EPPP Flagged & Incorrect Questions (Test A)

The belief that the nature of thought is influenced by the thinker's native language is basic to: 1. The James-Lange theory 2. The Sapir-Whorf hypothesis 3. The Law of Effect 4. The Law of Parsimony

2. The Sapir-Whorf hypothesis The Sapir-Whorf hypothesis states that the language people use actually shapes how they think (e.g., English-speakers think about snow differently from Alaska natives since they have fewer words for it). James and Lange (Response 1) developed a theory about emotion, specifically that people infer their emotions from observing their behavior. According to Thorndike's Law of Effect (Response 3), people repeat behaviors that are followed by pleasant consequences. Developed by William of Ockham in the 14th century, the Law of Parsimony (Response 4), also known as Occam's razor, suggests that the best explanation for a phenomenon is the one that is simplest and requires the fewest assumptions.

In terms of parenting, which theorist would recommend the use of natural, logical consequences and a focus on the goals of misbehavior? 1. Adler 2. Minuchin 3. Bowen 4. Haley

1. Adler Alfred Adler's Individual Psychology has been widely adapted and used in parenting programs. STEP (Systematic Training in Effective Parenting) helps parents structure family life so that children experience natural and logical consequences of both good behavior and misbehavior. These programs also help parents to identify the goals of their children's misbehavior (e.g., attention) so that they can help their children reach their goals in healthier, more adaptive ways.

Which of the following has been implicated in both obsessive-compulsive disorder and tic disorders? 1. Basal ganglia 2. Hypothalamus 3. Thalamus 4. Medulla

1. Basal ganglia The basal ganglia play a vital role in the regulation and coordination of movement and in establishing posture. Abnormalities in the basal ganglia have been linked to both OCD and tic disorders, as well as the movement disorders of Parkinson's disease and Huntington's disease (Response 1, correct answer). The hypothalamus plays a key role in maintaining homeostasis in the body (ruling out Response 2). The thalamus is the relay station for all senses, except olfaction (ruling out Response 3). This means that all sensory information, with the exception of smell, first stops in the thalamus before being sent to its destination in the cortex. The medulla controls processes that are vital to life including heartbeat, breathing, and blood pressure (ruling out Response 4).

Masters and Johnson's technique of sensate focus is based on: 1. Counterconditioning 2. Aversive counterconditioning 3. Positive Reinforcement 4. Negative reinforcement

1. Counterconditioning Sensate focus is a classical conditioning intervention that involves counterconditioning. In counterconditioning, a person learns a new response (e.g., pleasurable feelings) that is incompatible with a problematic response (e.g., performance anxiety). Aversive counterconditioning (Response 2) involves pairing a pleasurable but problematic conditioned stimulus (e.g., the taste of alcohol) with a more powerful, aversive unconditioned stimulus (e.g., vomiting because the person has taken Antabuse). Positive and negative reinforcement (Responses 3 & 4) are both forms of operant conditioning and are not the basis of sensate focus.

DRO is based on: 1. a combination of classical and operant conditioning. 2. a combination of punishment and reinforcement. 3. a combination of extinction and reinforcement. 4. a combination of positive and negative reinforcement.

3. a combination of extinction and reinforcement. DRO, or differential reinforcement for other behaviors, combines operant extinction for an undesired behavior with reinforcement for more appropriate behavior. For example a child is ignored when she whines, and complimented when she politely asks for what she wants.

Which of the following is not part of Acceptance and Commitment Therapy (ACT)? 1. Decreasing negative emotions 2. Choosing personal values 3. Observing thoughts and feelings without judgment 4. Committed action

1. Decreasing negative emotions Keep in mind that this question is asking for the answer that is not part of Acceptance and Commitment Therapy (ACT). Acceptance and Commitment Therapy (ACT) is a therapeutic approach started by Steven C. Hayes in the 1980s that is derived from CBT and traditional behavioral therapy. The goal of ACT is to develop psychological flexibility, which includes emotional openness and aligning your thoughts and behaviors with your values and goals. ACT includes 6 core processes: acceptance, cognitive defusion, being present, self-as-context, values, and committed action. Acceptance is aimed at acknowledging and accepting all thoughts and emotions; thus the focus is not on decreasing negative emotions (Response 1, correct answer). Cognitive defusion involves changing your reactions to negative thoughts and feelings. Being present encompasses being mindful in the present moment and observing thoughts and feelings without judgment (ruling out Response 3). Self-as-context posits that people are more than their thoughts and feelings. During the values stage of ACT, clients choose values to live by, which hopefully minimize distressing thoughts and the need to live up to others' expectations (ruling out Response 2). Committed action involves choosing concrete steps to incorporate the changes developed through the other steps of ACT. Goal setting is a key piece of committed action (ruling out Response 4).

According to Kohlberg's stages of gender identity, a child who identifies a boy with long hair as a girl, even though she sees him as a boy when his hair is short, is in what stage? 1. Gender labeling. 2. Gender stability. 3. Gender consistency. 4. Gender confusion.

1. Gender labeling. Kohlberg outlined three stages of the development of gender identity in children. In the first stage, gender labeling (Response 1, the correct answer), children identify others as male or female based on physical appearances such a clothing or hair style and do not recognize that gender is stable over time. Thus, as physical characteristics change (e.g., hair length), gender changes. In the second stage, gender stability (Response 2), children recognize that gender is stable over time (e.g., boys will grow up to be daddies), however, there is still some confusion as to whether superficial appearance serves as a way of identifying gender. Finally, in the third stage, gender consistency (Response 3), children fully understand the nature of gender as permanent across time and situation. Gender confusion (Response 4) is a non-clinical term that refers to confusion about whether one is truly male or female.

In most situations, due to limited time or cognitive limitations, a person cannot think through all possible options to arrive at the optimal solution; the person's thinking is thus not fully rational. This phenomenon, known as bounded rationality, has been described extensively by: 1. Herbert Simon. 2. Alfred Binet. 3. Kurt Lewin. 4. Abraham Maslow.

1. Herbert Simon. Herbert Simon, a proponent of bounded rationality, has argued that when it comes to decision making, people frequently find satisfactory rather than optimal solutions, due to time constraints, cognitive limitations, or the ambiguity of a problem (Response 1, correct answer). Simon's approach is referred to as satisficing, behavioral, or administrative. In contrast, the classical decision-making style, also known as the rational economic model, involves a clear definition of the problem, knowing all possible alternatives and the consequences of choices, and then choosing the optimum resolution. Alfred Binet created the first intelligence test (ruling out Response 2). Kurt Lewin is well known for his field theory which proposes that behavior is a function of the person and environment (ruling out Response 3). Abraham Maslow is famous for the five-step hierarchy of needs: physiological, safety, belonging (social), esteem, and self-actualization (ruling out Response 4). TIP: If you had no idea who described bounded rationality, you may have been able to use process of elimination to eliminate Alfred Binet, the creator of the Stanford-Binet intelligence test, and Abraham Maslow who created Maslow's hierarchy of needs. This would leave you with a 50-50 chance of getting the right answer.

Which of the following scenarios will tend to increase the standard error of the mean? 1. Increasing the SD of the population and decreasing sample size. 2. Decreasing the SD of the population and increasing sample size. 3. Increasing both the SD of the population and sample size. 4. Decreasing both the SD of the population and sample size.

1. Increasing the SD of the population and decreasing sample size. The standard error of the mean has a direct relationship with the SD of the population and an indirect relationship with sample size. The standard error of the mean increases when the SD of the population is increased and sample size is reduced.

According to the DSM-5-TR, obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) usually begins in adolescence or early adulthood and is overall slightly more common in females than males. Which of the following statements best describes the incidence of OCD in children? 1. OCD occurs more commonly in males 2. OCD occurs more commonly in females 3. OCD is about equally common in males and females 4. There has not been sufficient research to date to ascertain the incidence of OCD in children

1. OCD occurs more commonly in males Males have an earlier age of onset of OCD than females, with nearly 25% of males having an onset before age 10. As a result, males are more commonly affected in childhood (Response 1, correct answer).

Data from a study in which there are three levels of the independent variable and one continuous dependent variable should be analyzed using which of the following statistical methods? 1. One-way anova. 2. Factorial anova. 3. Chi square. 4. Manova.

1. One-way anova. To select the appropriate test of difference the first step is to get clarification on the independent and dependent variables. In this scenario, there is only one independent variable (IV), and the IV has three levels (e.g., treatment is the IV with three different types of treatment being compared), and there is only one dependent variable (DV) or outcome variable that is continuous; in other words the DV is scored numerically (e.g., Beck Depression Scores). Manova (Response 4) is used when there are multiple dependent variables. Chi square (Response 3) is used when the dependent variable is nominal or categorical. The one-way anova (Response 1, correct response) is used when there is one IV (regardless of the number of levels) and one DV. By extension, the two-way anova is used when there are two IVs (regardless of the number of levels) and one DV; the three way anova is used when there are three IVs and one DV. The factorial anova (Response 2) is used when there is more than one IV (e.g, two IVs, three IVs, etc) and one DV.

Raven's Progressive Matrices is thought to be one of the best tests of: 1. Spearman's "g" factor. 2. crystallized intelligence. 3. visuo-spatial abilities. 4. non-verbal memory.

1. Spearman's "g" factor. Raven's Progressive Matrices consists of a series of abstract patterns with one piece missing. The test requires the person to pick out the missing piece using a multiple choice format. Raven's Progressive Matrices is thought to be one of the best non-verbal tests of intelligence. Spearman argued that intelligence is based on one factor, general intelligence, or "g," and proposed that intelligence tests should measure intelligence without becoming clouded by specific abilities. Raven's Progressive Matrices accomplishes this task (Response 1, correct answer). Crystallized intelligence refers to knowledge gained through experience (e.g., fund of knowledge), and as Raven's Progressive Matrices is a novel task, it does not measure crystallized intelligence (ruling out Response 2). Raven's Progressive Matrices does involve some visuo-spatial skills, however, this is not what it is best known for (ruling out Response 3). Raven's Progressive Matrices does not measure memory functioning at all (ruling out Response 4).

A therapist asks the members of a psychotherapy group to refrain from asking questions of others and to speak only about themselves. The group members comply with this request. This scenario is an example of: 1. a group norm. 2. a group task. 3. a group expectation. 4. social facilitation.

1. a group norm. A group norm is a standard of behavior that group members follow. It can be formally initiated by a leader or it can informally emerge from the members' behavior. A group task (Response 2) is a specific assignment given to a group. Some types of group tasks include conjunctive, disjunctive, and additive. Group expectation (Response 3) is an informally used term that means just what it sounds like, either the expectations that a group has or the expectations that others have for the group. Social facilitation (Response 4) refers to the tendency to perform better on simple, over-learned tasks when one is in the presence of others.

A Kappa coefficient of .95 suggests: 1. a high degree of interrater reliability. 2. a high degree of test-retest reliability. 3. a high degree of criterion related validity. 4. a high degree of construct validity.

1. a high degree of interrater reliability. The Kappa coefficient is a measure of interrater reliability. It is the degree of agreement between two or more raters when performance is subjectively scored. Reliability coefficients range from 0.0 to 1.0, and .95 suggests a very high degree of interrater reliability. The test-retest reliability coefficient (Response 2) reflects the degree of relationship between pairs of scores from the same group of people who are administered an identical test at two points in time. The criterion-related validity coefficient (Response 3) indicates the strength of the relationship between a predictor test and criterion outcome (e.g., how well SAT scores predict college GPA). Construct validity (Response 4) is the degree to which a test is actually measuring the construct or trait it is attempting to measure (e.g., aggression). Both convergent and divergent validity are necessary to establish construct validity.

Beck emphasizes: 1. automatic thinking and logical errors. 2. irrational beliefs. 3. positive self-statements. 4. positive and negative reinforcement.

1. automatic thinking and logical errors. Although there are similarities in terminology, you need to know which terms apply to which cognitive theory. Beck is the founder of Cognitive Therapy. He is known for "automatic thinking" and "logical errors." His contemporary Ellis, the founder of Rational-Emotive Therapy, coined the term "irrational beliefs" (Response 2). Positive self-statements (Response 3) are a focus of the Cognitive-Behavioral Therapy of Meichenbaum. Positive and negative reinforcement (Response 4) are most commonly associated with Skinner, and sometimes with Thorndike.

The Eriksonian stage corresponding to the second year of life is: 1. autonomy versus shame. 2. trust versus mistrust. 3. initiative versus guilt. 4. industry versus inferiority.

1. autonomy versus shame. This is another one of those concepts you just need to know. The Eriksonian stage corresponding to the second year of life (Freud's anal stage) is autonomy versus shame. Trust versus mistrust (Response 2) corresponds to the first year of life (Freud's oral stage). Initiative versus guilt (Response 3) corresponds to Freud's phallic stage of 3 - 6 years, and industry versus inferiority (Response 4) corresponds to the latency stage of 6 - 12 years.

Research on the impact of early maturation in adolescence has found that: 1. boys tend to benefit more. 2. girls tend to benefit more. 3. both boys and girls benefit more when compared to late-maturing peers. 4. both boys and girls benefit less when compared to late-maturing peers.

1. boys tend to benefit more. Overall, girls who mature earlier tend to be at a disadvantage compared to late- maturing peers, while boys who mature earlier tend to have an advantage over late-maturing peers.

A child with a specific learning disorder with impairment in reading is most likely to: 1. continue to have impairment in reading as an adult. 2. have a low vocabulary score. 3. have impaired vision. 4. have a comorbid conduct disorder.

1. continue to have impairment in reading as an adult. The most likely outcome for a child with a specific learning disorder with impairment in reading is to have continued problems in this area as an adult, although for some individuals the problem seems to resolve by adulthood. There are many individuals with a specific learning disorder with impairment in reading that have strong vocabularies (ruling out Response 2). While individuals with conduct disorder frequently underachieve academically, and many are diagnosed with a specific learning disorder, it is not true that most individuals with a specific learning disorder have a comorbid conduct disorder (ruling out Response 4).

Damage to the temporal lobe is most likely to affect which type of memory function? 1. Short-term explicit memory. 2. Long-term explicit memory. 3. Short-term implicit memory. 4. Long-term implicit memory.

2. Long-term explicit memory. It is always difficult to make generalizations about complex functions like memory, but temporal lobe damage (and brain damage in general) does not typically result in damage to implicit memory (Responses 3 and 4). Implicit memory refers to memories that don't require conscious recollection, like driving a car or playing the piano. Explicit memory involves the conscious recollection of facts and autobiographical events. Temporal lobe damage generally results in problems forming long-term memories. The individual with damage can remember things for a short period of time (Response 1) but cannot hold onto the information or consolidate it into long-term memory. Left temporal lobe lesions result in impaired memory for verbal material, while right temporal lobe lesions result in impaired recall of non-verbal material such as music and drawings.

Slope bias is associated with: 1. differential validity. 2. unfairness. 3. adverse impact. 4. discrimination.

1. differential validity. This is an advanced and challenging question. Slope bias is associated with differential validity (Response 1, correct answer), which is defined as a test having more validity for one group than another (i.e., a validity coefficient of .15 for minoritized groups and .35 for dominant culture groups). Slope bias occurs when regression lines, which represent the relationship between a predictor and criterion for a particular group, have the same y-intercept (i.e., the regression line crosses the y-axis at the same point) but different slopes (i.e., the relationship of the predictor to the criterion differs for the two groups). Unfairness occurs when two groups score differently on the predictor but similarly on the outcome. It is associated with intercept bias (ruling out Response 2). When there is unfairness the regression lines are parallel (i.e., they have the same slope), yet they intersect the y-axis at two different points. Adverse impact, which occurs when the minority selection ratio is less than 80% of the majority selection ratio, is not associated with slope bias (ruling out Response 3). Differential validity, unfairness, and adverse impact all contribute to discrimination, therefore discrimination is too broad of an answer (ruling out Response 4). Note: Students may find it too time-consuming to fully understanding what slope bias and intercept bias are and why they are associated with differential validity and unfairness. If that is your case, you may simply want to memorize that differential validity is associated with slope bias and unfairness is associated with intercept bias.

Methylphenidate is primarily a: 1. dopamine agonist. 2. dopamine antagonist. 3. serotonergic agonist. 4. serotonergic antagonist.

1. dopamine agonist. An agonist increases the effect of a neurotransmitter, while an antagonist decreases its effect. Methylphenidate, also known by its brand name Ritalin, works primarily as a dopamine agonist (Response 1, correct answer). Methylphenidate increases the amount of dopamine in the prefrontal cortex by blocking the reuptake of dopamine. Methylphenidate also increases norepinephrine. Some studies have found it to increase serotonin as well, but this is not its primary effect (ruling out Response 3).

Researchers have found that individuals with Type A personality have a higher incidence of cardiovascular disease than persons with Type B personality. Of the characteristics of the Type A personality, the one that is most predictive of heart disease is: 1. hostility. 2. impatience. 3. perfectionism. 4. competitiveness.

1. hostility. In the 1950's, Friedman and Rosenham's large scale Framingham studies found that individuals with Type A personalities (stressed, hard-driving, impatient, competitive) were more likely to suffer from heart disease than their more laid back Type B personality counterparts. Subsequent research has suggested that of the various characteristics of individuals with Type A personality, it is level of hostility and conflicts about expressing anger that are most predictive of cardiovascular disease.

On simple and familiar tasks, the presence of others tends to: 1. improve performance. 2. compromise performance. 3. have no significant effect on performance as compared with when others are not present. 4. either improve or compromise performance depending on whether others are critical or complimentary.

1. improve performance. The presence of others on simple and familiar tasks (e.g., running a marathon) tends to enhance performance. This is termed social facilitation. When the task is novel or complex, social inhibition occurs, and task performance is worsened in the presence of others (Response 2).

Member checking is used in qualitative research and involves sending research data or results back to participants to get their feedback. This is done to increase: 1. internal validity. 2. reliability. 3. the kappa coefficient. 4. external validity.

1. internal validity. Member checking is used in qualitative research when researchers request participants to provide feedback on their original responses as well as on how their data was interpreted by the researchers. Because it enhances the accuracy and honesty of the results, member checking strengthens internal validity (Response 1, correct answer). As a reminder, internal validity means that the research is free from flaws in its internal structure and its results can therefore be taken to accurately represent the phenomenon. In contrast, external validity refers to the generalizability of a study and is improved through random selection of participants from the population (ruling out Response 4). Reliability refers to the consistency of the data collected and is not affected by member checking (ruling out Response 2). The kappa coefficient is a measure of interrater reliability. Since member checking involves participant feedback, rather than consistency among raters, the issue of interrater reliability is not relevant here (ruling out Response 3).

Radiation treatment for children with tumors in the cerebellum (cerebellar astrocytomas) may result in: 1. learning problems. 2. impaired visuospatial abilities. 3. memory problems. 4. apraxias.

1. learning problems. Among childhood brain tumors, 15-25% are cerebellar astrocytomas, which can be either benign or malignant. Chemotherapy is usually the preferred mode of treatment to avoid the problematic side effects of radiation. In young children, radiation can cause learning problems as well as reduction in growth. Other common side effects of radiation treatment for cerebellar astrocytomas include fatigue, skin rashes, and decreased appetite.

Diseases that are X-linked are: 1. more common in men than women. 2. more common in women than men. 3. about equally prevalent in men and women. 4. more common in adults than children.

1. more common in men than women. Diseases that are X-linked (such as color blindness) are much, much more common in males than females. This is because females have two X chromosomes (XX), while males only have one X chromosome (XY). If a mother is a carrier and the father is not color blind, each son has a 50% chance of being color blind. The daughters in this scenario can only be carriers and will not be color blind.

According to Yalom, in which stage of group therapy do members become hostile? 1. First stage. 2. Second stage. 3. Third stage. 4. In any stage if the leader fails to provide a holding environment.

2. Second stage. According to Yalom, the first stage (Response 1) is characterized by hesitant participation, a search for meaning, and dependency. The second stage includes conflicts, efforts at dominance, and rebellion against the leader. The third stage (Response 3) is marked by the development of cohesiveness. Response 4, a holding environment, is a psychoanalytic concept that is not discussed by Yalom.

In her third session, a client tells you that she is also seeing a sex therapist. Recently, this sex therapist had the client take off her top and then massaged the client's breasts in a demonstration of sensate focus techniques. The best course of action would be to: 1. recommend that she terminate therapy and that she file an ethics charge. 2. discuss your ethical concerns with the therapist. 3. explore the impact this is having on her, and based on her reactions (e.g., her feelings about whether it's therapeutic or not) decide on your course of action. 4. discuss her dynamics.

1. recommend that she terminate therapy and that she file an ethics charge. The behavior of the sex therapist is unethical. This is a clear case of a therapist exploiting the client in the guise of doing therapy. Of the responses here, the best one would be to recommend that your client terminate therapy and that she file an ethics charge. Response 3 may look like a possible alternative; however, even if your patient somehow feels it is therapeutic, the therapist's actions are clearly an abuse of power, are exploitative, and are not part of any reputable treatment protocol. Discussing your concerns with the therapist (Response 2) could constitute a breach of confidentiality. Discussing the patient's dynamics (Response 4) does not sufficiently address the legal and ethical concerns.

The defense mechanism that is thought to underlie all others is: 1. repression. 2. denial. 3. projection. 4. reaction formation.

1. repression. This is one of those concepts that you just need to know. Repression, or making the conscious unconscious, is a fundamental aspect of all the defense mechanisms. All defense mechanisms have the purpose of keeping certain mental contents out of conscious awareness. Denial (Response 2) is the most primitive and refers to a straightforward refusal to accept the existence of the mental content. Projection (Response 3) involves attributing one's own impulses to someone else, as in paranoia. Reaction formation (Response 4) involves transforming an urge into its opposite, such as crusading against pornography when one is attracted to it.

According to Sue and Sue's racial/cultural identity development model, the culturally different person is most likely to be critical of dominant culture during the stage of: 1. resistance and immersion. 2. dissonance. 3. conformity. 4. introspection.

1. resistance and immersion. According to Sue & Sue's model of racial/cultural identity development, in the first stage, conformity, the minority person unequivocally prefers the dominant culture's values over his or her own (Response 3). During the second stage, dissonance, the minority person becomes increasingly aware that not all values of dominant culture are beneficial, and certain aspects of minority culture begin to have appeal (Response 2). During the third stage, resistance and immersion, the tides turn and the minority person tends to endorse minority held views, and reject the dominant values of society and culture (Response 1). The fourth stage of introspection involves a deeper analysis of attitudes and feelings (Response 4). During the final stage of integrative awareness, the person can appreciate unique aspects of his or her own culture as well as those of the dominant culture.

Vygotsky's theory of intelligence can be considered: 1. sociocultural. 2. epigenetic. 3. quantitative. 4. cognitive constructivist.

1. sociocultural. Vygotsky's theory of intelligence is often termed sociocultural (or social constructivist) because he emphasized the role of culture and community in the development of intellect (Response 1, correct answer). Piaget's theory is both epigenetic and cognitive constructivist (ruling out Responses 2 and 4). It is epigenetic because growth and development occur in a series of stages, each of which is built on the successful mastery of the previous stage. It is cognitive constructivist because Piaget argues that new knowledge is constructed on the basis of previous knowledge. People can't simply be given knowledge (i.e., imparting of facts) that they can immediately make use of. Both Vygotsky's and Piaget's theories are qualitative (ruling out Response 3). In contrast, quantitative theory (e.g., information processing theory) posits that cognitive development occurs smoothly, continuously, and gradually throughout the lifespan.

Parkinson's disease is due to loss of cells in the: 1. substantia nigra. 2. basal ganglia. 3. caudate nucleus. 4. hippocampus.

1. substantia nigra. The basal ganglia (Response 2) includes, among other structures, the substantia nigra and the caudate nucleus. Thus, although Parkinson's disease is a result of damage to the basal ganglia, it is more specific and accurate to state that it results from a loss of cells in the substantia nigra (Response 1) as well as a decrease in dopamine. Characteristics of Parkinson's disease are resting tremors, akinesia (difficulty initiating movement), and shuffling gait. Huntington's disease results from degeneration of the caudate nucleus (Response 3). The hippocampus (Response 4) is a limbic structure involved in memory and emotion. Damage to the hippocampus can result in problems with consolidation of memory.

The person who holds privilege in court-ordered treatment is: 1. the client. 2. the psychologist. 3. the court. 4. the judge.

1. the client. This question is a bit tricky; it requires that you know the difference between evaluations or assessments for the court, as opposed to court-ordered therapy. When a therapist performs evaluations on behest of the court, the client has no privilege and must be informed of the lack of confidentiality at the outset. By contrast, in court-ordered therapy (e.g., for spousal abuse), the client is the holder of privilege and is typically entitled to complete confidentiality. Note that Responses 3 and 4 are virtually identical, indicating that neither is likely to be the correct answer (i.e., they can't both be right).

When the IQs of adoptive children are correlated with the IQs of their biological mothers and adoptive mothers: 1. the correlation with biological mothers is stronger. 2. the correlation with adoptive mothers is stronger. 3. the correlations do not differ from zero. 4. the correlations with both adoptive and biological mothers are strongest when using a sample of brighter than average adoptees.

1. the correlation with biological mothers is stronger. Research has shown the correlations of IQ are highest with biological parents as opposed to adoptive parents. Note that Response 4 describes a restriction of range. Correlations are always weaker when ranges are restricted.

A Structural Family Therapist would be most likely to: 1. work on boundary issues. 2. work on differentiation issues. 3. prescribe the symptom. 4. be concerned with double binds.

1. work on boundary issues. Structural Family Therapists follow the work of Minuchin. The key aspect of this treatment is focusing on the family's hierarchy and working on problematic boundary issues. Differentiation issues (Response 2) are addressed by Bowenian family systems therapists. Prescribing the symptom (Response 3) is more typical of a Strategic Therapist (e.g., Haley). Concern for double binds (Response 4) would likely be the focus of a Communications Family Therapist such as Satir, Jackson, and Bateson. These therapists are sometimes known as the Mental Research Institute (MRI) group.

Which of the following is an example of a protocol analysis? 1. A supervisor and a supervisee carefully review the transcript of a psychotherapy session. 2. A person is told to verbalize his problem-solving process. 3. The human subjects committee reviews a proposed research protocol. 4. A researcher attempts to analyze which aspects of an intervention (i.e., treatment protocol) actually account for the treatment outcome.

2. A person is told to verbalize his problem-solving process. A protocol analysis involves subjects verbalizing their thought process as they perform a task. The goal is to better understand the person's cognitive process, especially concerning problem-solving, although it is understood that the process of verbalizing may actually alter the cognitive process. Supervisors and supervisees often carefully review process notes, which are a transcript of a session written from the supervisee's memory (Response 1). Understanding which components account for a treatment effect (Response 4) is often accomplished through the use of a dismantling strategy, in which various components of a treatment are analyzed separately.

A Jungian would consider the part of the personal and collective unconscious that is projected out to be: 1. A defense 2. A transference 3. A symptom 4. Discomfort with the shadow aspect of personality

2. A transference Jungians view transference as a projection of the personal and collective unconscious. For example, one may initially experience one's therapist as a "godlike" figure (or archetype). Projection is not seen as a defense (Response 1), a symptom (Response 3), or reflecting discomfort with one's shadow (Response 4).

According to Marcia, adolescents can be in one of four possible identity states. Which of the following best describes foreclosure? 1. Commitment and resolution of crisis. 2. Commitment and absence of crisis. 3. Crisis and absence of commitment. 4. Absence of both crisis and commitment.

2. Commitment and absence of crisis. According to James Marcia, there are four possible identity statuses for adolescents. The adolescent in foreclosure commits themselves to a goal without exploring alternatives, thus there is commitment with an absence of crisis. In identity achievement, the person has struggled and explored several options and developed goals and values. They have resolved the crisis, and made a commitment (Response 1). In moratorium, the person is actively struggling with exploring options and making a decision, but has yet to make a commitment, so there is crisis and absence of commitment (Response 3). In identity diffusion, the adolescent lacks direction and is not seriously considering options or trying to develop goals, thus, there is an absence of both crisis and commitment (Response 4).

Kohlberg proposed three major levels of moral development. Which of the following corresponds to level 2? 1. Punishment-obedience orientation. 2. Conformity to please and gain approval. 3. Morality of contract and laws. 4. Morality of conscience.

2. Conformity to please and gain approval. Kohlberg's three major levels of moral development are each divided into two substages. The first major level is Preconventional Morality with an emphasis on compliance with rules to avoid punishment and get rewards. The two substages are Punishment-Obedience and Instrumental Hedonism. The second major level is Conventional Morality, with a focus on conforming to rules to get social approval. The two substages are Good Boy/Good Girl and Law and Order. The third level is Postconventional Morality with two substages of Morality of Contract, Rights and Laws, and Morality of Conscience.

A hostile attribution bias is based on which stage of Crick and Dodge's social information processing theory? 1. Encoding of social cues 2. Interpretation of social cues 3. Response evaluation 4. Response enactment

2. Interpretation of social cues A hostile attributional bias is a type of attributional style that is based on Crick and Dodge's social information processing theory (1994). Social information processing involves five stages: encoding of social cues, interpretation of social cues, response access, response evaluation, and response enactment. A hostile attribution bias occurs in the second stage, interpretation of social cues (Response 2, correct answer). In this stage, the person attributes meaning to social cues that have been perceived and stored in short-term memory during the encoding stage (ruling out Response 1). In the third stage, response access, the person considers potential ways to respond to a situation. In the fourth stage, response evaluation, the person decides what is their best response (ruling out Response 3). During response enactment, the final stage, the person acts on their best response (ruling out Response 4). TIP: If you were unfamiliar with this model, you may have been able to recognize that attributional biases relate to how information is interpreted. For example, in an interaction, Person A may begin to feel hostile towards Person B once they have interpreted Person B's behavior through their own lens.

An adult who is administered the Adult Attachment Interview is able to recall many attachment experiences but has difficulty describing them in a coherent and linear manner. When this adult's infant is assessed in the Strange Situation, the infant will probably demonstrate an attachment pattern that is: 1. secure. 2. ambivalent. 3. avoidant. 4. disorganized/disoriented.

2. ambivalent. In the Adult Attachment Interview, adults are asked to discuss their early attachment experiences. Their responses are not analyzed by the content of the memories but rather by the manner in which these memories are discussed. The adult in this example would be considered 'preoccupied.' Such adults are overly concerned with the attachment memories but 'get lost' while they are talking, often losing their line of thought. The children of such adults tend to have ambivalent attachments. In general, adults who receive the Adult Attachment Interview can be categorized as 'secure/autonomous' (high coherence and consistency); 'insecure/dismissing' (contradictions and lapses in memory); and 'insecure/preoccupied' (confused, incoherent). After receiving one of these three labels, adults who discuss trauma and loss may be additionally categorized as 'unresolved/disorganized' if they show momentary lapses of reasoning. In general, secure adults tend to have secure infants (Response 1); dismissing adults tend to have avoidant infants (Response 3); preoccupied adults tend to have ambivalent/anxious infants; and disorganized/unresolved adults tend to have disorganized infants (Response 4).

Outcomes for people with schizophrenia are: 1. better in developed countries. 2. better in developing countries. 3. equal in developed and developing countries. 4. equal in developed and developing countries, though symptoms differ significantly.

2. better in developing countries. According to research by the World Health Organization (WHO), schizophrenia outcomes tend to be better in developing countries than developed ones (Response 2, correct answer). This is evidenced by fewer symptoms, lower relapse rates, and higher rates of remission for individuals with schizophrenia in developing countries. Some researchers have also found that rates of hospitalization and homelessness, levels of distress and suicide, and overall wellbeing tend to be better for persons with schizophrenia in developing countries as compared with those in developed countries.

Young children often lack the cognitive capacity to conserve. To cope with this inability, they often focus on the most salient aspect of a stimulus. This strategy is termed: 1. equilibration. 2. centration. 3. seriation. 4. primary circular reaction.

2. centration. The pre-operational child centers on only one aspect of an object or situation at a time. For example, the child can't understand that a mommy can also be a sister. Centration is also one component involved in the inability to conserve: the pre-operational child fails to understand that a tall, thin glass may actually hold the same amount of liquid as a short but stout glass. Here, the child centers or focuses only on the height of the glass, and reports that the tall glass holds more liquid. Equilibration (Response 1) is the need for balance between the person and the outside environment as well as among the person's schemata. This need will determine the extent to which a child uses assimilation or accommodation. Seriation (Response 3) involves putting things in order, an easy task for the concrete operational child but not for the pre-operational child. Primary circular reactions (Response 4) occur early in the sensorimotor stage (one to four months), when a child's own action stimulates the child to perform that action more. For example, sucking the thumb feels good which makes the child suck more which feels good and makes the child suck more, etc.

Your expertise is sought to help address theme-interference problems. You would most likely provide: 1. client-centered case consultation. 2. consultee-centered case consultation. 3. consultee-centered administrative consultation. 4. program-centered administrative consultation.

2. consultee-centered case consultation. In providing consultation, theme-interference problems are problems that the supervisee (or consultee) is experiencing, that can affect patients' progress. Thus, the type of consultation needed in this instance is consultee-centered case consultation.

A researcher is interested in the relationship between morality and criminal behavior among Christians. The researcher measures morality based on rate of church attendance, and finds that many of the non churchgoers have no criminal record. The best explanation for this finding is: 1. criterion contamination. 2. criterion deficiency. 3. criterion relevance. 4. criterion-related validity.

2. criterion deficiency. In research, the conceptual criterion is the theoretical construct that the researcher is attempting to measure, in this case, morality. In this research, morality is measured based on rate of church attendance, however, this criterion is deficient or lacking. In other words, as the researcher found, there are many moral people who do not attend church. Criterion relevance (Response 3) is the extent to which the actual criterion (e.g., church attendance) truly measures the conceptual criterion (e.g., morality); the greater the criterion deficiency, the less criterion relevance. Criterion contamination (Response 1) occurs when knowledge of predictor scores (e.g., performance on a pre-employment examination) affects criterion scores that are subjectively rated (e.g., work performance on a scale of 1 to 10). Criterion-related validity (Response 4) is the degree of correlation between the predictor and criterion.

The Taylor-Russell tables are used to evaluate incremental validity, the benefit of using a test for improving selection decisions. The key variables that the tables take into account include base rate, selection ratio and: 1. construct validity. 2. criterion-related validity. 3. test-retest reliability. 4. internal consistency reliability.

2. criterion-related validity. There are three key variables that affect incremental validity: base rate, selection ratio, and criterion-related validity. Base rate is the rate of successful hiring without using a test. A moderate base rate optimizes incremental validity. Selection ratio is the ratio of number of openings to number of applicants, and a low selection ratio optimizes incremental validity. The criterion-related validity of the test is the correlation between scores on the test and scores on some outcome measure of performance or productivity. The higher the criterion-related validity, the better the incremental validity. While construct validity, test-retest reliability, and internal consistency reliability might all be important, it is specifically criterion-related that directly influences incremental validity.

African American families characteristically: 1. are matriarchal. 2. evidence role flexibility. 3. are small and isolated. 4. have as many economic opportunities as their Caucasian counterparts.

2. evidence role flexibility. African American families frequently demonstrate role flexibility. Families tend to be egalitarian and rely on extended family for support. It is a myth that African American families tend to be matriarchal (Response 1).

The treatment of choice for OCD involves: 1. systematic desensitization 2. exposure with response prevention 3. aversive counterconditioning 4. supportive psychotherapy

2. exposure with response prevention An evidenced-based treatment for OCD with strong research support is exposure and response prevention (ERP) (Response 2, correct answer). Systematic desensitization involves exposing individuals to fear-evoking images and thoughts while pairing the exposure with relaxation. While systematic desensitization can be used in the treatment of OCD, it is typically not the first line of treatment when a client is willing to try in vivo exposure (ruling out Response 1). Aversive counterconditioning is typically used to treat maladaptive behaviors such as excessive drinking or smoking (ruling out Response 3). Antabuse for the treatment of alcohol use disorder is an example of aversion therapy. Supportive psychotherapy may be useful as an adjunct for patients with chronic mental illness (e.g., schizophrenia) or for patients experiencing life transitions (e.g., a divorce, major medical illness, death of a family member, etc.) (ruling out Response 4).

Single subject designs involve an approach that can be described as: 1. ipsative. 2. idiographic. 3. normative. 4. nomothetic.

2. idiographic. Idiographic is the term used to describe single subject approaches while nomothetic (Response 4) describes group approaches. Normative data (Response 3) refer to data that can be compared both within and across subjects. Ipsative data (Response 1), results from a forced-choice format. It can only describe relative strengths or interests within a subject and cannot be used for comparisons across subjects.

Which of the following terms refers to a disease of unknown origin? 1. iatrogenic. 2. idiopathic. 3. idiosyncratic. 4. nocebic.

2. idiopathic. When the cause of a disease is unknown, it is referred to as idiopathic. Iatrogenic (Response 1) is a very important medical term that refers to illness or complications, especially infections, that are caused in the course of receiving medical treatment (e.g., a patient contracts TB while in the hospital). Idiosyncratic (Response 3) is a non-technical term for unusual, eccentric, or unique responses. A nocebo (Response 4) is something that should be ineffective but which causes symptoms of ill health; a nocebo is the opposite of a placebo. A nocebo effect is an ill effect caused by the suggestion or belief that something is harmful (e.g., expectation of unpleasant side effects leading to experiencing them despite receiving a sugar pill).

A psychologist works in a small town, where she is the only psychologist. Her ex-boyfriend requests treatment from her, for a recently developed specific phobia. She has not been sexually intimate with him for over ten years. If she consents to treat him, she: 1. is acting ethically. 2. is acting unethically. 3. may be acting unethically, depending on the circumstances. 4. this issue is not covered in the ethical principles.

2. is acting unethically. The Ethics Code clearly states that psychologists never accept former sexual partners as therapy patients.

A child was classically conditioned to be afraid of a white rat. The child now seems to be fearful of white rabbits as well. This is an example of: 1. response generalization. 2. mediated generalization. 3. avoidance behavior. 4. Skinnerian conditioning.

2. mediated generalization. Mediated generalization is another name for stimulus generalization. In this example, the white rat is a conditioned stimulus. The child has generalized the response of fear to other similar stimuli such as white rabbits. What has changed? Was it the stimulus or response? The response of fear has remained the same, but there has been generalization from the stimulus that elicits fear. Thus, the phenomenon occurring here is stimulus generalization. Keep in mind that many phobias (e.g., agoraphobia) involve stimulus generalization. Response generalization (Response 1) actually falls into the domain of operant conditioning. Response generalization involves the person or animal displaying responses similar to those that have been reinforced. For example, a dog is reinforced by his owner when he rolls on his back in a rather cute way. The dog then displays other 'cute' behavior in an attempt to get more reinforcement. Avoidance behavior (Response 3) is an operant conditioning paradigm in which a person learns that emitting certain behavior can prevent negative consequences from occurring. For example, you pay your bills on time to avoid paying late fees and penalties. Skinnerian conditioning (Response 4), or operant conditioning, is not relevant here because we are not looking at the contingencies of the behavior (i.e., reward and punishment).

You have reviewed a journal article that has been accepted for publication on the link between ADHD and conduct disorder. A colleague who is doing similar research mentions they hope to collaborate with the author of the article you reviewed. In terms of discussing the article with your colleague you: 1. need not maintain confidentiality because the article has been accepted for publication. 2. must maintain confidentiality even after the article is published. 3. must maintain confidentiality until the article is published. 4. need not maintain confidentiality.

2. must maintain confidentiality even after the article is published. When an individual reviews a journal article, they should maintain confidentiality about the article forever (Response 2, correct answer). This is because reviewers frequently see information in early drafts that is different from what is ultimately published. Keeping confidentiality is required (ruling out Response 4) and is not related to whether the article has been accepted for publication (ruling out Response 1) or whether the article has been published (ruling out Response 3).

Response cost is an example of: 1. negative reinforcement. 2. negative punishment. 3. positive punishment. 4. operant extinction.

2. negative punishment. Response cost occurs when someone loses something (e.g., a token, privileges) for misbehavior. Since response cost involves taking something away, it is considered 'negative.' Since it is designed to decrease an unacceptable behavior, it is 'punishment.' Keep in mind that negative reinforcement (Response 1) involves removing something aversive to increase, not decrease behavior. Positive punishment (Response 3) involves applying something aversive (e.g. a slap, a shock) to decrease behavior. Operant extinction (Response 4) involves withholding reinforcement for a previously reinforced behavior.

Key components of delirium include all of the following except: 1. inattention. 2. cognitive disturbance. 3. progressive course. 4. reduced awareness of the environment.

3. progressive course. Keep in mind that this question was asking for which response is NOT a component of delirium. The hallmark of delirium is a disturbance in attention and awareness (ruling out Responses 1 and 4) with a rapid onset and a fluctuating (i.e., not progressive) course (Response 3, correct answer). Delirium also involves some type of cognitive disturbance such as memory problems or difficulties with language, visuospatial skills, etc. (ruling out Response 2).

A student acts in a disruptive manner and only stops when the teacher yells at her. The teacher's behavior of yelling is under the control of: 1. positive reinforcement. 2. negative reinforcement. 3. positive punishment. 4. negative punishment.

2. negative reinforcement. This question may be a bit tricky because it sounds like it's focusing on the student's behavior, but it's actually asking about the teacher's behavior. The target behavior here is the teacher's yelling. One must always look at what happens after the person performs the target behavior. Do they experience reward (positive reinforcement), relief (negative reinforcement), pain (positive punishment) or loss (negative punishment)? In this case, after the teacher yells, they experience relief (i.e., the child stops the disruptive behavior). Also keep in mind that when reinforcement is occurring the behavior will continue or increase over time. As any teacher will tell you, if yelling works to reduce disruptive behavior, the teacher is going to yell more! The student's behavior or being disruptive, is under the control of positive punishment. After the student behaves in a disruptive manner, she experiences pain (i.e., the teacher yells). When punishment is occurring, the behavior will decrease over time.

A child refers to a neighbor's dog by the same name she refers to her family dog (e.g., "Scottie"). This behavior is an example of: 1. underextension. 2. overextension. 3. holophrasic speech. 4. telegraphic speech.

2. overextension. Early speech (about 18 months of age) is characterized by both underextension and overextension of word meanings. Overextension (Response 2) occurs when a word is used too broadly. In this example, the child calls the neighbor's dog by the same name as her own. Underextension (Response 1) occurs when a word is used too narrowly. For example, only one's own dog is referred to as "doggie," even though it is the appropriate word for all dogs. Holophrasic speech (Response 3) which occurs between 12 and 18 months of age, makes use of a single word to express a complex idea. For example, "up" means "pick me up." Telegraphic speech (Response 4), which occurs between 18 and 24 months of age, is a form of two word, noun-verb sentences. For example, "give candy," means "I'd like you to give me some candy."

An example of paradoxical intention is: 1. sharing your angry feelings with a client to get him or her to express the same. 2. prescribing the symptom. 3. getting the client to exaggerate his or her worst fears. 4. getting a client with agoraphobia to go to a shopping mall.

2. prescribing the symptom. Paradoxical intention involves having clients do the opposite of what they might expect. An example of this would be prescribing the symptom. For example, a couple whose primary complaint is that they argue too much may be given the homework of arguing two hours a day for the next week. Encouraging a person with agoraphobia to go to a shopping mall (Response 4) is an example of exposure.

Wernicke's is to Broca's as: 1. expression is to reception. 2. reception is to expression. 3. agnosia is to aphasia. 4. alexia is to agraphia.

2. reception is to expression. Wernicke's area is involved in receptive speech, while Broca's is involved in expressive speech. Agnosia (Response 3) is a failure to recognize sensory stimuli. Aphasia (Response 3) involves a problem with speech. Wernicke's and Broca's are both considered aphasias. Alexia (Response 4) is an acquired reading disorder, while agraphia (Response 4) is an acquired inability to write.

A person believes that Friday the 13th is an unlucky day because she got very sick once on Friday the 13th. The best explanation for this phenomenon is: 1. irrational beliefs. 2. respondent conditioning. 3. instrumental conditioning. 4. a psychotic process.

2. respondent conditioning. Although this is rather irrational thinking (Response 1), what would best explain this phenomenon would be pairing Friday the 13th (an initially neutral stimulus) with an aversive unconditioned stimulus (getting sick). This is a classical conditioning phenomenon, also called respondent conditioning. Instrumental conditioning (Response 3) is another name for operant conditioning.

The circadian clock is located in the hypothalamus and is responsible for sleep-wake patterns. The circadian clock is the: 1. pineal gland. 2. suprachiasmatic nucleus. 3. substantia nigra. 4. reticular activating system.

2. suprachiasmatic nucleus. The suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN), located in the hypothalamus, regulates circadian rhythms (Response 2, correct answer). Sleep-wake patterns run on 24-hour cycles with two natural daily peak times for sleeping, at mid-day and at night. The SCN signals the pineal gland to produce melatonin, which in turn causes a drop in body temperature and increases sleepiness (ruling out Response 1). While the reticular activating system (RAS) filters incoming sensory information, mediates alertness, and is involved in the sleep-wake cycle, it is not the circadian clock (ruling out Response 4). The RAS consists of a network of neurons in the brainstem that project to the hypothalamus. The substantia nigra is part of the basal ganglia that helps control movement (ruling out Response 3). Loss of cells in this area, has been implicated in Parkinson's disease.

As you start to take this practice test you say to yourself, "My heart is racing. I must be very nervous." This kind of thinking supports: 1. the Cannon-Bard theory. 2. the James-Lange theory. 3. Schacter's two-factor theory. 4. Selye's general adaptation syndrome.

2. the James-Lange theory. According to the James-Lange theory, emotions result from perceiving bodily reactions or responses (Response 2, correct answer). In this case, you perceived your bodily reaction (e.g., heart racing) and concluded you must be very anxious. The Cannon-Bard theory proposes that emotions and bodily reactions occur simultaneously (ruling out Response 1). When an event is perceived (e.g., taking the exam), messages are sent at the same time to the hypothalamus, which arouses the body, and to the amygdala, which causes the subjective experience of anxiety. Schacter's two-factor theory proposes that emotion results from both internal information (hypothalamus and amygdala) and external information (the context) (ruling out Response 3). According to this theory you would be experiencing physiological arousal (e.g., racing heart) and would then look to the environment (e.g., the licensing exam) to help you label the emotion as anxiety, rather than excitement. Selye's general adaptation syndrome (GAS) is a model of response to severe stress consisting of three stages: alarm, resistance, and exhaustion (ruling out Response 4).

The term "vicarious learning" is most closely associated with whom? 1. Skinner. 2. Watson. 3. Ellis. 4. Bandura.

4. Bandura. Vicarious learning means that we can learn by watching and imitating others, and by anticipating future reinforcement. This notion is associated with Bandura's model of observational learning. Bandura's theory is usually called Social Learning Theory or Social Cognitive Behaviorism. Skinner (Response 1) is associated with operant or instrumental learning, Watson (Response 2) with classical conditioning, and Ellis (Response 3) with Rational-Emotive Therapy (RET).

In order to increase studying behavior, you set up a deal with yourself in which you allow yourself to engage in one hour of your favorite activity following a good study session. Underlying your thinking is an understanding of: 1. generalized conditioned reinforcers. 2. the Premack Principle. 3. chaining. 4. response generalization.

2. the Premack Principle. The Premack Principle involves using a high frequency behavior (in this case, a favorite activity) to reinforce a low frequency behavior (in this case, studying). Generalized conditioned reinforcers (Response 1) are a special case of secondary reinforcers that acquire their reinforcing value because they can be exchanged for other reinforcers. Generalized conditioned reinforcers include money and tokens. Chaining (Response 3) is thought to underlie the acquisition of complex behaviors (e.g., driving a car), in which each response serves both as reinforcement for the previous response and as a discriminative stimulus for the next response. Response generalization (Response 4) refers to giving similar but not identical responses to those that have previously been reinforced.

To optimize healing following a school shooting, a psychologist should focus on all of the following except: 1. connection to the community. 2. trauma debriefing. 3. resources and information. 4. psychological first aid.

2. trauma debriefing. Keep in mind that this question is asking for the exception. Psychological first aid is an evidence-based approach to helping victims after a traumatic experience (ruling out Response 4). It includes providing information and resources (ruling out Response 3), and also helps victims initiate contact and garner social support from family members, friends, and other community members (ruling out Response 1). According to the American Psychological Association (APA), trauma debriefing, or psychological debriefing, has no research support and is potentially harmful (Response 2, correct answer).

In order to extinguish a classically conditioned response, one should omit the: 1. conditioned stimulus. 2. unconditioned stimulus. 3. conditioned response. 4. unconditioned response.

2. unconditioned stimulus. Classically conditioned responses are based on pairing initially neutral stimuli with unconditioned stimuli, until the neutral stimulus eventually elicits a conditioned response. To extinguish this conditioned response, one would simply continue to present the conditioned stimulus without the unconditioned stimulus until the pairing is slowly erased.

Computer adaptive tests: 1. are typically comprised of items of similar difficulty level. 2. use fewer items than traditionally administered tests to achieve greater accuracy. 3. are based on classical test theory. 4. tend to be most valid for learners of average ability.

2. use fewer items than traditionally administered tests to achieve greater accuracy. Computer adaptive testing (CAT) adapts in real-time to the test-taker's ability level. A vast item bank with a spread of content coverage and difficulty level is necessary, making CAT both costly and time-consuming to develop. The test begins with an item of medium difficulty, based on the norms for a given group, and from there items change (i.e., increase or decrease in difficulty) based on whether the test-taker answers a given question correctly or incorrectly (ruling out Response 1). Some test-takers never see the easiest items, while others never see the hardest items. Computer adaptive tests have the advantage over traditionally administered tests of using fewer items to achieve greater accuracy (Response 2, correct answer). CAT uses item response theory to calculate each item's difficulty and discrimination level; thus, the tests are not based on classical test theory (ruling out Response 3). In traditional tests, all the test takers take the same items. These tests tend to be most valid for learners of average ability. In contrast, CAT provides a valid assessment for learners at all ability levels (ruling out Response 4).

Since the standard error of the measurement is significantly influenced by the reliability coefficient, the range of the standard error of the measurement is: 1. -1 to +1. 2. 0 to +1. 3. 0 to SDx. 4. 0 to SDy.

3. 0 to SDx. The range of the standard error of measurement is always from 0 to the standard deviation of the test (SDx). The range of the validity coefficient is from -1 to +1 (Response 1). The range of the reliability coefficient is from 0 to +1 (Response 2). The range of the standard error of estimate is from 0 to the standard deviation of the criterion (SDy)(Response 4).

Which of the following predominates in a state of relaxed wakefulness? 1. Theta waves 2. REM sleep 3. Alpha Waves 4. Delta Waves

3. Alpha Waves Alpha waves occur during periods of relaxed wakefulness, and are predominant just before falling asleep. Theta waves (Response 1) occur in early stage 1 sleep. Delta waves (Response 4) are slow waves that occur in stages 3 and 4, the deepest, non-dreaming part of sleep. REM sleep (Response 2) is dreaming sleep, during which there is rapid eye movement, increased respiration and heart rate, and relaxed muscle tone.

All of the following are neurotransmitters involved with sleep and mood except: 1. serotonin. 2. GABA. 3. dopamine. 4. RAS.

4. RAS. Keep in mind that this question is looking for the exception. Serotonin, GABA, and dopamine are neurotransmitters that all play a role in both sleep and mood (ruling out Responses 1, 2, & 3) . While the RAS (reticular activating system) is involved in sleep, it is not a neurotransmitter but rather a diffuse set of cells in the medulla, pons, hypothalamus, and thalamus (Response 4, correct answer).

A woman goes to a psychic who tells her that she is a very sensitive person. The woman responds enthusiastically, "you've got me pegged!" This interaction is an example of the: 1. Hawthorne effect. 2. Rosenthal effect. 3. Barnum effect. 4. Law of effect.

3. Barnum effect. The Barnum effect (Response 3) occurs when someone finds personal meaning in a statement that could apply to anyone. In this case, the psychic capitalized on this effect in order to convince her client that she has psychic powers. The Hawthorne effect is associated with a change in behavior that results from being observed (ruling out Response 1). In the original Hawthorne studies (1927 - 1932) experimenters were studying the physical and environmental aspects of the workplace (e.g. lighting) on productivity and discovered that worker productivity increased in all instances simply as a result of observation by the researchers. The Rosenthal effect or experimenter expectancies refers to the cues or clues transmitted by the experimenter to the subjects that results in subjects conforming to the experimenter's expectations (ruling out Response 2). In the original Rosenthal study (1960s) teachers in an inner-city school were given information about students who were expected to blossom academically. While these students were selected at random, at the end of the year these students did blossom compared with those not on the list. The law of effect, proposed by Thorndike, asserts that people will tend to repeat an action that had a previously pleasurable outcome (ruling out Response 4).

Which of the following has significantly affected the use of selection tests in industry? 1. Larry P. versus Riles (1979). 2. Debra versus Turlington (1981). 3. Griggs versus Duke Power (1971). 4. Hobson versus Hansen (1967).

3. Griggs versus Duke Power (1971). The use of selection tests in industry has been influenced by the case of Griggs versus the Duke Power Company, in which it was ruled that certain tests, such as the Wonderlic, were unfair to use in making decisions about hiring and promotion. Broad, general testing was faulted, and testing was required to measure the specific skills required by a particular job. In Larry P. vs. Riles (Response 1), the court ruled that intelligence testing unfairly discriminated against minority students, resulting in too many being labeled as needing special education. As a result, intelligence testing alone can no longer be used in assigning minority students to special education services.

On the WAIS-IV, relative weakness on which of the following subtests would suggest problems with working memory? 1. Block design and coding 2. Arithmetic and symbol search 3. Letter-number sequencing and digit span 4. Digit span and symbol search

3. Letter-number sequencing and digit span On the WAIS-IV the subtests of arithmetic, digit span, and letter-number sequencing (a supplemental test) assess working memory (Response 3, correct answer). Block design assesses perceptual reasoning, while coding and symbol search assess processing speed (ruling out Responses 1, 2, and 4).

Which of the following statements best summarizes the attitude of the APA's Ethical Principles of Psychologists and Code of Conduct (2002) toward multiple relationships? 1. It is unethical to enter into a multiple relationship that can be avoided. 2. Multiple relationships that cannot be avoided may be ethically permissible if they do not impair the psychologist's functioning or risk harm or exploitation. 3. Multiple relationships that do not impair the psychologist's functioning or risk harm or exploitation are not unethical. 4. Multiple relationships are not inherently unethical unless they violate other ethical standards against risking harm or exploitation to clients.

3. Multiple relationships that do not impair the psychologist's functioning or risk harm or exploitation are not unethical. The 2002 Ethics Code states that "multiple relationships that would not reasonably be expected to cause impairment or risk exploitation or harm are not unethical." There is no stipulation that multiple relationships should generally be avoided (Responses 1 & 2). The ethical standard on multiple relationships specifies the conditions for acceptable multiple relationships and does not refer to other standards (Response 4).

Whose theory would most likely explain "behavioral contrast?" 1. Beck 2. Pavlov 3. Skinner 4. Watson

3. Skinner The term behavioral contrast applies to the situation in which two behaviors are initially reinforced at equal levels and then one behavior stops being reinforced. What typically occurs is that the behavior that is no longer being reinforced decreases in frequency, while the behavior that continues to be reinforced increases in frequency. This concept is all about reinforcement, and of the theorists listed only Skinner theorizes about reinforcement. Pavlov and Watson (Responses 2 & 4), while both behaviorists, studied classical conditioning (pairing) rather than operant conditioning (reinforcement). Beck (Response 1) is a cognitive behaviorist.

Which of the following theories would see job enrichment as a valuable intervention? 1. Reinforcement theory. 2. Expectancy theory. 3. Two-factor theory. 4. Equity theory.

3. Two-factor theory. Job enrichment involves expanding jobs to give employees a greater role in planning and performing their work, thus providing an opportunity to build motivators or satisfiers into job content. It involves increasing employees' autonomy, authority, and freedom, and encouraging employees to take on challenging tasks. It is partially based on Herzberg's Two-Factor Theory, which predicts that increasing employees' responsibility (a motivator) will result in increased satisfaction and performance. Vroom's Expectancy Theory (Response 2) asserts that people behave in ways that are based on their perceived expectancy that certain rewards will follow. The reinforcement model (Response 1) is not a theory but a set of principles that predicts that people do more of things that have rewarding outcomes, avoid things that have punishing outcomes, and stop doing things that are neither rewarding nor punishing. Finally, Equity Theory (Response 4) looks at the ratio of self inputs/self outcomes versus others' inputs/others' outcomes, and is based on Social Comparison Theory.

In which of the following circumstances would it be problematic to use a chi square? 1. When looking for differences between groups. 2. When the data are ordinal. 3. When repeated observations are made. 4. When there is more than one independent variable.

3. When repeated observations are made. Chi square is a non-parametric test of differences (Response 1), used when data are nominal, or categorical. Although there are specific non-parametric tests for ordinal data (e.g., Mann-Whitney), the chi square can accommodate ordinal data (Response 2). When there is more than one independent variable, the multiple sample chi square is run (Response 4). One of the main assumptions of the chi square is independence of observations, thus, a chi square cannot be run when repeated observations are made (e.g., data are collected pre and post).

The standard error of the estimate has: 1. a direct relationship with the SD of the predictor and an indirect relationship with validity. 2. an indirect relationship with the SD of the predictor and a direct relationship with validity. 3. a direct relationship with the SD of the criterion and an indirect relationship with validity. 4. an indirect relationship with the SD of the criterion and a direct relationship with validity.

3. a direct relationship with the SD of the criterion and an indirect relationship with validity. The standard error of estimate is affected by two variables, the standard deviation of the criterion and criterion-related validity. Intuitively, when validity is high, there should be little error in prediction, and when validity is low, there should be a lot of error in prediction. This is an indirect relationship. The standard error of estimate has a direct relationship with the standard deviation, in that the larger the SD, the larger the error, while conversely, the smaller the SD, the smaller the error.

General mental ability tests for hiring and promotion: 1. are no longer used by companies. 2. are not helpful estimates of job performance. 3. are linked to higher performance and productivity, and decreased turnover within companies. 4. are linked to decreased turnover, but not higher performance and productivity within companies.

3. are linked to higher performance and productivity, and decreased turnover within companies. General mental ability tests (or cognitive abilities tests), such as the Wonderlic, assess the mental abilities of job candidates (e.g., reasoning skills, problem-solving skills, organizational ability, and abstract thinking). These tests are generally excellent predictors of job success. When companies use them in making decisions about hiring and promotion, companies see higher rates of performance and productivity, as well as decreased rates of turnover (Response 3, correct answer). However, one significant problem with such tests is that they can cause unintentional discrimination against minoritized groups. Despite this concern, it was determined in the court case of Griggs vs. the Duke Power company that general mental ability tests could still be used as long as the tests were valid, measured job-related variables, and were a business necessity (ruling out Response 1).

Gestalt therapists believe that dreams are reflections of: 1. unconscious aggressive and libidinal drives. 2. the collective unconscious. 3. aspects of the client. 4. the social environment.

3. aspects of the client. Gestalt therapists believe that different parts of a dream reflect different aspects of the person. They work with dreams by having the patient become each element of the dream. The notion that dreams reflect unconscious aggressive and libidinal drives (Response 1) would be most associated with Freudians or classical psychoanalysts. The collective unconscious (Response 2) would be associated with C. G. Jung.

You are supervising an intern whose client is arrested. The client is referred to you by the court for evaluation. You should: 1. agree, as there would be no breach of confidentiality since your supervisee has already been sharing the client's information with you. 2. agree, as the court has made the request and is paying you directly. 3. decline, to avoid a conflict of interest. 4. decline, as this could impair objectivity in your supervision.

3. decline, to avoid a conflict of interest. In general, psychologists must strive to avoid conflicts of interest. Since the intern is working with the client under your license, they are technically your client. Thus, you should decline the referral as evaluating them for the court would create a conflict of interest (Response 3, correct answer). The concern here is not about confidentiality (ruling out Response 1), who is paying (ruling out Response 2), or objectivity in supervision (ruling out Response 4).

During an intake evaluation, a client informs you that she has had sexual relations with her previous therapist. You happen to know this therapist personally. You should: 1. discuss this with the therapist without revealing the client's name. 2. recommend that your client file an ethics complaint. 3. discuss available options with your client. 4. consider the diagnostic implications of her behavior. In this scenario, you may have narrowed down your choice to

3. discuss available options with your client. Responses 2 & 3. Discussing available options, which would probably include the option of filing an ethics charge, would be better than a direct recommendation that the person file the complaint (Response 2). Discussing the sexual misconduct directly with the therapist (Response 1) would be a breach of confidentiality. Considering the diagnostic implications (Response 4) insufficiently addresses the ethical issues here.

As compared to clinical predictions, actuarial predictions tend to be: 1. equally accurate. 2. less accurate. 3. equally or more accurate. 4. more accurate when the clinician is early in their career.

3. equally or more accurate. An actuarial prediction is a prediction based solely on statistical calculations derived from data, without any subjective judgment. In contrast, a clinical prediction is a prediction based on analyses of symptoms and case histories, in which the clinician uses personal judgment they have accrued through experience to come to a decision. In comparing actuarial and clinical prediction across a variety of areas (e.g., predicting parole violation, predicting psychosis from the MMPI, selecting appropriate psychiatric medication) actuarial methods have consistently equaled or outperformed clinical methods (Response 3, correct answer).

Group polarization occurs when: 1. a non-cohesive group splits into factions. 2. majority members ally against minority members. 3. group members make more extreme decisions than they would have individually. 4. a new member enters who unbalances the homeostasis.

3. group members make more extreme decisions than they would have individually. Response 3 describes group polarization, also known as response polarization. The other responses are distracters.

Self-instruction is most useful for individuals with: 1. depression. 2. phobias. 3. hyperactivity. 4. borderline personality disorder.

3. hyperactivity. Self-instructional therapy, developed by Meichenbaum, is an evidenced based cognitive-behavioral treatment. The emphasis is on teaching the individual a variety of self-statements that can be used by the individual to either control his or her behavior or perform certain tasks. The theoretical basis was derived from Lev Vygotsky's and Aleksandr Luria's work in the late 1950s on the functional relationship between language and behavior. This approach has been widely implemented and is especially useful with hyperactive and impulsive individuals.

Vision is to hearing as: 1. temporal lobe is to occipital lobe. 2. occipital lobe is to parietal lobe. 3. parietal lobe is to occipital lobe. 4. occipital lobe is to temporal lobe.

4. occipital lobe is to temporal lobe. The lobes responsible for vision are the occipital lobes. The temporal lobes contain the primary auditory cortex. The parietal lobes process somatosensory information (e.g., touch, pain, temperature, and proprioception).

A high school principal has a history of experiencing panic attacks more often than not when he presents to parents at school. Prior to each parent presentation he worries for several days about the upcoming event. The principal's most likely diagnosis is: 1. panic disorder. 2. generalized anxiety disorder. 3. social anxiety disorder. 4. specific phobia.

3. social anxiety disorder. Social anxiety disorder involves fear of one or more social situations in which the person is exposed to potential scrutiny by others. Some individuals with social anxiety disorder (as described in this scenario) experience panic attacks in the feared social situation. The principal's presentation is consistent with a diagnosis of social anxiety disorder, performance only (Response 3, correct answer). Panic disorder is characterized by recurrent unexpected panic attacks, which is not the case here (ruling out Response 1). Generalized anxiety disorder is diagnosed when there is excessive anxiety and worry about a number of events or activities, occurring more days than not for at least 6 months. The principal's worries are limited to speaking in public, and only occur prior to speaking events (ruling out Response 2). Individuals with specific phobias may also experience panic attacks in response to the feared stimuli. Since the principal's fear is limited to social situations, specific phobia (e.g., fear of snakes, fear of flying) is not diagnosed (ruling out Response 4).

The Neo-Freudians emphasize: 1. underlying unconscious conflicts. 2. ego defensive and conflict-free functioning. 3. social interactions. 4. beliefs.

3. social interactions. The focus of the Neo-Freudians is on how social and cultural factors influence and shape personality. Classical analysts focus intensely on underlying unconscious conflicts (Response 1). The ego analysts focus on ego defensive and conflict-free functioning (Response 2), and the cognitive behaviorists focus on beliefs (Response 4).

The thalamus is best described as: 1. the master endocrine gland. 2. the seat of consciousness. 3. the relay station for all senses except olfaction. 4. the house of the somatosensory cortex.

3. the relay station for all senses except olfaction. An all-time favorite on the licensing exam, the thalamus integrates and processes all sensory information except for olfaction (i.e., smell). The pituitary is considered the master endocrine gland (Response 1), as it releases hormones that activate other endocrine glands.The parietal lobes house the somatosensory cortex (Response 4). There is no one brain structure considered to be the seat of consciousness (Response 2).

Partial complex seizures typically originate in: 1. the frontal lobe 2. the brain stem 3. the temporal lobes

3. the temporal lobes The temporal lobes are most commonly the originating site of complex partial seizures. Keep in mind, though, that such seizures can originate in any cortical region. Complex partial seizures are frequently preceded by an aura, and usually include purposeless behavior, lip smacking, unintelligible speech, and impaired consciousness. The frontal lobes (Response 1) are critical to personality, emotionality, inhibition, planning and initiative, abstract thinking, judgment, and higher mental functions. The brain stem (Response 2) includes the pons, medulla, and reticular activating system (RAS). The limbic system (Response 4) is an interconnected group of organs and structures (e.g., amygdala, hippocampus) involved in memory and emotion.

The Zeigarnik effect refers to: 1. the tendency of people to rely on the judgments of others when analyzing ambiguous stimuli. 2. the improvement in memory that occurs when imagery and visualization are used. 3. the tendency to remember uncompleted tasks better than completed ones. 4. the increase in obedience that occurs when the person in authority is significantly taller than the subordinate.

3. the tendency to remember uncompleted tasks better than completed ones. The Zeigarnik effect refers to the phenomenon that people are more likely to remember uncompleted tasks than completed tasks. For example, examinees are more likely to remember test items of which they were uncertain (i.e., the task feels uncompleted).

After conducting a two-way ANOVA, you determine significant differences have been found. You are most likely to conclude: 1. there are main effects and there may or may not be interaction effects. 2. there are interaction effects and there may or may not be main effects. 3. there can be any combination of main effects and interactions. 4. there are probably neither main effects nor interaction effects because the results may be due to chance.

3. there can be any combination of main effects and interactions. When you conduct a two-way ANOVA, you calculate three F ratios, and therefore there are three possibilities for significance. There are two possible main effects (for Variable A and Variable B), and a possible interaction effect. The important point is that when you get significance in a two-way ANOVA, it can be any combination of main effects and interactions. For example, it's possible that there would be only one main effect. It's equally possible that there would be a significant interaction effect and no main effects, or even that there would be two significant main effects and a significant interaction. Note that one of the advantages of a two-way ANOVA over two separate one-way ANOVAs is the possibility of detecting the interaction effect.

The halo effect can be controlled by all of the following except: 1. training the raters. 2. utilizing forced choice. 3. utilizing relative methods. 4. utilizing BARS.

3. utilizing relative methods. The halo effect is the tendency to be influenced by only one attribute when giving an overall rating of an individual. Halo effects can be positive, such as giving a positive overall rating because an individual is attractive, or negative, such as giving a negative overall rating because the individual dresses poorly. The following methods can help control for the halo effect: training the raters (Response 1); a forced response format in which the rater is forced to choose between two equally desirable or undesirable attributes (Response 2); and BARS, the Behaviorally Anchored Rating Scale (Response 4), in which performance is based on critical incidents. Relative methods (Response 3), which involve comparing employees with one another, do not control for halo effects.

Right hemisphere stroke most commonly results in: 1. weakness on the left side of the body and depression. 2. weakness on the right side of the body and depression. 3. weakness on the left side of the body and indifference. 4. weakness on the right side of the body and indifference.

3. weakness on the left side of the body and indifference. It is important to know that the right side of the brain exerts control over the left side of the body and vice versa, thus a person with a right hemisphere stroke will exhibit weakness on the left side of the body (ruling out Responses 2 & 4). Right hemisphere strokes typically cause emotional indifference or euphoria (Response 3, correct answer), whereas left hemisphere strokes typically cause depression (ruling out Response 1).

An attractive 40-year-old man selects as his partner a fairly unattractive 20-year-old woman. What could explain this man's choice? 1. Matching theory. 2. Similarity hypothesis. 3. Long-distance relationship. 4. Reciprocity hypothesis.

4. Reciprocity hypothesis. The most likely explanation here is the reciprocity hypothesis, which states that people tend to like others who like them. The matching hypothesis (Response 1) proposes that people of approximately equal physical attractiveness are likely to select each other. The similarity hypothesis (Response 2) posits that people similar to each other (e.g., similar in age, race, or religion) tend to form intimate relationships. Long-distance relationship (Response 3) is not a factor here.

A 72-year-old woman takes the WAIS-IV. She scores highest on block design and matrix reasoning and lowest on vocabulary and information. Which of the following statements regarding her performance would be most accurate 1. She shows the classic aging profile with crystallized intelligence declining more than fluid intelligence. 2. She shows the classic aging profile with fluid intelligence declining more than crystallized intelligence. 3. She does not show the classic aging profile because her subtests measuring crystallized intelligence do not show more impairment than her subtests measuring fluid intelligence. 4. She does not show the classic aging profile because her subtests measuring fluid intelligence do not show more impairment than her subtests measuring crystallized intelligence.

4. She does not show the classic aging profile because her subtests measuring fluid intelligence do not show more impairment than her subtests measuring crystallized intelligence. This is a very tricky question because, in addition to requiring you to have a clear understanding about the "classic aging profile," it uses convoluted wording and double negatives. The classic aging profile involves maintained or enhanced crystallized intelligence with diminished fluid intelligence. Crystallized intelligence refers to knowledge gained through experience, and is reflected in the verbal comprehension subtests of vocabulary, information, and similarities. Fluid intelligence refers to the organization of information and novel problem-solving, and is reflected in the perceptual reasoning index on the WAIS-IV, including subtests of block design, matrix reasoning, and visual puzzles. In this example, the woman is scoring better on tests of fluid intelligence than on tests of crystallized intelligence, i.e., the opposite of the classic profile (eliminating Responses 1 and 2). Put differently, tests of fluid intelligence are not showing more impairment than tests of crystallized intelligence (Response 4). Response 3 describes the classic aging profile incorrectly.

Studies of children identified as aggressive support which of the following conclusions? 1. Aggression in early childhood is unrelated to aggression in middle childhood. 2. Childhood aggression rarely persists into adolescence. 3. Childhood aggression persists only if the children are abused. 4. There is a moderate tendency for the children to remain aggressive.

4. There is a moderate tendency for the children to remain aggressive. If you were not familiar with this research, the best approach would be to combine conservatism with common sense. It seems unlikely that childhood aggression would be totally unrelated to later aggression (Response 1) or rarely persist into adolescence (Response 2).

The phenomenon of catharsis described in psychoanalytic theory, can be explained by behaviorists as: 1. a decrease in affective response due to the therapist's direction to do so. 2. a decrease in affective response because of the therapist's indirect influences. 3. inhibited affective responding brought about by developing cognitive controls. 4. a decrease in affective response by extinction.

4. a decrease in affective response by extinction. Catharsis involves talking about anxiety-provoking situations and purging the associated emotions. A behaviorist would argue that catharsis works to reduce anxiety by a process of classical extinction. Catharsis would be seen as akin to flooding with response prevention in which the individual is exposed to the feared conditioned stimulus without the unconditioned stimulus being present, until the fear response is extinguished.

The main reason for treatment failure with addictive behaviors is that these behaviors: 1. are both operantly and classically reinforced. 2. are intermittently reinforced. 3. are reinforced on a variable ratio schedule. 4. are self-reinforcing.

4. are self-reinforcing. The high failure rate in treating addictive behaviors stems from the fact that many addictions are very powerfully reinforcing. They are considered to be self-reinforcing in that the person does not depend on any external reinforcement. Thus, addictive behaviors are not necessarily both operantly and classically conditioned (Response 1). Because the individual receives self-reinforcement every time the behavior is performed, these behaviors are not being intermittently reinforced (Response 2). The variable ratio schedule (Response 3) is one type of intermittent reinforcement.

Preadolescent sibling relationships are characterized by: 1. competitiveness/hostility. 2. aggressiveness/passivity. 3. loyalty/friendship. 4. conflict/friendship.

4. conflict/friendship. Research into sibling relationships in preadolescence indicates that these relationships are characterized by periods of both conflict and friendship (Response 4). Conflict is theorized to be the result of less emotional inhibition with one's sibling, which leads to more overt presentations of hostility. However, sibling preadolescent relationships also include periods of calm and friendship, which tend to occur in the presence of other family members while engaging in shared activities.

In conducting an ABAB design, the researcher would be concerned with: 1. history and maturation. 2. regression and diffusion. 3. failure of IV to return to baseline. 4. failure of DV to return to baseline.

4. failure of DV to return to baseline. An ABAB design is a type of single subject design in which the person is first measured over time during a baseline phase (A), then treatment is implemented and the person is once again measured repeatedly during the intervention phase (B). Treatment is then removed, and the person is measured at baseline again (A). Finally, treatment is implemented again and the person is repeatedly measured (B). ABAB designs offer good control over history and maturation (Response 1). Regression and diffusion (Response 2) are not of concern here. A key problem with an ABAB design is the possibility that the outcome measure may fail to return to baseline once the person has been exposed to the first part of treatment.

As a psychologist, you begin a sexual relationship with one of your former clients. This behavior: 1. is unethical and illegal. 2. is unethical. 3. is ethical. 4. may be ethical.

4. may be ethical. The Ethics Code states it may be ethical to engage in sexual intimacies with a former therapy patient provided at least two years have passed since the end of therapy and the psychologist can demonstrate there has been no exploitation in light of seven factors (e.g., nature and duration of therapy, patient's current mental status, etc.).

The presence of bizarre delusions may suggest: 1. schizophrenia. 2. schizophrenia or schizoaffective disorder. 3. schizophrenia or delusional disorder. 4. schizophrenia, schizoaffective disorder, or delusional disorder.

4. schizophrenia, schizoaffective disorder, or delusional disorder. Delusions are fixed, false beliefs that are unchangeable. While non-bizarre delusions involve situations that are plausible (e.g., the belief that one's spouse is unfaithful), bizarre delusions are clearly implausible (e.g., the person believes that aliens have removed his or her internal organs). According to the DSM-5-TR, bizarre delusions may be found in schizophrenia, schizoaffective disorder, or delusional disorder (Response 4, correct answer).

Neurotransmitter imbalances have been identified in people with eating disorders. Most notably, persons with eating disorders frequently have a deficiency of: 1. acetylcholine. 2. GABA. 3. dopamine. 4. serotonin.

4. serotonin. Serotonin and norepinephrine are significantly involved in regulation of appetite, as well as mood and sleep. Persons with eating disorders as well as depressive disorders commonly have low levels of these neurotransmitters. This may also partly explain the link that frequently exists between eating disorders and depressive illness. Acetylcholine deficiencies are a hallmark of Alzheimer's disease (Response 1). Low levels of GABA have been found in persons with anxiety disorders (Response 2). A decrease in dopamine is common in Parkinson's disease (Response 3).

In comparing the relationship between satisfaction and performance, and satisfaction and length of employment: 1. both correlations are weak and positive. 2. both correlations are moderate and positive. 3. the first correlation is weak and positive, the second moderate and negative. 4. the first correlation is weak and positive, the second moderate and positive.

4. the first correlation is weak and positive, the second moderate and positive. Keep in mind that there is a weak positive correlation (about .15) between satisfaction and performance, and a moderate negative correlation between satisfaction and turnover. Because the second part of the question is asking about the correlation between satisfaction and length of employment (the reverse of turnover) this correlation would be moderate, but positive.

If using a selection test results in 40% of the African American applicants being hired and 45% of the white applicants being hired, you can conclude: 1. adverse impact has occurred. 2. adverse impact has occurred and the test has differential validity. 3. the test is unfair. 4. the test may or may not have differential validity.

4. the test may or may not have differential validity. Adverse impact has occurred when the percentage of minorities hired is less than 4/5ths of the percentage of non-minorities hired. The easiest way to calculate this is to multiply the hiring rate for non-minorities by .8. In this case, the percentage of the non-minorities hired is 45%. The 45% is multiplied by .8, and results in 36%. Adverse impact has not occurred since the selection of African American applicants is 40%, which exceeds the minimum requirement of 36%. Responses 1 and 2 are therefore ruled out. We do not have information about unfairness, which occurs when predictor scores (tests) are different, but criterion scores (performance outcome) are similar. Thus Response 3 is eliminated. We also have no information on differential validity, which is defined as different criterion-related validity coefficients for different ethnic groups. Only Response 4 is correct.

Autism spectrum disorder is diagnosed about: 1. equally in males and females. 2. two times more often in females. 3. two times more often in males. 4. three times more often in males.

4. three times more often in males. According to the DSM-5-TR, autism spectrum disorder is diagnosed three times more often in males than females (Response 4, correct answer). Disorders that are about equally common in males and females include schizophrenia and bipolar I disorder (ruling out Response 1). The rate of major depressive disorder is 1.5 to 3 times higher in females than males, beginning in early adolescence (ruling out Response 2). According to the DSM-5-TR, ADHD is more common in males than females with a ratio of approximately 2:1 (ruling out Response 3).