receives 12-15% of cardiac output at rest but only 3-4% during strenuous exercise

A

Relating to the female hormones practical, if a female rat's uterus is 0.8% of its total body weight, which of the following statements is LEAST CORRECT? a. We shall see nucleated epithelial cells

A

Relative foetal growth a. First trimester = organogenesis, second trimester = length, third trimester = weight gain and head doubles in size

A

Select the answer which is most correct concerning therapeutic ratio. It is: a. The relative difference between desired and unwanted side effects b. Higher for drugs with a low safety (i. e. higher for drugs that are more toxic)

A

(Picture of a granuloma.) Which one of these is INCORRECT? a. [label on centre of granuloma] The area labeled A is a region of liquefactive necrosis b. [label on a giant cell] The cell labeled B is a result of macrophage proliferation c. [label on epitheloid cells] The cells labeled C are derived from macrophages d. [label on area of granulation tissue] The area labeled D shows healing by regeneration e. Antigen-specific B lymphocytes are responsible for the events in this slide

A

Which of the following infections is spread through respiratory droplets? a. Neisseria meningitis b. HIV c. Polio

A

What is the mechanism of action for botulinum toxin? A. Blocks reuptake of choline B. Blocks acetylcholine esterase C. Blocks vesicular release of acetylcholine D. Blocks vesicle formation

C

For a person at rest, which of the following blood vessels contain the MOST blood volume? a. Systemic arteries b. Systemic veins c. Pulmonary veins d. Systemic capillaries e. Superior vena cava

B

Globally, which of the following most commonly predisposes to opportunistic infections? a. Malnutrition b. HIV c. Diabetes mellitus d. Chronic renal impairment e. Side effects of drug therapy

B

N-acetyl-p-benzoquinone is the hepatotoxic (liver toxic) metabolite of which ONE of the following drugs: A) Ketorolac B) Paracetamol C) Ibuprofen D) Indomethacin E) Aspirin

B

Which of Piaget's stages is this 5 year old in A. Sensorimotor B. Preoperational C. Concrete operational D. Formal operational E. Sensorimotor - but different stage

B

(Graph plotting subjects' urine osmolality and urine flow rate on y-axis against time. Flow rate rises and plateaus at 120 minutes whereas osmolality drops and plateaus at 60 minutes). This graph is consistent with which of the following subjects? a. Control who didn't drink anything b. Subject who drank 20mL of water c. Subject who drank 0.9 NaCl/kg d. Subject who drank 20mL of water followed by nasally-delivered ADH e. Subject who drank 20mL of water or 1.8% urea solution

B

Oligodendrocytes a. Contribute to the BBB b. Are not found in the cerebral cortex c. Generate the myelin of the brain d. Are mesodermal in origin e. Are modified forms of monocytes

C

What nerve supplies the anterior compartment of the thigh? a. Tibial nerve b. Obturator nerve c. Femoral nerve d. Common fibular nerve e. Sciatic nerve

C

(Motor systems physiology). Which ONE of the following is MOST CORRECT? a. Reflexes are fast because of the little number of synapses b. The afferent pathway to the brain is fast because there are not many synapses c. A large flexion of the elbow uses a larger motor neuron than a shorter flexion at the same speed

C

(Practical question) Which of the following concerning the carpal tunnel practical is MOST CORRECT? a. Motor neurons are faster than sensory neurons b. Electric currents in digital nerves excite motor and cutaneous cells c. Direction of the electrodes affect the graph / experiment

C

1. Which of the following group are genera that cause cutaneous mycoses? a. Microsporum, epidermophyton and mycoplasma b. Epidermophyton, trichophyton and mycoplasma c. Microsporum, trichophyton and epidermophyton d. Microsporum, malassezia and tricophyton e. Microsporum, malassezia and epidermophyton

C

Which statement regarding spermatogenesis is LEAST CORRECT? a. FSH stimulates Sertoli cells to support spermatogenesis b. Inhibin B is proportional to spermatogenesis c. Sperm stored in seminiferous tubules are fully mature and are able to swim d. Testosterone from Leydig cells stimulate spermatogenesis e. Spermatozoa are protected from the body's immune system by blood-testis barrier

C

Regarding venous thromboembolism, which ONE of the following statements is MOST CORRECT? (conflict) a. Sudden death is the most likely outcome b. Pulmonary infarct is a frequent cause of death c. DVT most commonly arises from femoral veins d. Factor V Leiden is a common congenital predisposing factor e. Paradoxical embolism may lead to cerebral infarction

E

Which one of the following combinations of cranial nerves is purely motor in function? a. Oculomotor and trigeminal b. Facial and hypoglossal c. Glossopharyngeal and vagus d. Vagus and hypoglossal e. Abducens, accessory and trochlear

E

Regarding the epidemiology of obesity in Australia, which ONE of the following is MOST CORRECT? a. Its incidence decreasing in young adults b. Obesity prevalence is estimated to be 5% in both males and females c. Obesity prevalence is highest in 25-44 year olds d. Obesity prevalence is estimated to be 15% in both males and females e. Obesity prevalence is estimated to be over 35% in both males and females

D

Regarding the epidemiology of obesity in Australia, which of the following is MOST CORRECT? a. Its incidence decreasing in young adults b. Obesity prevalence is estimated to be 5% in both males and females c. Obesity prevalence is highest in 25-44 year olds d. Obesity prevalence is estimated to be 20% in both males and females e. Obesity prevalence is estimated to be over 35% in both males and females

D

With regard to outbreak investigation, which should be performed first? a. Determine index case b. Case identification c. Locate epidemic in time, place and person d. Determine validity of outbreak e. Calculate attack rate

D

What is most correct regarding the liver blood supply? A. 70% from the hepatic artery B. 30% from the portal vein C. 70% from the superior mesenteric artery D. 70% from the portal vein E. 30% from the hepatic vein

D

Regarding colorectal neoplasms, which ONE of the following statements is MOST CORRECT? a. There is a direct correlation between colorectal carcinoma and dietary fibre intake b. Colorectal carcinoma is the leading cause of death among men above 50 years old c. FAP represents 15% of colorectal carcinomas d. Classical pathway of colorectal carcinoma involves a series of mutations in APC, Kras and p53 e. The adenoma-carcinoma sequence describes how the majority of adenomatous polyps develop into invasive cancers

D

Regarding disodium cromoglycate in the treatment of asthma, which is most correct? a. It is a bronchodilator b. It is used as treatment in acute asthma attack c. It antagonises the effect of beta-adrenergic agonists d. It is used in prophylaxis of asthma e. It is a highly potent steroid

D

Regarding exendin-4 and type 2 diabetes mellitus, which of the following is MOST CORRECT? a. Decreases insulin release via potassium channels in ß-cells b. Readily absorbed in the GIT c. May result in weight gain d. May result in nausea and vomiting e. Degradation of glucagon-like protein 1

D

A motor unit is the smallest functional unit. Which statement is MOST CORRECT regarding this assertion? (conflict: C or D) a. There are no other cells that are smaller than the motor unit b. Motoneurons can excite single muscle fibres within a motor unit c. Sarcomeres within a single muscle fibre are not under separate control but they are regulated by the levels of Ca2+ in the intracellular space d. NMJ releases a large post-synaptic potential that will inevitably be followed by the contraction of muscle fibres (and something about motor neurons) e. Cortical fibres synapse directly on individual muscle fibres and travel via interneurons

D

Which of the following is LEAST CORRECT in relation to the woman's overdose on assantin (acidic drug, pKa = 4.1)? a. Breathing a lot b. Excreting more H+ c. Decreased serum bicarbonate d. Adding NH4Cl to the stomach

D

A patient wishes to consume flaxseed oil, which is rich in the essential fatty acid, linolenic acid. Which of the following is MOST CORRECT? a. It can be synthesised in the liver from amino acids b. It can be synthesised in the liver from linoleic acid c. It is a precursor of arachidonic acid d. It is required in the synthesis of docosahexanoic acid e. It has a double bond which is 6 carbons from the end of the fatty acid chain

D

A patient with dementia was admitted to hospital with acute illness. With regard to the factors concerning hospital discharge, which ONE of the following statements is MOST CORRECT? a. Score on mental exam is directly proportional to risk of institutionalization b. PEG and nasogastric tubes reduces cases of aspiration c. PEG improves QoL d. Hypoactivity is an indicator of insidious disease e. Better outcome if they are placed in an aged-care ward

D

A population experiences an increase in the proportion of Aa heterozygotes. What is the MOST LIKELY cause? a. Positive assortative mating by homozygotes b. Increased population size c. Genetic drift due to the founder effect d. Negative assortative mating by homozygotes e. Mutation of 'a' allele to 'A'

D

Which of the following is MOST CORRECT In regards to Hepatitis C? a. Causes fulminant hepatitis b. Inevitably leads to cirrhosis c. Transmitted in food d. Common indication for liver transplants e. Is a DNA virus

D

A vaccine is produced using a killed pathogen. With regard to longstanding immunity following vaccination, which is MOST CORRECT? a. Antigen causes gene rearrangement in variable regions of Ig on B cells b. Plasma cells continue to produce large numbers of specific antibodies for years c. High concentration of cytokines remain in serum d. Memory cells are produced to respond quickly to subsequent introductions of antigen e. IgG produced by vaccine is important to protect against reinfection of the mucosa

D

According to the NSW Registry, which of the following regarding cancer epidemiology is TRUE? a. Prostate cancer is the leading cause of cancer mortality among men b. Melanoma is the leading cause of cancer mortality among women c. Colon cancer is the leading cause of cancer mortality for both men and women d. Lung cancer is the leading cause of cancer mortality for both men and women e. Pancreatic cancer is the leading cause of cancer mortality for men

D

All of the following are aspects of cognitive behavior therapy EXCEPT a. Determining / identifying the symptoms of depression b. Activity planning c. Thought challenging d. Making you feel happy e. Problem solving

D

All of the following regarding the nervous system is correct EXCEPT a. Most caudal end is at L1-L2 b. Ventral roots have motor function c. Sensation enters through dorsal roots d. Dorsal neurons synapse in the dorsal root ganglion

D

All of these statements regarding clearance are correct EXCEPT: A) Clearance for any particular drug is constant B) Something about lipophilic drugs C) Increase in the volume of distribution of a drug increases clearance D) Increase in Ke of a drug reduces clearance E) Clearance is inversely proportional to the area under the curve

D

Alveoli are present in all of the following locations EXCEPT a. Where the blood-air barrier exists b. In alveolar ducts c. In respiratory bronchioles d. In terminal bronchioles e. In alveolar sacs

D

An elderly man has severe pain from a terminal illness. He is already taking paracetamol. What is the best course of action? a. Twice daily paracetamol is for optimum effect b. Paracetamol is already given too much c. NSAIDs should be used d. Strong opioids should be used

D

At sea level, the approximate values of PCO2 for moist inspired air, pulmonary artery and alveolar air are: a. 149, 100, 40 b. 40, 40, 47 c. 0, 40, 47 d. 0, 47, 40 e. 100, 40, 47

D

Ben has acute MI. Which of the following is the LEAST relevant to his presentation? a. Troponin rise within 4 hours b. LV status is the best indicator of his prognosis c. Quitting smoking will reduce his chance of subsequent injury d. Fibrinolytic therapy is contraindicated because of reperfusion injury

D

Calculate minute ventilation from the graph. Tidal V = L. 4 cycles in 30 sec. a. 1L/min b. 2 L/min c. 4 L/min d. 8 L/min e. 16 L/min

D

Catherine's mother is worried that her breast milk production will decrease if Catherine starts feeding less. Which of these is incorrect? A. When Catherine is not feeding she should express milk manually B. Catherine should suckle regularly to ensure a good supply C. Prolactin levels at six months is decreased than at one month post partum D. Giving bromocryptin (a dopamine agonist) would sustain lactation

D

With regard to the developing pituitary, which ONE of the following alternatives best describes its TWO embryologic origins? a. Hypopharyngeal eminence and ectoderm b. Endoderm of the foregut and neuroectoderm c. Mesoderm of the foregut and ectoderm d. Ectoderm of Rathke's pouch and floor of diencephalon e. Foramen caecum and ectoderm

D

Cellular mechanisms of ecstasy - which of these is most correct? A. Hyperthermia is most commonly due to contaminants such as ketamine. B. Ecstasy decreases the amount of dopamine in the VTA-Nucleus Accumbens synapse C. In a study on 100 rats given ecstasy, all of them developed dependence. D. Ecstasy acts on serotonin transporters in the brain. E. Ecstasy causes long-term brain damage, but this has not been shown in studies

D

Clinical features sickle cell trait, which presentation most correct? A. Severe bony pain B. Splenomegaly C. Moderate anaemia D. Asymptomatic E. Sickle cell crisis

D

Each of the following is a cause of infertility EXCEPT a. PCOS b. Anorexia c. Endometriosis d. Candida albicans infection e. PID

D

Fireman - severe burns to much of his body. Contamination by bacteria. Greenish colour under UV light. Which bacteria is MOST LIKELY to be the causative agent? a. Staphylococcus aureus b. Streptococcus viridans c. Chlamydia trachomatis d. Pseudomonas aeruginosa e. Candida albicans

D

Folliculogenesis takes a. 7 days b. 14 days c. 180 days d. 360 days e. 500 days

D

Footballer injures his lateral leg just distal to the head of the fibula. Which is the MOST CORRECT? a. Weakness in plantar flexion of the ankle joint b. Loss of ability to invert foot c. Abnormality of sensory sensation in the medial aspect of the leg d. Cannot evert foot e. Abnormality of sensation in the sole of the foot

D

For consent to medical procedures, which of the following is NOT included? a. The doctor explaining treatment options to a patient b. The doctor making an assessment of capacity of patient to understand information and make rational decisions c. The doctor informing the patient of possible adverse effects of the procedure d. A signed written consent must be done for all cases e. Both A and B

D

Functional imaging conducted on patients with aphasia after stroke shows evidence of brain reorganization in language recovery a. During the acute phase b. During the subacute phase c. During the chronic phase d. During all phases (acute, subacute and chronic) e. Only in the Broca's area

D

In regards to allergies: a) house dust mites are a common cause of analphylaxis b) the primary cat allergen is present in cat urine c) house dust mites most prevalent in dry areas d) desensitisation is recommended for bee venom allergy e) Inhaled allergens are not proteins but change the host's proteins

D

In regards to bronchial carcinoma, which of the following is INCORRECT? a. It may rise in squamous metaplasia in airway epithelium b. It may invade into pleural sac and mediastinum c. Initial spread is to hilar lymph node d. Most histopathological varieties exhibit early blood-borne disseminations e. Typically spread by the time of clinical diagnosis

D

In regards to clinical treatment of a patient with ID: A. Let them make all decisions B. You (as the clinician) make all decisions C. Let a family member/next of kin make all the decisions, if they are available D. You/family or next of kin or something assist the patient in making decisions, depending on the level/severity of ID E. Treat them no differently to anyone else

D

In regards to female sexuality, which option is INCORRECT? a. Females are slower to arouse than males b. The uterus, fallopian tubes and ovaries lift out of the pelvis during sexual arousal c. Vaginal lubricant is a fluid that transudates directly from the capillaries into the vaginal d. Heart rate and respiratory rate decrease during female sexual arousal e. The vagina doubles in length during sexual arousal

D

In regards to pharmacotherapy of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM), which is MOST CORRECT about the effect of alpha-glucosidase inhibitors? a. They cause weight gain b. They stimulate the secretion of insulin from the pancreas c. Some have a long half-life limiting their use in the elderly d. They interfere with carbohydrate uptake in the intestines e. They increase uptake of glucose by muscles

D

In regards to the diagnosis and management of HIV/AIDS, which of the following is MOST correct a. Viral load is used as the primary indication for commencing ART b. Viral load is used to diagnose AIDS c. CD4 count is used to diagnose HIV d. CD4 count is used to diagnose AIDS

D

In relation to NFP in capillary beds, which of the following is MOST CORRECT? A. The lymphatic system is unrelated to NFP B. Changes in capillary hydrostatic pressure does not change NFP C. Vasoconstriction of arterioles upstream result in an increase in NFP D. Increase in venous blood pressure downstream increases NFP

D

In the SECOND trimester, which stage is the foetal lung development in? a. Saccular stage, where most peripheral airways form widened airspaces, termed 'saccules' b. Embryonic stage, as a tubular ventral growth from the foregut pharynx c. Pseduoglandular stage, where tubular branching of the airways continue d. Canalicular stage, where differentiation of the pulmonary epithelium results in the formation of the future air-blood tissue barrier e. Alveolar stage, where the airways form alveolar ducts and sacs

D

Management and diagnosis of cancer patients include all of the following EXCEPT a. Clinical assessment b. Staging with imaging techniques c. Biopsy of tumour tissues d. Biopsy of normal tissues e. Case discussion with a multidisciplinary team

D

Morton is a 6-month-old baby with a history of extracellular bacterial infections, most recently a bacterial pneumonia. Which of the following is LEAST CORRECT? a. Morton possibly has a complement defect b. Possibly a neutrophil defect c. Possibly a B cell defect d. Any IgA detected in his blood would be primarily from transplacental transfer e. He has a primary immunodeficiency

D

Most thromboemboli originating from veins of the lower limbs result in pulmonary infarction BECAUSE pulmonary emboli impact in the pulmonary arterial tree a. Both the assertion and reason are correct and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion b. Both the assertion and reason are correct but the reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion c. The assertion is correct but the reason is false d. The assertion is incorrect but the reason is true e. Both the assertion and reason are incorrect

D

Patients with Parkinson's disease taking COMT inhibitors will not benefit if taking either a dopamine agonist or levodopa BECAUSE COMT inhibitors delay the breakdown of dopamine a. Both the assertion and reason are correct and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion b. Both the assertion and reason are correct but the reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion c. The assertion is correct but the reason is false d. The assertion is incorrect but the reason is true e. Both the assertion and reason are incorrect

D

Which of the following is MOST CORRECT regarding capillaries? a. There are two types of capillaries, continuous and fenestrated b. Capillaries have a tunica adventitia containing collagen c. Their diameter is less than 3µm d. There are fenestrated capillaries in the glomeruli of the kidneys e. They have an inner lining of endothelial cells that are cuboidal epithelial cells

D

A 27-year-old woman is having surgery to control epilepsy. As part of the procedure, the surgeon uses a microelectrode to microstimulate a small group of neurons in the dorsomedial region of the primary motor cortex in the right hemisphere. Which ONE of the following responses is MOST LIKELY following this stimulation? a. Twitching of a single muscle in the right hand b. Twitching of a single muscle in the left hand c. Twitching of several muscles in the right leg d. Twitching of several muscles in the left leg e. Twitching of a single muscle in the left leg

D

A 30-year-old woman presents with a history of difficulty in conceiving. She also complains of deep dyspareunia (pain on sexual intercourse) and dysmenorrhea (painful periods). The most likely diagnosis is a. Cervical stenosis b. Submucous fibroid c. Polycystic ovarian disease d. Endometriosis e. Pelvic inflammatory disease

D

Which of the following statements about the biceps brachii muscle is MOST CORRECT? a. The long head attaches to the coracoid process of the scapula b. It inserts onto the ulnar tuberosity c. It is the main muscle used in flexion of the elbow d. It is involved in supination of the forearm e. It is supplied by the median nerve

D

A 65-year-old woman presents with a 2-day history of fever, rigors, tiredness, headache, myalgia and arthralgia. She has past history of diabetes and hypertension, and is febrile (39˚C) but otherwise has no other symptoms. Which of the following is MOST CORRECT? (conflict) a. Fever is mediated by actions of cytokines to the autonomic nervous system b. The presence of rigors means a bacterial infection c. Fever can lead to heat stroke d. Antipyretics decrease prostaglandin action on the hypothalamic set point e. Decreasing the temperature decreases mortality rate

D

Articular surfaces of bones are covered by which ONE of the following? a. Ligament b. Periosteum c. Fibrous tissue d. Synovial membrane e. Hyaline cartilage

E

Regarding ventilation during exercise, which of the following is most correct? a. Ventilation is stimulated by a hypoxic drive b. Ventilation is stimulated by a hypercapnic drive c. Increased ventilation is due to an increase in respiratory rate d. Ventilation levels go back to normal right after exercise e. Proprioceptive and muscular response to movement drives an increase in ventilation

E

Obese woman came in and was given assantin. All of these affect drug absorption and concentration EXCEPT a. Time after ingestion b. Volume of distribution c. Stomach pH d. Liver metabolism e. Renal pH infiltration

E

All of the following are correct regarding virulence factors of Streptococcus pneumoniae EXCEPT: a. Hyaluronidase causes cilia to stop beating b. It can degrade secretory IgA c. Pneumolysin d. Pneumolysin binds to cholesterol on cell membranes e. PMNs release ROS causing tissue damage

A

All of the following are significant contributors to changes in pharmacokinetics in the elderly EXCEPT a. Changes in absorption from the gut b. Changes in renal function c. Changes in liver function d. Changes in blood albumin concentration e. Changes in water composition (and ratio) of the body

A

A man presents with nocturia and is diagnosed with prostate cancer. Where would the most dangerous complication of hypertrophy occur? a. Central zone b. Peripheral zone c. External capsule d. Transition zone

A

A man suffering severe right sided epilepsy was unresponsive to anti-narcoleptic medications. He underwent surgery and the whole corpus callosum was severed. Which of the following signs would result: A. Inability to name object placed in left hand B. Inability to name object seen by left eye C. Inability to point to a colour seen in left visual field D. Inability to write the answer to a simple calculation seen in right visual field E. Inability to feed himself with left hand

A

A non-IDU man presents with jaundice with a history of Hep B infection. Which of the following is MOST relevant? a. Elevated bilirubin b. IgM receptors to Hep B core antigen c. Decreased albumin

A

All of the following disorders can result from damage to the cerebellum, EXCEPT: a. Resting tremor b. Nystagmus c. Past pointing d. Hypotonia e. Ataxia

A

A prospective cohort study, looking for the aetiology (causes) of a disease would a. Use a group of individuals and identify their different exposures to risk factors for the disease or outcome under study and follow them all over a period of time to see which are most affected by the disease or outcome b. Identify individuals with the disease in question and follow them up over time, monitoring their risk factors c. Identify individuals in a defined group who have known exposure to the risk factor in the past and find out how many of them have the disease now d. Randomly allocate individuals to two different groups and expose one group to the risk factor in question

A

All of the following factors contribute to ageing except: A. Caloric restriction B. Telomere shortening C. Oxidative stress on lipids D. Increase in ROS E. Mitochondrial DNA damage

A

A woman (who smokes) fractures her hip and has a hip replacement. She later dies of pulmonary thromboemboli. What is the MOST LIKELY cause of the emboli? a. Stasis following an operation b. Smoking increases blood coagulation

A

A woman comes in and her superior gluteal nerve is injured. Which ONE of the following is her MOST LIKELY presentation? a. When she stands on the unaffected leg, the pelvis on the opposite side dips (positive Trendelenberg sign) b. Extension is weakened (gluteus maximus causes extension of the hip; this is supplied by the inferior gluteal nerve) c. When the knee is flexed, lateral rotation is weakened

A

All of the following regarding homeostatic mechanisms are true, EXCEPT a. It must be a closed system b. It must have a sensory afferent c. It must have a control centre for integration d. It must have negative feedback e. It requires energy

A

All of the following regarding the meninges is correct, EXCEPT: a. Dura mater is separated from the skull by the extradural (epidural) space b. CSF runs in the subarachnoid space c. The meninges continues to cover the optic nerve d. Tentorium cerebelli divides occipital lobe and cerebellum e. The middle meningeal artery supplies the dura mater

A

Also concerning the above case; which of the following is the cause of the decreased serum bicarbonate level: a. Decreased generation of ammonium with progressive nephron loss b. Metabolic alkalosis c. There is a reciprocal relationship between plasma chloride and plasma bicarbonate d. Respiratory acidosis e. Increased secretion by intercalated cells of the collecting duct

A

A young woman using the COCP forgets to take her last hormone pill before the sugar pill. Which statement is most correct? a. There is an increased risk of pregnancy, because FSH production may not be inhibited / increase to point of ovulation b. There is an increased risk of pregnancy, because there is no withdrawal bleed c. There is no increased risk of pregnancy, because there is no withdrawal bleed d. No effect as withdrawal bleed during hormone free week ensures embryo cannot implant e. No effect as ovulation occurs in mid-cycle not just before period

A

All of the following are associated with an increased risk of premature labour except: A. Female Fetus B. Cervical Incompetence C. Polyhydramnios D. Bacterial vaginosis present before 20 weeks gestation Preterm labour in previous pregnancy

A

(Motor systems physiology). When did the peak biceps EMG occur? a. At the beginning of contraction b. During contraction c. At the end of contraction d. After end of contraction

A

200 women participated in a randomised control trial (RCT) to compare a new osteoporosis treatment against the old one. The new group had 3% of people with fractures whereas the old treatment group had 6% of people with fractures. What is the MOST APPROPRIATE measurement? a. ARR b. RRR c. Experimental risk ratio vs Control risk ratio d. Odds ratio e. RR

A

A 55-year-old woman s on Rituximab (a monoclonal antibody against CD20 protein) for B-cell lymphoma. Which of the following is MOST CORRECT? a. Serum antibodies are normal, as plasma cells, which don't have CD20, are unaffected b. Serum antibodies are normal, as B memory cells, which don't have CD20, are unaffected c. Patient undergoes haemopoietic cell failure, as haemopoietic stem cells with CD20 are affected d. Patient is at increased viral infection risk, at T-cells which do have CD20 are affected e. Natural killer (NK) cells are affected, but this has no clinical significance

A

A 60 year old otherwise healthy woman had a partial mastectomy to remove a T2N1M0 cancer, along with axillary node removal. She is estrogen receptor negative and HER2 negative. What is the best post-operative option? A. Nothing further required as long as there were clear surgical margins and full lymph node clearance B. Radiation of that chest wall and axilla - I picked this lol C. Sequential Adjuvant radiotherapy for chest wall + axilla, chemotherapy, and hormonal therapy D. Adjuvant Chemotherapy with a combination of cytotoxic drugs E. Adjuvant hormonal therapy with Tamoxifen

A

A 64 year old woman presents to her general practitioner with a history of intermittent palpitations (uncomfortable awareness of the heart beating). These fast palpitations come on suddenly for no apparent reason and they make her short of breath. The palpitations usually stop of their own accord within 10 - 60 minutes. Otherwise she is fit and well. Which ONE of the following types of clinical questions with the GP need to formulate in order to look into this problem further? A) Diagnosis B) Aetiology C) Therapy D) Prognosis E) Magnitude

A

A drug with a pKa of 3 is unionized (protonated) in acidic conditions. The absorption in the stomach (pH of ~2) is a. Greater than that of the small intestines b. Delayed due to greater ionization c. Less than that of the small intestines d. Less than in the mouth e. Delayed due to greater protonation

A

A man presents with hyperglycaemia, polyuria and no dysuria. Why should he be tested for the presence of ketone bodies in the urine? a. Heavy ketonuria may suggest diabetic ketoacidosis b. Ketone in the urine indicates UTI c. Ketonuria is present in all forms of diabetes mellitus d. Insulin resistance is caused by the presence of ketone bodies in the urine / bloodstream e. Insulin secretion is inhibited by the presence of ketone bodies

A

An asymptomatic young man gets a Mantoux test. Which of the following is TRUE? a. The main inflammatory cells at the injection site would be macrophages b. The presence of a weal indicates active not latent tuberculosis c. The weal would be present in 20 minutes which would indicate a positive reaction d. Macrophages would release IFN-gamma to cause the inflammatory response e. The inflammatory response is cause by the deposition of antigen-antibody complexes at the site of injection

A

An inflamed joint may be painful even to light touch because a. Some of the nociceptors are sensitized by chemicals released by inflammatory cells b. Nociceptors in the articular cartilage are under greater pressure than normal c. Mechanoceptors have become more active d. Touch receptors have sprouted new endings in the joint capsule

A

Artery has ___ tunica media than a vein a. Thicker b. Thinner c. same thickness

A

Blood pH 7.32, PCO2 23 slightly low) and HCO3 9 (low) (they gave you the reference ranges). Options were like: A. Metabolic acidosis with respiratory compensation B. Respiratory acidosis with metabolic compensation C. Metabolic alkalosis with respiratory compensation D. Respiratory alkalosis with metabolic compensation E. Metabolic alkalosis with metabolic compensation

A

Blood test analysis for HCV shows the following results - HCV EIA for antibody is negative, HCV RNA positive. What is a valid interpretation of the given results? a. Recent probable HCV infection, further testing is required b. Latent infection c. Re-infection d. Successful immunization e. Past infection with HCV followed by viral clearance

A

Cancer cells with the ability to metastasise may have all the following features EXCEPT: A. Increase in intercellular adhesion molecules (e.g e-cadherin) B. Lack of attachment to one another C. Ability to extravasate D. Breaking down of the basement membrane via use of proteolytic enzymes E. Found in tissue away from site of primary growth

A

Compared with the combined oral contraceptive pill, which of these statements about the progesterone-only pill ("mini-pill") is INCORRECT? a. It suppresses lactation b. Its main effect is to stop ovulation c. It has a higher rate of failure than the COCP d. It has a higher dose of progesterone than the COCP e. It requires pills to be taken every day

A

Concerning HIV in Australia, which of the following is MOST CORRECT? a. It is concentrated in gay men b. It is concentrated in injecting drug users c. It is like the epidemics in Africa d. It is like the epidemics in Asia e. It is a generalised epidemic

A

Control of microvascular permeability is likely to fall within the research fields of: A) Physiology & Pathology B) Immunology & Pathology C) Immunology & Biochemistry D) Physiology & Biochemistry E) Physiology & Immunology

A

Describe the direction of movement of DNA in electrophoresis a. DNA fragments travel from the negatively-charged end towards the positive electrode

A

During weeks 46 (post fertilisation), what is INCORRECT regarding the urogenital sinus? a. The mesonephric ducts connect to the anterior part of the urinary bladder and form the trigone

A

ECG in a normal person A. Atrial depolarisation generates P wave B. Atrial depolarisation generates T wave C. Ventricular repolarisation generates QRS complex D. PR interval is around 0.3s E. Exercise can lengthen QT

A

Each of the following are features of the interior of the bladder, EXCEPT a. Intrabulbular fossa b. Interureteric ridge c. Trigone d. Trabeculae e. Urethral orifices

A

Ethics question - which is MOST CORRECT about inequality and inequity? a. Inequality is a health difference between two or more people / groups, whereas inequity was a value judgement of an inequality

A

Extracellular fluid a. Is divided between the plasma and interstitial compartments in a ratio of approximately 1:3 b. Is about 40% of body weight in a normal male subject c. Has bicarbonate as its main anion d. Has potassium as its main cation e. Has an osmolality that is higher than intracellular fluid

A

For a patient with carbon monoxide poisoning, which ONE of the following is MOST CORRECT? a. Oxygen equilibrium curve shifts to the left b. PaO2 is decreased c. Patient looks cyanotic d. Carbon monoxide binds to haem with two times the affinity of oxygen e. Blood will have lots of methaemoglobin

A

Generalised enlargement of the lymph nodes: a. Is characteristic of influenza b. Is characteristic of tuberculosis c. Is whatever correct answer that hasn't been answered yet d. Is characteristic of the common cold e. Is characteristic of meningococcal disease

A

Granulation tissue is induced by macrophages BECAUSE they produce cytokines that attract new blood vessels and fibroblasts A) Both the assertion and the reason are correct AND the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion B) Both the assertion and the reason are correct BUT the reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion C) The assertion is true but the reason is false D) The assertion is false but the reason is true E) Both the assertion and the reason are false

A

Harry has Down syndrome, is recently irritable and has abdominal pain. After GIT infection has been ruled out, what should the doctor do to diagnose coeliac disease? a. Arrange for coeliac serology blood tests b. Maintain current diet and go for urgent small bowel biopsy c. Gluten free diet for Harry immediately and then come back in 2 months for HLA test d. Collect a stool sample and test for gluten antibodies e. Take a blood test for CRP

A

How do enzymes affect biological reactions a. They will catalyse the reaction, increase rate of reaction without changing its equilibrium and not be used up by the reaction itself

A

How do you define a developing secondary lobule? a. Region supplied by a terminal bronchiole b. Region supplied by a respiratory bronchiole c. It is made up of type 1 and type 2 alveolar cells d. Something about the alveolar duct and sac e. Laryngotracheal groove of foregut (or something)

A

It is important to culture a sample of the pus in an infected skin wound before treatment BECAUSE this is necessary to determine sensitivity of the bacteria to antibiotics.

A

Impairment in which five sensorimotor and balance systems are independent risk factor for falls in older people? a. Vision, lower limb proprioception, reaction time, lower limb muscle strength and postural sway b. Vestibular function, lower limb proprioception, muscle strength, reaction time and postural sway c. Vision, lower limb proprioception, vestibular function, lower limb muscle strength and postural sway d. Vision, hearing, vestibular function, muscle strength and postural sway e. Vision, lower limb proprioception, vestibular function, reaction time and postural sway

A

In Archimedes' illusion, you crossed your fingers and touched an object with the crossed fingers and felt the sensation of two objects. Why? a. Perception is based on a somatotopic map of the cortex in which activity of two non-contiguous groups of neurons is interpreted as two objects

A

In a HIV positive patient, which is the MOST LIKELY opportunistic infection? a. Pneumocystis jiroveci

A

In a fracture of the midshaft of the humerus, resulting in nerve damage, which will MOST LIKELY occur? a. Wrist drop because radial nerve damaged b. Wrist drop because median nerve damaged c. Claw hand because ulnar nerve damaged d. Claw hand because median nerve damaged e. Nothing

A

In a trial that is testing a new treatment against a control (placebo), if a test statistic calculated for the outcomes has a high probability value, which ONE of the following statements is likely to be MOST CORRECT? a. The null hypothesis is more likely and we should not reject it b. We would need to run the test again even if we had high power for this experiment c. The experimental hypothesis is very likely d. The null hypothesis is unlikely and we should reject it e. There is something wrong with the data used

A

In congestive heart failure: A. Left ventricular failure leads to raised pulmonary venous pressure and pulmonary oedema B. Right ventricular failure leads to pulmonary hypertension C. Ischaemic heart disease leads to a _____ and D. Pulmonary oedema results from an increased venous return and a fall in capillary pressure E. Pulmonary oedema is a result of the lymph capillaries constricting so that it is unable to draw up fluid

A

In regards to abscess formation, which ONE of the following is INCORRECT? a. It may drain to the surface through a fistula b. Staphylococcus aureus is a common causative agent c. Fibrin deposition isolates the abscess d. Pus contains neutrophils, proteinaceous exudate and necrotic tissue e. Pyaemic spread could lead to lung abscesses

A

In regards to foetal growth, which of the following statements is MOST CORRECT? a. Teenagers have smaller babies on average than women in their 20-30's b. Indigenous Australians have on average a higher birth weight than non-Indigenous Australians c. A male baby's birth weight is lower than a female baby's birth weight d. Gestational diabetes can lead to smaller baby in gestation e. IVF impairs foetal growth even in singleton babies

A

In regards to isometric contraction which of the following is the most correct? A. Length of fibres at start of contraction determines strength of contraction B. Flexed under a fixed load C. Tension remains same over contraction D. Contracts at maximum velocity E. Motion Is isokinetic

A

In regards to patients with HIV: a. During asymptomatic state the virus proliferates in the lymph nodes b. Cytotoxic T cells stimulate a strong antibody response c. During the asymptomatic phase, CD4 cell count is lower than the reference range d. During the asymptomatic phase, the virus does not replicate

A

In regards to temperature extremes a. In Australia and New Zealand mortality is generally greater in July than in January b. Norway has greater mortality than x in winter because it has colder temperatures. c. The increased mortality rate is proportional to the temperature changes d. There are an increased number of deaths in the hot weather due to involvement with summer activity e.g. water activity and drowning e. With acute frostbite, the only way tissue can be returned to normal is by restoring the blood flow to the tissue

A

In regards to the control of blood pressure, which of the following is LEAST CORRECT? a. Increased blood pressure leads to a decrease in baroreceptor discharge b. Baroreceptors are involved in the short-term regulation of blood pressure c. Control of blood pressure is through baroreceptors which are located in the carotid sinus and arch of aorta d. Changes in the activity of baroreceptor afferents causes changes in the signal from the autonomic nervous system to the heart e. Vasomotor centre in the medulla oblongata receives inputs from baroreceptors

A

In relation to the absorption of nutrients, which one of the following is MOST CORRECT? a. Fat-soluble vitamins are absorbed in lipid droplets and micelles b. Peptides are absorbed via assorted transporters into the enterocytes c. Water requires a transporter

A

In terms of the influence of environmental carcinogenesis on the incidence of cancer, which is the MOST CORRECT? a. It has been shown that there is some reduced risk with good fruit and vegetable intake b. Physical inactivity and obesity have been shown to have poor health outcomes and no effect on cancer incidence c. Long term use of multi-vitamins (3-5 years) has been associated with a decreased cancer risk d. Dairy products have been shown to increase cancer risk

A

In the insertion of DNA into plasmids, DNA is cut. What enzyme was used to do so? a. Restriction endonucleases b. Lactase c. DNA polymerase d. RNA polymerase e. Aromatase

A

Increase in extracellular fluid volume leads to a. No effect on arterial blood pressure b. Activation of atrial baroreceptors and arterial baroreceptors c. Increase in release of ADH d. Reflex activation in RAS e. Increase in plasma volume

A

Inferior parietal infarct to left dominant hemisphere will lead to a. Inability to comprehend spoken languages b. Homonymous hemianopia c. Contralateral neglect d. Unable to form speech (expressive part of speech impaired)

A

Injury to the upper trunk of the brachial plexus may result in a pronated forearm BECAUSE the musculocutaneous nerve, which supplies the most powerful supinator of the forearm, is derived from the upper trunk. a. Both the assertion and reason are correct and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion b. Both the assertion and reason are correct but the reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion c. The assertion is correct but the reason is false d. The assertion is incorrect but the reason is true e. Both the assertion and reason are incorrect

A

Johnny's knee was swollen, one of the cardinal signs of inflammation. Which ONE of the following statements BEST EXPLAINS the changes that lead to swelling in the setting of inflammation? A. There is increased permeability of the microvasculature B. There is increased hydrostatic pressure within the microvasculature C. There is increased colloid osmotic (oncotic) pressure within the vascular compartment D. There is increased colloid osmotic pressure within the interstitium E. There is decreased hydrostatic pressure within the interstitial compartment

A

Linkage analysis is used to identify genes that may be involved in a genetic disorder. The LOD score for Gene X is 5.62, while the LOD score for Gene Y is 0.58. Regarding this information which ONE of the following is the MOST APPROPRIATE conclusion? a. Gene X is linked to the disorder b. Gene Y is genetically linked to the disorder c. Gene X causes the disorder d. Both genes are genetically linked to the disorder e. Gene Y causes the disorder

A

Loperamide is indicated in which of the following cases? a. Non-specific acute diarrhoea b. Crohn's disease c. Infant dysentery d. Constipation

A

Nature of lungs at 30 weeks gestation a. Related to alveolar development, surfactant production and respiratory distress syndrome

A

Neural plasticity is ___ to ___. a. An adaptive response, normal experiences b. An adaptive response, inflammation c. An inflammatory response, fever d. A function, eliminate stressful experiences

A

Nicole and Andrew both have normal stature. Their child has achondroplasia (short stature). This disease is autosomal dominant and has 100% penetrance. Which of the following statements is most correct? A. This is an example of new genetic mutation B. This is an example of reduced penetrance C. D. The child's children's risk of getting the disease is dependent on germ cell mosaicism E. The couple's next child's risk of having the disease is 1 in 2.

A

Normal developing 12 month child A. Crawl on all fours B. Build a tower of three blocks C. Speak 6 single words D. Undresses self E. Draw a person

A

Pain from the knee may be referred to the hip joint BECAUSE the capsules of the knee joint and of the hip joint have the same nerve supply. a. Both the assertion and reason are correct and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion b. Both the assertion and reason are correct but the reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion c. The assertion is correct but the reason is false d. The assertion is incorrect but the reason is true e. Both the assertion and reason are incorrect

A

Patient has a Pancoast tumour in the apex of the lungs. His symptoms are: hoarseness in his voice and ptosis. Which one BEST explains his symptoms? a. Hoarseness due to compression of the recurrent laryngeal nerve b. Ptosis due to interruption of the vagus nerve c. Hoarseness due to compression of the superior vena cava d. Tumor infiltrated his lung causing hoarseness e. Malaise due to inflammation of visceral pleura

A

Pedigree question: Males appeared to be affected, females were largely carriers. Affected males had only carrier females as children. Which ONE of the following is TRUE? a. X-linked recessive disorder b. Autosomal recessive disorder c. Autosomal dominant disorder d. Y-linked disorder e. X-linked dominant disorder

A

Place these steps in order for when adrenaline binds to its receptor i. Receptor recruits G protein ii. Binds to receptor iii. G protein activates adenylate cyclase iv. GDP exchanged for GTP on the G protein v. Adenylate cyclase manufactures cAMP vi. ADP is exchanged for ATP a. ii, i, iv, vi, iii, v b. i, v, iii, vi, ii, iv c. ii, vi, v, i, iii, iv d. vi, v, i, iii, iv, ii e. i, iii, v, vi, ii, iv

A

Primary endocrine glands are those organs dedicated to making hormones. An example of a primary endocrine gland is: a. Testis b. Kidney c. Liver d. Uterus e. Heart

A

Regarding axillary lymph nodes, which answer is the LEAST CORRECT? a. Posterior nodes follow the axillary artery b. All lymph nodes drain into the apical lymph node c. Anterior lymph nodes are on the inferior border of pectoralis minor d. Most breast cancers drain to the pectoral group e. Upper limb infection goes to the lateral lymph nodes

A

Regarding granulomas, which statement is MOST CORRECT? A. They are aggregates of macrophage and other phagocytic derivatives B. They occur in the presence of foreign bodies C. They are characterised by fungal infections D. They exhibit liquefactive central necrosis.

A

Regarding parvovirus B19, which is the most correct? a. It commonly affects rapidly dividing cells b. It is a double-stranded DNA virus c. It commonly affects epithelial cells d. It is not a cause of congenital infections e. It has similar genetics to polyomavirus, e.g. BK and JC

A

Regarding pneumolysin, a virulence factor of Streptococcus pneumoniae, which of the following is LEAST CORRECT? a. It is a membrane-bound surface protein b. It is able to create a pore in the host cell membrane c. It activates the classical complement pathway d. It binds to cholesterol receptors on the host cell membrane e. It inactivates host cilia

A

Regarding puberty in males, which ONE of the following is MOST CORRECT? a. Testosterone production by the Leydig cells increases b. Testicular enlargement is usually the last event c. Sperm production does not occur until Tanner stage 5 d. The growth spurt generally occurs earlier than in females e. Adrenal androgens are responsible for most of the male secondary sexual characteristics

A

Regarding thalassemia all of the following are true EXCEPT: a. Lower red blood cell count b. It results in a reduced production of one or more globin chains c. There is a higher prevalence in the Mediterranean d. There are alpha and beta types e. It is asymptomatic in thalassemia minor

A

Regarding the Papanicolaou smear, which of these statements are most correct. A. A correct smear is sampled from the transformation zone. B. Current Australian guidelines state that a Pap smear must be conducted once a year. C. Pap smears are no longer necessary due to the introduction of the vaccine Gardasil. D. It is unable to detect neoplastic cells before they become invasive. E. Cancer cells identified in a Pap smear have a very small nucleus size compared to amount of cytoplasm

A

Regarding the pharmacological treatment of congestive heart failure, what is the best sequence of treatment. What order should these drugs be used for cardiac failure? A. loop diuretic, angiotensin system drugs (ACE inhibitor or angiotensin II antagonist), beta-blocker (e.g. carvedilol), aldosterone antagonist, digoxin B. Aldosterone antagonist C. Digoxin D. Aldosterone antagonist E. Angiotensin system drug (ACE-I or AT-II antag), carvelidol, dobutamine, aldosterone antagonist, loop diuretic

A

Regarding the portal vein, which ONE of the following statements is CORRECT? a. It is in the anterior boundary of the lesser sac b. It passes through the head of the pancreas to enter the lesser omentum c. Its function is to return deoxygenated blood from the liver d. It is formed at the junction of the superior and inferior mesenteric veins e. It crosses anterior to the duodenum

A

Regarding transplant immunology, which of the following is MOST CORRECT? a. Both CD4+ and CD8+ cells are involved in acute rejection b. In grafts from identical twins, immunosuppression is required c. In acute rejection, antibodies against the HLA-antigen are formed d. In most cases, transplant donor and recipient are perfect MHC matches e. ABO blood group typing is not necessary in organ transplant

A

Staphylococcus aureus stains Gram positive BECAUSE it has a thick layer of peptidoglycans in its cell wall A) Both the assertion and the reason are correct AND the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion B) Both the assertion and the reason are correct BUT the reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion C) The assertion is true but the reason is false D) The assertion is false but the reason is true E) Both the assertion and the reason are false

A

Steroids bind to Class I nuclear receptors. Which ONE of the following alternatives is a characteristic of class I nuclear receptors? a. They are present in the cytoplasm b. They act as heterodimers c. They have an extracellular signalling domain d. Their ligands bind with low affinity e. They have an intracellular kinase domain

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Surveillance data is useful for all of the following EXCEPT a. High level of causation between the disease and risk factors b. Prioritisation of sources and planning of service delivery c. Monitoring disease spread and risk factors d. Evaluation of health promotion e. Evaluation of clinical intervention

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The following statements about surveillance are all true EXCEPT a. It can show high levels of causation between disease and risk factors b. Can be achieved through passive surveillance c. Can be achieved through active surveillance using diagnostic tests d. For the case definition to be valid, there must be construct validity e. For the case definition to be valid, there must be criterion validity

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The left kidney is a. In direct contact with the pancreas b. Lower than the right kidney c. Not in contact with the peritoneum d. In direct contact with the duodenum e. In contact posteriorly with the 11th and 12th ribs

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The patient was inserted with bronchoscopy, which of the following is the CORRECT order in which the bronchoscopy most likely go through? a. Vestibule, inferior conchae and larynx

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The splenic vein a. Lies in a plane posterior to the plane of the main pancreatic duct b. Lies in the plane posterior to the superior mesenteric artery c. Is contained in the lesser omentum d. Is partly contained in the gastrosplenic ligament e. Runs along the upper border of the pancreas with the splenic artery

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The thyroid hormones thryoxine (T4) and tri-iodothyronine (T3) are a. Transported in the plasma by a binding protein and act via a nuclear receptor b. Transported in the lymph vessels and act on synaptic receptors c. Freely dissolved in the plasma and act via a nuclear receptor d. Freely dissolved in the plasma and act on a cell surface receptor e. Transported in the plasma by a binding protein and act on a cell surface receptor

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There are two different regimes proposed. One of them is a 3-month low calorie diet, while the other involves 3 months of exercise and low calorie diet. The difference between the two was -2.2kg/m2 weight change. The confidence interval for this study was -1.8 to -2.5kg/m2 as. What can you infer from these statements? a. We are 95% confident that the true mean (i.e. the true value of difference) lies between -1.8 and -2.5kg/m2 b. We are 5% confident that the true mean lies between -1.8 and -2.5 kg/m2 c. The study was poor because -2.2kg/m2 is outside the confidence interval

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There is a 1:10 000 risk of inheriting an AD condition. An affected man and an unaffected woman have a baby. What is the chance that the baby will be affected? a. 1:5 000 b. 1:10 000 c. 1: 3 333

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There is a 70% concurrence between monozygotic twins for developing IHD. What does this mean? a. Genetic differences are the biggest cause of difference in risk

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There is an 81 year-old with a confirmed UTI. What lab test results is MOST CONSISTENT with this diagnosis? a. 100*10^6 blood neutrophils, 10^8 sites of colonization of E. coli b. 10^6 blood neutrophils, 10^6 sites of colonization of E. coli c. 10^6 blood lymphocytes, 10^6 sites of colonization of E. coli and Proteus vulgaris d. 100*10^6 blood neutrophils, 10^6 sites of colonization of E. coli

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Treatment of Parkinson's does not affect the natural history of Parkinson's disease BECAUSE the treatment of Parkinson's does not change the underlying pathology. a. Both the assertion and reason are correct and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion b. Both the assertion and reason are correct but the reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion c. The assertion is correct but the reason is false d. The assertion is incorrect but the reason is true e. Both the assertion and reason are incorrect

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Two 17-year-olds, Josh and Joseph took MDMA (ecstasy) tablets whilst at a rave party. Joseph started to feel feverish and febrile. Josh was afraid to contact someone for help, for fear of getting in trouble. Then Joseph died. What is MOST LIKELY to have helped prevent Joseph's death? a. Education about dangers of overheating and dehydration with ecstasy b. If his friend administered large quantities of water to Joseph c. Harsh penalties for drug use at rave parties d. Drug testing at rave parties to find the active ingredients in tablets e. Promoting abstinence from drugs in schools through the 'Say No to Drugs' campaign

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Which ONE of the following vaccine-preventable infections is LEAST LIKELY to present an occupational risk to health-care workers? a. Tetanus b. Hepatitis B virus c. Pertussis d. Measles virus e. Varicella virus

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Type 1 pili are important virulence factors in the pathogenesis of UTI BECAUSE they allow attachment to mono-mannose receptors in the bladder a. Both the assertion and reason are correct and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion b. Both the assertion and reason are correct but the reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion c. The assertion is correct but the reason is false d. The assertion is incorrect but the reason is true e. Both the assertion and reason are incorrect

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What are the 3 things in the unhappy triad a. Medial collateral ligament, medial meniscus, ACL b. Medial collateral ligament, medial meniscus, PCL c. Medial collateral ligament, lateral meniscus, ACL d. lateral collateral ligament, lateral meniscus, PCL e. lateral collateral ligament, lateral meniscus, ACL

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What are the three leading causes of death in low income countries? A. Lower respiratory tract infections, HIV/AIDS diarrhoeal diseases B. Wrong answer including stroke (Eg HIV, stroke, LRTI) C. Diarrhoeal disease, malaria, ischemic heart disease D. LRTI, malaria, diarrhoeal diseases

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What bacterial agent is the MOST COMMON cause of pharyngitis? a. Streptococcus pyogenes b. Haemophilus influenzae c. EBV d. Staphylococcus aureus e. Streptococcus viridans

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What cannot be directly measured via spirometry a. Total lung capacity (TLC) b. Vital capacity (VC) c. Inspiratory residual volume (IRV) d. Forced expiratory volume at one second (FEV1)

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What causes a decrease in plasma oestrogen and progesterone in the late luteal phase? a. Degeneration of the corpus luteum b. An inhibitory effect of LH on the secretory activity of corpus luteum c. An inhibitory effect of FSH on the secretory activity of corpus luteum d. Rupture of the dominant follicle e. Fertilisation of the ovum

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What diagnosis needs to be excluded for conductive hearing loss? A. Ear wax buildup in the external ear canal B. Congenital rubella infection C. Agerelated hearing loss (presbycusis) D. Otosclerosis E. Ototoxic drugs (damage the cochlea)

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What does ACE inhibitor NOT do in heart failure? A. Have an inotropic effect on the heart B. Inhibit conversion of AngI to AngII C. Reduce levels of aldosterone D. Target the compensatory mechanisms the heart does in response to heart failure E. Block vasoconstrictor effects of AngII on vessels

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What does the neurohypophysis do? a. Stores ADH b. Produces oxytocin c. Stores LH d. Secretes GH e. Secretes FSH

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What does the posterior inferior cerebellar artery (PICA) supply? a. Inferior cerebellar peduncle b. Red nucleus c. Oculomotor nucleus d. Hypoglossal nucleus e. Medial lemniscus

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What factor(s) can distinguish between fast and slow skeletal muscle fibres? a. Speed of myosin ATPase and density of internal calcium stores in the sarcoplasmic reticulum b. Cross-sectional diameter c. Elasticity of endomysium d. Organisation of mitochondria in relation to myofibrils e. The difference in the number of t-tubules per sarcomere in fast- and slow-twitch

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What features CANNOT be palpated in the per rectal exam? a. Tumours in the vesico-uterine pouch b. Cervix when in the normal position c. Seminal vesicles d. The prostate e. The recto-uterine pouch

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What happens to alveolar PCO2 when alveolar ventilation is halved and CO2 production is kept constant? a. PCO2 doubles b. PCO2 halved c. PCO2 unchanged d. PCO2 is 0.693

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What is CORRECT about compound action potentials? a. Amplitude decreases the greater distance from the stimulus b. They are all-or-nothing c. Latency is due to average speed of the different nerves d. There is no refractory period as it is a compound potential

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What is most important in terms of a highly sensitive diagnostic test/definition for surveillance: a. Missing the case could lead to fatal outcome b. When the disease is rare c. N/A d. Prevalence is fluctuating e. Prevalence is unknown

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What is the MAIN reason for unsuccessful implementation of electronic medical systems? a. Source of potential error, clinical resistance, unexpected outcomes

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What is the MOST COMMON cause of UTIs? a. E. coli

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What is the MOST EFFECTIVE drug for depression? a. SSRIs b. Tricyclic anti-depressants

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What is the correct order of transmission at the neuromuscular junction? A. Na channels open, Ca channels open, vesicle transported to pre-synaptic terminal, neurotransmitters interact with receptors, action potential in muscle fibre

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What is the correct sequence in PCR? i. Denature template ii. Anneal oligonucleotide primers iii. Allow DNA polymerase to rebuild two copies of DNA a. i, ii, iii b. i, iii, ii c. ii, iii, i d. ii, i, iii e. iii, ii, i

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What is the most common complaint of female sexual dysfunction? A. Inability to reach orgasm B. Lack of sexual drive C. Painful intercourse D. Vaginismus

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What is the position of the foetal head in the second stage of delivery? a. Faces the ischial spine / sacrum / rectum b. Faces anteriorly c. Faces laterally to the right d. Faces laterally to the left e. Faces anterolaterally

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What makes myelinated and unmyelinated axons different? a. The depolarization jumps from one node to another b. Myelination increases the internal resistance of the axon

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What most correctly describes baby fat? a. Brown adipose tissue is required for heat production b. White fat is involved in the chemogenesis of heat c. Shivering helps to keep the baby warm

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What structure supports the uterus? a. Broad ligament b. Uterine ligament c. Ovarian ligament

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What, according to Erik Erikson (German developmental psychologist), is the MOST IMPORTANT attribute for a child to develop in the first 12 months? a. Basic trust b. Making specific emotional responses to facial expressions c. Recognizing father d. Learning to smile e. Looking endearing

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Where would the most appropriate place be to transect the ductus deferens for a vasectomy? A. Lower spermatic cord B. Deep to the inguinal ring C. Inguinal canal D. At the tail of the epididymis E. At the base of the pubis

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Which 1 of the following is included in the Helsinki Declaration of principles regarding medical research and human trials/experimentation? A. In the study, the needs of the individual are prioritised over the research study B. Studies with human trials must always state their ?parameters?? Clearly as part of the research process C. The importance of the research always outweighs the needs of the individual D. In some cases, we can overlook risks(?) of the individuals if it contributes so a significantly more useful result E. In compromised patients that are unable to give full consent to participate in the study, a qualified physician is allowed to make the decision on their behalf

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Which ONE of the following BEST DESCRIBES the role of the ileocaecal sphincter? a. To prevent backflow in excretion b. Prevent entrance of bacteria into ileum

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Which ONE of the following about GIT embryology is TRUE? a. All 3 layers (mesoderm, endoderm and ectoderm) contribute to GIT formation

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Which ONE of the following description of cell organelle functions is MOST ACCURATE? a. Endoplasmic reticulum occurs in two distinct functional types b. The lysosome is the major vesicle of cell secretion c. The Golgi apparatus is the site of protein synthesis d. The nucleus is the compartment where protein synthesis occurs e. Peroxisomes are the vesicles of transport between endoplasmic reticulum and Golgi apparatus

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Which ONE of the following descriptions MOST accurately characterises the skin condition shown in the photo below? [Psoriasis] a. Scaling plaques b. Scaling papules c. Lichenified annular patches d. Flaking erythematous nodules e. Excoriated erythematous macules

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Which ONE of the following drugs is used to treat drug dependence because of its ability to reduce withdrawal symptoms A. Clonidine B. Methadone C. Buprenorphine D. Acamprosate E. Naltrexone

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Which ONE of the following is CORRECT about ivIg? a. It can be used to treat certain autoimmune diseases b. IgG has a short half-life, so it has to be given twice a week c. It has no role in B-cell deficiencies d. It is provided from the plasma of a single donor

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Which ONE of the following is MOST CORRECT? a. Dartos and cremasteric muscles are involved in thermoregulation of the testis

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Which ONE of the following is NOT a feature of an alveolus? a. Many goblet cells producing mucous b. Simple squamous epithelium c. Elastic fibres d. Site of gas exchange e. Some pneumocytes producing surfactant

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Which ONE of the following is NOT correct about the acetabulum? a. It is completely covered by the articular cartilage

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Which ONE of the following is the MOST LIKELY cause of infections in diabetic men? a. Reduced phagocytic action b. Most likely a viral infection c. Fungal infections being the most fatal

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Which ONE of the following is the universal cellular metabolic process in the cytoplasm of the cell whereby a 6-carbon glucose molecule is split into two 3-carbon pyruvate molecules? a. Glycolysis b. Respiration c. Oxidative phosphorylation d. TCA cycle e. Chemiosmosis

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Which ONE of the following muscles is a powerful adductor of the arm? a. Pectoralis major b. Triceps brachii c. Deltoid d. Supraspinatus e. Trapezius

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Which ONE of the following statements BEST DESCRIBES the development of tolerance to the effects of a drug? a. The dose of a drug must be increased to maintain a given effect b. A response of unusually large magnitude is produced by a normal dose c. A patient experiences withdrawal symptoms if the drug is not given at regular intervals d. An unusual type of response is produced by a drug e. The patient is unable to tolerate a normal dose of drug

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Which ONE of the following statements BEST DESCRIBES the time period within which ORGANOGENESIS occurs? a. The post-conceptual first eight weeks b. Second trimester where there is rapid growth of organs c. Third trimester when organs differentiate and begin to function d. The period in which the blastocyst turns into an embryoblast e. The first trimester where an embryo develops into a foetus

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Which ONE of the following statements MOST ACCURATELY describes the intrinsic activity or efficacy of a drug? A) It is related to its maximal agonist effect B) It is a measure of potency C) it is related to its affinity for a receptor site D) It is the negative logarithm of the concentration producing half the max response E) It is restricted to describing antagonists

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Which ONE of the following statements MOST CORRECTLY describes the main anatomical characteristics of the ANS? a. CNS connected to the periphery by two neurons arranged in series with peripheral ganglia b. CNS connected to the periphery by two neurons c. CNS connected to the periphery by two neurons arranged in series d. A single neuron connecting the CNS to the periphery e. CNS connected to the periphery through one neuron interacting with peripheral ganglia

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Which ONE of the following statements about neuropeptides is INCORRECT? a. No reuptake into vesicles b. Good potential future drug targets c. Neuropeptide Y is related to feeding d. Substance P is related to depression e. Neuropeptides in CNS are also found in GIT

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Which ONE of the following statements is MOST CORRECT about the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis during development? a. During childhood the ovaries and testes are quiescent b. In the neonatal period the levels of sex steroids are low c. The hypothalamus does not contain GnRH until puberty is reached d. When GnRH secretion begins at puberty, it initially occurs during the day e. Removal of the ovaries in childhood causes LH and FSH to increase to high levels

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Which ONE of the following statements is MOST CORRECT? a. A decreased GABA tone is associated with pubertal development b. There is an increase in GnRH in puberty c. The age of puberty has increased over the last century d. Early puberty occurs in girls with anorexia e. The hypothalamic-pituitary axis displays an increased sensitivity to sex steroids in puberty

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Which ONE of the following would involve the sympathetic nervous system? a. Pupil dilation b. Decreased heart rate c. Increased secretion by stomach glands d. Increased intestinal motility e. Production of sperm cells

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Which bone is part of the axial skeleton? a. Hyoid b. Scapula c. Hip bone d. Scaphoid e. Phalanx

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Which feature of the stroma around tumours is LEAST CORRECT? a. The stroma is made by the tumour cells b. New blood vessels grow into the tumour c. Stroma gives cancers their characteristic 'hard' feeling d. In tumours of epithelial origin, stroma is only associated with them once they invade the lamina propria

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Which is INCORRECT for the pharmacotherapy of heart failure? a. Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors are safe for pregnant women b. Aldosterone antagonist spironolactone has shown to have beneficial effects c. Beta-agonists are used in the short-term, and for acute severe cardiac failure d. Candesartan showed improved benefits / lower mortality rates when used with other standard drug therapy e. Carvedilol is a non-selective alpha- and beta-adrenoceptor antagonist f. Digoxin inhibits membrane Na+/K+/ATPase to increase contractility h. Dobutamine is used in acute cardiac failure

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Which is MOST CORRECT about the difference between influenza and the common cold? a. Influenza is a systemic infection while the common cold is a local infection b. Influenza occurs year round while common cold more seasonal c. Rapid recovery is more common in influenza than in common cold d. Common cold is due to one virus, influenza is caused by many e. Common cold binds to cell receptors whereas flu does not

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Which is MOST CORRECT regarding adaptive immunity? a. Langerhans cells take antigens from skin, migrate through lymphatics to lymph nodes b. CD4 T cells are cytotoxic c. CD8 helper cells activate macrophages / CD8 cells mediate immune responses d. Th2 cells release IgG

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Which is MOST correct? a. Flow is proportional to difference in pressure at inlet and outlet of vessel b. Capillaries is site of greatest drop in resistance c. Flow is proportional to resistance d. Resistance is equal to conductance of a vessel

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Which is most correct in immunocompromised patients? A) Opportunistic infections are common in HIV+ people when their CD4+ T cell count is below 500 cells/ul B) C) predisposed to breast, lung, lymph carcinoma D) E) Candida albicans rarely affects the mouth

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Which is the LEAST COMMON cause of erectile dysfunction? a. Hypotension b. Cholesterol c. Waist circumference d. Diabetes mellitus e. Hypertension

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Which of the following about the gluteus maximus muscles is MOST CORRECT? a. It attaches to the iliotibial tract b. It is supplied by sciatic nerve c. Paralysis of the muscle results in inability to extend the thigh d. It is an important stabilizer of the pelvis in walking e. It arises from the surface of the ilium between the anterior and posterior gluteal lines f. is used to transport acetylcholine to fill the vesicles to be released at the NM

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Which of the following are anterior relations of the left kidney? a. Stomach, small intestines, spleen b. Spleen, liver, stomach c. Stomach, spleen, second part of duodenum d. Ascending colon, pancreas, spleen e. Pancreas head and bile duct

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Which of the following best describes public health surveillance? A. A system for monitoring disease occurrence B. A policy decision making tool C. A method for collecting health information

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Which of the following biological theories for ageing is INCORRECT? a. Telomere lengthening b. Oxidative stress c. Accumulation of DNA damage d. Genetic susceptibility e. Mitochondrial and calorie restriction? (not sure if this was an option)

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Which of the following contributes most significantly to the clinical symptoms of a bronchial carcinoma A. Growth into airways and lumen B. Infiltration into lung tissue C. Metastasis to liver D. Metastasis to bone E. Excretion of hormones by cancer cells

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Which of the following has been proven as preventing the largest amount of HIV infections. A. Consistent male condom use B. Treatment of STIs C. Vaginal application of antiretroviral microbicides in women who are at risk of HIV infection D. ARV therapy for HIV negative homosexual males E. Initiating early ARV therapy for HIV positive partners in heterosexual

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Which of the following has the GREATEST effect on the amplitude measured at the post-synaptic terminal? a. Location of the synapse b. Number of post-synaptic GABA metabotropic receptors c. Number of vesicles at the pre-synaptic terminal d. Concentration of Ca2+ at post-synaptic terminal e. Number of post-synaptic glutamate ionotropic receptors

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Which of the following is CORRECT about TB? a. Few patients develop post-progressive TB

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Which of the following is CORRECT about benign paroxysmal positional vertigo? a. The deposition of the otolithic bodies in the utricle and saccule into the canals b. Constant feeling of dizziness and vertigo c. Continuous stimulation of the hair cells d. Leads to hearing loss

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Which of the following is CORRECT concerning influenza? a. Antigenic shift is associated with pandemics b. Antigenic shift occurs more often than antigenic drift c. Antigenic drift is associated with a change in the antigenicity of neuraminidase receptors d. Antigenic drift is associated with a change in the antigenicity of haemagglutinin and neuraminidase receptors

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Which of the following is CORRECT regarding the CSF composition in viral meningitis? a. Increased leukocytes, normal glucose and increased protein levels b. Increased leukocytes, increased glucose and increased protein levels c. Increased neutrophils, increased glucose and increased protein levels d. Normal leukocytes, increased glucose and increased protein levels e. Increased neutrophils, normal glucose and decreased protein levels

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Which of the following is CORRECT regarding the histology of the skin? a. It contains Pacinian corpuscles that detect coarse touch and vibration b. It contains an avascular dermal layer c. It contains Meissner corpuscles that detect changes in temperature d. It has sweat glands which form a waterproof layer e. It has an epidermal layer called the stratum lucidum, which is only present in thin skin

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Which of the following is INCORRECT about osteoporosis? a. It is diagnosed by observation of less dense bones on a scan b. Bone mineral density of less than or equal to 2.5 standard deviations below that of a young adult reference population c. Can be seen from radiograph

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Which of the following is INCORRECT regarding advance directives? A. Guardianship can make medical decisions when the patient has capacity. B. Guardianship can make decisions about accommodation when the patient does not have capacity. C. Power of attorney must be decided when the patient has capacity. D. Power of attorney can make financial decisions when the patient does not have capacity. E. Guardianship can make medical decisions when the patient does not have capacity.

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Which of the following is INCORRECT regarding genetic haemochromatosis? a. Presence of a genetic defect (homozygous C282Y) is diagnostic for haemochromatosis b. High transferrin levels has low specificity for haemochromatosis in a clinical setting c. High transferrin saturation is one of the earliest signs d. Low serum ferritin makes diagnosis of haemochromatosis extremely unlikely e. Serum iron is generally normal or elevated

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Which of the following is LEAST CORRECT about neuropeptides? a. Their concentration is 10x that of other neurotransmitters in tissues b. They can have either excitatory of inhibitory effects c. They are modulated by G-protein coupled receptors d. They have slower turnover than neurotransmitters e. They act slower than neurotransmitters

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Which of the following is LEAST CORRECT regarding maternal mortality? a. Haemorrhage, puerperal sepsis and eclampsia are the main causes of maternal mortality b. Eclampsia is a cause of maternal morbidity in developed countries c. Maternal mortality is NOT a sensitive indicator of the health care system in Australia d. Maternal mortality is a sensitive indicator of the health care system in developing countries

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Which of the following is LEAST CORRECT regarding the pathophysiology of oliguria in acute kidney injury / acute tubular necrosis? a. Inflamed glomerulus leading to increased surface area b. Intrarenal vasoconstriction affecting afferent arterioles c. Epithelial cell debris can form proteinaceous cast, which can prevent any glomerular filtrate from reaching the renal collecting system d. Backleak e. Sublethal endothelial injury which leads to the release of the vasoconstrictor substance endothelin

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Which of the following is MOST CORRECT about increased levels of the hormone progesterone? a. Associated with the luteal phase of the curve

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Which of the following is MOST CORRECT about lymphocyte development? a. T cells with receptors that bind to self-antigens are destroyed in the thymus b. NK cell receptors undergo genetic rearrangement in bone marrow c. CD4 AND 8 are only made once they ender the lymph nodes

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Which of the following is MOST CORRECT about the cervical PAP smear? a. Samples from cells in the transformational zone are most accurate b. Australian guidelines recommend that sexually active women be screened once per year c. It is unnecessary because of the cervical cancer vaccine, Gardasil d. It is unable to detect neoplastic change

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Which of the following is MOST CORRECT about the pancreatic trypsin inhibitor? a. It is a molecule that binds to trypsin and inhibits its action b. It actively digests proteins c. It is an analogue of trypsinogen d. It prevents activation of trypsinogen from trypsin e. It is a non-protein substrate analogue that binds tightly at the active site

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Which of the following is MOST CORRECT regarding the hippocampal formation? a. Bilateral lesion may result in anterograde amnesia b. It is located in the parietal lobe c. It is the first structure to degenerate in Parkinson's disease d. It is involved in the consolidation of procedural memory e. It is part of the neocortex

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Which of the following is MOST TRUE regarding surfactant? a. It is decreased in areas with less blood flow b. It decreases lung compliance c. It causes small airways to collapse d. It is secreted by Type 1 alveolar cells

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Which of the following is NOT a cause of short stature? a. Marfan's syndrome b. Achondroplasia c. Turner's syndrome d. Down syndrome e. Hypothyroidism

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Which of the following is NOT a mechanism by which bacterium acquires resistance to an antibiotic? a. Integration b. Transposons c. Plasmids d. Point mutations e. Multiple mutations

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Which of the following is NOT needed at the pre-synaptic membrane? a. Ligand-gated receptors b. Voltage gated sodium channels c. Voltage gated calcium channels d. Vesicles e. SNARE proteins such as V-snare and T-snare proteins

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Which of the following is NOT true about the cerebellum? a. The primary fissure separates the flocculonodular lobe from the anterior lobe b. Fastigial nucleus is the most medial nucleus c. Dentate nucleus is the most lateral nucleus

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Which of the following is TRUE about central chemoreceptors? a. They detect change of pH in the CSF b. They detect changes in CO2 in the CSF c. They detect changes in O2 in the blood d. They are NOT responsible for minute to minute control of ventilation e. They are located in the pons

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Which of the following is TRUE about clavulanic acid? a. Inhibits ß-lactamase b. Alters the target receptor c. Inhibits cell wall synthesis d. Inhibits penicillin-binding protein e. Inhibits transpeptidases and carboxypeptidases

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Which of the following is correct about the female pelvic outlet? a. It has an outlet bound by the sacrotuberous ligament and the ischiopubic rami b. It has a heart-shaped cavity c. It has a smaller subpubic angle than the male pelvis d. The transverse diameter is the widest e. The anterior wall is larger than the posterior wall

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Which of the following is most correct about Gonorrhea? A. intracellular obligate B. Most common cause of Joint infection in sexually active adults C. Watery vaginal discharge D. Causes vaginal thrush E. Gram negative rods

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Which of the following is most useful in diagnosing asthma? a. Clinical symptoms b. Reaction from histamine c. Presence of eosinophils d. e. Subepithelial fibrosis

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Which of the following is the MOST CORRECT regarding the adaptive immune system? a. It leads to the generation of a memory response b. It involves toll-like receptors c. It occurs in response to PAMPs d. It occurs immediately after the stimulus e. It is antigen independent

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Which of the following is the MOST IMPORTANT in the pathological diagnosis of a malignant tumour? a. Microanatomical invasion b. Differentiation c. Mitotic figure d. Abnormal growth

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Which of the following mechanisms underlie the fibrinolytic drug therapy in the management of acute strokes? a. Plasminogen → plasmin, which in turn dissolves fibrin clots.

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Which of the following options regarding pharmacokinetics is INCORRECT? a. Maintenance dose does not involve steady state concentration b. Bioavailability is not included for clearance c. Loading dose helps achieve steady state concentration faster

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Which of the following produces the MOST circulating antibodies? a. Long-lived plasma cells in the bone marrow b. Activated B-cells in the germinal centres c. Short-lived plasma cells in the secondary lymphoid tissue d. Plasma B-cells on mucosal surfaces e. Naïve B-cells

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Which of the following regarding HIV / AIDS is LEAST CORRECT? a. The Berlin patient was the only case of HIV being cured with HIV combination therapy b. AIDS occurs 7-8 years after HIV infection c. Increase in HIV treatment is associated with a decrease in HIV transmission d. Most current drugs work on reverse transcriptase e. Once on treatment, it is recommended not to stop therapy

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Which of the following shows the correct sequence of oxygen tension from highest to lowest a. Umbilical vein → foramen ovale → carotid artery → ductus arteriosus b. Ductus arteriosus → carotid artery → foramen ovale → umbilical vein c. Umbilical artery → carotid artery → ductus arteriosus → umbilical vein

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Which of the following statements about dead space is MOST CORRECT? a. Dead space can be measured using Bohr's method which uses CO2 values from expired and alveolar air b. Dead space can be measured using Fowler's method which measures expired CO2 in a valvebox when the person is continuously breathing c. The value of the physiological dead space is less than the anatomical dead space in patients with obstructive airway disorder d. Dead space can be measured using body plethysmography and then applying Boyle's law.

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Which of the following statements are TRUE? a. Stability of the joint mainly depends on the muscles that attach to the tubercles of the humerus

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Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. Tolerance develops because of changes in receptors and secondary messenger pathways

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Which of the following statements is MOST INCORRECT about virtue ethics? a. Honesty, greed and pride are examples of virtues b. Virtue ethics are still widely practised nowadays c. Virtue ethics are flawed because even virtuous intentions doesn't stop actions from being criminal d. Virtue ethics consist of good characters which produce the positive outcomes e. Ideal excellence and dedication are important to practise virtues with humanity

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Which of the following statements regarding cirrhosis is MOST CORRECT? a. It is an end-stage reaction pattern by the liver to various injurious agents b. In the setting of alcohol damage, there is a macronodular appearance c. The liver is enlarged d. T is a consequence of fibrosis within the liver e. It is characterized by necrosis of the hepatocytes

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Which of the following statements regarding lymphadenopathy is MOST CORRECT? a. Reactive hyperplasia is the most common cause of lymphadenopathy b. Auto-immune diseases result in sinus histiocytosis, which causes stony hard lymph nodes to be tethered together c. Hodgkin's lymphoma is the most common form of primary malignancy to lymph nodes d. General lymphadenitis is most likely caused by pyogenic bacteria e. Diagnosis made by cell sample

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Which of the following statements regarding the space of Disse is LEAST CORRECT? a. It lies between two plates of hepatocytes b. It is difficult to see under a light microscope c. It contains stellate cells (of Ito) d. It is separated from the sinusoid by fenestrated endothelium e. In a liver with cirrhosis it fills with fibrous deposits

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Which of the following tissues normally dependent on aerobic glucose catabolism to produce ATP under normal conditions? A. Brain B. Heart C. Liver D. Red blood cells E. Adipose tissue

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Which of these antibiotics are used to treat non-pregnant women with UTI? a. Trimethoprim, amoxycillin/clavulanate, nitrofurantoin, cephalexin b. Incorrect answer - combo of some correct ones, and gentamicin c. Incorrect answer - combo of some correct ones, and ampicillin

A

Which of these correctly describes the mechanism of action of the drug sildenafil? A. Inhibits PDE-5, which increases cGMP, leading to lower levels of intracellular calcium and smooth muscle relaxation B. Agonist at muscarinic receptors to... C. Activates Rho kinase, which... D. Binds to alpha adrenergic receptor... E. Increases the number of gap junctions...

A

Which of these factors is LEAST likely to lead to a post-operative infection? a. A shorter pre-operative stay b. Presence of another infection c. Presence of foreign bodies d. Gastrointestinal surgery e. Presence of necrotic material

A

Which of these is the LEAST LIKELY way for HIV to be transmitted? a. Sharing of saliva b. Unprotected heterosexual sex c. Contaminated blood transfusion d. Needle-stick injury

A

Which of these is the MOST COMMON causes of delirium in the elderly? a. Infection, medication side-effects, electrolyte imbalance b. Infection, medication side effects, stroke c. Heart attack, cancer, subdural haematoma d. Dementia, alcohol abuse, medication side-effects e. Alcohol abuse, infection, medication overdose

A

Which one is MOST CORRECT regarding tuberculosis? a. It is characterised by necrotising granulomatous inflammation b. Typical lesions are formed in response to the antibody-mediated immune response c. Apical pulmonary TB is typical of progressive primary disease d. The skeleton is the most common site of extra-pulmonary disease e. Diagnosis of TB is primary by serology

A

Which one laboratory test should the GP order to determine the aetiological agent of Catherine's diarrhoea A. Reverse transcription polymerase chain reaction (RTPCR) of faecal sample B. Enzyme Immunoassay (EIA) of blood sample C. Iodine staining of faecal sample D. Culture of faecal sample on MacConkey's agar E. Direct fluorescent antibody staining of faecal sample

A

Which one of the following best corresponds with the doctrine of double effect? a. An action causing a foreseeable harm as a side effect is permissible when aiming for a good end / The doctor's intention to treat is the most important

A

Which one of the following does myosin bind to? a. Actin b. Microtubules c. Calcium d. Neurofilaments

A

Which one of the following is true for EEGs in various sleep states a. Waking: unsynchronized, Stage 4: synchronized delta waves; REM: desynchronized

A

Which one of the following statement is CORRECT regarding antihypertensive treatment? a. Nifedipine blocks L-type calcium channels b. Propranolol exerts its antihypertensive action in the medulla of the brain c. Enalapril may reduce the plasma concentration of potassium d. Prazosin is an alpha-adrenoceptor agonist e. Losartan lowers blood pressure by blocking angiotensin converting enzyme

A

Which one of the following statements regarding Ca2+ channels within cardiac muscle is MOST CORRECT? a. Plateau following depolarization is due to the slow Ca2+ channels b. Cardiac muscle cells have a fibre length of 200nm c. Activation of the sympathetic nervous system causes hyperpolarization of cardiac cells

A

Which one of these about the cervix is CORRECT? a. Squamous cell metaplasia occurs in the transformation zone b. The transitional zone is fixed throughout life c. Proximal end of cervical canal is the external os d. Cervical erosion indicates CIN e. Cervical cancer is identified by a drop in the N:C ratio

A

Which one of these about the cervix is correct? a. Squamous cell metaplasia in the transformation zone b. The transitional zone is fixed throughout life c. Proximal end of cervical canal is the external os d. Cervical erosion indicates CIN e. Cervical cancer is identified by a drop in the N:C ratio

A

Which statement concerning CIN 1 is MOST CORRECT? a. CIN 1 corresponds to LSIL in cytology b. If CIN 1 is diagnosed, Pap smear should be repeated in 6 months

A

Which statement is NOT correct about osteoporosis? a. Defective mineralization causes osteoporosis b. Osteoclastic activity increases c. Osteoblastic activity decreases

A

Which statement is most correct regarding foetal circulation a. Descending aorta has lower PO2 than ascending aorta

A

Which statement is true regard STPD, BTPS and ATPS? A. At STPD, water pressure is 0 B. At BTPS, lung pressure is 760 mmHg C. At STPD, air temperature is at 20 C D. At ATPS, 1 mol of gas is equal to 22.4 L E. B in BTPS stands for barometric pressure

A

Why is carbidopa always used in combination with levodopa? a. To reduce side-effects of levodopa b. To increase peripheral dopamine production c. To decrease peripheral production

A

With regard to atropine overdose, which ONE of these is the BEST course of action? a. Physostagmine b. Gastric surgery of some sort c. Nothing

A

With regard to fluoxetine, which of the following statements is MOST correct? a. It blocks serotonin reuptake by inhibiting the action of SERT b. It is a tricyclic antidepressant c. The effects of the drug can be felt immediately d. It inhibits monoamine oxidase e. It blocks the action of noradrenaline

A

With regard to gastroenteritis, which of the following is INCORRECT? a. Norovirus is not associated with the epidemics of gastroenteritis b. Central duodenal villi are preferentially affected by gastroenteritis c. Lactose intolerance is a common complication of gastroenteritis d. Adenovirus 40, 41 are associated with the human virus e. Viruses are more likely to cause gastrointestinal disorders compared to bacteria

A

With regard to mumps, which of the following statements is / are CORRECT? a. Mumps typically cause swelling of the parotid gland b. Mumps is typically more serious in children than adults c. Mumps is caused by a parvovirus d. Primary replication of the causative agent of mumps occurs in the lower respiratory tract

A

With regard to non-neoplastic lymphadenopathy, which ONE of the following is MOST CORRECT? a. B-cell proliferation with local reaction b. T-cell proliferation with general reaction c. Macrophage proliferation with virus d. Sinus histiocytosis

A

With regard to slow waves, which ONE of the following statements is MOST CORRECT? a. Increase in slow waves corresponds to increased cytoplasmic Na+

A

With regard to the developing thyroid gland, which ONE of the following statements is INCORRECT? a. It first appears as a median ectodermal thickening b. It lies initially on the floor of the pharynx c. It forms between pharyngeal arches 1 and 2 d. It is required for normal neural development e. The pathway of descent is the thyroglossal duct

A

With regard to the expression of genes, which ONE of the following alternatives BEST DESCRIBES transcription? a. The process whereby messenger RNA is synthesised on a DNA template b. The process whereby proteins are transported to the appropriate cellular organelle c. The process whereby DNA is synthesised on a DNA template d. The process whereby DNA is transported into the cell cytoplasm e. The process whereby polypeptides are synthesised from a messenger RNA template

A

With regard to the following statement about blood histology, select the MOST CORRECT answer. Erythrocytes a. Do not possess any cellular organelles or nucleus b. Have an average lifespan of 300 days c. Transport nitrogen d. Are eventually destroyed in the lymph nodes

A

With regard to the pathogenesis of pneumonia, which ONE of the following statements is MOST CORRECT? a. Influenza predisposes to bacterial pneumonia b. Bacterial pneumonia predisposes to tuberculous pneumonia c. Legionnaire's disease occurs in epidemics due to person-to-person spread d. Pyogenic bacteria cause atypical pneumonia e. Pyogenic bacterial pneumonia occurs in epidemics due to person-to-person spread

A

With regard to the pressure-volume loop of the left ventricle: a. The top-left corner represents aortic valve closure b. The right hand vertical line represents isovolumetric relaxation c. The bottom-right corner represents tricuspid valve closure d. The vertical height represents stroke volume e. The horizontal difference represents cardiac output

A

With regard to the respiratory exchange ratio (R), which ONE of the following statements is MOST CORRECT? a. It is normally 0.8 b. It is higher at the base compared to the apex of the lung c. It is calculated via O2 consumption divided by CO2 output d. It is 0.7 when the intake is purely carbohydrates e. It can be determined by helium dilution

A

With regard to the sliding filament theory of muscles, which of the following is correct? a. Myosin cross-bridges interact with specific sites on actin molecules b. Cross-bridges have an unlimited range of movements c. Cross-bridges are activated once every cycle d. 2 ATP molecules are used per cycle e. 4 ATP molecules are used per cycle

A

With regard to the toad ECG graph below, fill in the blanks. "The first line on the graph shows the ___ waves. The second line on the graph shows the ___ waves, which ___ the waves in the first line of the graph." a. Mechanical, electrical, precedes b. Mechanical, electrical, follows c. Electrical, mechanical, precedes d. Electrical, mechanical, follows

A

With regard to tonsillar tissue, which ONE of the following is MOST CORRECT? a. Non-encapsulated and is under the epithelial layer b. Tonsillar tissue has a capsule c. Something about white pulp and red pulp d. Has reticular cells, capsule and something else e. Is encapsulated and has different areas differentiated as red and white

A

With regards to prevention strategies for high-risk patients, as compared to population-based prevention strategies, which of the following is MOST CORRECT? a. They target a sub-group of patients b. They are more likely to address the social determinants of health c. They are likely to have lower costs for screening d. They are likely to have an unfavourable benefit-risk ratio e. They are likely to provide low motivation for patients

A

Working memory and recall memory use which part(s) of the brain? a. Prefrontal only b. Hippocampus only c. Temporal only d. Recall memory in prefrontal and working memory in temporal lobe e. Recall memory in prefrontal and working memory in hippocampus

A

Your overweight cousin (24-year-old female, BMI of 29) has been following a sensible low-fat and low-calorie diet for 3 months. In the first 2 months on the diet, she lost weight every week. However, now her weight has stabilized, despite the fact that she is continuing the same diet. She still wants to lose more weight. Which ONE of the following statements regarding this scenario is LEAST CORRECT? a. Levels of insulin and glucocorticoids decrease during starvation b. The starvation response makes it harder to lose weight by decreasing the propensity to physical activity c. The human body is designed to prevent weight loss It is normal to stop losing weight after being on a diet for a while

A

Which of the following is NOT a feature of osteoarthritis? a. Vertical and horizontal fissures in articular cartilage b. Hypertrophy and thickening of the cartilage c. Hyperplasia and clumping of chondrocytes d. Subchondral sclerosis e. Bony growths and the joint margin

B

Which of the following is NOT a feature of the floor of the oral cavity? a. Opening of the submandibular duct b. Opening of parotid gland c. Sublingual fold d. Base of lingual frenulum e. Sublingual papilla

B

Embryo question about what origin of smooth muscle and connective tissue of GIT? A. Somatic mesoderm that becomes connective tissue and later smooth muscles B. Lateral plate mesoderm that becomes splanchnic mesoderm C. The structure is a product of folding in the trilaminar embryo

B

Which of the following is NOT a primary pharmacological intervention for stroke? a. Statins b. Osmotic agents c. Hypoglycaemic drugs d. Anti-hypertensives e. Anti-platelets

B

Which of the following is NOT one of the six adaptations typical of a cancer cell? a. Ability to evade apoptosis b. Ability to control growth hormone c. Ability to control growth hormone receptor d. Ability to divide indefinitely e. Tissue invasion and metastases

B

A patient presents with paralysis and hemianaesthesia in their left upper limb, left face and trunk. Which artery is MOST LIKELY to be affected? a. Left anterior cerebral artery b. Right middle cerebral artery c. Right posterior cerebral artery d. Left middle cerebral artery e. Right anterior cerebral artery

B

A patient was infused with glucose to maintain a blood glucose level of 20 mmol/L. GFR was 100 mL/min. Urine flow rate was 3 mL/min. Urine glucose was 100 mmol/L. What is the estimated tubular maximum? a. 0.3 mmol/min b. 1.7 mmol/min c. 1.7 mmol/L d. 2.0 mmol/min e. 2.3 mmol/min

B

Which of the following is true about the TRPV1 (vanilloid) receptor? a. It is a G-coupled protein receptor b. It is stimulated by cold c. It is a non-selective cation channel d. It is in all A fibres e. It is in all C fibres

C

(Photo of sagittal section of breast tissue given, showing metastatic carcinoma marked A with secondary cancer marked B in underlying structure. Tumour lies in the centre of breast, right behind nipple, retracting it). From observing the diagram, which ONE of the following statements is LEAST CORRECT? a. The lesion marked A has caused nipple retraction of the breast b. When palpated lesion A is firm and highly mobile c. The structure on the right (B) is secondary to the lesion marked A d. It is likely that lesion A may have spread to lymph nodes in the axilla e. The invasion of lesion marked A into the chest wall will have fatal consequences

B

25-year-old man has carcinoma and endoscopy reveals that he has several hundred polyps of sizes 3 to 20 mm in the colon. What is the pre-disposing factor? a. Ulcerating colitis b. Familial adenomatous polyposis c. HNPCC d. IBD e. Hereditary polyposis carcinoma

B

5-year-old girl presents with headache, neck stiffness and photophobia. She is diagnosed with meningitis but has no raised intracranial pressure. Gram staining showed Gram-negative diplococci. Which of the following is the MOST LIKELY organism? a. Streptococcus pyogenes b. Haemophilus influenzae

B

A 2-week-old male infant came into ED due to poor feeding and weight loss. He was then being assessed and diagnosed with Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia (CAH). The infant is genetically female and the CAH is due to 21-hydroxylase deficiency. By using the new paradigm of thinking, which of the following approach is the MOST CORRECT? a. Early decision and treatment, involving discussion with the patient's family to avoid child and family trauma b. Defer treatment, wait until the patient is capable to involve in decision-making c. Make decision with the help of a multidisciplinary team, including endocrinologist, psychiatrist and social worker etc. d. Perform early surgery before puberty to prevent psychological issues e. Identify the patient as 'psychological emergency', ensure the child and family are getting adequate psychological support

B

A 30-year-old woman is heterozygous for an X-linked disease and expresses a mild disease phenotype. Her husband also has the disease and expresses a full disease phenotype. Regarding their likely offspring, which of the following statements is MOST CORRECT? a. All male offspring will be affected b. 50% of all females will express mild disease phenotype c. 25% of children will be affected d. 50% of males will express mild disease phenotype e. All children will be affected

B

A 35-year-old male presents to your general practice with bright red bleeding in his stool and diarrhoea. After an examination, he is only found to have haemorrhoids, and he has no family history of colorectal cancer. What is the best course of action? a. Reassure him that it is only haemorrhoids and to return if the symptoms persist b. Refer him for assessment with colonoscopy c. Barium meal d. Barium enema e. Advise him to take his anti-diarrhoeal medications

B

A 44 year old man comes to you after being bitten by a pet rat. As his GP, you prescribe him a tetanus toxoid booster to boost his antibody production. He had had a tetanus vaccine when he was 18. Which one of the following is most correct? A. He will not get sick because he will have antibodies in circulation from his previous vaccination B. Plasma cells will proliferate and clone themselves for tetanus specific cells C. Class switching of B cells will occur outside the germinal centre D. His response before the booster would still be better than had he not been vaccinated at all E. Tetanus vaccine induced antibodies bind to same site to toxoid as the tetanus toxin

B

A 55-year old man who has smoked a packet of cigarettes per day for over 30 years complains of increasing breathlessness. Which of the following best explains this? a. Increased work of breathing due to bronchial obstruction b. Impaired gas exchange because of loss of alveolar surface area c. Impaired gas exchange because of poor diffusion d. Impaired alveolar ventilation because of loss of elastic recoil e. Impaired alveolar blood flow because of pulmonary hypertension

B

A 55-year-old man presents with cough, productive of yellowish-white sputum, and breathlessness. He has a 60 pack-year history and on further questioning acknowledges that his breathlessness has been present for 'many months or even years' and has been getting steadily worse. Which ONE of the following mechanisms is MOST LIKELY to be underlying his dyspnoea? a. Bronchospasm associated with eosinophilic inflammation in the bronchi b. Peribronchiolar inflammation and fibrosis c. Progressive centriacinar destruction of alveolar walls d. Goblet cell hyperplasia with mucus plugging of the bronchi e. Chronic inflammation of the bronchi with mucous gland hypertrophy

B

A 56-year-old man, who is known to have cirrhosis, develops ascites. What is the LEAST LIKELY reason for this? a. Hypoalbuminaemia b. Excess protein excretion by the kidneys c. Increased aldosterone levels due to lack of metabolism by the liver d. Decreased sodium clearance

B

A 75-year-old woman suffers a fracture to the neck of the right femur (hip). Within 12 hours of her operation she complained of shortness of breath, pleuritic pain and was coughing up blood. On further examination, thrombosis in her deep veins was discovered, extending to the femoral vein, and there was a pulmonary thromboembolus in her left lung. What is the embolus' MOST LIKELY route to the lung? a. Femoral vein, superior vena cava, tricuspid valve b. Iliac vein, right ventricle, pulmonary trunk c. Short saphenous vein, inferior vena cava, right atrium d. Popliteal vein, iliac vein, mitral valve e. Femoral vein, coronary sinus, pulmonary artery

B

A first year medical student has her blood pressure measured as part of a routine check-up by her general practitioner. Her blood pressure is 110/65 mmHg. With regard to her blood pressure, which ONE of the following statements is MOST CORRECT? a. Her diastolic pressure is 110 mmHg b. Her diastolic pressure is 65 mmHg c. She is hypotensive d. She is hypertensive e. Sounds of Korotkoff would have been heard over the brachial artery when the cuff pressure was 50 mmHg

B

A limitation of using PCR to copy DNA segments is a. Taq polymerase is not common b. The section of DNA immediately before and after the required gene must be known c. A large quantity of DNA beyond the 5' and 3' end of the required gene is made d. PCR is only possible using genes that repeat multiple times in a section of DNA e. A large amount of DNA is required for a quantitative result

B

A medical student has uncompromised respiratory alkalosis. Which ONE of the following would be MOST CORRECT regarding his condition? a. Decreased pH, high bicarbonate, normal PCO2 b. Increased pH, normal bicarbonate, low PCO2 c. Decreased pH, high bicarbonate, low PCO2 d. Increased pH, high bicarbonate, high PCO2 e. Decreased pH, low bicarbonate, high PCO2

B

A new drug is being tested for IVF. It is found to be more effective than the original. Statistical analysis revealed a p-value of 0.06. What is your interpretation of this? a. IVF > clinical trial b. Not statistically significant at the 0.05 level c. Statistically and clinically significant d. Statistically significant, new is indeed better than old e. Statistically significant but cannot tell which is better

B

A new human enzyme is found that attacks the cell wall of Gram-negative bacteria. Which ONE of the following statements is MOST CORRECT? a. It is part of the adaptive immune system as it is specific to Gram negative bacteria b. It is part of the innate immune system as it broadly attacks a large group of bacteria c. It is part of the adaptive immune system as it only attacks bacteria d. It is part of the innate immune system as it has a rapid response e. It is neither part of the adaptive nor innate immune system as it does not involve cellular defences

B

A study was conducted testing the effects of smoking and its relation to lung cancer [2x2 table, lung cancer + controls]. The result is below. Which ONE of the following statements is the MOST CORRECT? a. They are most likely to have been from a cohort study and the most useful measure for effect size is relative risk increase of developing lung cancer if you are a smoker = {(647 / 649) - (622 / 649)} / (622 / 649) = 4% b. They are most likely to have come from a case-control study and the most useful measure for effect size is the odds ratio of smokers vs non-smokers in lung cancer cases compared to control cases = (647 / 2) / (622 / 27) = 14.0 c. They are most likely to have come from an RCT study and the most useful measure for effect size is the risk of developing lung cancer if you are a smoker = 647 / 649 = 0.997 d. They are most likely to have come from an RCT study and the most useful measure for effect size is the odds ratio of being a smoker in the lung cancer cases compared to the control cases = (647 / 2) / (622 / 27) = 14.0 e. They are most likely to have come from a case-control study and the most useful measure for effect size is the odds of being a smoker if you have lung cancer = (647 / 2) = 323.5 to 1

B

A three year old boy with SCID (Severe Combined Immunodeficiency) was treated with modified retrovirus, but he contracted a leukaemia like disease. Which one of the following statements is most correct in explaining his disease? A. SCID is a known common cause of leukaemia B. the retrovirus inserted near an oncogenic promoter C. the retrovirus triggered the human tcell leukaemia virus D the modified retrovirus was activated and induced leukaemia E the viral batch was contaminated by replicating virus

B

According to rural health experts, which of the following are priorities for rural health? a. Increase government funding, improve training for overseas doctors and improve ATSI health b. Increase medical workforce and training, transport and access to appropriate services, funding and costs to patients as well as improve ATSI health c. Increase funding from the states and territories, improve training for NZ doctors in rural health and improve ATSI health d. Increase funding and resources, improve training for overseas doctors and improve and lobby the government for more funding e. Improve ATSI health, improve training for NZ doctors in rural health and advocate cultural awareness

B

According to the hierarchy of study types, which of the following study type is ranked as the LOWEST level? a. Cohort studies b. Case-control studies c. Systematic reviews d. Randomised control trials (RCTs) e. Meta-analysis of RCTs

B

All of the following are able to survive under adverse environmental conditions, EXCEPT: a. Histoplasma capsulatum b. Neisseria gonorrhoeae c. Clostridium perfringens d. Mycoplasma tuberculosis e. Bacillus anthracis

B

All of the following relate to the underlying mechanisms of osteoarthritis, EXCEPT: a. Subchondral sclerosis b. Infiltration of inflammatory cells and synovial hyperplasia c. Vertical and Horizontal fissures d. Osteophyte formation e. Hyperplasia of chondrocytes

B

All of the following statements regarding the visceral systems are true, EXCEPT: A) The small intestine is the main site for nutrient absorption in the digestive system B) Gas exchange occurs in the trachea of the respiratory system C) The kidneys are organs of the urinary system D) The prostate is an organ of the male reproductive system E) One function of the urinary system is the excretion of nitrogenous waste

B

All of these were part of the 8 measures outlined in the Alma Ata declaration, except: A. Provision of water and sanitation B. Access to local hospital treatment C. Immunisation to major infectious diseases D. Decrease transmission/treatment of endemic diseases E. Provision of essential drugs

B

Atropine eye-drops would most likely cause the following reaction: a. Increase in pupil diameter and increase in accommodation ability b. Increase in pupil diameter and decrease in accommodation ability c. Decrease in pupil diameter and increase in accommodation ability d. Decrease in pupil diameter and decrease in accommodation ability e. No change in either pupil diameter or accommodation ability

B

Australia's official national drug policy has been 'harm minimisation' for more than 20 years. With regard to this policy, which ONE of the following statements is MOST CORRECT? a. Harm reduction accepts that increasing consumption of illicit drugs is inevitable b. Harm minimisation tries to reduce the availability and the adverse consequences of psychoactive drugs c. Harm minimisation applies to illegal drugs d. Harm reduction has had little effect on Australia's ability to control HIV among injecting drug users e. Promoting abstinence from drugs has little role in harm reduction

B

Calculate clearance for a 70kg man: half-life = 6.9, Vd = 0.7L/kg a. 0.4 L/hr b. 4.9 L/hr c. 1.58 L/hr d. 12.8 L/hr e. 58.7 L/hr

B

Cerebral infarction is a. Overall, a less significant cause of mortality than cerebral haemorrhage b. Most often caused by arterial thrombosis superimposed on an ulcerated atheromatous plaque c. A complication of subfalcine herniation d. Characterised microscopically by coagulative necrosis e. Typically haemorrhagic

B

Choose the correct order of the following steps for BEST evidence-based practice. i. Formulate the question ii. Monitor therapy and evaluate your own performance iii. Carry out search iv. Apply the evidence to the individual patient's needs v. Define the clinical problem that the patient faces vi. Appraise the appropriate evidence a. i, v, iii, vi, ii, iv b. v, i, iii, vi, iv, ii c. ii, vi, v, i, iii, iv d. vi, v, i, iii, iv, ii e. i, iii, v, vi, ii, iv

B

Choose the option regarding DNA repair mechanisms that is MOST ACCURATE. a. DNA mismatching is repaired by the nucleotide excision pathway b. Cancer-prone syndromes are characterized by the inability to repair DNA damage c. DNA double strand breaks is the most serious form of damage because there is no repair mechanism d. All DNA damage has a negative effect e. All DNA damage is caused by exogenous agents

B

Concerning renal clearance, which ONE of the following is MOST CORRECT? (collated from 2007/2009) a. Renal clearance is best measured by inulin b. To measure renal clearance the substance must be in the urine c. Aldosterone increases sodium clearance d. Creatinine decreases renal clearance e. In normal individuals glucose clearance is usually 100%

B

Controlling for all other factors, spouses caring for those with dementia are likely to be affected by all of the following EXCEPT: A. Increased financial burden B. Higher rates of dementia C. Higher rates of depression D. Impaired immunity E. Social isolation

B

Epigenetics is the 'modifications in gene function that do not involve a change in the DNA base sequence'. Therefore, which of the following is MOST CORRECT about epigenetics? a. Change in DNA mutation rate b. Change in gene transcription c. Change in protein translation d. Change in protein turnover e. Change in genetic translation

B

Escherichia coli is the most common cause of urinary tract infections BECAUSE in females, E. coli from the GIT may colonise the vagina prior to colonization of the urethra a. Both the assertion and reason are correct and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion b. Both the assertion and reason are correct but the reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion c. The assertion is correct but the reason is false d. The assertion is incorrect but the reason is true e. Both the assertion and reason are incorrect

B

Exercise is known to cause a decrease in both systolic and diastolic blood pressures in apparently healthy populations. Which of the following is MOST CORRECT in regards to the change? A. Systolic: 20-40 mmHg; Diastolic: 15-20 mmHg B. Systolic: 5-7 mmHg; Diastolic: 5-7 mmHg C. Systolic: 15-20 mmHg; Diastolic: 5-7 mmHg D. Systolic: 5-7 mmHg; no change in diastolic E. No change in systolic or diastolic blood pressure

B

Father wants to get "Gastrostop" (Loperamide). Doctor advises him that the drug will only help alleviate his urge and incontinence, what is its mechanism? A. Decreases intestinal secretion B. Decreases intestinal motility C. Inhibits prostaglandin stimulation D. Coat the GIT with a protective layer E. Bind to the toxins, which are then passed through with the stools

B

Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH) stimulates the process of spermatogenesis, which of the following hormones also directly stimulates spermatogenesis? A. Progesterone B. 17-beta estradiol C. Androstenedione D. Estriol E. LH

B

Glucose may appear in the urine during normal pregnancy BECAUSE the Tm (tubular maximum) for glucose is increased. a. Both the assertion and reason are correct and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion b. Both the assertion and reason are correct but the reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion c. The assertion is correct but the reason is false d. The assertion is incorrect but the reason is true e. Both the assertion and reason are incorrect

B

Hair cells in the inner ear respond to different types of stimuli. Which of the following options MOST ACCURATELY matches the structure and the type of stimuli its hair cells respond to? a. Utricle: Sound Semi-circular canals: Linear acceleration Organ of Corti: Angular acceleration b. Utricle: Linear acceleration Semi-circular canals: Angular acceleration Organ of Corti: Sound c. Utricle: Angular acceleration Semi-circular canals: Linear acceleration Organ of Corti: Sound d. Utricle: Angular acceleration Semi-circular canals: Sound Organ of Corti: Linear acceleration e. Utricle: Linear acceleration Semi-circular canals: Sound Organ of Corti: Angular acceleration

B

How do opioids work in the central nervous system? A. Up regulation of adenylate cyclase which increases cAMP. B. Increases number of K+ channels, thus hyperpolarising the neuron C. Induction of increased activity by inhibitory post synaptic afferent neurons D. Increased Na+ channels leading to hyperpolarisation E. Something else

B

If both studies were conducted as cohort studies which statistical methods should be used? a. Mean b. Odds ratio c. Relative risk d. Absolute risk e. Relative risk reduction

B

If the 5th distal phalanx flexed against resistance this tests the function of what nerve? a. Radial nerve b. Ulnar nerve c. Musculocutaneous n d. Radial n e. Peroneal n.

B

If tidal volume (VT) is 500ml, respiratory rate (f) is 15 breaths per minute and the volume of the dead space (VD) is 160 ml, then alveolar ventilation is equal to a. 2.4 L/min b. 5.1 L/min c. 7.5 L/min d. 4.2 L/min e. 340 mL/min

B

In regards to haemostasis, which of the following is MOST correct: a. Intrinsic pathway is initiated by formation of factor X b. Extrinsic pathway is initiated by factor III which complexes with factor VII and V c. Prothrombin is the enzyme that catalyses splitting of fibrinogen to form long fibrin fibres d. Release of thromboxane A2 by injured endothelium causes vasoconstriction e. Platelet adhesion is prevented in healthy sew vessels by release of ADP

B

In regards to influenza, which is incorrect A. Influenza has incubation period of 1-3 days and duration of 3-7 days B. Antigenic shift occurs rarely in individuals who are infected with two strains of influenza C. In an epidemic, a new influenza A subtype replaces the old influenza A subtype[a] D. The 1968 Hong Kong pandemic killed 1 million people E. Antigenic drift is an accumulation of point mutations of viral genes encoding the viral neuraminidase and hemagglutinin

B

In regards to the mechanism of action of enalapril, which statement is the most correct? a. It is an alpha and beta adrenoceptor antagonist b. It is an angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor c. It is an AT1 antagonist

B

In regards to the position of the constrictions of the oesophagus, which ONE of the following is MOST CORRECT? a. At the level of T3, by the left main bronchus b. At the level of T4, by the aortic arch c. At the level of T5, by the right main bronchus d. At the level of T8, where the oesophagus crosses the diaphragm e. By the superior constrictor muscle of the pharynx

B

In terms of vestibular anatomy, where are the receptors which pick up rotation / movement of head located? a. Utricle and saccule b. Ampulla of semi-circular canal c. Basilar membrane d. Tectorial membrane e. Organ of Corti

B

In the muscle physiology practical, if the frequency applied to the muscle is changed from 1 Hz to 100 Hz, what happens? a. Complete b. Stronger force c. Less force

B

In the presence of glycogen, iodine turns black. Otherwise, it remains brown. In the presence of proteins, acetic acid turns white. Otherwise, it remains clear. In the case of a CIN III lesion, what would you expect to see? a. Acetic acid turns white, iodine turns black b. Acetic acid turns white, iodine remains brown c. Acetic acid remains clear, iodine turns black d. Acetic acid remains clear, iodine remains brown e. Acetic acid turns black, iodine turns black

B

In the skeletal practical, increase in grade of stimulation in the sciatic nerve resulted in the consequent increase in grade of muscle contraction. Which of the following best describes why? a. Increase in stimulation = increase in muscle contraction force b. Increase in stimulation = more muscle fibres recruited c. Increase in stimulation = muscles of fatigue recruited d. Something about 10 volts and 100 Hz e. Something about spindle bundles

B

In which type of haemolysis are the red blood cells completely degraded in blood agar? a. Alpha haemolysis b. Beta haemolysis c. Gamma haemolysis d. Delta haemolysis e. Epsilon haemolysis

B

Intrapulmonary bronchi a. Are lined in part by Clara cells b. Have irregular cartilage plates in their walls c. Are lined by a simple squamous epithelium d. Have C-shaped cartilages in their walls e. Lack smooth muscle

B

John, 35, has allergic rhinitis and is taking a skin prick test for 15 different allergens. 20 minutes after the test, he has developed a weal and flare reaction to the grass allergen. Which of the following statements is the LEAST CORRECT? a. The reaction is due to degranulation of mast cells b. The reaction is due to infiltration of eosinophils c. Biopsy would show oedema d. There would be IgE against grass circulating in John's system e. A few hours later, John could develop a late-phase response

B

Martin is a 2-year-old child who was growing and developing normally. He is a very fussy eater, throws tantrums during meals and refuses to try new food. He was breastfed until 6 months when pureed solids were introduced, finger foods introduced at 10 months. He has recently become very lethargic and has stopped growing. Height centile Weight centile Head circumference Birth 97 97 50 12 months 50 50-75 24 months 50 25-50 50-98 1. The best conclusion which can be drawn from these measurements is a. He is not gaining weight but his head is growing b. This constitutes failure to thrive, therefore health and diet need to be assessed c. He is growing but not catching up to his peers d. Measurements need to be plotted on a disease-specific appropriate growth chart before any conclusions can be drawn e. He is losing weight

B

Membranes are common features of all cells and organelles. Common feature(s) of all membrane structures are: a. A rigid cell wall b. A phospholipid bilayer c. Enzymes located between two phospholipid monolayers d. Steroid hormone receptors e. Viral receptor proteins

B

Muscular arteries control blood flow BECAUSE they have an internal and external elastic lamina a. Both the assertion and the reason are correct and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion b. Both the assertion and the reason are correct but the reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion c. The assertion is correct but the reason is false d. The assertion is incorrect but the reason is true e. Both the assertion and reason are incorrect

B

One major difference in sexual development between males and females is the externalization of the male gonads from the abdominal cavity. Which ONE of the following statements about this process is MOST CORRECT? a. Descent of the testes into the scrotal sac begins generally at week 20, and may take several days b. There are two anatomical phases in descent, transabdominal and transinguinal c. They undergo caudal and lateral shifts by shortening of the gubernaculum d. Cryptorchidism, an abnormality of testis descent, is twice more likely in premature than term infants e. A cavity, the vaginalis processus, forms ahead of the testis descent into the initially empty scrotal sac

B

Part of the scenario on the 18-month-old infant who's continuing to be breastfed. What should her parents do? a. Stop offering her new foods, as she dislikes them b. Breastfeed only after meals and let her feed herself at mealtimes c. Let her sit in her high chair during mealtimes rather than at the family table

B

Photo of lung with upper right abscess (on the actual exam paper, it was in black and white and really really really shitty quality - ditto for the other pictures) A. This lesion is consistent with primary pulmonary tuberculosis B. This lesion is consistent with bronchogenic spread of tuberculosis C. This lesion is consistent with miliary tuberculosis D. This lesion is consistent with healed post primary tuberculosis E. There is an absence of delayed hypersensitivity to mycobacterium tuberculosis

B

Pyogenic bacteria may gain access to the dermis through epidermal abrasions BECAUSE mitotic activity is high in the stratum germinativum (basale) A) Both the assertion and the reason are correct AND the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion B) Both the assertion and the reason are correct BUT the reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion C) The assertion is true but the reason is false D) The assertion is false but the reason is true E) Both the assertion and the reason are false

B

Referring to the action potential depolarization curve, which ONE of the following is CORRECT? a. In C voltage-gated potassium channels are closed b. In C (peak) voltage-gated sodium channels are inactivated

B

Regarding TB, which of the following is INCORRECT? a. Mycobacteria is hard to eliminate because they can survive within macrophages b. Mycobacterium reacts strongly to ß-lactam antibiotics such as penicillin c. Isoniazid works by inhibiting the synthesis of important cell wall constituents of mycobacteria d. Isoniazid is used as a chemoprophylaxis for contacts of MTb patients e. Rifampicin works on DNA-dependent RNA polymerase in prokaryotic, but not eukaryotic cells

B

Regarding a 58-year-old man's blood tests, where pH = 7.54 (above normal range), carbon dioxide = 44 mmHg (within normal range) and bicarbonate = 34 mmol/L (above normal range), which ONE of the following is BEST DESCRIBES his condition? a. Respiratory alkalosis uncompensated b. Metabolic alkalosis uncompensated c. Respiratory acidosis uncompensated d. Metabolic acidosis partially compensated e. Respiratory acidosis partially compensated

B

Regarding anti-inflammatory drugs, which of the following is MOST CORRECT? a. Aspirin is a selective inhibitor of COX-2 b. Selective COX-1 inhibitors lead to increased GIT bleeding compared to COX-2 inhibitors c. Serious liver damage is a class effect cyclo-oxygenase d. The anti-inflammatory effects of corticosteroids are partly due to the stimulation of aldosterone in the juxta-glomerular apparatus e. Corticosteroids are useful in early stages of osteoarthritis

B

Regarding antigenic drift, which of the following is MOST CORRECT? a. It only occurs with Influenza A b. It involves changes in the immunological target c. Genetic recombination between avian and human flu is not observed d. It happens when the viral polymerase makes mistakes

B

Regarding body temperature regulation in humans, which is the MOST CORRECT? a. Human temperature varies 2˚C across normal circadian rhythm b. Chemical thermogenesis is an important energy source for infants c. Women have a higher basal temperature in the follicular phase d. The thermoneutral range for humans is 20-22˚C e. Preoptic and (something) nucleus in the hypothalamus mediate the shivering response

B

Regarding breast cancer, which of the following is TRUE? a. Genetic mutations in BRCA1 and BRCA2 are unlikely causes of breast cancer b. DCIS will become malignant if left untreated c. Classical clinical and radiographic signs of breast cancer are due to desmoplastic (fibrous) reaction of the tumour stroma to invasive cancer cells d. Neoplastic change in myoepithelial cells lead to lobular carcinoma in-situ e. Proliferation always leads to cancer

B

Regarding cervical neoplasia, which ONE of the following is MOST CORRECT? a. Adenocarcinoma is the most common histological subset b. Peak incidence is at 45 years of age c. Main cause of death is widespread metastatic disease d. It is not a major cause of cancer mortality worldwide e. Progression from precancerous lesions to carcinoma can take weeks to months

B

Regarding chronic inflammation, which ONE of the following statements is MOST CORRECT? a. Systemic manifestations are prominent b. Healing by repair occurs concurrently c. Neutrophils are infrequent because they undergo apoptosis d. Exudation no longer occurs e. Mast cells and eosinophils characteristically dominate the cellular response

B

Regarding flexion of the knee joint, which ONE of the following statements is LEAST CORRECT? a. It is caused by the action of the gastrocnemius muscle b. It could be weak when the femoral nerve is damaged c. It is caused by the action of the semimembranosus muscle d. It could be weak when the L5 nerve root is damaged e. It is caused by action of the Sartorius muscle

B

Regarding long-term immunity after vaccination, which ONE of the following is MOST CORRECT? a. Long-lived plasma cells in the bone marrow secrete antibodies for several years b. Memory cells that produce antibodies that are important in the secondary immune response c. Activated B-cells are in the germinal centres d. Mucosal membranes are protected by IgA e. Naïve B-cells...

B

Regarding malignancies, which statement about metastatic spread is MOST CORRECT? a. Breast cancer is more likely to spread to the liver and lungs than bone b. The liver is the most common site of spread in a malignancy of the gastrointestinal tract c. Lymphatic spread is more likely in sarcomas compared to the carcinomas d. Metastatic spread is invariably fatal e. Biopsy of the tumour increases its risk of dissemination

B

Regarding pulmonary tuberculosis, which ONE of the following statements is MOST CORRECT? a. Tissue necrosis results from autoimmune cross-reactivity b. The illness is likely to be progressive in severely immunodeficient patients c. Resolution typically follows eradication of the causative organism d. Post-primary (secondary) tuberculosis is typically the result of airborne infection e. Primary tuberculosis typically presents with respiratory manifestations

B

Regarding residual volume, which of the following statements is MOST CORRECT? a. It is the volume measured at the normal end-expiratory position. b. It can be measured using helium dilution c. It can be measured using a plesthymograph and Charles' Law d. It can be measured using spirometry e. In an average adult it is 150 mL

B

Regarding sinus arrhythmia, which ONE of the following statements is MOST CORRECT? a. It is a potentially fatal arrhythmia b. It is an increase in heart rate upon inspiration c. It is common in elderly people d. It is primarily caused by variations in sympathetic activity during breathing

B

Regarding the SERM raloxifene, which ONE of these is INCORRECT? a. Agonist in oestrogen receptors of bone tissue b. Agonist in oestrogen receptors of uterine tissue c. Decreased osteoclast activity d. Increased osteoblast activity e. Antagonist in oestrogen receptors of mammary glands

B

Regarding the body's response to stress, what is MOST CORRECT? a. All life events cause stress b. It illustrates the intimate relationship between the brain and the body c. Subjective cognitive appraisal is not important d. The sympathetic response occurs after subjective cognitive appraisal e. It is mainly mediated by the HPA axis

B

Regarding the immune response to viral infections, which ONE of the following statements is MOST CORRECT? a. Neutralizing antibodies inactivate viruses after the viruses have entered living cells b. Dendritic cells activate cytotoxic T cells by presenting antigen-bound to Class 1 MHC c. The majority of cytotoxic T cells are CD4 positive d. Cytotoxic T cells eliminate dead cells but do not destroy living cells e. Antibodies are not produced in response to influenza infection

B

Regarding the mechanical events of the cardiac cycle, which of the following is LEAST CORRECT? a. Mechanical stretch results in an increase in the force of contraction b. Isovolumetric ventricular contraction occurs when the aortic valve is open and the aortic valve closes c. There are three atrial pressure waves - a, c, v d. Atrioventricular valve closes on isovolumetric contraction e. The dicrotic notch is caused by the closing of the aortic valve

B

Regarding the regulation of GH (growth hormone), which of the following statements is MOST CORRECT? a. Somatostatin inhibits release of GH at the hypothalamus b. GHRH stimulates anterior pituitary to secrete GH c. Negative feedback of GH on GHRH release by the anterior pituitary d. Dopamine inhibits GH release at the anterior pituitary e. Somatostatin stimulates release of GH at anterior pituitary

B

Regarding the use of statins in hypercholesterolaemia, all of the following are true EXCEPT a. It inhibits HMG-CoA reductase b. It inhibits LDL-receptors c. It acts on liver cells d. It affects the rate-limiting step in cholesterol synthesis e. It decreases plasma LDL-C

B

Regarding the vestibular system A)Postural reflex - motor cortex B) Postural reflex involves projections from the vestibular nucleus to the spinal neurons C) Postural reflex - reticular formation D) Reflex eye movements - motor cortex E) Reflex eye movements - reticular formation

B

What is MOST CORRECT regarding cerebral infarction? a. Overall it has lower mortality than cerebral haemorrhage b. It is most commonly caused by a thrombosis superimposed by an ulcerated atheromatous plaque c. It is most commonly haemorrhagic d. Hydrocephalus is a common complication e. Healing with formation of scar tissue

B

Regarding thermoregulation of a newborn infant, which ONE of the following statements is MOST CORRECT? a. Shivering is the main mechanism of heat production b. Radiant heat losses are high c. Evaporative heat losses are low d. Heat production begins at a lower skin temperature than adult e. The total surface area to volume ratio is lower than adult

B

Regarding vaginismus, which of the following is MOST CORRECT? a. It is a fungal infection of the vagina b. It is caused by the spasm of the pelvic floor at the vagina c. It is prolapse of the vagina d. It is a term for the inability to orgasm e. It causes nymphomania

B

Sally is a 24-year-old female with a regular 28 day menstrual cycle. Which of the following is the BEST indicator of ovulation? a. Decrease in basal body temperature b. Cervical mucus is thin, clear and stretchy c. Tender breasts with a tingly sensation d. Acute pain in lower abdominal area e. Increase in LH

B

Sertoli cells perform all of the following functions, EXCEPT a. Nourish developing sperm b. Synthesise testosterone when stimulated by luteinizing hormone c. Secrete inhibin d. Stimulate spermatogenesis e. Provide a blood-testis barrier

B

The basal ganglia a. Monitors and modulates the response of Renshaw cells in the spinal cord b. Is a group of nuclei involved in motor control c. Is involved in processing information related to fine tactile sensation d. Consists of the caudate nucleus, putamen, thalamus, substantia nigra and subthalamic nucleus e. Is a group of nuclei located in the vermis of the cerebellum

B

The doctor thought Johnny's knee may be infected, and asked for a "swab" of the wound. Which ONE of the following is the MOST LIKELY reason why the doctor requested the swab? A. Swabbing can be used to detect organisms that cause tetanus B. Organisms sampled using the swab can be grown in the microbiology lab to allow their identification C. Swabbing the wound reduces the number of microorganisms and so helps wound healing D. Swabbing the wound can demonstrate a protein-rich exudate characteristic of inflammation E. The swab can be examined under the microscope to determine the type of inflammatory cells that are most prominent in the wound

B

The encoding segments of eukaryotic DNA are called a. Introns b. Exons c. Nucleotides d. Replicons e. Transposons

B

The image shows a lateral view of a human embryo at the end of week 4 of its development (Carnegie stage 13). Which of the following is MOST CORRECT regarding the structures labeled A-E? [A = lens placode B = maxillary prominence of the first pharyngeal arch C = mandibular prominence E = 2nd arch E = 3rd arch F = 4th arch] a. The structure labeled "A" differentiates to form the lens placode, folding to form the lens of the eye b. The structure labeled "B" plays a role in the formation of the primary palate c. The structure labeled "C" contributes to the muscles of facial expression and CN7 d. The structure labeled "D" is the 3rd pharyngeal arch e. The structure labeled "E" is a transient embryonic external structure called the cervical sinus

B

The incidence of tuberculosis in the Western world fell in the period 1900-1940 BECAUSE anti-microbial therapy for tuberculosis markedly reduces the spread of the disease. a. Both the assertion and reason are correct and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion b. Both the assertion and reason are correct but the reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion c. The assertion is correct but the reason is false d. The assertion is incorrect but the reason is true e. Both the assertion and reason are incorrect

B

The man then had severe progressive dyspnoea and palpitations. On examination, crepitations ("crackles") were audible in the bases of both lungs. What is this consistent with? a. Cardiogenic shock b. Ischaemic cardiac fibrosis c. Viral interstitial pneumonia d. Bacterial bronchopneumonia e. Pulmonary thromboembolus

B

The most clinically important complication of atherosclerosis is a. Calcification of the iliac, femoral and popliteal arteries b. Myocardial infarction c. Cerebral haemorrhage

B

The mycobacterial species retains carbolfuchsin when treated with acid alcohol. Whichcomponent of the bacteria is responsible for the retention of carbolfuchsin? a) Peptidoglycan b) Mycolic acid c) Lipopolysaccharides d) Outer Membrane c) Teichoic acid

B

This was that weird colonitis Chron's disease question, didn't even know what the question meant. Any help? a. Ulcerative collitis typically involves transmural inflammation b. Crohn's disease involves transmural inflammation

B

Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) causes an increase in the following processes except: A. Deiodination of T4 to T3 B. Increases TRH secretion C. Increase in exocytosis of thyroglobulin into the follicular lumen D. Increases iodide uptake E. Increase in endocytosis of colloid in the apical membrane

B

What disease does combined oral contraceptives reduce the risk of? a. Thromboembolism b. Ovarian cancer c. Cervical carcinoma d. Vasomotor symptoms

B

What does a 'false positive' in a mammogram for breast screening mean? a. Reassurance of a patient which may be misleading in the face of following disease b. Unnecessary further invasive test or surgery c. Development of carcinoma in the future d. Inconsequential disease is diagnosed e. Patient mammogram needs to be repeated as results are inconclusive

B

What enzyme does corticosteroids act on? a. Stimulates the production of phospholipase A2 b. Produces lipocortin, which inhibits the production of eicosanoids c. Prevents the induction of COX 1 enzyme that inhibits the production of prostaglandins

B

What feature of an extradural haemorrhage is MOST CORRECT? a. Caused by shearing of the cortical bridging veins b. Caused by fracture of the squamous temporal bone c. Caused by meningeal irritation

B

What important conclusion may be drawn from epidemiological data about factors decreasing all-cause mortality? a. People who are physically active will not die prematurely b. Risk of death from any cause decreases with increasing levels of physical activity c. The level of physical activity needed to improve mortality outcomes is unrealistic in most people d. Sedentary people usually die prematurely e. People who live a sedentary lifestyle are healthier than their active counterparts

B

What is TRUE regarding the larynx? a. It is a hollow structure surrounded by a ring of small bones b. It houses the vocalis muscle and the vocal ligament creating tension to produce sound c. It is located below the pharynx and above the oesophagus d. It holds the false vocal cords lined by stratified squamous epithelium e. It holds the true vocal cords lined by respiratory epithelium

B

What is most correct regarding rheumatoid arthritis? A. Joint pain which is worse with use and eased with rest B. Auto-antibodies that bind to modified arginine residues on self proteins are detected in approximately 70% of patients C. Loss of joint space, subchondral sclerosis, subchondral cysts in affected joints can be seen on X-ray (this is osteoarthritis) D. Acute glomerulonephritis is a common complication. E. Destruction of articular cartilage by neutrophils

B

What is most correct regarding the actions of growth hormone A. Stimulates Prolactin B. Causes lipolysis of glycogen in adipocytes and muscle cells C. Decreases plasma glucose D. Something about insulin E. Something about IGF

B

What is the MAJOR community / organizational factor for Tran? a. His relationship with his girlfriend b. Easy availability of alcohol c. Living with his parents and brother d. Availability of university mental health services e. The university workload

B

What is the MOST APPROPRIATE imaging modality to diagnose a brain tumour? a. CT b. MRI c. PET scan d. Ultrasound

B

What is the SECOND MOST COMMON cause of dementia after Alzheimer's disease? a. Supranuclear palsy b. Vascular dementia c. Frontotemporal dementia d. Dementia with Lewy bodies e. Parkinson's bodies

B

What is the horizontal section that separates the thalamus and the putamen? a. Anterior limb of the internal capsule b. Posterior limb of the internal capsule c. Genu of the internal capsule d. External medullary lamina e. Extreme capsule

B

What is the main (most accurate) clinical feature of asthma? a. Hypersensitivity b. Airway obstruction c. Bronchoconstriction d. Bronchospasm e. Mucous plug

B

What is the main contributor to loss of muscle strength in sarcopenia? a. Loss of neurons in the motor cortex b. Atrophy and loss of fast twitch type 2 muscle fibres c. Replacement of active muscle fibres with non-elastic non-contractile collagen fibres d. Increased deposition of fat at the expense of lean muscle fibres e. Accumulation of lipofuscin (age-related pigment)

B

What is true about the ligamentum teres? A. It is a remnant of the R umbilical vein B. Connected to upper third of falciform ligament

B

What signs present with degeneration of the subthalamic nucleus? a. Tremor b. Hemiballismus c. Athetosis d. Chorea e. Hypokinesia

B

What test would be most appropriate to run on SPSS to show a link between cancer and asbestos (some figures were given)? a. Assuming normality, and independent t test and Levene's test b. Assuming a large enough sample, a Pearson's Chi square c. Assuming normality, a paired t test and Levene's test d. Assuming normality, correlation and ANOVA e. Levene's test only

B

What the recommended treatment for acute otitis media a. Insert grommets b. Consider giving antibiotics if there is no improvement after 24-48 hours c. 1 week course of antibiotics and then insert grommets d. Since viral causes make up >50%, antivirals should be used first e. Symptomatic relief using only panadol and codeine

B

What vehicle is most commonly used in gene therapy A. Bacteria B. Virus C. Pill D. Powder ball E. Plasmid

B

What would be the BEST place to stop a haemorrhage in the gall bladder surgery? a. Compressing the hepatoduodenal artery in the epiploic foramen b. Compressing the cystic artery in the posterior epiploic foramen c. Compressing the gastrosplenic artery in the anterior epiploic foramen d. Compressing the left hepatic artery in the greater omentum

B

When a painful stimulus is applied to the bottom of your foot, what is the MOST LIKELY response? a. Flexion of affected leg and flexion of opposite leg b. Flexion of affected leg and extension of opposite leg c. Extension affected leg and extension of opposite leg

B

When does the stage of neural plasticity and recovery begin after an ischaemic stroke? a. Acute phase b. Subacute phase c. Acute and subacute phase d. Acute, subacute and post-acute phase e. Post-acute phase

B

Which ONE of the following EBM processes follows on from the second of the six EBM steps: 'Formulation of the clinical question that you most need to answer' (eg PICO question) A) Apply the evidence to the individual patient's needs B) Formulate and carry out search strategy using appropriate resources C) Define the clinical problem that the patient faces D) Monitor the therapy and evaluate your own performance E) Critically appraise the evidence, both benefits and harms

B

Which ONE of the following combinations of disciplines is MOST CORRECT? Regarding Johnny's skin wound, treatment with antibiotics is most relevant to the disciplines of: A. Microbiology and pathology B. Pharmacology and microbiology C. Anatomy and biochemistry D. Pharmacology and public health E. Immunology and histology

B

Which ONE of the following components or properties is LEAST associated with the adaptive immune system? a. IgG b. Phagocytosis c. Immunological memory d. Cytotoxic T cells e. Secondary antibody response

B

Which ONE of the following contributes LEAST to the burden of disease in Australia? a. Ischaemic heart disease b. Rheumatoid arthritis c. Stroke d. Depression e. Diabetes

B

Which ONE of the following features is MOST characteristic of norovirus? a. It is easily killed by disinfectants b. It typically causes a self-limiting diarrhoeal illness c. It has low transmissibility d. It is second behind rotavirus as a cause of viral gastroenteritis in children e. It rarely causes asymptomatic infection

B

Which ONE of the following groups of cells or tissues BEST describes the complete mucosal layer of the stomach? a. Surface epithelium, chief cells, lamina propria and submucosa b. Epithelium and lamina propria c. Gastric glands, muscularis propria and serosa d. Mucus-secreting cells, parietal cells and chief cells

B

Which ONE of the following is MOST CORRECT about the seminiferous tubules? a. Sertoli cells produce testosterone b. Leydig cells are in the interstitial spaces in the epithelium c. They enter directly into the ductuli efferentes (efferent ductules) d. They have ciliated columnar epithelium e. They are each divided into lobules by the tunica albuginea

B

Which ONE of the following is MOST CORRECT regarding 1st pass metabolism? a. It is increased with a low extraction ratio b. It is affected by changes to CYP 450 enzymes c. It is prevented in drugs taken orally d. It is increased in intravenous administration e. It is prevented with reduced hepatic perfusion

B

Which ONE of the following is MOST CORRECT regarding GIT structure and function? a. Interstitial cells of Cajal excite the ENS and are responsible for peristaltic motions b. ENS sends signals to pre-vertebral plexus c. Vagus nerve is responsible for the pyloric contraction d. Migrating motility complex is only present in the duodenum e. Contraction of pancreas releases bile salts

B

Which ONE of the following is MOST CORRECT regarding the NHMRC guidelines for dietary fat in adults? a. The major trans-fat elaidic acid is recommended as a healthy and natural component of food b. It is recommended that the maximum level of saturated fat intake should be 10% of total energy intake c. It is recommended that monounsaturated fats such as olive, canola and almond oils should be restricted in a healthy adult diet d. If an adult is overweight, the guidelines recommend a restriction of total daily fat to 10% of total daily intake e. All saturated and monounsaturated fats should be restricted in the diet

B

Which ONE of the following is the MOST EFFECTIVE strategy when using thought challenging to combat depressing thoughts? a. Ask, am I exaggerating the importance of events? b. Ask, what is the evidence for my thought? c. Ask, what thinking errors am I making? d. Ask, what alternatives are there to thinking this way? e. Ask, what is the effect of thinking this way?

B

Which ONE of the following issues in relation to living organ donation, has been identified as raising significant ethical concerns? a. The HLA concordance of the recipient with the donor b. The potential for exploitation made possible by commercialization of organ transplantation (the buying and selling of organs) c. Organ harvest teams approaching the family of 'brain-dead' patients directly to enquire about the possibility of organ donation from the patient d. The use of organs taken from executed prisoners e. The age of the donor (not including children)

B

Which ONE of the following statements BEST DESCRIBES Medicare in Australia? A) It pays for visits to dentists for work that is restorative and not cosmetic B) It is an insurance scheme that collects funds from a tax levy C) It is a system to subsidise important medications for Australians D) It does not provide cover for people who are unemployed E) The taxation levy that funds most of hospital care in Australia

B

Which ONE of the following statements BEST EXPLAINS the differing functions of cellulose and glycogen? a. One of them is a lipid while the other is a carbohydrate b. Difference in the glycosidic bonds that link the subunits c. They are stereoisomers of each other d. They are made of different sugars e. One has a structural role while the other acts as an information molecule

B

Which ONE of the following statements MOST ACCURATELY describes a cohort study? a. In a cohort study there is a control group that is assigned to take a placebo or comparison intervention b. In a cohort study individuals are assigned to groups according to their exposure to a risk factor under investigation c. In a cohort trial the researchers and the health care workers who randomise, treat and assess the individuals do not know to which groups the patients are assigned d. A cohort study is usually retrospective In a cohort study researchers compare the association between cases and a possible cause, with the same possible cause and people who are not cases (the controls)

B

Which ONE of the following statements about membrane transport systems is MOST CORRECT? a. All membrane transport proteins use energy to move molecules across the membrane b. Crossing a cell membrane requires the solute to move out of the solution from the water and into the membrane, and then to move back into the solution inside the cell c. Membrane transport systems are always active, rather than gated on and off d. A transport protein is not selective about the particular ions and molecules it transports e. Endocytes (making internal membrane vesicles) is the main way that water crosses cell membranes

B

Which ONE of the following statements concerning the arteries of the body is MOST CORRECT? a. Both common carotid arteries arise directly from the aorta b. The femoral artery is located in the anterior region of the upper thigh c. The carotid arteries do not supply the brain d. The brachiocephalic artery is found in the upper limb e. The common iliac arteries lie in the lower limb

B

Which ONE of the following statements describing normal human behavior is MOST ACCURATE? a. There is no such thing as normal b. Social deviance alone is a poor indicator of normal c. Those with higher neuroticism scores are less likely to be normal d. Normal is always within two standard deviations around a mean e. Everyone has an innate understanding of the societal norms which mark normal behaviour

B

Which ONE of the following statements is INCORRECT about breast milk? a. The carbohydrate is lactose b. It is a good source of iron c. It varies from foremilk to hindmilk d. Casein is the main protein e. Fat is the main energy source

B

Which ONE of the following statements is MOST CORRECT concerning the histology of the lung? a. There is fibrocartilaginous plates in the submucosa b. Pneumocyte type II cells produce surfactant c. There are mucoserous glands in the submucosa

B

Which ONE of the following statements is MOST CORRECT? a. Transitional epithelium belongs to the urinary system only b. Epithelium is avascular c. Epithelium lacks a basement membrane d. Epithelium lining the alimentary tract is pseudostratified columnar ciliated

B

Which ONE of the following statements is MOST CORRECT? DNA consists of: a. Strings of 20 different amino acids b. A pentose sugar, a phosphate group and one of four possible nitrogenous bases c. A pentose sugar and one of four possible nitrogenous bases d. A pentose sugar, a phosphate group and one of two possible nitrogenous bases e. A pentose sugar, a phosphate group and one of four possible nitrogenous bases attached to a histone molecule

B

Which ONE of the following statements is most correct in describing secondary endocrine glands? a. It is a gland that secretes hormones in response to another hormone b. It is a gland that secretes hormones while having other important functions c. It is under the control of the anterior pituitary d. It is a gland that secretes hormones but cannot store them e. It is a gland that secretes two or more hormones

B

Which ONE of the following statements regarding breast cancer is MOST CORRECT? a. Invasive lobular carcinoma is the most common form of breast cancer b. Breast cancer results from neoplastic reactions in the secretory epithelial cells in the inner ductal lining c. Histopathological grading is the number of mitotic figures under a high-powered microscope d. Invasive ductal carcinoma has the best prognosis e. Cells proliferate and differentiate in a squamous fashion

B

Which ONE of the following statements regarding fatty change of the liver is MOST CORRECT? Fatty change of the liver is a. Most commonly induced by consumption of a high fat diet b. An example of reversible cellular injury c. Primarily the effect of hypoxic depletion of intracellular ATP d. Characterized by intranuclear lipid vacuoles e. Most appropriately diagnosed by analysis of plasma lipids

B

Which ONE of the following statements regarding the complications of diabetes mellitus is MOST CORRECT? a. Diabetic nephropathy (diabetic glomerulosclerosis) is characterized by an increase in amounts of glucose in the urine over time b. Diabetic retinopathy is characterized by retinal vascular proliferation c. Male impotence is due to sensory nephropathy d. Fatty change of the liver (steatosis) occurs due to reduced gluconeogenesis in the liver e. Children born to mothers with diabetes during pregnancy will have, on average, lower birth weight

B

Which ONE of the following statements regarding the pharmacological treatment of Parkinson's disease is MOST CORRECT? a. Dopamine agonists are used as monotherapy in severe Parkinson's disease b. Entacapone is an effective COMT inhibitor c. Carbidopa acts centrally to reduce L-DOPA metabolism d. Selegiline acts peripherally to reduce L-DOPA metabolism e. The actions of dopamine agonists are not dependent upon the survival of dopaminergic neurons

B

Which ONE search strategy would BEST answer the following question? Treatment for Helicobacter pylori to reduce the risk of stomach cancer. a. Exp. Helicobacter or Helicobacter Infections AND Exp. Risk or Exp Morbidity AND Stomach Neoplasms b. Helicobacter or Helicobacter Pylori or Helicobacter Infections AND Risk Factors or Exp Morbidity AND Stomach Neoplasms c. Exp Helicobacter or Exp Gram-Negative Bacterial Infections AND Exp Risk or Exp Morbidity AND Exp Gastro-Intestinal Neoplasms d. Exp Helicobacter or Helicobacter Infections AND Risk or Risk Factors or Morbidity AND Exp Gastro-Intestinal Neoplasms

B

Which antibiotic is the MOST USEFUL in regards to the treatment of Gram negative bacteria? a. Penicillin b. Ampicillin c. Methicillin d. Dicloxacillin e. Flucoxacillin

B

Which definition of overweight and obesity is INCORRECT? a. Excess weight relative to height b. For men, overweight is defined as >90cm waist circumference c. State of excess fat storage d. State of abnormal fat accumulation to the point that health is compromised

B

Which infectious agent is NOT transmitted via the saliva? a. Herpes simplex virus b. Poliovirus c. Influenza virus d. Cytomegalovirus e. Epstein-Barr virus

B

Which is LEAST EFFECTIVE in preventing alcohol drinking? a. Taxes b. Putting message on bottle c. Breath test d. Speed cameras

B

Which is LEAST reliable as a test for diagnosis of gonorrhoea? a. Gram stain culture b. Vaginal swab c. Cervical swab d. PCR on urine sample e. CBA culture

B

Which is MOST CORRECT about synaptic inhibition? a. Involves influx of cations and efflux of anions b. It can summate with excitation c. It is totally depeneent on the NT involved d. Results in depolarization of the pre-synaptic membrane

B

Which is NOT of importance in clinico-pathological staging of tumours? a. Tumour size b. Tumour grade c. Local spread of tumour d. Lymph nodes e. Metastases

B

Which is TRUE about fatty change in the liver? a. It is an example of irreversible cellular injury b. It is characterise by intracellular lipid droplets in hepatocytes c. It is most commonly caused by consumption of fatty foods d. It is due to the hypoxia and resulting depletion of ATP

B

Which is a fat soluble vitamin? A. Ascorbate B. Retinol C. Folate D. Thiamine E. Vitamin B

B

Which is correct about endochrondal ossification? a. It starts within thin membranes b. Chondrocytes are replaced by osteoblast

B

Which muscles is NOT part of the pelvic diaphragm? a. Puborectalis b. External anal sphincter c. Iliococcygeus d. Pubococcygeus e. Ischiococcygeus

B

Which of the following BEST describes the function of neurotubules? a. It is the main site of energy production b. It is involved in the transport of neurotransmitters through the neuron via axoplasmic transport c. It is involved in the depolarization process d. It insulates the axon and conduct signals along the axon e. It provides structure to the neuron

B

Which of the following CORRECTLY describes a change that occurs during the luteal phase of the ovarian cycle? a. LH gradually increases, stimulating the increase of progesterone b. Inhibin A has a negative feedback response on the release of FSH c. Granulosa cells become more sensitive to FSH d. GnRH has a positive feedback response on the release of FSH and LH e. 17ß-estradiol feeds back on the anterior pituitary, stimulating an increase in the release of FSH and LH

B

Which of the following about influenza is MOST CORRECT? a. Antigenic drift is associated with pandemics b. Point mutations encoding haemagglutinin and neuraminidase receptors are responsible for antigenic drift c. The recombination of genes that give rise to new haemagglutinin is descriptive of antigenic shift d. Genetic recombination between avian and human flu is not observed e. Avian flu is transmissible to humans

B

Which of the following are TRUE of the effects of the psychostimulant cocaine? a. Inhibits the release of catecholamine b. Blocks the uptake of catecholamine c. Directly binds to the adrenergic receptor and blocks it d. Increases the release of catecholamine e. Inhibits the monoamine vesicle transport

B

Which of the following best describes metabolic hyperaemia? A. Vasodilation and increased blood flow to the skin following increase in temperature B. Vasodilation and increased blood flow to the heart following increased cardiac work C. Vasodilation and increased blood flow to the kidney following decreased systemic blood pressure D. Vasoconstriction and decreased blood flow to the brain following decreased systemic blood pressure E. Vasodilation and increased blood flow to the peripheries following a period of occlusion

B

Which of the following contributes to the blood supply of the intercostal muscles: A. Ascending Aorta B. Subclavian artery C. Thoracodorsal artery D. E. Superior phrenic artery

B

Which of the following did NOT derive from the neural tube? a. Retina b. Dorsal root ganglion c. Sensory roots d. Cerebellum e. Astrocytes

B

Which of the following epidemiological parameters follows a social gradient in Australia? a. Prevalence of CVD b. Prevalence of obesity c. Prevalence of rheumatoid arthritis d. Incidence of prostate cancer e. Incidence of type 1 diabetes

B

Which of the following is CORRECT about a small bulge in the IV disc between L3 and L4? a. The area supplied by L3 nerve would be affected b. The area supplied by L4 nerve would be affected

B

Which of the following is CORRECT about axoplasmic transport? a. Anterograde and retrograde transport both use actin-based transport system b. Retrograde transport utilizes ATP c. Anterograde transport is used to transport exogenous trophic factors back to the soma d. Both fast anterograde and retrograde uses the same mechanism, but have different functions e. Anterograde transport is used to transport acetylcholine to fill the vesicles to be released at the NMJ

B

Which of the following is CORRECT about menopause? a. Progesterone is used to alleviate vasomotor symptoms b. Inhibin is decreased c. Estriol is the main oestrogen during menopause d. HRT is used to restore fertility e. FSH and LH are significantly decreased

B

Which of the following is CORRECT about the cerebral cortex? a. Direct input to the body b. Many areas of the cortex to associate input c. Function of cerebral cortex depends on its cell type d. Single area of cortex has many inputs to different thalamic nuclei e. No communication between cortical areas

B

Which of the following is CORRECT in regards to the ovary? a. It has an anterior free border b. It is attached to the uterus by the broad ligament c. It has a hilus located on its posterior side d. It is supplied by the external iliac artery e. It is suspended by the ligament of the ovary

B

Which of the following is CORRECT regarding heart failure? a. ß-agonists can be given orally b. Cardiac glycosides inhibit the Na+ / K+ / ATP-ase pump c. Digoxin decreases intracellular Ca2+ levels d. Phosphodiesterase inhibitors are prescribed early in treatment

B

Which of the following is CORRECT? The facial nerve a. Emerges from the medulla on the lateral surface of the olive b. Carries taste sensation from the anterior 2/3rd of the tongue c. Supplies the skin of the face d. Supplies the muscle that opens the eye e. Supplies the parotid gland

B

Which of the following is FALSE? a. Leptin does something b. Inhibition of cannabinoids causes excessive food intake c. Leptin does something else too! d. Sibutramine inhibits the reuptake of neurotransmitters e. Orlistat is a lipase inhibitor

B

Which of the following is INCORRECT about HIV drugs? a. Current therapies mainly target the reverse transcriptase b. Single amino acid changes are insufficient to cause resistance c. Currently combination therapy is used

B

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to exacerbate asthma causing a bronchospasm? a. Propranolol b. Atropine c. SO2 d. Exercise

B

Which of the following is MOST CORRECT about chorionic villus sampling? a. It has a lower mortality rate than amniocentesis b. It can be used to test conditions like cystic fibrosis c. It can be used to detect spina bifida in the foetus d. It is usually performed between 15 and 17 weeks gestation e. It leads to miscarriage in 5% of cases

B

Which of the following is MOST CORRECT about treatment of asthma? a. Beclomethasone inhibits the bronchoconstrictor response when given immediately before exercise b. ß2 adrenoceptor agonists relax bronchial smooth muscle and stabilize mast cells c. Muscarinic receptor agonists relax bronchial smooth muscle and stabilise mast cells d. Sodium cromoglycate relaxes bronchial smooth muscle and stabilises mast cells e. Leukotriene receptor agonists are useful in the treatment of aspirin-sensitive asthma

B

Which of the following is MOST CORRECT regarding intrauterine growth and foetal body composition? a. Foetal growth is 6% per day during late gestation b. Epidemiological studies suggest that babies born at a lighter weight are more likely to have higher arterial blood pressures in adult life (Barker hypothesis) c. There is an increase in the proportion of extracellular fluid during gestation d. Fat accumulation starts during week 26 of gestation e. Placental weight keeps increasing throughout gestation

B

Which of the following is MOST CORRECT regarding the Cerebral cortex? A. It has direct control on most actions B. It receives inputs from a number of different regions C. It sends projections and relays outputs to the thalamus and other subcortical structures D. Something about the basal ganglia

B

Which of the following is MOST CORRECT regarding the diurnal release of cortisol? a. Cortisol is at its lowest after lunch b. Cortisol reaches its peak early in the morning c. Stress reduces the diurnal pattern of cortisol release d. Diurnal release is altered by sleeping during the day

B

Which of the following is MOST CORRECT regarding the transformation zone of the cervix? a. Its location is fixed b. It is composed of immature squamous epithelial cells c. It does not vary with age

B

Which of the following is MOST CORRECT? a. Ecstasy and methamphetamine (but not nicotine and cannabis) mediate their effects by increasing dopamine levels b. Heroine and cocaine cause increasing dependence with successive doses by altering receptors and intracellular messengers c. Ecstasy works via a G-protein coupled ecstasy receptor d. Only humans and primates will self-administer cocaine e. Dependence can be defined as addiction + tolerance

B

Which of the following is TRUE about opioids? a. Methadone is used in patient-controlled infusion systems because it has a short duration of action b. They act directly on G-protein receptors to inhibit the activity of adenylate cyclase c. µ opioids are less likely to cause dependence than kappa opioids d. The short duration of action of fentanyl is due to its low lipid solubility e. Administration of high therapeutic doses of morphine results in diarrhoea, nausea and vomiting

B

Which of the following is TRUE concerning the blockage of the urinary tract? a. Prostate hypertrophy results in distention of the second half of the urethra b. Urinary retention leads to increased bladder size c. Renal calculi causes bilateral hydronephrosis d. Kidney stones result in anuria e. Stasis is not associated with an increased risk of UTI

B

Which of the following is most correct about gas movement? a. Diffusion is faster for gases with increasing molecular weight b. O2 mainly moves from systemic capillaries to tissue cells by simple diffusion c. CO2 diffuses slower than oxygen

B

Which of the following is most important in the pathogenesis of influenza infection? a. Decreased levels of secretory IgA antibodies b. Absence of neutralising IgG antibodies c. Impairment of the cough reflex d. Prior injury to ciliated respiratory epithelial cells e. Viral expression of high levels of hyaluronidase

B

Which of the following is the most correct definition of euthanasia? a. Killing someone without their permission b. Actively giving the drug to end life c. Using drugs to relieve pain and sedate a person so they are unconscious d. A doctor providing advice about ways to end life, but not the means e. Removal of life support f. Discontinuation of treatment such as feeding

B

Which of the following is the most likely technique to be used in cognitive behavioural therapy for depression? A. Cheering yourself up B. Activity planning C. Exposure treatment D. Anger management E. Systemic desensitisation

B

Which of the following is the most significant challenge in therapy of tuberculosis? a. Most available drugs only exhibit bacteriostatic activity b. There is increasing resistance to available drugs c. Most available drugs have significant toxic side effects d. Genetic variation in metabolism makes dosage unreliable e. The need for multiple injections makes non-compliance common

B

Which of the following passes through the jugular foramen? A. Spinal accessory, vagus, hypoglossal B. Glossopharyngeal, vagus, accessory C. Internal carotid, jugular vein, vagus D. Jugular vein, vagus, hypoglossal E. Jugular vein, internal carotid artery, vagus

B

Which of the following passes through the jugular foramen? a. Spinal accessory, vagus and hypoglossal nerves b. Glossopharyngeal, vagus and accessory nerves c. Internal carotid artery, internal jugular vein and vagus nerve d. Internal jugular vein, vagus and hypoglossal nerves

B

Which of the following regarding tPA is TRUE? a. It should be given more than 4.5 hours following infarct b. It is a thrombolytic drug c. It is used in haemorrhagic stroke d. It can be used for hypertensive patients

B

Which of the following regarding type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) is MOST CORRECT? a. It is primarily triggered by environmental factors b. It is typically preceded by impaired glucose tolerance c. It is characterized by anti-islet cell antibodies d. It results from destruction of the pancreatic ß-cells e. It is often associated with impaired thyroid and adrenal function

B

Which of the following statements about Autonomic Nervous System is MOST CORRECT? a. Noradrenaline is the neurotransmitter present in Autonomic Ganglia. b. Acetylcholine is the responsible neurotransmitter for Nicotinic receptor and Nicotinic receptor presents in the postganglionic synapse with the sweat gland. c. Most blood vessels have both sympathetic and parasympathetic response. d. dual innervation? e. muscarinic receptor or acetyl choline..... at the receptor at effector for parasympathetic?

B

Which of the following statements about dementia is MOST CORRECT? a. It only affects older people b. The Aboriginal population seems to have a higher prevalence compared to the general population c. Alzheimer's disease is untreatable d. Alzheimer's disease has a higher chance of affecting those who have a family history e. The age-standardised rate of the disease is increasing

B

Which of the following statements about environmental carcinogenesis is correct? a. Genetic factors are more important than environmental factors. b. Infectious diseases are a more important factor in developing countries than in developed countries. c. In Australia, alcohol is a more important factor than smoking. d. Asbestos is an important factor in breast cancer. e. Hepatitis A virus is an important factor in hepatocellular carcinoma.

B

Which of the following statements about the lateral ventricle is the MOST CORRECT? A. The floor is formed by the hypothalamus B. The floor is formed by the fornix C. The posterior wall is formed by the laminal terminalis D. The wall is formed by the dura mater E. The fourth ventricle is connected to the 3rd ventricle by the interventricular foramen

B

Which of the following statements about the proximal convoluted tubule is LEAST CORRECT? a. 2/3 of NaCl is reabsorbed b. Sodium absorption is controlled by aldosterone c. The volume of filtrate is reduced to 1/3 d. Glucose is reabsorbed by a carrier which is usually not saturated e. Reabsorbs most of the potassium

B

Which of the following statements is CORRECT regarding the control of respiration a. In the medulla, the ventral respiratory area is responsible for inspiration b. Moderate stimulation of the J receptors results in rapid shallow breathing c. Output from the pneumotaxic centre prolongs inspiration d. The peripheral chemoreceptors are important for the minute control of respiration e. The central chemoreceptors respond primarily to a fall in the PO2 of arterial blood

B

Which of the following statements is LEAST CORRECT about the cardiac action potential? a. The Ca2+ influx into the pacemaker cells (e.g. the SA node cells) initiates depolarization of cardiac muscle cells b. The sympathetic nervous system causes the sinoatrial pacemaker cells to hyperpolarize and decreases rate of contraction c. Ventricular muscle cell contraction is about 200 times longer than skeletal muscle contraction d. In cardiac action potential of ventricular muscle fibres, the plateau phase is maintained by a sustained increase in calcium e. The cardiac action potential of a ventricular muscle fibre is about 200ms.

B

Which of the following statements is incorrect? A. The septum primum forms from the roof of the chamber towards the endocardial cushions B. The foramen primum forms from apoptosis of the septum secundum C. A valve is formed by the foramen secundum D. The membranous section of the interventricular septum forms from the endocardial cushions E. The pars muscularis forms from the bottom wall of the ventricles towards the endocardial cushions

B

Which of the following statements regarding HIV incidence is LEAST CORRECT? a. Treatment with anti-retrovirals can reduce the rate of transmission from HIV+ mothers to their babies b. The introduction of IV drug centres have been shown to increase IV drug use c. Heterosexual transmission is common in Australia d. Use of condoms reduces risk in both heterosexual and homosexual transmission e. Universal precautions means adopting methods such as hand-washing and glove use regardless of a patient's blood status

B

Which of the following statements regarding Starling forces in capillaries is most correct? a. Increase in venous pressure will not increase capillary hydrostatic pressure b. Net filtration pressure decreases from the arteriolar end to the venule end c. Arteriolar construction will increase capillary hydrostatic pressure

B

Which of the following statements regarding the peptidoglycan layer in the bacterial cell wall is MOST CORRECT? The peptidoglycan layer in the bacterial cell wall is: a. Similar in all bacteria b. Thicker in Gram positive bacteria c. Thicker in Gram negative bacteria d. Absent in Gram negative bacteria e. Absent in Gram positive bacteria

B

Which of the following tests allows the initial differentiation of Streptococcal species from Staphylococcal species? a. Coagulase b. Catalase c. Sugar fermentations d. Oxidase e. Optochin sensitivity

B

Which of the following tests has the highest specificity for diagnosis of iron deficiency? a. Serum iron b. Serum ferritin c. Transferrin saturation d. Transferrin e. Log ferritin over serum transferrin

B

Which of the following would best assist with the choice of appropriate therapy for a patient with pneumonia a. Chest x-ray b. Sputum culture c. Blood culture d. PCR of nasal swab e. Serology

B

Which of these features is consistent with Haversian systems? a. Each blood vessel does not go between more than one Haversian canal b. Osteoclasts in lacunae is surrounded by lamellar bone c. Osteoblast is in the canaliculi d. Interstitial lamellae wrap around all the Haversian systems e. One osteoblast per Haversian system

B

Which of these is MOST CORRECT about atherosclerosis? a. It is chronic inflammation of media b. It is predisposed by diabetes mellitus c. It is completely reversed by long-term statin therapy d. It predisposes to upper limb peripheral arterial disease e. It is the most common lesion for pulmonary infarction

B

Which of these is NOT a property of allosteric enzymes? a. Has an activator / inhibitor binding site separate to the active site b. Obeys Michael-Mentin mechanics c. Oscillates between active / inactive conformations

B

Which of these is the most correct regarding chemical thermogenesis of brown fat? a. T3 down regulates the uncoupling of thermogenin b. Thermogenin acts as an H+ channel across the internal mitochondrial membrane c. ATP upregulates thermogenin d. Adrenalin plays no role in chemical thermogenesis e. Thermogenesis leads to increased ATP formation

B

Which one of the following interpretations of an abnormal liver function test is MOST CORRECT? a. Elevated transaminases (ALT and AST) reflect hepatocellular regeneration b. Elevated GGT and serum alkaline phosphatase (SAP) reflect an obstruction in the bile duct c. Elevated bilirubin is due to extravascular haemolysis d. Low albumin in the blood is due to a dietary protein deficiency e. Darkened urine is due to unconjugated bilirubinaemia

B

Which one of the following is the MOST LIKELY reason that there is a pregnancy loss at 6 weeks? a. Immune rejection b. Chromosomal abnormalities c. Thyroid disease d. Hormone deficiency e. Trauma

B

Which one of these statements BEST describes the significance of NNT? a. NNT shows that there is a statistical significance between the control and the experimental treatment with a 95% CI b. NNT is the number of participants who need to take the new treatment in order for 1 additional patient to benefit c. NNT shows the number of people who improved during the trial

B

Which statement about bonding and attachment is false? a. Illness / disability can affect bonding and attachment b. Bonding between the mother and child is automatic c. Some foetal features promote bonding with parents d. It is innate in some / most organisms e. Formation of attachment promotes proximity and parental interest

B

Which test is MOST USEFUL for the diagnosis of polycystic ovarian disease? a. Full blood count b. CT of abdomen and pelvis c. Laparoscopy

B

William is 3-years-old, and can now string 2 words together. How far behind is he compared to normal development? a. 6 months b. 12 months c. 18 months d. He's earlier by 6 months e. He's not behind

B

With regard to actions of drugs, which ONE of the following statements is MOST CORRECT? a. Non-specific antagonism occurs when the affinity of an antagonist for its receptor increases as the dose is raised b. A drug which is described as a partial agonist can act as an antagonist c. Antagonist drugs have high intrinsic activity d. The binding affinity of a drug is related to its efficacy of action e. All useful drugs have a clearly defined mechanism of action

B

With regard to changes in maternal physiology, which of the following is most correct during pregnancy? a. Reduction in blood flow to the skin b. Reduction in plasma CO2 c. Reduction in plasma O2 d. Reduction in globulin levels

B

With regard to the histology of the liver, which of the following is MOST CORRECT? a. The liver lacks a connective tissue capsule b. The liver consists of a series of lobules, with a portal area (triad) at each corner of the lobules c. Biliary canaliculi occur in the peri-sinusoidal space d. The portal area contains branches of the portal artery, hepatic vein and bile ductile e. Bile flows through a series of ducts to the pancreas for storage

B

With regard to the supply and demand of coronary arteries, which of the following causes an increase in exercise tolerance after exercise training? a. Collateral coronary circulation improves due to decreased demand b. Resting and exercise heart rate and blood pressure are lower c. Caliber of coronary arteries increased so there is lower demand d. Afterload is increased because of lower peripheral pressure e. Increase sympathetic input decreases heart rate

B

With regard to thiouracil, how does it affect the microscopic appearance of the thyroid? a. Stimulates thyroid peroxidase b. Enlarged follicular cells, decreased colloid size c. Increased iodination d. Increased T3/T4 levels e. Increase in TSH

B

With regard to trimethoprim, which of the following statements is MOST CORRECT? a. It is a metabolic analogue for P-aminobenzoic acid b. It inhibits dihydrofolate reductase and prevents folic acid synthesis c. It has limited use as both mammalian and bacterial enzymes have equally high affinity for it d. It is effective for bacteria which uses pre-formed folic acid as a growth factor e. It is an antagonist for sulphonamides

B

With regards to aspirin, which of the following statements is most correct? a. In overdose, hepatic metabolism is the primary method of aspirin excretion b. Aspirin elimination increases when urine is alkaline c. In overdose, aspirin metabolism changes from zero-order to first-order kinetics d. When urine volume increases, aspirin excretion increases e. Aspirin overdose results in metabolic alkalosis

B

You are a GP, discussing blood lipid results with a patient. You mention that values for the patient's total cholesterol, triglyceride and HDL-cholesterol are all on the high side. The patient admits that he'd eaten a full cooked breakfast (including bacon and eggs) one hour before the blood sample was taken. Which of his lipid measurements would you trust MOST? a. HDL-cholesterol b. Total cholesterol c. LDL-cholesterol d. Total triglyceride e. Both total triglyceride and HDL-cholesterol

B

You go to visit your friend in a hospital. She is 20 years of age and has just been admitted to hospital following a serious injury caused by her boyfriend who assaulted her in a drunken rage when he found out she had had sex with one of his mates. Which ONE of the following statements regarding this scenario is LEAST CORRECT? a. There is a higher rate of hospitalization for alcohol-related assaults among people living in non-metropolitan regions b. There is a higher rate of hospitalization for alcohol-related assaults in NSW compared to other Australian states c. Three quarters of hospital admissions for alcohol-related violence are males d. Those aged 15-34 years of age comprise approximately two thirds of alcohol-caused hospital admissions for assaultive injuries

B

Your subject has his arms cuffed for two minutes at 200 mmHg and has the temperature of the skin at his fingertip measured by a probe. Which ONE of the following statements is MOST CORRECT? (conflict) a. The temperature rises after the cuff is removed in accordance with the redness in the arm b. The temperature drops in accordance with the arm getting more pale c. The temperature rises d. The temperature drops

B

All of the following pharmacotherapies used in chronic cardiac failure improve mortality EXCEPT: A. Angiotensin Converting Enzyme Inhibitors B. Diuretics C. Cardiac glycosides D. AT1 Receptor Antagonists E. β-adrenoceptor Antagonists

C

All of the following statements about cholesterol are true, except: A) it is essential to human life B) It is a lipid C) It is mostly hydrophilic with a small hydrophobic functional group D) It is a precursor of testosterone and oestrogen E) Elevated blood levels are a risk factor for heart disease

C

(Bar graph with levels of obesity in different countries). This graph represents the trend of a a. Slow growing epidemic b. Classic epidemic c. Endemic disease d. Sporadic pattern e. Mixed pattern

C

Regarding ketamine, which of the following is WRONG? a. Used an anaesthetic b. Used as an analgesic c. Is an NMDA receptor agonist d. Used to treat pain unresponsive to other treatments e. Used for neuropathic pain

C

(Histogram with curve of best fit of a normal statistical distribution graph, with 3 standard deviations plotted on either side of the average. Height with mean = 105 ± 15 cm). Which ONE of the following statements is CORRECT? a. 15cm either side of the curve represents 95% of the target population b. 30cm either side of the curve represents 99% of the target population c. 30cm either side of the curve represents 95% of the target population d. 15cm either side of the curve represents 99% of the target population e. 7.5cm either side of the curve represents 63% of the target population

C

48. Which is correct regarding HIV treatment? A. Single critical amino acid substitution cannot confer resistance. B. HAART requires 2 different drugs from 2 different classes C. Clinical efficacy requires high concentration at the site of infection, including inside the infected cell D. The most effective drugs have many sites of action at different viral proteins E. Something about eliminating it completely perhaps?

C

A 17-year-old girl is worried about her height. She had average growth, menarche at 10 and her growth spurt was a few years ahead of her peers (started at 8-9 years old). Which ONE of the following is MOST LIKELY to have caused her short stature? a. Hypothyroidism b. GH deficiency c. Early puberty d. Malnutrition e. Undiagnosed eating disorder

C

A 3-year-old child presents with poor language development. Which of the following is MOST CORRECT? a. If the parents answered no to all questions in the blue book, there is no need for formal developmental test even if parents are concerned b. Height, weight and head circumference do not need to be measured for a 3-year-old c. If there are concerns regarding language development, a formal hearing test should be performed even if there is no previous history of ear infections d. Examination is not important for milestones that have large variation for 3-year-olds e. If his father did not talk until he was 4, there is no need to worry if he is not talking yet

C

A 38-year-old patient presents with a past history of IDU and social drinking. HCV serology is positive and liver biopsy shows chronic inflammation of the portal tracts. The BEST explanation of the elevated ALT and AST in this case is a. Bile duct epithelium increases production of these enzymes in response to inflammation b. Fibrosis of portal tracts has blocked excretion of these enzymes c. Hepatocyte necrosis has led to release of these enzymes into the bloodstream d. Injury to hepatocytes means that these enzymes cannot be glucorunidated e. Hepatitis C virus has caused apoptosis of bile duct epithelial cells

C

A 64 year old obese woman with poorly controlled diabetes for the past 20 years. She has continued to gain weight. She has a past history of nocturia for 2 years waking up 2-3 at night producing large amounts of urine. Her biochemistry: Sodium, potassium, chloride and bicarbonate were mostly normal, She had elevated levels of urea and creatinine. What microscopic changes is the most likely associated with her abnormal levels of urea and creatinine? a. Renal infarct b. Acute bacterial pyelonephritis c. Nodular glomerulosclerosis d. Chronic tubulointerstitial inflammation e. Immune complex mediated glomerulonephritis

C

A doctor prescribes an anti-anxiety drug which reduces the ability of nerve cells involved in mediating stress to respond with action potentials. Which ONE of the following drugs would be expected to REDUCE action potentials in these nerve cells? a. A drug which causes those nerve cells to be depolarized by a couple of mV b. A drug which enhances the ability of sodium ions to enter these nerve cells c. A drug which enhances the ability of chloride ions to enter these nerve cells d. A drug which reduces the ability of potassium ions to leave these nerve cells e. A drug which causes the membrane potential of those nerve cells to reach threshold

C

A man has trouble walking on heels. He also presents with weakness in his left leg and loss of sensation on medial side of left calf. He has trouble inverting his foot. Which does this correspond MOST with? a. Peripheral neuropathy b. Parkinson's disease c. Lesion of left L4 nerve d. L5/S1 disc herniation e. Cerebral infarction

C

A man presents with alcoholism and has acute pancreatitis leading to pancreatic exocrine failure. What is MOST LIKELY to occur as a result? a. Low levels of vitamin C b. Vitamin A toxicity because of liver cirrhosis c. Oily stools due to malabsorption of fat d. Weight loss e. Hypoglycaemia

C

A patient is having allergy sensitivity testing and is tested using a skin prick test. A wheal and flare reaction is evident. The MAIN reason for this is: a. IgE cross-linking on the surface of mast cell b. Mast cell degranulation c. Histamine-mediated increase in vascular permeability

C

A patient's CD4 count is 120 x 10^6/L. Which of the following is TRUE? a. Unlikely to detect anti-HIV antibodies b. Risk of developing carcinoma of the prostate c. Increased risk of developing non-Hodgkin's lymphoma d. CD4 count is higher than CD8 count e. HIV viral load is very low

C

A woman has difficulty buttoning her blouse but has no problems with initiating movement, reflexes or tracking a moving object with her finger. What is MOST LIKELY damaged? a. Primary motor cortex b. Basal ganglia c. Secondary motor areas d. Cerebellum e. Reticular formation in the brainstem

C

Aboriginals have highest worldwide rates of rheumatic heart disease BECAUSE they are genetically predisposed to immunological disorders a. Both the assertion and the reason are correct and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion b. Both the assertion and the reason are correct but the reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion c. The assertion is correct but the reason is false d. The assertion is incorrect but the reason is true e. Both the assertion and reason are incorrect

C

According to WHO and the NHMRC guidelines, which of the following waist diameters causes substantially greater risk of disease in men and women: a. men 94, women 80 b. men 94, women 84 c. Men 102, women 88 d. men 102, women 90 e. men 120, women 110

C

All of the following are correct EXCEPT a. Rubella vaccination needs to be given early in life b. Pneumococcal vaccination can prevent meningitis c. Haemophilus influenzae has been eradicated due to vaccinations

C

All of the following are personality attributes generally associated with good coping, EXCEPT: a. Flexibility b. Openness c. Perfectionism d. Practical e. Self-serving

C

All of the following statements regarding adverse effects of pharmacological treatments used in hypertension are correct EXCEPT? a. Diuretics are associated with electrolyte imbalance b. Beta-adrenoceptor antagonists are associated with bronchospasm c. Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors can cause a reduction in blood potassium d. Dihydropyridines such as nifedipine may cause headache e. Prazosin can cause postural hypertension

C

All of the following statements regarding adverse effects of pharmacological treatments used in hypertension are correct EXCEPT? a. Diuretics are associated with electrolyte imbalance b. Beta-adrenoceptor antagonists are associated with bronchospasm c. Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors can cause hypokalaemia d. Dihydropyridines such as nifedipine may cause headache e. Prazosin can cause postural hypertension

C

All of the following statements regarding the mechanism of resistance of Mycobacterium tuberculosis to macrophage killing are true, EXCEPT a. The fusion of the phagosome to a lysosome is prevented b. The acidification of the phagosome is prevented c. It escapes from the phagosome d. It involves neutralisation of reactive nitrogen intermediates e. Maturation of the phagosome is prevented

C

All of the following structures are components of the peripheral nervous system, EXCEPT: a. Dorsal root ganglion cells b. Nerves in the limbs c. Spinal cord interneurons d. Ganglia in the sympathetic trunk e. Schwann cells

C

All of these are true of the fourth ventricle EXCEPT a. The superior cerebellar peduncle forms part of the lateral wall b. It begins at the obex c. It is separated from the third ventricle by the interventricular foramen d. The motor nuclei is medial to the sulcus limitans e. It has choroid plexus on its roof

C

An antibiotic that targets which of the following would MOST LIKELY result in serious side effects? a. DNA b. Proteins c. Cell membrane d. Cell wall e. Folate synthesis

C

Antiviral drugs used for treatment of infections with HIV virus act by all of the following mechanisms except a. Blockade of CCR5 receptor b. Inhibitor of viral reverse transcriptase c. Inhibition of membrane fusion d. Inhibition of virion release e. Inhibition of viral polyprotein cleavage

C

Aquaman ate a puffer fish accidentally which contains tetrodoxin (TTX). Which of the following is a lethal outcome? A. Inhibition of the AChR which prevents the binding of Ach B. Inhibition of Ca2+ ion channels which inhibits influx of calcium ions to the presynaptic neuron thus inhibiting release of neurotransmitter C. Inhibition of neuronal Na+ channels which prevents depolarisation of neurons in the body D. inhibition of K+channels which prevents the repolarisation of a neurol E. inhibition of the release of ACh to the presynaptic membrane thereby preventing the transmission of chemical synapse.

C

Bacterial pili are structures that facilitate a. Movement b. Immune evasion c. Adhesion d. Spore formation e. Chemotaxis

C

Baroreceptors involved in detecting changes in arterial pressure: A. are located in the atria and large veins B. increase firing rate with sympathetic stimulation C. can detect changes in pulsatile and static pressure D. directly act upon the sinoatrial node E. are primary mediators of pressure diuresis

C

Characteristic features of the sigmoid colon include all of the following, EXCEPT a. A single mesenteric attachment b. Taenia coli c. Intestinal villi d. Haustrations e. Appendices epiploicae

C

Choose the MOST CORRECT statement based on this table (2x2 table) a. The data would be labelled as 'scale' in SPSS b. The data would be labelled as 'ordinal' in SPSS c. The data would be labelled as 'nominal' in SPSS d. The data would be labelled as 'scale', 'ordinal', or 'nominal' in SPSS e. The data would be labelled as 'string' in SPSS

C

Concerning the development of the diaphragm, which ONE of these structures becomes the central tendon? a. Ventral pleural sac b. Mesentery of the oesophagus c. Septum transversum d. 3rd-5th somite e. Pleuroperitoneal membranes

C

Concerning the paramesonephric (Mullerian) ducts in development: a. It is retained by Müllerian duct inhibitory factor (MDIF) b. It forms the intermediate kidney c. It forms the uterus d. It forms the male gonad e. It is retained by testosterone

C

During a prolonged fast for more than 3 days, fatty acids form what? a. Ketone bodies in the brain, glucose in the liver b. CO2 and H2O in skeletal muscle and in the brain c. CO2 and H2O in the heart, ketone bodies in the liver d. Glucose and ketone bodies in the liver e. CO2 and H2O in red blood cells, and glucose in the liver

C

During the process of spermatogenesis, developing spermatogonia cross the blood-testis barrier before beginning which stage of the cell cycle? A. Mitosis B. Chromosomal replication C. Meiosis 1 D. Meiosis 2 E. Differentiation

C

Each of the following can influence the plasma concentration of a drug except; a. Route of administration b. Genetic variation in rate of metabolism c. Variation in target receptor expression d. Obesity e. Chronic liver disease

C

Epidemiological studies have shown that the risk of coronary artery disease in active people compared to sedentary people are a. 200% b. 75% c. 50% d. 33% e. 25%

C

For an individual who undertakes daily, heavy exercise before the age of 40 years (such as by sportspeople) which of the following is MOST CORRECT? a. Generalised osteoarthritis will occur b. It will lead to osteoarthritis in the joints involved in the activity (knees and ankles for runners, shoulders and wrists for boxers etc.) c. It will lead to osteoarthritis in joints with injury only d. It will lead to osteoarthritis in the joints proximal and distal to those injured only e. It will lead to osteoarthritis in the spinal column if they become obese by the 5th decade

C

From the list of vaccines, select the ONE that is MOST LIKELY to cause a mild infection, especially in patients with an impaired immune system. a. Diphtheria b. Pertussis c. Varicella virus d. Influenza virus e. Hepatitis B Virus

C

Regarding severe pertussis in infants, which is MOST CORRECT? a. It is rare now because vaccine rates are very high b. Most infant deaths occur between 6-12 months c. Marked peripheral lymphocytosis is common d. Childcare is the most common source of infection e. Penicillin is the antibiotic of choice

C

Genogram of Martin and his family. Family history of cardiovascular disease and depression - key given. Different family members have none, one or both problems. One aunt and one uncle were circled, question asked you to pick which was the most accurate description of them. Basically learn your symbols and know what 'first degree relatives' are, and take your time reading the genogram and you'll be ok. (NB: First-degree relatives = parents, siblings or children) a. Martin has one aunt with a daughter with depression and one uncle with two sons with depression b. Martin has one aunt who did something with her grandfather c. Martin has one aunt with an unaffected nephew and one uncle with a mother and son who have depression d. Martin has one aunt with four unaffected first-degree relatives and an uncle with 3 unaffected first-degree relatives e. Alternatively, just base your answers on what you see

C

Glycogen and cellulose are carbohydrates with completely different properties BECAUSE they are made up of different monosaccharides. a. Both the assertion and reason are correct and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion b. Both the assertion and reason are correct but the reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion c. The assertion is correct but the reason is false d. The assertion is incorrect but the reason is true e. Both the assertion and reason are incorrect

C

HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors reduce cholesterol levels BECAUSE they prevent prothrombin from forming thrombin a. Both the assertion and the reason are correct and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion b. Both the assertion and the reason are correct but the reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion c. The assertion is correct but the reason is false d. The assertion is incorrect but the reason is true e. Both the assertion and reason are incorrect

C

Harry's mother is worried about the time onset of puberty. Which of the following signs is MOST LIKELY to occur first? a. Deepening of the voice, including thickening and lengthening of the vocal cords b. Development of facial hair c. Increase in testicular size d. Development of dark, curly pubic hair e. Sperm production

C

Histology is considered a sub-discipline of Anatomy because: A. Histology involves fixing tissue in formaldehyde B. Histology involves looking through microscopes C. Histology is tissue structure at a smaller scale D. Histology involves cutting tissue with a microtome E. Histologists get the specimens they study from anatomists

C

If a woman gains 12.5 kg of eight during pregnancy, which ONE of the following statements is MOST CORRECT? a. The placenta will weigh over 1000 grams b. The foetus will be under 2000 grams c. There will be 1000 grams of amniotic fluid d. The uterus will account for only 200 extra grams e. Increased plasma will not drastically affect the weight gained

C

In January a backpacker from Sweden to Northern Queensland for a working holiday. He was initially surprised by how hot and humid it was, but he got used to it after working outdoors for a month. Compared to his responses in the first few days in Northern Queensland, which one of the following would you expect to be ELEVATED for the same level of activity after acclimatization? a. Core temperature b. Heart rate c. Rate of sweating d. Sweat salt concentration e. Fraction of sweating that occurs on the trunk

C

In a trial that is testing a new treatment against a control (placebo), if a test statistic calculated for the outcomes has a high probability value which ONE of the following statements is likely to be MOST CORRECT? a. The null hypothesis is unlikely and we should reject it b. We would need to run the test again even if we had high power for this experiment c. The null hypothesis is more likely and we should not reject it d. There is something wrong with the data used e. The experimental hypothesis is very likely

C

In regards to the hormones of the pituitary, what is the most correct option a) ACTH is released from posterior pituitary b) Prolactin is released when dopamine stimulation c) Thyroid hormone stimulates growth hormone secretion d) TSH is secreted in response to thyrotropin

C

In the last 20 years, there has been the popularisation of the 'harm reduction' approach in Australia. Which ONE of the following regarding harm reduction is MOST CORRECT? a. Harm reduction policies are not associated with the decline in incidence of HIV in Australia b. Harm reduction promotes and supports illicit drug use in Australia c. Harm reduction involves accepting that it is impossible to completely cease illicit drug use

C

In what way is personality not relevant to medical practice? A. Personality indicates how someone responds to stress and life events B. Personality is a strong indicator of patient compliance with medication C. Personality can be a predictor of psychopathy D. Personality is a primary indicator of how someone feels about pain E. We can relate to how colleagues and patients behave based on their personality

C

In which ONE of the following situations is surgical management NOT appropriate? a. Mastectomy for a large breast cancer that appears not to have spread b. Urgent surgery to decompress the spine in a patient with spinal cord compression from metastatic prostate cancer, causing recent onset of paraplegia c. Resection of liver metastases from bowel cancer in a patient with coexistent multiple lung and bone metastases d. Internal fixation of a pathological fracture in a patient with metastatic cancer e. Breast reconstruction after prophylactic mastectomy for a woman at very high risk of developing cancer due to a known BRCA1 gene defect

C

Inflammation is a necessary precursor to healing of a skin wound BECAUSE granulation tissue is rich in fibrin A) Both the assertion and the reason are correct AND the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion B) Both the assertion and the reason are correct BUT the reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion C) The assertion is true but the reason is false D) The assertion is false but the reason is true E) Both the assertion and the reason are false

C

Johnny's skin wound is red and hot BECAUSE arterioles in the epidermis are dilated A) Both the assertion and the reason are correct AND the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion B) Both the assertion and the reason are correct BUT the reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion C) The assertion is true but the reason is false D) The assertion is false but the reason is true E) Both the assertion and the reason are false

C

Johnny's skin wound is swollen by exudate BECAUSE endothelial cell membranes in the microvasculature have increased permeability for water

C

Maternal haematocrit is reduced during pregnancy BECAUSE there is a reduction in the red cell mass. a. Both the assertion and reason are correct and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion b. Both the assertion and reason are correct but the reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion c. The assertion is correct but the reason is false d. The assertion is incorrect but the reason is true e. Both the assertion and reason are incorrect

C

Meniere's disease is a disorder that can affect hearing and balance, Increased pressure and volume of endolymph in middle ear causes hearing loss due to excess fluid in endolymph. Which of the following is MOST CORRECT? a. Increased Na+ in endolymph is responsible for symptoms b. Onset of symptoms is over a few days c. Progressive hearing loss occurs d. Vertigo means ringing in the ears e. Clinical symptoms are mediated by non-neural structures rather than hair cells

C

Mortality from Influenza is: a. Accurately reflected in data from death certificates b. Occurs most commonly in infants c. Not accurately reflected in data from death certificates d. Does not decrease with immunisation

C

Mother has come to see you about William, her three-year-old son who has Down syndrome, about his recently problematic behavior. As a doctor, what should your main and foremost concern be? a. The impact of his behavior on his family and others around him b. William first needs to undergo psychological assessments and tests c. The problematic behavior could be William's means of expressing something that he cannot communicate d. To first exclude medical and psychological causes before thinking of other possible causes e. His problematic behavior could be caused by a change in his environment, routine, etc.

C

Normal developing 3yo child, what should he/she be able to perform? A. Just started walking B. Only speak 6 single words C. Able to build a 3 block bridge D. Shampoo own hair E. Hop on one foot

C

Of the following statements regarding maternal and infant mortality, which one is the most correct? A. The greatest cause of maternal mortality in sub-Saharan Africa is obstructed labour. B. A neonatal death is defined as one which occurs within 42 days of birth. C. Maternal Mortality Ratio (MMR) is defined as the number of maternal deaths per 100,000 live births. D. The maternal mortality rate is similar between Oceania and developed countries. E. A death of a woman due to complications two weeks after an abortion in the first trimester is not considered a maternal death.

C

Parents are concerned and want to know what caused the infection. Which of these pathogens is most likely to cause acute otitis media? A. Streptococcus pyogenes B. Rhinoviruses C. Streptococcus pneumoniae D. Staphylococcus aureus E. Bordetella pertussis

C

Progestins are combined with oestrogen for the treatment of menopause. Which of the following conditions is a CONTRAINDICATION for the use of progestin? a. Seizure disorders b. Uterine cancer c. Thromboembolic disorder d. Migraine e. Endometriosis

C

Provided with an image of an abdominal CT scan of adenocarcinoma in the colon showing numerous hypodense lesions. Which is MOST CORRECT? a. Multiple hypodense lesions are the result of infarction congenital polyposis b. Hypodense areas will have neutrophils and fibrin c. Liver failure will be likely if greater than 90% of liver function is affected d. The spleen shows metastatic adenocarcinomas e. In a liver function test, serum albumin would be raised

C

Radiotherapy is recommended treatment for ALL EXCEPT which ONE of the following clinical scenarios? a. Bone metastases b. Colonic cancer at the hepatic flexure c. Cerebral metastases d. Rectal cancer with spread to perirectal nodes e. Anal cancer

C

Rebecca is at the general practitioner and receives a shot for influenza (killed virus). Which of the following is CORRECT? a. Virus antigen presented to CD8 T cells bound to MHC Class II. b. Virus antigen is presented in the thymus to CD 8 T cells c. Live virus induces a stronger response

C

Regarding airway resistance, which ONE of the following statements is MOST CORRECT? a. Airway resistance is reduced at low lung volumes b. Airway resistance is reduced in asthma c. The presence of luminal secretions increases airway resistance d. Airway resistance is the major force to overcome when normal subjects are breathing at rest e. The main site of airway resistance is the terminal branches

C

Regarding digestion, which ONE of the following is MOST CORRECT? a. GLUT5 on the basal membrane is required for the absorption of sugars b. PepT1is a sodium dependent transporter of proteins c. Lipase deficiency impairs the absorption of fats d. A large protein transporter is required for the absorption of large peptides e. Fat is absorbed into the bloodstream in chylomicrons

C

Regarding genital tract infections caused by Candida albicans, which ONE of the following statements is INCORRECT? a. Such infections are confirmed by culture on Sabouraud's medium b. Persistent infections can occur in people with immunoglobulin deficiencies c. Such infections primarily affect the cervix d. Such infections can be transmitted sexually e. Such infections are more common in pregnancy

C

Regarding growth hormone, which ONE of the following statements is MOST CORRECT? a. It has an 'anti-diabetogenic' effect on blood glucose levels b. It is a steroid hormone c. Its release from the anterior pituitary is inhibited by somatostatin d. Its metabolic effects are mediated by insulin-like growth factor 1 e. High levels in childhood result in acromegaly

C

Regarding health of Indigenous Australians, which of the following is MOST CORRECT? a. Studies have indicated 1.5 more Indigenous Australians between the ages of 18-24 experience high or very high levels of psychological distress compared to non-Indigenous Australians b. Life expectancy is 11 years lower than for non-Indigenous c. Culturally appropriate and supportive care for Indigenous mothers lead to better birth outcomes and improved access to care d. Indigenous health focuses on the individual e. There has been a sharp decline in low birth weight since 2010

C

Regarding immunodeficiency, which is MOST CORRECT? a. Pneumocystic pneumonia is an uncommon feature of AIDS b. When PCP does occur, the CD4 T cell count is >200 cells/mm3 c. Deficiencies of antibody are associated with an increased susceptibility to infection with pyogenic bacteria d. Deficiencies of complement are associated with an increased susceptibility to mycobacterial infection e. Incidence of prostate cancer is increased in immunodeficient men

C

Regarding the anatomical relations of the right renal vein, which of the following is MOST CORRECT? a. Right renal vein is posterior to the right renal artery b. Right renal vein is crossed by the inferior mesenteric artery c. Right renal vein is anterior to the renal pelvis d. Right renal vein is at the root of the lienorenal ligament e. Right renal vein is at the tail of the pancreas

C

Regarding the functions of the proximal convoluted tubules, all of the following statements are true, EXCEPT a. The volume of the filtrate is reduced to approximately one third b. Most filtered potassium is reabsorbed c. Sodium reabsorption is controlled by aldosterone d. Glucose reabsorption occurs via a carrier which is not saturated in normal individuals e. Approximately two-thirds of filtered chloride is reabsorbed

C

Regarding the haemoglobin oxygen equilibrium curve, which ONE of the following statements is MOST CORRECT? a. A shift to the right indicates that the oxygen affinity of haemoglobin is increased b. The P50 under normal conditions is approximately 84% c. The curve is shifted to the right by an increase in the concentration of 2, 3-diphosphoglycerate d. The curve is linear over the range of oxygen tensions seen in normal arterial blood e. The curve is shifted to the right by an increase in pH

C

Regarding the management of lipids, all of the following is true EXCEPT a. Niacin inhibits breakdown of lipids and enhances its synthesis in the liver Fibrates inhibits triglyceride production and increases triglyceride clearance b. Statins inhibit cholesterol synthesis c. Cholestyramine inhibits absorption of dietary cholesterol and LDL production d. Pharmacokinetics of ezetimibe means that it can be taken once daily

C

Regarding the outbreak of diptheria in the 1990s within the Soviet Union, all the following are true, EXCEPT: A. Lack of access to the vaccine B. Waning immunological properties of previous immunisation C. Emergence of a new strain D. (forgot) E. Reduced vaccination in the previous decade

C

Regarding the seminiferous tubules,which ONE of the following statements is MOST CORRECT? A. they are surrounded by skeletal muscle B. They contain sertoli cells that produce testosterone C. They contain spermatids that have a haploid number of chromosomes D. They contain interstitial leydig cells within the tubule wall E. They are lined by simple squamous epithelium

C

Regarding the synovium in rheumatoid arthritis, which of the following is INCORRECT? a. Hyperplasia of synovium b. Infiltrate of monocyte and lymphocyte c. Erosion of articular cartilage by neutrophils d. Induction of angiogenesis e. Induction of fibroblasts

C

Risk factors of tuberculosis include all of the following EXCEPT a. High alcohol intake b. Immunosuppressive therapy c. Blood transfusion d. Poorly controlled diabetes e. Poor nutrition

C

Specimen of pneumonia: The lesion shown in the picture a. Is associated with cough, haemoptysis b. Is associated with dyspnoea c. Is complicated with abscess d. Is caused by streptococcus pneumonia e. Could have caused septic shock

C

The below are strategies to control alcohol drinking, EXCEPT a. Sipping instead of gulping your drink b. Spacing out alcoholic drinks with non-alcoholic drinks c. Stop drinking when you feel drunk d. Put the drink down in between sips e. Setting goals for the number of drinks per day or per week

C

The finding of oestrogen receptors in breast cancer cells is important in terms of managing the disease BECAUSE binding of oestrogen to its receptor inhibits cell growth in breast cancer cells a. Both the assertion and reason are correct and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion b. Both the assertion and reason are correct but the reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion c. The assertion is correct but the reason is false d. The assertion is incorrect but the reason is true e. Both the assertion and reason are incorrect

C

The following are in relation with the left apex of the lung, EXCEPT: A. Stellate Ganglion B. Left Subclavian Artery C. Left Trunk of Brachial Plexus C5,6 D. Left Recurrent Laryngeal Nerve E. Neck of the 1st Left Costal Rib

C

The following is all correct for the growth hormone EXCEPT a. Causes lipolysis of adipocytes and muscle b. Causes protein synthesis in muscle cells c. Initially only released in pulses when awake d. Stimulates production of insulin

C

The following statements about DNA repair processes are correct EXCEPT a. All DNA repair processes are error prone b. Mutations in DNA may lead to tumours c. It involves recombination d. Mutations in DNA repair genes can increase the risk of cancer e. Double strand breakages can occur

C

The left renal vein a. Crosses in front of the third part of the duodenum b. Is shorter than the right renal vein c. Receives the left gonadal vein d. Lies posterior to the left renal artery

C

The offspring of a heterozygous couple (both Aa) will likely be born in the ratio of heterozygous:homozygous as: A. 1:2 B. 2:1 C. 1:1 D. 1:3 E. 3:1

C

The placenta is known as a haemochorial organ because a. It has 3 foetal layers and 1 maternal layer b. It is an endocrine organ c. It has 3 foetal layers and maternal blood d. It has 3 maternal layers e. None of the above

C

The posterior limb of the internal capsule does NOT contain a. Corticobulbar tract b. Corticopontine tract c. Medial lemniscus d. Corticospinal tract e. Superior thalamic radiation

C

The relaxation of the antagonist muscle as part of the myotatic reflex is due to the afferent spindle fibres synapsing on a. Gamma-motor neuron b. Alpha-motor neuron c. Inhibitory interneuron d. Extrafusal fibre e. Intrafusal fibre

C

The result of examination of a sputum sample was that no acid-fast bacilli were seen. What can you infer from these results? a. TB Mycobacteria were not seen b. The patient is not infected with TB c. After intensive searching no acid-fast bacilli were seen but you cannot rule out pulmonary TB d. Because no acid-fast bacilli was found after extensive search, the patient does not have pulmonary TB, but extra-pulmonary TB is possible e. Since no acid-fast bacilli was seen, other organisms must be tested for

C

Which is INCORRECT regarding the diagnosis of Chlamydia trachomatis? a. Glissen staining b. Tissue culture c. Culture on an agar plate d. ELISA e. PCR

C

The stability of the shoulder joint is chiefly dependent on the surrounding rotator cuff muscles BECAUSE the tendons of these muscles reinforce all surfaces of the joint capsule. a. Both the assertion and reason are correct and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion b. Both the assertion and reason are correct but the reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion c. The assertion is correct but the reason is false d. The assertion is incorrect but the reason is true e. Both the assertion and reason are incorrect

C

The thoracic oesophagus may be compressed by which ONE of the following structures? a. Azygos vein b. Right atrium c. Left main bronchus d. Inferior vena cava e. Right main bronchus

C

The vagina: A. has an ovoid shaped cross-section B. has a long axis which is at a 90 degree angle to the horizontal in the anatomical position C. is supplied by the internal iliac artery D. has an anterior wall slightly longer than its posterior wall E. contains in its midsection the opening of the ejaculatory ducts

C

Three checkpoints regulate the mammalian cell cycle. These points are during: a. G1, G2 and S b. G1, S and M c. G1, G2 and M d. G0, G1 and M e. G0, S and M

C

Ventricular ectopic beat, which one is incorrect? A. Can be referred to as ventricular tachycardia with multiple foci B. Larger amplitude than normal QRS C. Normal T wave D. Can be unifocal or multifocal E. Longer than normal QRS

C

What are the actions of GH in humans? a. Inhibits IGF b. Produces PRL c. Lipolysis of adipocytes and muscle d. Overproduction of insulin e. Decreases plasma volume

C

What feature predisposes a cell to become a cancer cell as opposed to other cells? a. Resistance to chemotherapy b. Sensitivity to apoptotic signals c. Loss of control of entry into the cell cycle d. Expression of more proteins to use more of the cells energy to become better differentiated

C

What is INCORRECT about bisphosphonates? a. They inhibit osteoclasts b. They cause the osteoclasts to undergo cell death c. They inhibit osteoblasts d. They are taken up by osteoclasts during bone resorption

C

What is correct regarding puberty? a. Girls with anorexia nervosa will start menarche earlier b. Age of menarche has increased over the last century c. A decrease in GABA tone is associated with pulsatile GnRH release d. There is increased pulsatile release of GnRH in the daytime e. There is increased sensitivity to the negative feedback from sex steroids

C

What is most characteristic of alpha thalassaemia trait? a. Anaemia b. HbH inclusion bodies c. Reduced HbA count d. Increased mean cell volume

C

What is the MAIN difference between mitosis and meiosis? a. Meiosis produces two identical daughter cells b. Mitosis but not meiosis occurs in plant cells c. Meiosis but not mitosis halves DNA content d. Mitosis occurs in cells but meiosis occurs in mitochondria e. Mitosis but not meiosis uses microtubular assembly

C

What is the MOST appropriate trial for falls for elderly? a. Double-blinded b. Triple-blinded c. Single-blinded d. Unblinded

C

What is the exact mechanism that BEST DESCRIBES the effect of thiouracil (phenylthiouracil) when administered to rats? a. Increased T3/T4 levels b. Inhibition of thyroid peroxidase and increased TSH synthesis c. Inhibition of thyroid peroxidase and decreased T3/T4 synthesis d. Inhibition of uptake of iodine e. Stimulation of thyroid peroxidase

C

What is the fastest way of diagnosis of TB? a. Gram stain of sputum b. Mantoux test c. Acid fast stain on sputum d. Quantiferon Gold e. Culture of sputum

C

What is the main cause of short stature in adults? a. Excessive GH during childhood b. Marfan's syndrome c. Precocious puberty d. Delayed puberty e. Klinefelter's syndrome

C

What is the sensitivity in the following situation? Test +ve 30 60 Test -ve X Y a. 0.333 b. 0.5 c. Need to know X to work it out d. Need to know Y to work it out e. Need to know X and Y

C

What muscles form the boundaries of the adductor canal? a. Vastus medialis, vastus lateralis, sartorius b. Vastus medialis, adductors, vastus lateralis c. Vastus medialis, adductors, sartorius d. Adductor magnus, hamstrings, sartorius

C

When describing the differences between compact and trabecular bone: a) Cortical bone is deposited only at the metaphysis and diaphysis, while spongy bone is found mainly in intramembranous bone b) Compact bone is avascular while trabecular bone is surrounded by bone marrow blood cells. c) Compact bone contains osteon systems while trabecular bone is lamellar d) Compact bone is formed only at the epiphyseal plate during endochondral ossification e) Compact or cortical bone occurs only in the cranium covering the cerebral cortex

C

When you ask a patient to protrude their tongue you are testing the function of the a. Hyoglossus muscle b. Palatoglossus muscle c. Genioglossus muscle d. Styloglossus muscle e. Mylohyoid muscle

C

Where does blood come from in the right atrium AND is it oxygenated or deoxygenated? a. Pulmonary veins - oxygenated b. Pulmonary arteries - deoxygenated c. Inferior and superior vena cava - deoxygenated d. Systemic arteries - oxygenated e. Coronary sinus - oxygenated

C

Which ONE of the following alternatives BEST DESCRIBES innate immunity? a. Immunity resulting from vaccination b. Resistance to infection acquired via subclinical infections c. Naturally occurring defence mechanisms that provide broad protection from infectious agents d. Protection acquired due to placental passage of maternal antibodies e. Defence that results from specific recognition of infectious agent

C

Which ONE of the following clinical terms is related to the progression and/or possible outcomes of a disease? a. Aetiology b. Diagnosis c. Prognosis d. Therapy e. Magnitude

C

Which ONE of the following health measures is LEAST LIKELY to be used in assessing health need in the community? a. Age adjusted population mortality rates b. Burden of disease c. Case fatality rate d. Risk of disease e. Prevalence of disease

C

Which ONE of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be a function of the blood a. Chemical buffering b. Transportation of immune system cells c. Storage of cerebrospinal fluid d. Movement of hormones around the body e. Regulation of blood temperature

C

Which ONE of the following is MOST CORRECT? a. Mesothelium lines every duct b. Prolactin is produced in the posterior pituitary gland c. Prolactin is important for secretion

C

Which ONE of the following is MOST CORRECT? Compared to sinoatrial cells, ventricular muscle cells will have: a. A slower depolarisation during the action potential b. A smaller amplitude action potential c. A more negative resting membrane potential d. An action potential with a shorter duration of action e. A slower conduction velocity

C

Which ONE of the following is MOST RELEVANT to menopause? a. Ovulation ceases when menopause starts b. Anti-Müllerian hormone increases c. Smoking accelerates the age of onset d. Vasomotor symptoms, e.g. hot flushes, are likely to be psychological in origin e. HRT increases the risk of hip fractures

C

Which ONE of the following lists contain the MOST EFFECTIVE set of treatments in a general falls prevention programme? a. Quadriceps strengthening, swallow assessments and an occupational therapy home visit b. Endurance training, quadriceps strengthening and treatment of parkinsonism c. Medication review, occupational therapy home visits and quadriceps strengthening d. Medication review, osteoporosis workup and treatment and strengthening of the shoulder girdle

C

Which ONE of the following statements about the development of the foregut is INCORRECT? a. The muscular wall of the GIT is innervated by ganglia of neural crest origin b. Stomach rotation occurs in two separate planes c. The correct anatomical location of the intestines occurs by rotation of the GIT about the coeliac artery d. The anterior mesogastrium contributes to ligaments associated with the liver e. The oral membrane is also known as the buccopharyngeal or stomedeal membrane

C

Which ONE of the following statements is CORRECT regarding the underlying cause of Down syndrome? a. Trisomy 21 caused by father b. Mosaicism is the most common abnormality c. It is caused by de novo failure of segregation on chromosome 21 in maternal meiosis d. It is caused by de novo non-disjunction in the mitotic phase e. Trisomy 21 caused by Robertsonian translocation

C

Which ONE of the following statements is MOST CORRECT regarding onset of puberty? a. Pulsatile gonadotropin release occurs initially during the day b. The age of puberty has increased over the last century c. During puberty there is decreased GABA tone on GnRH releasing cells d. Age of puberty is decreased in girls with anorexia nervosa e. There is increased sensitivity in the hypothalamic-pituitary axis to sex steroids.

C

Which ONE of the following statements regarding hormones is INCORRECT? a. Androgen levels affect phenotype b. Hormones such as oestrogen and testosterone can be associated with some cancers c. In males, obesity is linked with decreased oestrogen levels d. In females, sex drive is linked to testosterone levels e. Androgens are produced in the testes, ovaries and adrenals

C

Which ONE of the following statements regarding pharmacokinetics is INCORRECT? a. There is increased Vd if the drug is lipophilic and there is increased adiposity b. Ke decreases with increasing half-life c. A loading dose would reach steady-state concentration after two half-lives d. Clearance will increase if there is a decrease in half-life e. In a time/plasma concentration curve, AUC refers to the total body exposure to the drug

C

Which ONE of the following symptoms is commonly experienced by individuals with a major depressive disorder? a. Over-breathing and the sensation of palpitations when faced with a feared situation b. Hearing voices when no one else is around c. Marked loss of interest or pleasure in activities that are normally pleasurable d. Periods of elation and psychosis interspersed by periods of depression e. Obsessions, intrusions and negative thoughts

C

Which ONE of these is CORRECT regarding surfactant proteins? a. They are made by alveolar type 1 cells b. They are named SPW, SPX, SPY and SPZ c. They contribute to the monolayer structure d. They are secreted by goblet cells in the alveoli e. The main protein present is dipalmitoylphosphatidylcholine (DPPC)

C

Which best describes Benzodiazepines such as diazepam? A. increase learning and memory B. Inhibits GABA transaminase leading to increase in GABA C. Facilitates opening of GABA activated Cl- channel D. Blocks glutamate receptor in CNS

C

Which characteristic of a neoplastic cell give it an advantage over neighbouring cells, thus favouring its own growth and development? A. Increased susceptibility to apoptosis B. Reducing resistance to chemotherapeutic drugs C. Increased control of energy supplies and redirection of resources from surrounding tissue D. Loss of membrane control... E. Reduced capacity to undergo hypoxia

C

Which complication is NOT typical of opportunistic infection in HIV/AIDS? a. Pneumocystic pneumonia b. Kaposi sarcoma c. Pneumococcus infection complicated by influenza d. Non-Hodgkin's B-lymphoma e. Toxoplasmosis gondii infection

C

Which cranial nerve(s) is/are tested in the crude exam of the corneal reflex? a. Trigeminal and oculomotor b. Trigeminal only c. Trigeminal and facial d. Facial only e. Facial and vagus

C

Which drug would you use for someone with anxiety and insomnia? a. Barbiturates b. Cholinergics c. Benzodiazepines d. Opioids e. Antidepressants

C

Which fat is worse and why? a.Beige fat b. Brown fat c. White fat with visceral distribution, because of its adverse metabolic profile d. White fat with subcutaneous distribution, because of something

C

Which hormonal changes are MOST characteristic of perimenopausal women? a. High FSH levels b. Low E2 levels c. Variable E2 and FSH levels d. High prolactin levels e. Variable TSH levels

C

Which is INCORRECT regarding control of respiration? a. Signals from the DRG have a role in inspiration b. The pre-Botzinger complex has neurons that discharge rhythmically c. Signals from the pneumotaxic centre prolong inspiration d. Transection below the medulla would result in respiration ceasing e. The ventilator response to CO2 is decreased during sleep

C

Which is most correct about the C5 spinal nerve? a. It leaves the vertebral column between C5 and C6 b. It divides into dorsal and ventral roots after it leaves the vertebral column c. It unites with C6 to form the upper trunk of the brachial plexus d. It supplies the skin on the medial side of the arm e. It contributes fibres to the ulnar nerve

C

Which of the following BEST describes inflammation in asthma? a. Infiltration of epithelium with inflammatory cells and mucus secretion b. Mast cell activation and vasodilation c. Eosinophil recruitment on a background of chronic inflammation d. T lymphocyte activation and release of Th2 cytokines e. Macrophage and lymphocyte activation and granuloma formation

C

Which of the following CANNOT be transmitted sexually? a. Treponema pallidum b. HIV c. Giardia lamblia d. Hepatitis B e. Chlamydia trachomatis

C

Which of the following MOST ACCURATELY explains the brain regions involved in language? a. The main brain region involved is the right hemisphere b. Broca's area is involved in the understanding of written speech c. Wernicke's area recognizes and understands sound d. Arcuate fasciculus joins the Broca's area to muscles of speech e. Wernicke's area is not involved in the understanding of written speech

C

Which of the following adverse effects of NSAIDs is MOST UNLIKELY to occur? (Not sure about answer, research indicates that all are possible side effects...) a. Peptic ulcer b. Indigestion c. Protein-losing enteropathy d. Hypertension e. Renal impairment

C

Which of the following antibiotics cause nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity? a. Penicillin G b. Erythromycin c. Gentamicin d. Metronidazole e. Penicillin V

C

Which of the following best describes the key event in gas exchange in the pulmonary vessels? a. Oxygen dissolves in the blood because of the higher partial pressure in the alveoli b. Gas tensions in end capillary blood equilibrate with those in the alveoli c. Binding sites on Haemoglobin become almost fully saturated with oxygen d. Carbon dioxide is actively transported from blood to alveoli e. The oxygen equilibrium curve of haemoglobin shifts to the left due to the Bohr effect

C

Which of the following best describes the reason to which why a hormone that is formed "on demand"? a. The hormone is released by neuronal stimulus b. The hormone can dissolve in plasma c. The hormone is hydrophobic and cannot be stored in vesicles d. The hormone is polar

C

Which of the following has CORRECTLY matched the endocrine issues with their symptoms? 1. Mineralocorticoid deficiency 2. glucocorticoid deficiency 3. androgen excess a. lack of loss of menstural periods b. low blood pressure c. low blood glucose d. early puberty in boys e. impaired response to physiological stress excessive hair on face and body a. 1:e / 2: a, b, c / 3: d, f b. 1: b, c / 2:e / 3: a, d, f c. 1: b / 2: c, e / 3: a, d, f d. 1: e, f / 2: b, c / 3: a, d e. 1: b / 2: c, d, e / 3: a, f

C

Which of the following influences the length of action of a local anaesthetic? A. Lipophilicity B. Basicity (pH) C. Metabolism by serum esterases D. Molecular weight E. Metabolism by the liver

C

Which of the following is FALSE regarding the Quantiferon Gold Standard test A. Uses Mtb specific peptides B. Something else that was true.... C. Latent Tuberculosis infection will have a negative result D. Test is done in vitro E. BCG vaccinated individuals will have a negative

C

Which of the following is INCORRECT regarding the trigeminal nerve? a. The mandibular branch supplies sensory and motor aspects b. The maxillary branch travels through the foramen rotundum c. The trigeminal nerve supplies the muscles of facial expression d. It supplies the surface of the eye e. The sensory fibres branch out from a sensory ganglion located in the middle cranial fossa

C

Which of the following is LEAST CORRECT regarding human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)? a. It is produced by the placenta b. It is measured in the urine via a pregnancy test c. It peaks during the 2nd week d. It causes the placenta to produce oestrogen and progesterone

C

Which of the following is MOST CORRECT regarding neural development? a. Neuropores close by day 22 b. Neural tube develops from endoderm c. Dorsal ganglion root develops from the neural crest cells d. Motor neurons develop from the alar plate

C

Which of the following is NOT a neural crest derivative? a. Dorsal root ganglion b. Sympathetic trunk ganglion c. Adrenal cortex d. Melanocytes e. Schwann cells

C

Which of the following is NOT an example of scientific misconduct? a. Plagiarism b. Gift authorship c. Honest error d. Falsification of data e. Misrepresentation of results

C

Which of the following is TRUE about iron status? a. Ferritin status rise when blood iron is low b. Microcytic anaemia is due to spherical red blood cells in the peripheral circulation c. Hypochromatic anaemia occurs due to abnormally low haemoglobin concentration within RBCs d. Transferrin saturation is the ratio of circulating iron in the plasma compared to cell storage capacity e. Ferritin is the main method of transporting iron in the blood / plasma

C

Which of the following is TRUE about the loop of Henle? a. Active Na+ absorption in the thin ascending loop b. Both thick and thin ascending limbs are permeable to water c. Active Na+ absorption in the thick ascending limb, but impermeable to water d. Only juxta-glomerular cells have loops of Henle e. The osmolality of urine after the thick ascending limb is 1200 mosm/kg

C

Which of the following is a defining characteristic of the growth of tertiary chorionic stem villi? A. Extensions of cytotrophoblasts, known as syncytiotrophoblasts, invade maternal blood lacunae resulting in the villi outgrowths. B. Invasion of extraembryonic mesoderm into the core of the villi C. Formation of blood vessels, establishing a functional utero-placental circulation

C

Which of the following is incorrect? a. Aα and Aβ fibres are large myelinated structures b. Aδ fibres are lightly myelinated structures c. C fibres are lightly myelinated structures

C

Which of the following is the BEST reason for delaying vaccination in a child? a. Family history of autism b. A history of anaphylactic reactions to milk proteins c. A high fever on the day of vaccination d. Incomplete vaccination records e. Taking antibiotics for ear infections

C

Which of the following regarding ECG of a first-degree heart block is TRUE? a. PR interval less than 0.12s b. Random depolarisation from a leaking source c. PR interval is greater than 0.21s d. Not every P wave is followed by a QRS complex e. Consists of alternating atrial and non-atrial beats

C

Which of the following statements about twins is correct? A. It is easy to identify whether its monozygotic or dizygotic through ultrasound scan B. Dizygotic is because two ovum are fertilised by one sperm C. Monochorionic, monoamniotic twins must be identical D. Dichorionic, diamniotic twins must be non-identical

C

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about the trigeminal nerve? a. The mandibular branch supplies sensory and motor aspects b. The maxillary branch travels through the foramen rotundum c. The trigeminal nerve supplies the extraocular muscles d. It supplies the surface of the eye e. The sensory fibres branch out from a sensory ganglion located in the middle cranial fossa

C

Which of the following statements is MOST CORRECT about nerve C6? a. It arises from the spinal cord between C6 and C7 vertebrae. b. After it exits the vertebrate it divides into ventral and dorsal roots c. It supplies the flexors of the elbow d. It supplies the skin on the medial side of the arm e. It supplies the ulnar nerve

C

Which of the following statements is MOST CORRECT about the rectum? a. It is lined by simple squamous epithelial cells (lined by simple columnar) b. It is supplied by the superior mesenteric artery (inferior mesenteric artery) c. It has venous drainage to liver d. It has taenia coli in its wall e. It has three rectal valves in the rectal ampulla

C

Which of the following statements is MOST CORRECT in regard to the autonomic nervous system? A) Noradrenaline is the neurotransmitter at sympathetic ganglia B) Direct sympathetic effects on the heart are mainly mediated by alpha adrenergic receptors C) Adrenaline is the predominant catecholamine released from the adrenal medulla D) Parasympathetic activation results in decreased gastrointestinal motility E) Parasympathetic activation results in increased heart rate and motility

C

Which of the following statements is the MOST CORRECT regarding CMV screening? a. The screening is 100% specific and sensitive b. CMV cannot be screened for in foetal urine 1 week after birth c. It is most accurately diagnosed by a combination of amniocentesis after 20 weeks, Ig avidity and serology (IgM and IgG) d. CMV is screened for in all pregnant women e. CMV cannot be screened for

C

Which of the following statements regarding cognition and ageing is CORRECT? a. Crystallised intelligence decreases with age b. Fluid intelligence increases with age c. Speed of processing decreases with age d. Vocabulary decreases with age e. Episodic memory increases with age

C

Which of the following statements regarding monocytes is MOST CORRECT? a. They are small granular leukocytes b. They have a lifespan of hours c. They mature into macrophages upon entering tissue d. They are multinucleated e. They are the most numerous type of leukocyte

C

Which of the following statements regarding mortality due to influenza infection is correct? a. Data recorded on death certificates provides the best estimate of frequency b. Fatal outcomes are most common in infants and children under 4 years c. Elderly individuals often die because of secondary bacterial pneumonia d. Death only occurs if significant co-morbidities are present e. Vaccination has little impact on the risk of death from influence

C

Which of the following statements regarding potassium and its handling by the kidney is MOST CORRECT? a. It is mainly reabsorbed in the distal tubule b. It is the main extracellular ion c. It is secreted by the principal cells in the collecting duct d. It always undergoes net secretion e. The intracellular concentration is 4-5 mmol/L

C

Which of the following statements regarding the uterine cervix is most correct? A. The endocervix is bounded at the proximal end by the external os B. The ectocervix is comprised of columnar mucinous epithelium C. The transformation zone is characterised by squamous metaplasia D. The squamocolumnar junction is fixed throughout adult life E. Cervical 'erosions' are a symptom of cervical intraepithelial neoplasia

C

Which of these groups are NOT at increased risk of having gestational diabetes mellitus? a. Women with a family history of diabetes mellitus type II b. Indigenous Australians c. Women who have previously had children with low birth weight d. Women with polycystic ovarian syndrome e. Women over 40 years of age

C

Which one is the CORRECT null hypothesis? a. No association between diagnosis of MI and triglyceride levels in target population b. No positive association between diagnosis of MI and triglyceride levels in sample population c. No association between diagnosis and triglyceride levels in the study sample

C

Which one of the following is the predominant source of energy for an athlete in a 400m race (approximately 50 seconds)? a. Creatine phosphate b. Anaerobic metabolism of blood glucose c. Anaerobic metabolism of muscle glycogen to lactate d. Aerobic metabolism in blood e. Aerobic metabolism in muscle

C

Which one of the following statements BEST explains the way that Helicobacter pylori infection can be diagnosed by a breath test? a. Urea and carbon dioxide are converted to ammonium and water by the actions of the enzyme urease b. Radioactive carbon molecules (C13 or C14) that are incorporated into urea molecules by Helicobacter pylori can be measured in the breath c. The level of urease activity in the stomach correlates with the level of colonization by Helicobacter pylori d. The splitting of urea by the enzyme urease causes a change in acidity, and this can be measured in the breath

C

Which one of these is LEAST CORRECT? a. Virus particles do not grow b. Viruses lack genetic information which encodes apparatus necessary for generation of metabolic energy c. Viral glycoproteins make up the capsid d. Matrix proteins are internal virion proteins that link internal nucleocapsid assembly to the envelope e. Viruses are usually bigger than 20nm

C

Which one of these is a CHARACTERISTIC of chemical synapse within the CNS a. Transmission can go both back and forth b. Transmission is synchronized through gap junctions c. Calcium is taken back up by the pre-synaptic terminal d. Glutamate receptors on the pre-synaptic terminal are activated

C

Which one of these statements concerning pain is INCORRECT? a. Pain is a subjective experience resulting from activation of nociceptors b. Pain nociceptors are unmyelinated axons with free nerve endings and small cell bodies c. Descending inhibition of pain involves the diencephalon, the pons, the periaqueductal gray d. One of the other answers

C

Which option BEST describes the trends of alcohol, smoking and obesity in Australia? a. Amongst men, there is an increase in risky alcohol and smoking b. Amongst young women, there is an increase in obesity and a decrease in high blood pressure c. Amongst young men, there is an increase in obesity and decrease in smoking / high blood pressure d. Amongst young women, there is a decrease in obesity and increase in smoking e. Amongst young men, there is a decrease in risky alcohol taking and decrease in obesity

C

Which response best describes the action of clomiphene? a. It acts upon oestrogen receptors b. Acts as an agonist at oestrogen receptors in the hypothalamus, stopping negative feedback from inhibiting the release of GnRH / FSH c. Binds to oestrogen receptors in the pituitary, hence decreasing negative feedback of oestrogen, thus increasing the amount of FSH levels

C

Which structures contribute most to the stability of the shoulder joint? a. Capsule tightens b. Glenohumeral ligaments c. Muscle attachments d. Glenoid labrum

C

Which treatment for dysentery is INCORRECT? a. Rehydration b. Metronidazole c. Loperamide d. Norfloxacin e. Ciprofloxacin

C

With regard to HPV, which of the following is MOST CORRECT? a. HPV is an RNA virus b. In benign lesions, HPV integrates into the host genomes c. HPV does not infect mature squamous cells of the transformation zone d. Most HPV infections become chronic e. HPV carcinogenesis involves mutations of the p53 gene

C

With regard to NMDA receptors and their role in long-term potentiation of memory, which ONE of the following is CORRECT? a. NMDA is the fast channel b. NMDA depolarizes at the membrane, allowing AMPA activation c. It is involved in Hebbian learning d. NMDA is not involved in Ca2+ influx

C

With regard to bias and confounders, which of the following is MOST CORRECT? a. Sampling bias occurs when sample size is too small b. Confounding bias is removed by randomization c. Publication bias occurs when positive significant results are more likely to be published than negative d. Attrition bias is removed through intention-to-treat analysis e. Allocation bias is best minimized by stratified randomization via a computer programme

C

With regard to female puberty which ONE of the following statements is CORRECT? a. Pubarche occurs before thelarche b. Menarche is the first sign of female puberty c. Thelarche occurs first, then a growth spurt, then menarche d. Ovulation usually occurs before the first menstrual period e. Puberty usually occurs early in girls with Turner's syndrome

C

With regard to the mechanism of action of carbimazole, which ONE of the following is MOST CORRECT? a. Reduces iodine uptake by the thyroid b. Directly reduces the level of thyroid hormones c. Inhibits peroxidase and synthesis of T4 d. Prevents deiodination of T4 e. Has no effect on levels of thyroid hormones

C

With regard to the pancreas, which ONE of the following statements is INCORRECT? a. It develops from the ventral mesogastrium b. It lies at the level of the root of the transverse mesocolon c. It crosses the anterior surface of the right and left kidneys d. It develops from the dorsal mesogastrium

C

With regard to the pandemic influenza, which ONE of the following is MOST RELEVANT? a. Over-vaccination and overuse of antiviral therapy b. Mutations in seasonal influenza c. Reassortment of avian, swine and human viruses d. The current influenza vaccine is only for two species of influenza A and one species of influenza C

C

With regard to the practical class on volume and solute control, which ONE of the following statements is CORRECT? a. 1.8% urea is isosmotic and isotonic b. 1.8% urea is hypoosmotic and hypotonic c. 1.8% urea is isosmotic and hypotonic d. The greatest osmolar excretion occurs in this experiment in subjects who drink saline e. The greatest osmolar excretion occurs in this experiment in subjects who drank water followed immediately by a dose of ADH by nasal instillation

C

With regard to viruses, which ONE of the following statements is INCORRECT? a. They are obligate intracellular parasites b. They cannot be visualised by light microscopy c. They are able to reproduce independently within the host cell d. They are neither eukaryotes nor prokaryotes e. They cannot carry out metabolic processes

C

With regards to mapping genes, which of the following is MOST CORRECT regarding a marker and a disease gene? A. They are coding sections B. They are non-coding sections C. They are always on the same chromosome D. They must be on different chromosomes

C

All of the following occur when the diaphragm contracts for inspiration except: a. Chest cavity lengthens b. Intraplural pressure becomes more negative c. The lungs fill with air d. Abdominal contents move down and forwards e. Ribs pull inwards

E

Which ONE of the following is the BEST description for palliative care by WHO? a. Relief of pain b. Relief of pain at the end of their life c. Dealing with suffering in patients and their families d. Dealing with sudden death/bereavement in a family e. Best quality of life for the patient and the family

E

In regards to alternative and complementary medicine in Australia, which is LEAST CORRECT? a. They are used by a majority of Australians b. Randomised trials for CAM require controls c. Use of alternative and complementary medicine may delay effective treatment d. Randomised control trials are required to prove efficacy before approval by TGA e. Use of these drugs may increase herb-drug interactions

D

1. Which of the following is NOT a reason for an individual who has recently been diagnosed as HIV+ to be hesitant about starting anti-retroviral therapy? a. Belief that their body will be able to cope with the virus on its own b. Difficulty to comply c. Side effects d. The certainty that it may reduce viral load to be undetectable e. Having to stay on the therapy for life

D

320 people in a study. 100 in the treatment group 220 in the control group. 10 in the treatment group died and 44 in the control group. a. RR is 2.5 b. Number needed to treat is 1 in 5 c. RR is 20% d. ARR is 10%

D

A 25-year-old had a Mantoux test after his sister was diagnosed with active TB. It was checked 48 hours later. Induration was 10mm. Which is the following is MOST CORRECT? a. The test must be dismissed because it should be checked an hour after the test b. A BCG vaccine could not have caused this positive test c. He has active TB d. His sister may have transmitted TB to him e. He should be put on 4 anti-TB drugs immediately

D

A RCT is planned to evaluate the efficacy of a new chemotherapy drug in patients with bowel cancer. All patients selected for the trial undergo baseline assessment prior to commencement. Which ONE of the following statements about baseline assessment is MOST CORRECT? a. It can help to reduce measurement bias b. It is usually represented as Table 2 in the paper c. It is not essential to the study report and is usually omitted from the paper d. It is the baseline measurement and comparison of the subjects' characteristics that may affect the trial outcomes e. It is the measurement for the baseline of the trial outcomes

D

A girl is feeling as if she cannot deal with a situation anymore and feels that she cannot do anything to improve her situation. Which of the following is true? a. This is emotional based coping b. This is focus based coping c. She shows pure coping due to a negative temperament d. She shows no signs of coping e. She shows a flexible method of coping, effectively useless

D

A man is found to have a glucose fasting test result of 6.6 mmol/L, BMI of 32 and no other complications. What is the BEST course of action? a. Start on oral medication b. Lifestyle changes c. Start on insulin as soon as possible d. Take oral test

D

A mother consults you about her 9-month-old baby daughter, who has Down syndrome, confirmed on chromosome testing. The mother is concerned that the baby is slower in her development compared with her first child, and asks what can be done to help the baby. The MOST APPROPRIATE response is to: a. Refer the mother to a psychiatrist for emotional support to help her cope with a child with a disability b. Explain that developmental delay is an invariable feature of Down syndrome, and cannot be altered c. Suggest that the mother contact the Down Syndrome Association for further information about the syndrome d. Refer the baby to a local Early Educational Program for intervention e. Explain that with an intensive early intervention and education programme, her baby will catch up with her peers in time

D

All of the following contributed to the absence of an effective vaccine in the 2009 swine flu epidemic in Australia EXCEPT a. International travel caused rapid spread b. 2009 was a novel strain c. Need for vaccine trials and testing d. Children under 10 require two doses of the vaccine e. Vaccines are grown in embryonated hen eggs

D

All of the following mechanisms are involved in alcohol withdrawal EXCEPT a. Activation of inhibitory transmission b. Inhibition of excitatory transmission c. Endogenous opioid system d. Increases in activation of calcium channels e. Pharmacokinetics tolerance

D

All of the following statements about the spinal cord are true, EXCEPT: A) The dorsal (posterior) horn is concerned with sensory processing B) It usually ends at the level of the L 1 - 2 intervertebral disc C) The subarachnoid space is located between the pia and arachnoid layers of he meninges D) Primary sensory neurons synapse on cells in the dorsal root ganglion E) The ventral root is formed by the axons of motor neurons

D

An 82-year old woman on dialysis for kidney failure, suffers a stroke and is bed-bound. She says, "I'm ready to die... I wish to stop having dialysis." She is found not to be depressed. Stopping treatment would be: a. You should attempt to advise against stopping dialysis and continue treatment b. Suicide c. Like euthanasia if you decide to withdraw her treatment d. Ethically and legally appropriate e. It is not allowed if the family does not consent

D

Gay men use these as risk reduction strategies EXCEPT a. Serosorting b. Withdrawal c. Strategic positioning d. Bottoming e. Disclosure

D

Gloria is aged 78 and is in good health. Each autumn her GP injects her with influenza vaccine. With regard to this scenario, which ONE of the following statements is MOST CORRECT? a. The assessment of anti-influenza antibodies is diagnostically useful during acute influenza infection b. Gloria's GP should vaccinate her against influenza in spring c. Vaccination boosts the natural killer (NK) cell response to influenza d. The vaccine changes each year to reflect recent circulating influenza strains e. If Gloria had severe immunodeficiency, the killed virus vaccine injection would be hazardous

D

Histology slide of alveoli with typical pneumonia. Which of the following is NOT a typical feature of this kind of pneumonia? a. There is vasodilation b. There is exudate in the alveoli c. Cellular accumulation leads to abscess formation d. Complements from B cells are involved in the process e. Pyogenic bacteria are involved in the process

D

In a high protein diet, which one of the following is HIGH in concentrations in serum and urine? a. Creatinine b. Protein c. Amino acid d. Urea e. Uric acid

D

In advanced kidney disease, all of the following opioids can be used EXCEPT a. Hydromorphone b. Oxycodone c. Fentanyl d. Morphine e. Methadone

D

Regarding Indigenous Australians, which of the following is TRUE? a. Mortality rates have decreased over the past 10 years b. Aboriginals have lower incidence of newborns with low birth weight c. There are higher rates of current drinking in Aboriginals than non-Aboriginals d. Cardiovascular disease is the leading cause of mortality in the Indigenous population e. Indigenous Australians predominantly live in remote areas

D

Regarding analysis and interpretation of scientific studies, which of the following statements is MOST CORRECT? a. Internal validity depends on the extent to which a study's design and conduct are likely to prevent random errors b. A narrow confidence interval around the estimate of the effect would suggest less certainty of the size of the true effect c. External validity is the prevention of systematic errors d. A recent, well carried out systematic review of randomised control trials (RCTs) would give you the best current evidence for the efficacy of a therapy

D

Regarding mass hepatic cirrhosis seen in this slide, which of the following is LEAST CORRECT? (http://vslide2.med.unswu.edu.au/slide.jsp?fn=pathology/unsw_75.pff&mag=40) a. Hepatocyte regeneration b. Presence of fibrosis or something along the lines of that c. Normal lobular architecture of the liver is destroyed d. Adipocyte metaplasia e. This lesion would be associated with portal venous hypertension

D

Regarding motility of the gastrointestinal tract, which of the following are MOST CORRECT A. The entire GIT is made up of smooth muscle B. C. The GIT is controlled by the central nervous system D. Muscles of the GIT exhibit oscillating membrane potential E. GIT muscle contractions are a result of an increase of extracellular Na+

D

Regarding the cardio-oesophageal junction, which is MOST CORRECT? a. The oesophageal epithelium is simple columnar b. The gastric epithelium is stratified cuboidal c. The cardia is mainly comprised of goblet cells d. The majority of the cells of the cardia of the stomach are mucus-secreting

D

Regarding the uterus, which ONE of the following statements is MOST CORRECT? A. It has an inner perimetrium and outer endometrium. B. The endometrium is comprised of stratified squamous epithelium. C. The myometrium has striated muscle fibres. D. It has glands which dilate during the secretory phase of the menstrual cycle. E. It has a cylindrical superior part termed the cervix.

D

Regarding treatment for tuberculosis, which ONE of the following statements is INCORRECT? a. Extended treatment is indicated for patients with meningitis and for patients with HIV infection b. Combination treatment or compound drug therapy commonly involves an initial phase of about 2 months, followed by a continuation phase of about 4 months c. All of the first-line-drugs used to combat TB can be given orally d. Rifampicin is not commonly used as a first-line drug against TB because of its frequent unwanted effects e. Combination treatment is indicated to prevent development of resistance

D

Regarding tuberculosis, which of the following is MOST CORRECT: A. BCG vaccine can be differentiated from TB infection by the Mantoux test B. Neutrophils are important in tuberculosis response for presenting antigen to T cells C. T cells release IL-4 to activate macrophages D. Granulomas may show central caseation E. BCG vaccine causes production of protective antibodies against TB

D

Sam fell off a tree and has a laceration on his forearm. He has had his tetanus immunisations and boosters. Which of the following is MOST CORRECT about the subsequent immune response? a. The antigen is carried top the lymph nodes via the efferent lymphatic vessels b. The antigen is presented to CD4+ T cells on MHC Class 1 c. T-cells migrate from the bloodstream to the interstitium, and then to the lymphatics d. B-cells proliferate in germinal centres in axillary lymph nodes e. B-cells differentiate into plasma cells, then travel in lymphatics to become lodged in the spleen

D

The HPV vaccine a. Prevents HPV types 11, 16, 18 and 33 b. Provides lifelong protection against the disease c. Is only available for women in Australia d. Serves to decrease the incidence of cervical carcinoma and genital warts e. Removes the need for PAP tests

D

The differentiation of the external male genitalia occurs prenatally. Which of the following best describes how this occurs? (sorry wording for everything might be a bit iffy) A. Testosterone is metabolised to androstenedione which causes the changes B. In males, dihydrotestosterone is produced in the gonads then is transported down to the external tissues to influence conversion C. DHT... D. In males, 5- reductase in the local tissues is responsible for the metabolism of testosterone to a more active metabolite, resulting in the subsequent changes E. In females, AMH is converted to a steroid which is responsible for the changes in their genital tract

D

The epidermis is very vascular BECAUSE healing of a skin wound requires adequate blood flow A) Both the assertion and the reason are correct AND the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion B) Both the assertion and the reason are correct BUT the reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion C) The assertion is true but the reason is false D) The assertion is false but the reason is true E) Both the assertion and the reason are false

D

The father can rehydrate his son (his son got diarrhoea) by giving him ORS. The following about ORS is true EXCEPT: A. ORS contains glucose, sodium, chloride, citrate and water B. ORS is recommended for all aetiologies and ages C. ORS alone can be used to treat most watery diarrhoea D. ORS must be used with antimotility drugs to treat severe diarrhoea E. ORS can be made at home from table salt, orange juice, water and sugar

D

The following are true about smoking cessation EXCEPT: A. 5A's are effective B. The best way to assess nicotine dependence is time to first cigarette after waking C. Withdrawal is over in 10-14 days D. NRTs should not be used for more than 4 weeks E. Varenicline and combined NRT are the most effective treatments

D

The following statements about control of organ flow are true EXCEPT a. Autoregulation of blood flow allows organs to maintain constant blood flow despite variations in blood pressure b. According to myogenic theory, increase in blood pressure to renal artery will cause vasoconstriction in renal arterioles c. Cerebral blood flow is mediated by local factors only, not neural or humoral d. Metabolic hyperaemia is due to decrease in sympathetic stimulation to blood vessels causing vasodilation e. In skin, sympathetic innervation to blood vessels causes vasoconstriction

D

The middle ear cannot communicate with air BECAUSE the tympanic membrane prevents communication between the external acoustic meatus and the middle ear a. Both the assertion and reason are correct and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion b. Both the assertion and reason are correct but the reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion c. The assertion is correct but the reason is false d. The assertion is incorrect but the reason is true e. Both the assertion and reason are incorrect

D

The picture below showed a zygote in an early stage after fertilization. What is the structure indicated by label A. a. Spermatozoa centrioles that assist in mitosis b. Zona pellucida of oocyte that assist in attachment of sperm c. Two polar bodies that resulted from meiosis of oocytes d. Pronuclei from spermatozoa and oocytes e. Golgi apparatus and endoplasmic reticulum

D

There is a gene with maternal imprinting (it is silenced). If there is a mutation in the gene, what is most likely to lead to a phenotypic consequence? A. If the disease is Xlinked B. If the gene is inherited from the mother C. If there is a secondary reversible mutation D. If the gene is inherited from the father E. If the gene encodes for IGF2

D

Venous thrombi are non-occlusive BECAUSE stasis is an important factor in venous thrombi formation a. Both the assertion and the reason are correct and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion b. Both the assertion and the reason are correct but the reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion c. The assertion is correct but the reason is false d. The assertion is incorrect but the reason is true e. Both the assertion and reason are incorrect

D

What activity is an oncogene NOT involved with? a. Growth factors b. Growth hormone receptors c. Transcription factors d. DNA repair mechanisms e. Affecting intracellular transduction

D

What correct term best describe an individual whose assigned gender given at birth doesn't match the gender a person feels? A. Hermaphrodite B. Transvestite C. Cisgender D. Transgender E. Pansexual

D

What correct term best describe an individual with genetic/hormonal phenotype that is intermediate and neither male or female as defined by society? a. Hermaphrodite b. Transvestite c. Cisgender d. Intersex e. Pansexual

D

What happens when the left side of the spinal cord is cut at the lumbar area (spinal hemi-lesion)? a. Contralateral loss of tactile sensation below the lesion b. Ipsilateral loss of nociception below the lesion c. Loss of ipsilateral thermal and loss of contralateral tactile sensations d. Loss of contralateral thermal sensation and ipsilateral tactile sensation below the lesion e. No loss

D

What is MOST IMPORTANT when assessing the validity of clinical trials? a. Allocating equal number of participants in intervention and control b. Age of participants being similar in the intervention and control c. Having higher incidence of expected outcome in the sample d. Random allocation of participants in the intervention and control e. Participants' 100% compliance to the intervention

D

What is NOT the function of lymph nodes? a. Production of humoral antibodies b. Re-entry of blood-borne lymphocytes into the lymphatic channels c. Production and activation of B-cells d. Production of granulocytes e. Capture of foreign material from lymphatic channels

D

What is most correct regarding blood entering the left atrium? a. Oxygenated blood from the pulmonary artery b. Oxygenated blood from the superior and inferior vena cava c. Deoxygenated blood from pulmonary veins d. Oxygenated blood from the pulmonary veins e. Deoxygenated blood from the pulmonary artery

D

What is the MOST APPROPRIATE definition of resilience? (collated 2013-2014; 2013 asked about resilience whereas 2014 asked about coping - not too sure if they were the same thing) a. Complete physical, mental and social well-being and not merely the absence of disease or infirmity b. Well-being in which every individual realizes his or her own potential, can cope with the normal stresses of life, can work productively and fruitfully, and is able to make a contribution to his or her community c. A construct that allows you to cope with bad events better than expected d. Cognitive and behavioural efforts to deal with an event appraised taxing the resources of an individual e. It is the sum of protective factors

D

What is the factor that causes ankle oedema that is MOST CORRECT? A. Decrease in Arterial Pressure B. Increase/decrease in haematocrit C. Increase in colloid osmotic pressure D. Increase in Venous Pressure E. Increase in plasma proteins

D

What is the lesion that results in left homonymous hemianopia? a. Right optic nerve b. Left optic nerve c. Optic chiasm d. Right optic tract e. Left optic tract

D

What is the name of the neuron that carries information from the peripheral receptors to the CNS? a. Motor neurons b. Efferent neurons c. Interneuron d. Sensory neuron e. Association neuron

D

What is the structural driver of the HIV epidemic? A. Health promotion in population groups B. Side effects of ARV C. Post-exposure prophylaxis D. Criminalisation of sex workers E. HIV exceptionalism

D

What organisms are most commonly involved in peritonitis and intra-abdominal abscess? a. Clostridium, enterococcus, E. coli b. Clostridium, enterococcus, E. coli c. Bacteroides, staphylococcus, proteus mirabilis d. Bacteroides, enterococcus, E.coli e. Bacteroides, staphylococcus, proteus mirabilis

D

What structure is NOT present in the right ventricle? a. Atrioventricular tricuspid valve b. Septomarginal trabeculae c. Infundibulum d. Conically shaped interior e. Anterior, posterior and septal papillary muscles

D

When glucose is broken down anaerobically in skeletal muscle, the glycolytic product pyruvate is converted to lactate. What is the best explanation for this? a. Accumulation of lactate decreases the pH of muscle, thereby improving performance b. Extra ATP is formed c. Pyruvate is an allosteric inhibitor of a regulatory enzyme in glycolysis and must be removed d. Lactate formation uses NADH and this regenerates NAD+ e. Lactate can be exported, but pyruvate cannot

D

Which ONE of the following BEST describes the affect on sensorimotor function as one ages? a. It changes in linear fashion b. Sensorimotor function has less variability in elderly as compared to young adults c. Underlying diseases may increase risk of falling in the elderly more than impaired sensorimotor function d. Sensorimotor function decreases exponentially and increases in variability as we age e. Underlying diseases doesn't affect the risk of falling in the elderly

D

Which ONE of the following alternatives BEST DESCRIBES the function of the dorsal root (spinal) ganglia? a. Control of gut motility b. Activation of sweat glands c. Control of voluntary muscles d. Sensory reception e. Dilation of the pupils

D

Which ONE of the following is MOST CORRECT about the female uterus? a. It is lined with stratified non-keratinising squamous epithelium b. There is an inner perimetrium followed by the endometrium and myometrium c. Has a myometrium containing loops of striated muscle d. Has glands which dilate and secrete, which are full of glycogen e. Has a cylindrical superior part termed the cervix

D

Which ONE of the following is the MOST comprehensive measure of the total burden of disease which is used in assessing health needs in the community? A) Standardised rates of hospitalisation due to a disease B) Incidence of a disease C) Age adjusted population mortality rates due to a disease D) Disability adjusted years of life lost due to a disease E) Quality adjusted life years associated with an intervention

D

Which ONE of the following microscopic features is MOST characteristic of acute inflammation? a. Prominent lymphatic vessels b. Neutrophilic influx c. Fibrinous exudate d. Dilated and congested blood vessels e. Influx of macrophages, new blood vessels and fibroblasts

D

Which ONE of the following processes CANNOT be done by humans? a. Fructose to galactose b. Glucose to amino acids c. Amino acids to triacylglycerol d. Fatty acids to glycogen e. Glycerol to glycogen

D

Which ONE of the following regarding body temperature is MOST CORRECT? a. Body temperature is lowest in the early evening b. Females have lower body temperatures in the second half of their menstrual cycle c. Rectal temperature is lower than oral temperature d. In a cool subject, heat is lost by core-to-skin conduction e. In a hot environment, a subject with high subcutaneous fat will have more heat loss by convection

D

Which ONE of the following statements BEST DESCRIBES the disease burden in Australia? a. The age adjusted prevalence of ischaemic heart disease is increasing b. The prevalence of chronic long term conditions is decreasing c. Alcohol causes the greatest burden of disease d. Smoking causes the greatest burden of disease e. The burden of disease due to chronic conditions is greater in people with higher socioeconomic status

D

Which ONE of the following statements about conception is INCORRECT? a. In assisted reproduction, only one sperm is necessary to fertilise an ovum b. Conception rates are unrelated to frequency of intercourse c. To fertilise an ovum, a spermatozoan needs to penetrate the zona pellucida d. Implantation of the blastocyst occurs on about day 4 after fertilization e. Fertilization of the ovum occurs in the ampulla of the Fallopian tube

D

Which ONE of the following statements concerning HIV infection in a medical student is CORRECT? a. Any student with HIV would be reported to the Dean and excluded from studying medicine b. A student with HIV would not be able to practice medicine following graduation c. Providing tests show that the student is not infectious, the student would be able to participate in all forms of surgery d. The student would be unable to participate in exposure-prone procedures e. The HIV status of the student must be reported to the teaching hospital

D

Which ONE of the following statements is MOST CORRECT? a. Strep pneumoniae is a cause of pharyngitis b. Parainfluenza is most likely to cause rhinitis because it grows optimally at 33˚C c. Antibiotics is a suitable treatment for the common cold d. You are likely to find Gram positive, ß-haemolytic organisms in a pharyngitis swab e. A and D

D

Which ONE of the following statements regarding Hepatitis B virus is LEAST CORRECT? a. It can be prevented in at-risk individuals by active immunization b. It can cause asymptomatic infection in adults c. It can lead to chronic hepatitis, cirrhosis or hepatocellular carcinoma d. It can be diagnosed by the finding of antibodies against Hepatitis B surface antigen (anti-HBsAg Ab) in the blood of previously immunized individuals e. It can spread from mother to child during childbirth

D

Which ONE of the following statements regarding chronic cardiac failure (CCF) is INCORRECT? a. During CCF blood pressure may be reduced leading to retention of fluid by the kidneys via the RAAS b. Failure of left ventricle leads to an increase in pulmonary venous pressure and pulmonary oedema c. Oedema occurs because the outward filtration of fluid from the microcirculation exceeds the capacity of the lymphatic system to remove that fluid d. Oedema occurs during CCF because venous congestion leads to a fall in capillary pressure e. Failure of the right ventricle causes systemic venous hypertension and tissue oedema

D

Which ONE of the following statements regarding the assessment of a breast lump is MOST CORRECT? a. In the absence of tethering to the chest wall, a palpable breast lump is most likely to represent ductal carcinoma in situ b. In the presence of a primary breast cancer, the clinical finding of enlarged axillary lymph nodes indicates metastatic spread of the cancer c. Fine needle biopsy has a very low false negative rate in the diagnosis of breast cancer d. The accuracy of a pre-operative diagnosis of breast cancer is greatest when clinical, imaging and pathological data are combined e. Mammography detects breast cancer because it identifies focal areas of calcification

D

Which ONE of the following statements regarding the epidemiology of breast cancer is MOST CORRECT? a. Approximately one in four women in Australia will develop breast cancer by the age of 75 b. On an age-standardised basis, the incidence of breast cancer is greater in 50-year-old women than 60-year-old women c. Breast cancer is the second most common type of internal malignancy amongst Australian women d. For post-menopausal women in Australia, the incidence of breast cancer is greater in obese individuals than those with a normal body index e. Increases in the crude incidence of breast cancer over the last two decades in Australia are due to widespread use of hormone replacement therapy by postmenopausal women

D

Which is MOST CORRECT about the spinal cord? a. Has oligodendrocytes form the blood brain barrier b. Has neurons with dendrites that transmit signals c. Has motor neurons in the dorsal horn d. Has axons which transmit signals that have a large hillock which do not have Nissl bodies e. There are two meningeal layers, the dura and pia mater

D

Which is MOST clinically relevant to MI? a. Progressive occlusion of coronary arteries b. Rupture of plaque c. Embolic infarction d. Atherosclerotic thrombus infarction

D

Which is an incorrect method of treatment after a positive screening during pregnancy? a. HBV - neonatal vaccination b. HIV - antiretroviral therapy pre- and post-partum c. Syphilis - antibiotics therapy d. Rubella - antivirals e. UTI - antibiotics

D

Which is the MOST LIKELY interpersonal cause of Tran's distress? a. Being the son of migrant parents b. Having to 'fit in' with friends c. A family history of PTSD d. Feeling like a burden to his parents e. Feeling inadequate compared to his successful brother

D

Which is the MOST LIKELY sign of major depression in Tran? a. Feeling of worthlessness b. Not going to university for weeks c. Sleep disturbance d. Thoughts of death

D

Which is true of the deltoid muscle? a. It is involved in all shoulder movements b. It is a scapular depressor c. It acts unaided in arm abduction d. It is innervated by a branch of the posterior cord of the brachial plexus e. It attaches to the coracoid process of the scapula

D

Which of the following BEST EXPLAINS the elimination of a pathogenic virus from the body a. Killed by B cells b. Killed by neutrophils c. Killed by helper T cells d. Killed by cytotoxic T cells e. Phagocytosed by macrophage

D

Which of the following about GnRH is correct? GnRH is released from the: A. Anterior pituitary stimulated by growth hormone B. Posterior pituitary to act on ovaries and tests C. Anterior pituitary to act on adrenal glands D. Hypothalamus to act on the anterior pituitary E. Made in the ovaries and testes

D

Which of the following about slapped cheek disease is correct? A. it is caused by a skin commensal bacteria B. It is partially preventable by a vaccination in Australia C. It causes febrile convulsions D. It causes hydrops fatalis and intrauterine death E. it is infectious for 4 days after symptoms appear

D

Which of the following are NOT automatically screened for in the first trimester of pregnancy? a. HIV b. Rubella c. Rhesus antibodies d. Folate deficiency e. Thalassaemia

D

Which of the following best describes pulmonary inflammation in tuberculosis? a. It reflects the humoral adaptive immune response of the host b. IT is characterised by the recruitment of CD8 T cells c. Interferon-gamma is the key driver of the inflammatory process d. Activated macrophages form aggregates around organisms e. Tissue necrosis leads to abscess formation

D

Which of the following best describes the distribution of water in humans? a. There is 60L of water in a 70kg male b. 1/3 of the distribution is intracellular c. It is higher in females than males d. There is an increased ratio of water in lean people than in fat people

D

Which of the following best explains why T cells play a key role in the immune response? a. They are primarily responsible for the presentation of antigens b. They are primarily responsible for secretion of antibodies c. They provide innate defence against viral infection d. They co-ordinate the adaptive immune response e. They recirculate between blood and lymphoid organs

D

Which of the following does NOT cause transplacental infection? a. Treponema pallidum b. HIV c. Hepatitis B virus d. Chlamydia trachomatis e. Listeria monocytogenes

D

Which of the following does NOT characterize an autoimmune disease? a. Response to immunosuppression b. Caused by immunization with vaccine c. Presence of an auto-immune response d. Disease caused when antibodies or other immune cells are transferred to another individual or animal

D

Which of the following does NOT contribute to reducing spread of TB in occupational settings? A. Isolation and quarantine of infected individuals in negative pressure rooms B. Fast diagnosis and intervention C. UV germicidal radiation D. Reducing ventilation E. Identification of MDR-TB cases and subsequent action

D

Which of the following has the MOST influence on steady state concentration? a. Dosage of the drug administered b. Method of administered c. The affinity between drugs and their targets d. Rate of metabolism e. The volume of distribution

D

Which of the following histological features of the pituitary is true: a. The anterior pituitary contains pituicytes b. The posterior pituitary contains acidophils which secrete prolactin c. The middle pituitary contains acidophils which secrete ACTH d. The Herring bodies in the posterior pituitary store ADH and oxytocin e. The pituitary is supported by the infundibulum from the thalamus and rests in the sella turcica

D

Which of the following is CORRECT regarding the late gestation phase prior to labour? a. A decrease in expression of oxytocin receptors in the myometrium b. A rise in progesterone in maternal plasma c. A decrease in oestrogen in maternal plasma d. A rise in CRH e. A rise in CRH-BP

D

Which of the following is CORRECT regarding the pressures during a normal breathing cycle? a. The shape of the alveolar pressure trace is essentially the same as the shape of the intrapleural pressure trace b. Alveolar pressure varies between about -5 cm H2O and -8 cm H2O c. Alveolar pressure is always negative d. Alveolar pressure is zero at the beginning of inspiration e. Intrapleural pressure is at its most negative at the beginning of inspiration

D

Which of the following is MOST CORRECT about buffers in the blood? a. The pK of bicarbonate is closest to plasma pH b. The pK of phosphate is less than bicarbonate c. The main protein buffer in the blood is albumin d. Proteins rich in histidine residues are good buffers e. Oxyhaemoglobin takes up protons more readily than deoxyhaemoglobin

D

Which of the following is MOST CORRECT regarding patient testing of HIV? a. You don't have to tell the patient you're testing them for HIV b. The results are ready in 60 min, so make them wait for the results before leaving c. The receptionist can inform the patient of the results through telephone d. Confidentiality must be maintained when conducting the test e. Doctor is obligated to tell partner of patient that they're being tested

D

Which of the following is MOST CORRECT regarding premotor and supplementary motor areas? a. They have first movement neurons and act later than primary motor area b. Somatotopy only occurs in the primary motor area c. They receive synaptic input d. They play an essential role in finely coordinated movement such as tying a knot e. They do not contribute axons to the corticospinal tract

D

Which of the following is MOST CORRECT with regard to the cuneate fasciculus? a. It originates from the gracile and cuneate nucleus b. It is present at all levels of the spinal cord c. It is medial to the gracile fasciculus d. It transmits tactile sensation from the upper limbs e. It transmits temperature and pain from the lower limbs

D

Which of the following is NOT true about the use of placebos in randomized control trials? a. Placebos make different medications seem similar or identical b. The fact that we know we are taking a placebo has an effect c. It can be used to compare to an active treatment d. It can be used in all clinical trials e. It conceals the identity of the trials in different groups

D

Which of the following is TRUE regarding environmental air pollution? a. Disease occurs more from indoor pollution than outdoor pollution b. Global burden of health due to air pollution has decreased from recent action taken by countries to reduce air pollution c. Ozone released from aerosol cans cause significant damage to the environment d. Helping to reduce the effects of climate change can have benefits to health by reducing the air pollution

D

Which of the following is the LEAST IMPORTANT in the prognosis of breast cancer? a. Oestrogen receptors b. Size of primary tumour c. Number of lymph node metastases d. Number of lymph nodes taken out e. Her2/Neu gene expression

D

Which of the following is the MOST IMPORTANT tool for the diagnosis of pneumonia? a. Sputum Gram stain b. Sputum culture c. Bronchoscopy d. Chest X-ray e. Blood test

D

Which of the following is the MOST correct concerning the vagus nerve? a. It acts on smooth muscle cells on peripheral blood vessels b. It will increase heart rate c. It synapses at the coeliac ganglion d. It forms a plexus of fibres in front of the oesophagus e. It supplies the entire digestive system

D

Which of the following represents a misconception about the dangers of harm minimization? a. Legalizing drugs may be the best way forward in the war against drugs b. Harm minimization does not increase the use of illicit drugs c. The goal of harm minimization is to reduce the harms associated with risk-taking behaviours without actually decreasing the prevalence of risk-taking behaviours d. Heroin and ecstasy are illegal because they are more dangerous than legal drugs

D

Which of the following results from deficiency of Vitamin K A. Rickets B. Scurvy C. Decrease in night vision D. Inability to form blood clots E. Decrease in plasma haemoglobin levels

D

Which of the following statements MOST CLOSELY matches the definition of Merkel's diverticulum? a. Ladd's bands of connective tissue lying across the intestine, constricting it b. Incomplete recanalization resulting in parallel lumens, a specialised form of stenosis c. Congenital abdominal wall problem failing to close the abdominal viscera d. Abnormal closure and absorption of omphalomesenteric duct e. Hernia of GI contents, liver and covered by abdominal membranes into the intact umbilicus

D

Which of the following statements about anti-inflammatory drugs is MOST CORRECT? a. Aspirin is a selective inhibitor of COX-2 b. Corticosteroids are the drug of choice for initial treatment of arthritis c. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs all act irreversibly to inhibit formation of COX d. COX-2 selective inhibitors are less likely to produce gastrointestinal bleeding than COX-1 selective inhibitors e. The anti-inflammatory effect of corticosteroids is due to stimulation of phospholipase-a2.

D

Which of the following statements about eosinophils is MOST CORRECT? a. They secrete mucus which can occlude the airways in asthma b. They are more important in immune defence against viruses than against Helminths c. Their nuclei consists of a single lobe d. They are prominent in inflamed tissue in allergic conjunctivitis and allergic rhinitis e. They are abundant in granulomatous inflammation

D

Which of the following statements about peripheral chemoreceptors is MOST CORRECT? a. Involved in minutetominute ventilation b. Most important in responding to increase in PCO2 c. d. Most important in responding to arterial hypoxaemia e. Monitors pH

D

Which of the following statements is the MOST CORRECT regarding CMV screening? a. CMV cannot be screened for b. Amniocentesis can test CMV between week 10-12 during pregnancy c. Combination of urine and amniocentesis is the most accurate method to test CMV d. CMV can be screened in foetal urine 1 week after birth e. Amniocentesis is a less dangerous test than chorionic villus sampling

D

Which of the following statements regarding pneumonia is INCORRECT? a. In pyogenic pneumonia, there is exudate present in the alveolar spaces b. In atypical pneumonia, there is exudate present in alveolar interstitium c. In pyogenic pneumonia, bacterial N-formyl peptides attract neutrophils into the exudate d. In atypical pneumonia, microorganisms infect alveolar epithelial cells e. In pyogenic pneumonia, cell-mediated responses attract neutrophils to the exudate

D

Which of the following statements regarding the scapula is INCORRECT? a. It lies against ribs 2-7 b. The glenoid fossa faces anterolaterally c. The coracoid process provides attachment for the short head of biceps brachii d. The spine continues medially as the acromion process e. The serratus anterior muscle attaches to its medial border

D

Which of the following strategies would be MOST EFFECTIVE in blocking gastric acid production? a. Blockade of the parietal cell Na+/K+/ATPase b. Stimulation of the parietal cell HCO3-/Cl- exchange mechanism c. Blockade of the parietal cell carbonic anhydrase d. Blockade of the parietal cell H+/K+/ATPase e. Stimulation of vagal input to the stomach

D

Which of the following was the MOST SUCCESSFUL in preventing falls in the elderly living within the community? a. Hydrotherapy b. Flexibility training c. Strength training d. Balance training e. Brisk walking

D

Which of these has the highest infection rate of HIV? a. Vaginal sex, insertive position b. Vaginal sex, receptive position c. Anal sex, insertive position (NB: If question asked for highest transmission rate, this is the answer) d. Anal sex, receptive position e. Oral sex

D

Which of these is most suitable for a fall hazard reduction program? (Fall hazard reduction programs are most effective for which populations?) a) Elderly couple who are very active b) Intelligent but elderly people c) People in nursing homes d) Frail people who have a history of falls e) Elderly men rather than elderly women

D

Which substrates are for the following lipases: lipoprotein lipase, hepatic lipase, pancreatic lipase (in that order)? a. Chylomicrons, HDL, exogenous lipids b. Chylomicrons, LDL, dietary fat c. Chylomicrons, VLDL, dietary fat d. VLDL, IDL, exogenous lipids e. VLDL, LDL, dietary fat

D

Whilst doing push-ups, which of the following keeps the scapula close to the thoracic cavity? a. Deltoid b. Pectoralis major c. Pectoralis minor d. Serratus anterior e. Subclavius

D

Why does vitamin B12 deficiency cause a similar anaemia as in folate deficiency? a. Both folate and vitamin B12 provide one carbon for biosynthesis of purine in nucleotide production b. Both folate and vitamin B12 provide one carbon for biosynthesis of haem in haemoglobin production c. Folate converts vitamin B12 into a functional form d. A deficiency in vitamin B12 will cause a deficiency of functional folate e. Folate is required for synthesis of intrinsic factor to activate absorption of vitamin B12

D

With regard to STIs, which is INCORRECT? a. Some contraceptive methods can reduce the risk of infection b. Not all genital tract infections are sexually transmitted c. Contraceptive use can increase the risk of infection d. Increased age of first sexual encounter leads to increased risk of infection e. Risk of STD increases with a new sex partner

D

With regard to bacterial capsules, which ONE of the following statements is MOST CORRECT? a. They are composed of a range of complex proteins b. They assist in motility of bacteria c. They only occur in Gram-positive bacteria d. They allow an organism to evade phagocytosis e. They are located just external to the plasma membrane

D

With regard to healing of a skin wound by primary intention, which ONE of the following statements is MOST CORRECT? a. It is an example of regeneration b. It is characterized by epithelial proliferation c. It leads to the formation of a scar with subsequent contraction d. It is delayed by inadequate apposition of edges e. It is delayed in elderly individuals

D

With regard to hydrostatic pressure, which ONE of the following statements is MOST CORRECT? a. Pulse pressure is greater in large arteries than in the aorta b. Venous pressure in the feet decreases as a person goes from a supine to standing position c. Venous pressure is pulsatile d. Pulse pressure is lowest in the capillary bed e. Systemic pressure decreases in the arterioles

D

With regard to pharyngitis, which ONE of the following statements is MOST CORRECT? a) It only occurs in childhood b) Antibiotics are effective against viral pharyngitis c) Bacterial pharyngitis can be reliably distinguished from viral pharyngitis on clinical signs alone d) It can lead to glomerulonephritis e) Streptococcus pyogenes is the only bacterial cause

D

With regard to the pituitary gland, which of the following is MOST CORRECT? a. The anterior pituitary (adenohypophysis) contains pituicytes b. The posterior pituitary (neurohypophysis) contains acidophils, which produce prolactin c. The anterior pituitary contains Herring bodies, which produce something d. The anterior pituitary contains acidophils, basophils and chromophobes

D

With regard to the renal regulation of acid-base balance, which ONE of the following statements is CORRECT? A. Most urinary acid is excreted as free protons B. The excretion of titratable acid in the urine largely depends on the excretion of ammonium C. More ammonium is excreted in an alkaline urine than an acidic urine D. In response to alkalosis there is an increase in bicarbonate excretion E. Renal arterial ammonia levels are generally higher than renal venous ammonia levels

D

With regard to the renal regulation of acid-base balance, which ONE of the following statements is CORRECT? a. Most urinary acid is excreted as free protons b. The excretion of titratable acid in the urine largely depends on the excretion of ammonium c. More ammonium is excreted in an alkaline urine than an acidic urine d. In response to alkalosis there is an increase in bicarbonate excretion e. Renal arterial ammonia levels are generally higher than renal venous ammonia levels

D

With regards to this woman's perception of pain, a nociceptor differs from sensory neurons which transmit touch and vibration because it a. Has a myelinated axon b. Sends an axon directly to the cerebral cortex c. Uses bradykinin as a neurotransmitter d. Has free nerve endings e. Has a large cell body

D

Women presents with osteoporosis, hot flushes, night sweats and a family history of breast cancer. Which ONE of the following is the BEST treatment? a. Alpha-adrenoceptor antagonist b. Oestrogen c. Anti-progesterone d. SERM e. Selective dopamine reuptake inhibitor

D

You are conducting a cohort study on the dietary risk factors for diabetes in pregnancy. You hear a group of pregnant women with diabetes voluntarily attending daytime seminars with the hospital physician. Your colleague suggests you use them for your study. Why do you hesitate? A. There is observer bias because you know who they are and what they have B. There is no match control because the group is already picked and they all have diabetes C. There is a strong likelihood of recall bias because the people attending daytime sessions are likely to be older D. There is selection bias because the women attending voluntary sessions are likely to be more health conscious than pregnant diabetic women on the whole E. It will be difficult to randomise the women into intervention groups

D

You have to locate articles regarding substance abuse by medical students. The following search strategy yields 1098 results: 1. Exp. substance abuse 2. students, medical 3. Physician impairment 4. 2 or 3 5. 1 and 4 Which of the following will most effectively narrow down your results? a. Limit your results to review articles and EBM b. Apply to MeSH: Binge Drinking c. Limit your search to full text and English text d. Refine your search by focussing and adding appropriate subheading e. Focus your search instead of exploding

D

71 yo ischaemic stroke in left parietal lobe, near face region of primary somatosensory cortex. All of these are true except a. right cheek feels numb b. Right cheek can't differentiate warm or cold stimuli c. Distorted body image, leading to sensation of "curled ear" d. Right cheek can't feel touch (difficulty producing speech?) e. No corneal reflex of the right eye

E

Which ONE of the following problems is a recognized complication of fracture of the medial epicondyle of the humerus? a. Rupture of the common extensor origin b. Loss of sensation on the lateral three and a half digits c. Damage to the radial nerve d. Damage to the brachial artery e. Paralysis of the hypothenar and interosseous muscles in the hand

E

All of the following statements regarding pelvic inflammatory disease are true, except for: A. It may be asymptomatic B. It is commonly associated with neisseria gonorrhoea and chlamydia trachomatis C. It is associated with infection of the uterus, fallopian tubes, and ovaries D. It is associated with post-coital bleeding E. It is not a likely cause of ectopic pregnancy

E

All of these are typical complications of chronic otitis media except: a. Mastoiditis b. Meningitis c. Brain abscess d. Chronic sinus infection e. Meniere's Disease

E

A 58-year-old man died 3 days after surgery on his pancreas. A saddle embolus was found in his pulmonary artery on autopsy. There were no macroscopic changes observed. What is the MOST LIKELY reason why? a. Dual circulation with bronchial artery b. Good air supply allows for reperfusion c. Something about haemorrhage d. Only microscopic changes will be observed e. Insufficient time for necrosis to occur

E

Which ONE of the following skills would you expect a normally developing three-year-old to perform? a. Build a tower of two blocks only b. Tie shoelaces c. Speak only 10 single words d. Skip using a skipping rope e. Speak in sentences of 5-6 syllables

E

3. Which of the following is a movement on contraction of the triceps brachii muscle? a. Flexion of the elbow joint b. Pronation of the forearm c. Medial rotation of the shoulder d. Abduction of the shoulder e. Extension of the elbow joint

E

A 64-year-old man develops progressive jaundice over several weeks, associated with central abdominal pain. He has a long history of alcohol abuse, and in the past has suffered from recurrent episodes of chronic pancreatitis. An abdominal ultrasound shows a dilated common bile duct 15mm in diameter. Which ONE of the following diagnoses is the LEAST LIKELY cause of the clinical and investigative abnormalities? a. Carcinoma of the head of the pancreas b. Choledocholithiasis (gall stone impacted in the common bile duct) c. Bile duct obstruction secondary to chronic pancreatitis d. Enlarged lymph nodes in the porta hepatis secondary to metastatic spread of gastric cancer e. Cirrhosis of the liver

E

A 68 year old man presents with dull, central chest pain that worsens at rest. ECG shows ST elevation in the anterior chest leads. He also has high Troponin-T levels. Which of the following pathophysiologies most reflect his clinical presentation? a. Thromboembolism in the left main coronary artery b. Mural thrombosis overlying a ruptured atheromatous plaque in the left anterior descending coronary artery c. Mural thrombosis overlying a ruptured atheromatous plaque in the right coronary artery d. Occulsive thrombosis overlying a ruptured atheromatous plaque in the right coronary artery e. Occlusive thrombosis overlying a ruptured atheromatous plaque in the left anterior descending coronary artery

E

A hypothetical ecological study shows a strong positive correlation between per capita sugar consumption and T2DM rates in children in the Asia-Pacific region. Which ONE of the following is the BEST INTERPRETATION of this study? a. Sugar consumption is a risk factor for T2DM b. We cannot draw any conclusions because the association could be due to selection bias c. We cannot draw any conclusions because the measurement of sugar consumption is likely to be unreliable d. Children who consume more sugar are more likely to develop T2DM but this does not mean that the association is causal e. T2DM rates in children are higher in countries with higher sugar consumption

E

A mother is concerned about her 18-month-old child. He only 'cruises' around furniture and is unable to walk unaided, he babbles but speaks no words, and is not interested in stacking blocks. The mother works and the child goes to day-care 5 times a week. As a GP what would you do? a. Recommend that the mother takes a few days off to spend more time with her child b. Send the child immediately for an MRI c. Send the child off to a specialist for an immediate diagnosis d. Reassure that her child is developing within the normal range e. Reassure the mother that the child is only mildly delayed, but there is nothing to worry about and he should catch up

E

A mother tells you that her child does not need a tetanus injection because he is receiving vitamin C supplements. You have never heard of this before and so you carry out a search to look for relevant information about this. Which type of publications would give the BEST level of evidence for the search? a. Cohort studies b. Case control studies c. Clinical trials d. Randomised control trials e. Systematic reviews

E

A woman has weakness and loss of felling in her left leg. Which artery is MOST LIKELY to be affected? a. Left anterior cerebral artery b. Right middle cerebral artery c. Right posterior cerebral artery d. Left middle cerebral artery e. Right anterior cerebral artery

E

A woman who smokes is having a child. The risk of that child having Down syndrome is 20/100, but if she stops smoking, that risk changes to 10/100. As her GP, how would you communicate the change in risk if she stopped smoking? a. The relative risk ratio (50%) b. Odds ratio c. The absolute risk reduction (10%) d. The relative risk reduction (50%) e. The absolute risk ratio (10%)

E

According to general ethics, a consequentialist approach regarding the decision of right and wrong is determined by: (conflict D or E) a. Intention b. Integrity c. Rights of the patient d. The best outcomes for the patient e. The best outcomes for the most number of people

E

According to the AusDiab 1999-2000 data, which ONE of these is MOST CORRECT? a. More women are overweight than men b. Japan has a similar pattern of prevalence as Australia c. 19.5% of men are overweight d. More obese Australians than overweight Australians e. Prevalence of overweight and obesity peaks in the 55-64 year-old range

E

According to various studies, what is the MOST EFFECTIVE way of reducing the risk of HIV transmission? a. Consistently using male condoms b. Early treatment of STIs c. Application of vaginal antiretroviral microbiocides in women at high risk of HIV d. Daily antiretroviral medications in HIV negative homosexual men e. Early initiation of ART in HIV+ people

E

Acute inflammation can be reversed by analgesics BECAUSE these drugs can reduce redness and swelling

E

Adrenaline: A. Is the neurotransmitter for the autonomic sympathetic nervous system B. Lowers heart rate C. Is made by the kidneys D. Has the exact same effects as noradrenaline E. May cause vasodilation in skeletal muscle during exercise

E

All of the cells are produced for haematopoeitic stem cells (HSC) EXCEPT a. Dendritic cell b. Neutrophil c. Monocyte d. T-cell e. Endothelial cell

E

All of the following are correct regarding the pars compacta of the substantia nigra EXCEPT a. It is found in the cerebral peduncle of the midbrain b. Something about dopaminergic neurons c. Has an excitatory effect on the D1 receptors in the direct loop d. Has an inhibitory effect on the D2 receptors in the indirect loop e. It contains dopaminergic neurons that project to the globus pallidus

E

All of the following are part of the host defence against infection in the urinary tract EXCEPT a. Flushing effect of urination b. Epithelial cell shedding c. Secretion of IgA d. Sphincter action e. Inflammation

E

All of the following infections/pathogens can be transmitted by the faecal-oral route EXCEPT: a. Giardia lamblia b. Rotavirus c. Salmonella typhinurium d. Campylobacter jejuni e. Treponema pallidum

E

All of the following occur in excitotoxicity, EXCEPT: A. Initial ischaemia increases local glutamate concentration B. Glutamate acts on extrasynaptic NMDA receptors C. Ionotropic NMDA receptors enables flow of Na+ and Ca2+ into the cell D. Excitotoxic damage continues for hours after restoration of blood supply to the affected area E. Decreased activation of NMDA receptors alters Ca2+ homeostasis

E

Child w/ Anaemia, which ONE of the following statements is MOST CORRECT? a. She should have been introduced to low-allergenic solids at 3-4 months b. She should have been solely breastfed for as long as possible as breast milk has all the needed nutrition until 9 months c. She should have been introduced to finger foods at 6 months to introduce her palate to a wider variety of textures and fill her nutrient requirements d. She should have been given cow's milk at 6 months as it is an excellent source of iron, protein and energy e. She should have been given a wider variety of foods at 7-8 months of age including meat

E

Comparing intracellular fluids with extracellular fluid such as plasma, which of the following statements is MOST CORRECT? a. They have approximately the same Ca2+ concentration b. They have approximately the same K+ concentration c. They have approximately the same Na+ concentration d. They have approximately the same protein concentration e. They have approximately the same water concentration (osmolarity)

E

Concerning cancer pain, which ONE of the following statements is MOST correct? a. Pain in cancer patients is always caused by cancer b. Morphine should only be used in the terminal stages c. All cancer pain is caused by similar mechanisms d. Worsening pain is caused with disease progression e. Pain is not an inevitable consequence of cancer

E

During the expression of genes, translation is a. The process of forming polyribosomes which will transfer mRNA into proteins b. The process of adding a 5' cap and a poly-A tail onto the 3' section of mRNA c. The process by which DNA is synthesized onto a DNA template d. The process by which mRNA is transcripted into the cell cytoplasm e. The process by which polypeptides are synthesized on an mRNA template

E

Each of the following statements about this histological section of the border of an ischaemic infarction are correct EXCEPT a. The upper segment is undergoing liquefactive necrosis b. Lipid-laden macrophages dominate the upper segment c. The lower segment is undergoing gliosis d. Reactive astrocytes dominate the lower segment e. The histological features would be present at 1-2 days

E

Image of left atrium and ventricle of a 75-year-old male after autopsy. The central part of the infarct (lesion 1) shows the yellow appearance of dead tissue (necrosis), and bordering on this is a narrow grey zone where removal of dead tissue has taken place. The outer reddish area (lesion 2) suggests partial healing by early scar tissue). Which ONE of the following statements is MOST CORRECT? a. Lesion 1 would have occurred at least 6 weeks prior to lesion 2 b. Lesion 1 exhibits microscopic liquefactive necrosis c. Lesion 2 is haemorrhage d. Lesion 2 is acute fibrinous pericarditis e. Lesion 2 is a healing response to lesion 1

E

In a parallel RCT to compare two treatments for osteoarthritis, the subjects are recruited, allocated to groups by a randomization method using computer-generated random numbers and then consented to the trial. Which ONE of the following statements about this trial is the MOST CORRECT? a. In this trial, there is a high risk of confounding bias b. Subjects will receive both treatments one after another c. Random allocation using random numbers ensures that the assessors are blinded to the treatments d. Consenting before randomization leads to a form of selection bias e. Random allocation using random numbers aims to create two groups of subjects that will be similar in every way except the treatment they receive

E

In order to qualify for palliative care, which one of the following criteria must apply? a) Cancer diagnosis b) Normal cognitive function c) Prognosis of 3-6 months d) Referral by a medical specialist team e) Being diagnosed with a life-limiting illness

E

In relation to pancreatic enzymes, what is the CORRECT statement? a. Chymotrypsin inhibits trypsin b. Trypsinogen activates chymotrypsin c. Trypsinogen inhibits trypsin d. Trypsin activates chymotrypsin e. Trypsin activates chymotrypsinogen

E

In the nasal cavity which of the following is most important in the front line defence against environmental irritants and pathogens? a. Trapping by nasal hairs in the vestibule b. Detection as a consequence of olfactory innervation c. Clearance by increased secretion by mucosal serous glands d. Drainage into the paranasal sinuses e. Trapping and clearance by epithelium covering the conchae

E

LH and FSH are a. Synthesized in the testes and ovaries in response to GnRH b. Synthesized in the hypothalamus and act upon the testes and ovaries c. Synthesized in the posterior pituitary and act upon the testes and ovaries d. Synthesized in the posterior pituitary in response to the growth hormone e. Synthesized in the anterior pituitary in response to GnRH

E

Low ferritin, low serum iron, high transferrin, low transferrin saturation, hypochromasia a. Microcytic anaemia due to folate deficiency b. Microcytic anaemia due to B12 c. Mild anaemia due to ß-thalassaemia trait d. Anaemia due to chronic illness e. Iron-deficiency anaemia

E

Of all implanted embryos, what number closely reflects how many are lost before the next menstrual cycle? a. 10% b. 20% c. 30% d. 40% e. 50%

E

One of your patients comes in and you do a fasting blood test. Results are: total cholesterol 21mM, triglyceride 0.5 mM, HDL-C 1mM and LDL-C 19.1mM. Your patient is MOST LIKELY a. A 20-year-old female medical student with normal lipid levels b. A 25-year-old obese male with suspected type II diabetes c. A 43-year-old male with mixed hyperlipidaemia d. A 38-year-old female who presents with heterozygous familial hypercholesterolaemia e. A 4-year-old boy with xanthomas and suspected homozygous familial hypercholesterolaemia

E

Patient has left homonymous hemianopia with macula sparing. Which ONE of these arteries is MOST LIKELY to be occluded? a. Right middle cerebral artery b. Left middle cerebral artery c. Posterior communicating artery d. Left posterior cerebral artery e. Right posterior cerebral artery

E

Purkinje cells of the cerebellum a. Run parallel to the folia b. Receive only inhibitory input c. Receive several input fibres from climbing fibres d. Transmit excitatory inputs to the deep cerebellar nuclei e. Are the only output cells of the cerebellum

E

Regarding Chronic inflammation, which ONE of these is MOST CORRECT? A. Vascular permeability returns to normal B. Lymphocytes and plasma cells predominate the response C. Neutrophils are infrequent because they undergo apoptosis D. E. Repair by healing occurs concurrently

E

Regarding HIV in Australia, the following statements are true, EXCEPT: A. STI infection increases the risk of HIV transmission B. The rate of HIV incidence has increased in the last 15 years C. In recent years more gay men are engaging in unprotected anal sexual intercourse D. Prophylactic treatment of HIV-negative individuals has reduced the transmission of HIV by over 90% E. Intravenous drug transmission accounts for 10% of new cases of HIV

E

Regarding acid-base balance, which ONE of the following statements is MOST CORRECT? a. More acid is produced by the body as fixed acid than as carbon dioxide b. When the blood pH is greater than 7.0, a person is said to have alkalosis c. A weak acid dissociates more readily than a strong acid d. The most important protein buffer in the blood is albumin e. Although phosphate is a good buffer, it is only present in small concentrations in the blood

E

Regarding diabetes insipidus, which ONE of the following is MOST CORRECT? a. Increased insulin production b. Decreased insulin production c. Insulin resistance d. Increased ADH production e. Decreased ADH production

E

Regarding emphysema, which one is the MOST correct? a. Lung compliance is reduced b. Lung obstruction is fully reversible with bronchodilators c. Pan-acinar emphysema is the most common d. Lung obstruction is due to increased mucous production e. Lung residual volume is increased

E

Regarding otitis media in Indigenous children, which is MOST CORRECT? a. Passive smoking is the major risk factor for otitis media in Indigenous children b. Acute otitis media in Indigenous infants is usually asymptomatic, persistent and easily diagnosed c. Antibiotics are the best option for preventing otitis media in Indigenous children d. Poor hygiene is the primary cause of persistent bacterial colonization, a major risk factor for otitis media in Indigenous children e. Peak prevalence for otitis media in Indigenous children occurs at a younger age than in non-Indigenous children and is less likely to decline with age

E

Regarding pharmacokinetics, which ONE of the following statements is LEAST CORRECT? a. The one-compartment model is suitable for use with drugs that rapidly equilibrate with the tissue compartment b. ß-phase refers to elimination of drug from the central compartment in a 2-compartment model c. Vd is an index of drug partitioning between the vascular compartment and other tissue d. Bioavailability is that fraction of dose that is absorbed effectively from GIT e. In a two compartment model elimination occurs from all compartments

E

Regarding primary syphilis, which ONE of these is MOST CORRECT? a. It is associated with a widespread skin rash b. It is caused by Trichomonas vaginalis c. It is associated with a frothy, foul-smelling vaginal discharge d. The causative agent is Gram positive e. Definitive diagnosis can be made using dark-field microscopy

E

Regarding the immunology of the influenza virus, which of the following is MOST CORRECT? A. CD8t cells respond to the virus, CD4 do not B. CD8 T cells responds by interacting with MHC II cells C. Infected cells are killed by neutralizing antibodies D. Dendritic cells prime CD8 T cells in lymph nodes E. CD8 cells kill infected cells via ADDC

E

Regarding the late-phase inflammation reaction of asthma, which is the INCORRECT? a. Th2 cells secreting cytokines b. Eosinophils cause inflammation in the airways c. Constriction of smooth muscle of the bronchi d. Increase in mucus secretion by epithelia e. Prominent neutrophil involvement

E

Sam is a 72-year-old man with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) that is waking him up a few times a night. He also has low blood pressure and has had a few fainting spells. What would be the most appropriate adrenergic drug to treat his BPH? a. ß1-selective agonist (dobutamine) b. ß1-selective antagonist (metroprolol) c. α1-non-selective agonist (phenylepiphrine) d. α1-non-selective antagonist (prazosin) e. α1a-selective antagonist (tamsulosin)

E

Scenario where a sports person takes an energy drink that purports to contain 'more ATP and Na+ for the Na+ pump'. Presuming that this refers to the Na/K/ATPase pump, which of the following statements is correct? a. More ATP will result in increased passive transport of Na+ and K+ b. It will increase glucose uptake into the cell c. Na+/K/ATPase actively pumps Na+ into the cell and K+ out of the cell (Sodium naturally wants to go into the cell and vice versa for potassium - the pump does the converse) d. There will be no effect on the concentrations of ions e. Na+/K+/ATPase will result in decrease of Na+ intracellularly

E

Tearing of a meniscal cartilage in the knee will usually disrupt the synovial lining of the joint BECAUSE the synovium lines the entire knee joint, including the menisci. a. Both the assertion and reason are correct and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion b. Both the assertion and reason are correct but the reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion c. The assertion is correct but the reason is false d. The assertion is incorrect but the reason is true e. Both the assertion and reason are incorrect

E

The corticospinal tract a. Is primarily concerned with regulation of overall body posture b. Is only involved in control of muscles in the lower limbs c. Consists of axons from neurons in the frontal regions of the cortex, which terminate on neurons in the brainstem d. Consists of axons from neurons in the motor areas of the cerebral cortex, the cerebellum, the basal ganglia and the thalamus e. Consists of axons from neurons in the motor and somatosensory areas of the cerebral cortex

E

The hilum of the left lung a. Lies behind the superior vena cava b. Is opposite thoracic vertebrae 2, 3 and 4 c. Has the phrenic nerve passing posterior to it d. Is surrounded by tracheobronchial lymph node e. Is inferior to the arch of the aorta

E

The skin over the palmar surface of the distal phalanx of the little finger is innervated by a. Axillary nerve b. Median nerve c. Musculoskeletal nerve d. Radial nerve e. Ulnar nerve

E

There is an RCT where in the treatment group, only 80% consent, and in the control group, everyone consents. What is the best course of action? a. Add the results for that 20% drop out group to the control group b. No action needs to be taken c. Only the 80% who agreed to the trial should be compared to the control group d. This is an example of a double-blinded RCT e. Consider an intention-to-treat analysis when looking at the results

E

These statements regarding mediators in the pathogenesis of common arthritic diseases are correct EXCEPT: A. Tumour necrosis factor-alpha is a main influencer for upregulating cytokines in rheumatoid arthritis B. Aggrecanases from ADAMTS family are implicated in osteoarthritis C. IL-8 is a chemoattractant for neutrophils in gout D. The acute phase response induced by C-reactive protein is primarily due to IL-6 E. IL-2 is elevated in the synovium in rheumatoid arthritis

E

Treatment of a non-metastatic rectal cancer patient may include all the following EXCEPT a. Surgery with temporary ileostomy b. Adjuvant chemotherapy c. Adjuvant radiotherapy d. Surgery with permanent colostomy e. Brachytherapy (intracavity)

E

What are the major nitrogenous constituents of urine? a. Ammonia, urea, uric acid b. Creatinine, ammonia, urea c. Creatinine phosphate, urea, uric acid d. Ammonia, creatinine, urea e. Uric acid, creatinine, urea

E

What are the peak incidence of otitis media? a. 1 peak at primary school, 4-5 year olds b. 1 peak at weaning, 6-24 months c. 2 peaks at primary and secondary school, 4-5 and 11-12 years d. 2 peaks at weaning and secondary school, 6-24 months and 11-12 years e. 2 peaks at weaning and primary school, 6-24 months and 4-5 years

E

What best describes how B and T cells enter the lymph node? a. Through the red pulp central artery and migrate to white pulp in the node b. By efferent lymph vessels and migrate down trabaculae to the germinal centre c. By subcapsular sinus to medullary sinus d. By medullary sinus, stay 8 to 24 hours in interstitium and leave via efferent lymphatic vessel e. By blood vessel in hilar to high endothelial venules to lymph

E

What characteristic of neutrophils is most correct? a. They originate in the thymus gland b. They do not reside in tissue spaces c. They have a half-life of a few weeks d. They are non-granular leucocytes e. They are the most abundant of the circulating leucocytes

E

What contributes the LEAST to proprioceptive / kinaesthetic sensation? a. Spindle afferents b. Golgi tendon apparatus afferents c. Joint afferents d. Tactile fibres e. Nociceptive fibres

E

What happens if you have a lesion of the oculomotor nerve? a. Leads to paralysis of all extraocular muscles except the superior oblique b. Leads to ptosis and constriction of the pupil c. Leas to ptosis and medial strabismus of the ipsilateral eye d. Leads to full dilation of the pupil, but still responsive to the accommodation reflex e. Leads to ptosis and lateral strabismus of the ipsilateral eye

E

What is TRUE regarding gestational diabetes mellitus? a. Peak time of incidence is before 20 weeks gestation b. Gestational diabetes is only gene-related c. All women are treated with insulin after diagnosis d. Oral glucose challenge test provides definitive diagnosis e. Baby is likely to be large for gestational age

E

What is found in the Papez circuit of the limbic system? a. Corpus callosum b. Arcuate fasciculus c. Stria terminalis d. Medial lemniscus e. Mammilothalamic tract

E

What is the MAJOR cause of the pathogenesis of long-term complications of diabetes? a. Accelerated atherosclerosis b. Ischaemia secondary to microvascular disease c. Non-enzymatic glycosylation of protein d. Accumulation of sorbitol e. Long-standing hyperglycaemia

E

What is the action of calcitonin? A. Directly stimulates production of parathyroid hormones B. Inhibits kidney clearance of calcium C. Converts vitamin D to calcitriol D. Accelerates osteoclast action E. Stimulates bone deposition

E

What is the main energy supply in an ultra-triathlon (lasting 6 hours)? a. Creatine phosphate b. Anaerobic catabolism of muscle glycogen to lactate c. Aerobic catabolism of blood glucose d. Amino acids catabolism e. Fatty acids

E

What is the mechanism triggered by sympathetic nerve firing in the fight or flight response? a. Pupillary constriction b. Bronchiolar constriction c. Increased gastric motility d. Fall in blood glucose e. Diversion of blood flow from internal viscera to skeletal muscle

E

What protects the renal medulla from hypertonicity? a. Increase in intracellular urea b. Increase in NKCC (Na / 2Cl / K) activity in thick aLH c. Increase in activity of urea transporter UT-A d. Decrease in transcription factor TonEBF e. Increase in intracellular osmotic factors such as sorbitol, inositol, tumine and betare

E

What structure is MAINLY involved in incorporating spatial awareness in movement and forming a coordinated response with muscles? A. Supplementary motor area B. Posterior parietal lobule C. Premotor area D. Basal Ganglia E. Cerebellum

E

What was the predominant metabolic process in ultra triathlon 6h A) creatine phosphate B) Anaerobic catabolism of glycogen to lactate C) aerobic catabolism of glucose D) Amino acid catabolism E) Fatty Acid catabolism

E

Which ONE of the following BEST DESCRIBES granulation tissue? a. It is involved in healing by regeneration b. It is produced in greater amounts in primary intention than in secondary intention healing c. It is primarily responsible for the healing of epithelial surfaces d. It is induced by the release of growth factors by neutrophils e. It is associated with angiogenesis and accumulation of collagen

E

Which ONE of the following BEST DESCRIBES the mechanism of the other three drugs (isoniazid, pyrazinamide, ethambutol)? a. Prevents peptidoglycan cross-linking by inhibiting transpeptidase enzyme b. Inhibits incorporation of N-acetylmuramic acid into peptidoglycan, thus inhibiting cell wall c. Two are poisons to bacterial topoisomerase IV whereas one is a poison to DNA gyrase, thus fragmenting bacterial enzymes d. Two are inhibitors to dihydropteroate synthetase, while one inhibits dihydrofolate reductase, abolishing folic acid metabolism e. Are all pro-dugs that inhibit fatty acid synthase or formation of arabinogalactan, thus inhibiting mycolic acid synthesis and weakening outer cell wall

E

Which ONE of the following is MOST CORRECT regarding the distal convoluted tubule? a. It is directly attached to the proximal convoluted tubule b. It takes up majority of the cortex of the kidney c. It lies near the urinary pole d. It is lined by squamous epithelial cells e. It has no luminal brush border

E

Which ONE of the following is NOT a substrate of trypsin? a. Trypsinogen b. Trypsin inhibitor c. Casein d. Chymotrypsin inhibitor e. Chymotrypsin

E

Which ONE of the following statements BEST DESCRIBES the type of epithelia? A. Epithelia is highly vascularised. B. The trachea is lined with stratified squamous epithelium. C. The oesophagus is made of keratinised stratified squamous epithelia. D. Blood vessels are lined with simple columnar epithelium. E. The small intestine is made of simple columnar epithelia with goblet cells.

E

Which ONE of the following statements about body fluid compartments is MOST CORRECT? A. Most of the water in a person's body is found in their plasma B. Osmolality is usually different between intracellular and extracellular fluid C. Plasma is more like intracellular fluid than interstitial fluid D. Movement between different fluid compartments involve crossing a cell membrane E. There is a higher concentration of K+ than Na+ in the intracellular fluid than extracellular fluid.

E

Which ONE of the following statements about body fluid compartments is MOST CORRECT? a. Most of the water in a person's body is found in their plasma b. There are only two types of extracellular fluid: the plasma and the intracellular fluid c. Movement between extracellular fluid compartments occurs only through cell membranes d. Osmolality is usually different between intracellular and extracellular fluid e. Blood contains both intracellular and extracellular fluid

E

Which ONE of the following statements about fluid movement is MOST CORRECT? a. Blood moves around the circulatory system by osmotic pressure b. The rate at which water molecules cross the capillary wall by diffusion is less than the rate due to net filtration pressure c. Hydrostatic pressure is greater at the venule end of a capillary than at the arteriole end d. Channel proteins embedded in the cell membrane make it harder for ions to cross the membrane e. Hydrophobic molecules can cross the cell membrane without protein assistance more easily than polar molecules

E

Which ONE of the following statements concerning the meninges is CORRECT? a. They surround the brain and cranial nerves b. The subarachnoid space lies between the arachnoid and dura mater c. The pia mater forms a tough protective covering for the brain d. The dura mater is separated from the skull by the epidural space e. The tentorium cerebelli and the falx cerebri are formed by dura mater

E

Which ONE of the following statements is MOST CORRECT about the hard palate? It contains: a. The paired palatine processes of the maxilla posteriorly b. There are incisive foramen in the palatine processes c. Incisive foramen posterior to the intermaxillary suture d. There are greater and lesser palatine foramen in the lateral palatine process e. Horizontal plates of the palatine bone posteriorly

E

Which ONE of the following statements is MOST CORRECT? a. Based on H. pylori theory, we should treat everyone with an ulcer with antibiotics b. Asymptomatic peptic ulcers are uncommon c. Gastric and duodenal ulcers require different therapy d. Histamine, acetylcholine, gastrin and somatostatin are the stimuli of gastric acid secretion e. The first line treatment of peptic ulcer disease is triple therapies with a combination of a proton pump inhibitor and two antibiotics

E

Which is true: The hippocampus is: a. resistant to hypoxia b. Connected to the amygdala via the fornix c. Receives most of its input from the reticular formation d. Involved in storage of memories e. Involved in consolidation of declarative memory

E

Which of the following about carpal tunnel syndrome is MOST CORRECT? a. It affects all nerves in the palm and fingers b. It is caused by an autoimmune demyelinated disease c. Has increased conduction velocity compared to the ulnar nerve d. Only affects sensory neurons and not motor neurons e. Can cause paradoxical effects of sensory afferents leading to parasthesia

E

Which of the following explains how recombination increases variation in gametes? A. Natural selection ensures only the fittest genotypes are inherited B. The phenotype of one gene depends on an allele at another locus C. Recombination means one gene may have several phenotypes D. The environment plays a role in determining the phenotype E. Unlinking of genes allows for a unique combinations of alleles

E

Which of the following is MOST CORRECT concerning cerebral infarction? a. Healing with laying down of collagen-rich scar tissue b. Most commonly occurs due to blockage of the posterior cerebral artery c. Hydrocephalus is a common complication d. Consumption of necrotic debris is done mainly by neutrophils e. Thromboemboli causes a haemorrhagic infarct

E

Which of the following is MOST CORRECT regarding a pulmonary thromboemboli? a. It typically results from mitral valve vegetations b. It leads to pulmonary hypertension c. It presents with worsening dyspnoea d. It is not likely to recur, even without treatment e. It can result in blockages of the pulmonary trunk

E

Which of the following is MOST CORRECT regarding inversion of the foot? a. It occurs at the talocrural joint b. It occurs due to the actions of tibialis anterior muscle and extensor hallicus longus c. It will not be affected by a lesion of the common peroneal nerve d. It is limited by the deltoid ligament e. It occurs by movement at the subtalar and transverse tarsal joints

E

Which of the following is MOST CORRECT regarding the amygdala? a. It is a midline structure b. It connects to the hypothalamus via the fornix c. It receives all sensory inputs except smell d. It is posterior to the hippocampus e. It is involved in emotional learning

E

Which of the following is MOST CORRECT? a. Aspirin and paracetamol have the same anti-inflammatory effects b. The anti-inflammatory effect of steroids is due to mineralocorticoid activity c. Aspirin reversibly binds to COX1 d. COX-1 inhibitors promote more cardiovascular thrombotic events than COX-2 inhibitors e. Aspirin works by preventing the production of prostaglandins f. COX-1 inhibitors have less GIT side effects

E

Which of the following is NOT TRUE about centenarians? a. Centenarians in Australia have increased over the past 15 years b. Centenarians are people who live long lives that are not characterized by chronic illnesses such as cardiovascular disease and dementia c. Centenarians are less likely to be hospitalized than elderly people d. Centenarians live a healthy life with disease clustered at the end e. Centenarians have a high level of morbidity

E

Which of the following is NOT a diagnostic criteria of Prolonged Grief Disorder (PGD)? Maybe it was: which of the following are not diagnostic for grief: A: Grief lasting longer than 12 months for adults and 6 months for children B: REACTION HAS TO FOLLOW THE DEATH OF A SIGNIFICANT OTHER C: COGNITIVE, EMOTIONAL, BEHAVIOURAL SYMPTOMS daily D: CONSTANT SATURATION OF THOUGHTS E - whether other family members were also in grief

E

Which of the following is TRUE regarding the mediastinum? a. The trachea and oesophagus are in the middle mediastinum b. The pericardial sac is in the superior mediastinum c. The superior vena cava passes through the posterior mediastinum d. The thoracic duct passes through the middle mediastinum e. The thymus gland is in the anterior mediastinum

E

Which of the following is important for the thermoregulation of the testes? a. Piriformis muscle b. Obturator internus c. Bulbospongiosus muscle d. Corpus spongiosus e. Cremaster muscle

E

Which of the following is most relevant to how acid-base balance in maintained? a. Buffers prevent change in PH when excess acid or base is added to body fluids b. Buffers reversibly bind or release hydroxyl ions c. Maintenance of plasma pH primarily relies on respiratory regulation d. Bicarbonate is the most useful buffer for CO2 e. Side chains of amino acids effectively buffer CO2

E

Which of the following is the best indicator of fertility? A. Increased body temperature B. Low, hard, wet cervix C. Tender breasts D. Pain in ovaries E. Stretchy abundant cervical mucus

E

Which of the following molecules is MOST LIKELY to be ingested if the epithelial cells of the small intestine are damaged? a. Fructose b. Glucose c. Glycogen d. Lactose e. Starch

E

Which of the following regarding ductal carcinoma of the breast is INCORRECT? a. Increase in nuclei-to-cytoplasm ratio b. The scar tissue, which consists of collagen, invades the adjacent structures in the breast c. It develops in aggregates d. The developed invasive tissue is lacking in myoepithelial structure e. It retains epithelial organization after developing into cancer cells

E

Which of the following statements about selection bias is the MOST CORRECT? a. Selection bias can be assessed by looking at the trial outcomes b. Selection bias can be removed by blinding the participation of the trial c. Selection bias can only affect the internal validity of the trial d. Selection bias may not be removed by ensuring participants give informed consent before selection occurs e. Selection bias may affect the external validity of the trial

E

Which of the following statements about the lateral ventricle is the MOST CORRECT? a. The floor is formed by the hypothalamus b. The roof is formed by the fornix c. The posterior wall is formed by the lamina terminalis d. The wall is formed by the dura mater e. The lateral ventricle is connected to the 3rd ventricle by the interventricular foramen

E

Which of the following statements regarding arterial blood pressure and its regulation is INCORRECT? a. A fall in blood pressure results in activation of the sympathetic nervous system, an increase in cardiac output and an increase in resistance to blood flow in some tissues b. Reduction in blood volume may result in reduced venous return to the heart, reduced cardiac output and reduced blood pressure c. An increase in blood pressure causes an increase in discharge rate in the nerves taking afferent information from the baroreceptors to the brain d. The baroreceptors are located in the bifurcation of the carotid artery and the arch of the aorta e. An increase in blood pressure will result in an increase in heart rate

E

Which of the following statements regarding cellular swelling is CORRECT? Cellular swelling is: a. A late manifestation of cellular injury due to hypoxia b. A consequence of increased entry of potassium ions into cells c. Associated with the condensation and shrinkage of mitochondria d. Recognized by the accumulation of proteinaceous fluid in nuclear vacuoles e. Potentially reversible

E

Which of the following statements regarding indigenous health is most correct? a. Each year, 1 in 5 indigenous teenagers report having 'very high stress levels'. b. Cardiovascular disease is the number 1 killer of indigenous australian c. Mums and babies programs translate to better indigenous health outcomes d. Indigenous health focuses on the individual only e. On average, Indigenous Australian men die 11 years younger than white Australian men

E

Which of these BEST describes the process of gastrulation? a. Migration of cells to the midline to form the notochord which will pattern the trilaminar embryo b. Migration in the bilaminar blastocyst generating the trophoblastic shell and chorionic sac c. Formation of the three extra-embryonic spaces: yolk sac, amniotic sac and chorionic sac d. Migration of cells to form an axial process within the trilaminar embryo e. Formation of the trilaminar embryo by migration of cells through the primitive streak

E

Which of these features are most likely to be associated with PCOS (polycystic ovarian syndrome) a. Menorrhagia b. Infection with gonorrhea c. Infection with toxoplasma d. Uterine enlargement e. Ovarian enlargement

E

Which of these structures do NOT pass through the parotid gland? a. External carotid artery b. Retromandibular vein c. Facial nerve d. Maxillary artery e. Internal jugular vein

E

Which part of a study paper or abstract gives you the best guide to how you could repeat the study for yourself? a. Discussion b. References c. Introduction d. Results e. Materials and methods

E

Which type of clinical question helps us work out the best interventions for our patients - i.e. what will deliver the most benefit and cause the least harm? a. Aetiology b. Diagnosis c. Prognosis d. Magnitude e. Therapy

E

With regard to SLM colour vision / optic, which ONE of the following is LEAST CORRECT? a. Red: s - low, l - medium, m - high b. Yellow: s - low, l - high, m - high c. White: s - low, l - high, m - high d. Purple: s - medium, l - low, m - medium e. Grey: s - medium, l - low, m - low

E

With regard to anti-retroviral therapy, which statement is INCORRECT? a. Combination therapy is indicated in pregnant women to prevent vertical transmission of HIV b. HAART involves at least 3 drugs from 2 different classes taken 2-4 times a day c. ARV therapy usually combines two NRTIs and either a NNRTI or a protease inhibitor d. Side effects are usually associated with the actions of a particular class of drugs e. In HAART, a combination of drugs are used, including at least two protease inhibitors

E

With regard to renal blood flow, which ONE of the following statements is CORRECT? a. Renal blood flow is about 10% of resting cardiac output b. Autoregulation of renal blood flow depends on the action of the renal sympathetic nerves c. A high renal blood flow is necessary to supply the oxygen requirements for sodium reabsorption d. Renal blood flow falls when arterial pressure rises above 170 mmHg e. Vasodilation of efferent arterioles causes an increase in renal blood flow

E

With regard to the design and interpretation of research studies, which ONE of the following statements is MOST CORRECT? a. Internal validity of a study assesses whether the study is capable of preventing random errors b. Internal validity is the applicability of the study results to the real-life clinical setting c. A randomized control trial design excludes all bias d. Wide confidence intervals around the estimate of effect suggest more certainty of the size of the true effect e. Internal validity assesses the extent to which an appropriate study design is implemented to prevent systematic errors such as bias

E

With regard to the stimulation of gastric secretions, which is MOST CORRECT? (3 questions from 2007, 2009 and 2011, collated together - although there seems to be different correct answers) a. Gastrin and somatostatin is secreted by the endocrine cells b. Stimulation of vagus nerve via nicotinic receptors c. Distension of stomach decreases acid secretion d. Receptors for IF on parietal cells e. Gastric acid secretion is stimulated by histamine, ACh and gastrin

E

With regard to the trachea, which is INCORRECT? a. The trachea is lined by ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium with goblet cells b. Contains horseshoe shaped cartilage rings c. Has basement membrane beneath epithelium d. Contains mixed seromucous glands e. Contains skeletal muscle in its wall

E