Evolve Chapters 26,27,28,29

The nurse is assigned to care for a patient in the emergency department admitted with an exacerbation of asthma. The patient has received a β-adrenergic bronchodilator and supplemental oxygen. If the patient's condition does not improve, the nurse should anticipate what as the most likely next step in treatment? IV fluids Biofeedback therapy Systemic corticosteroids Pulmonary function testing

Systemic corticosteroids Systemic corticosteroids speed the resolution of asthma exacerbations and are indicated if the initial response to the β-adrenergic bronchodilator is insufficient. IV fluids may be used, but not to improve ventilation. Biofeedback therapy and pulmonary function testing may be used after recovery to assist the patient and monitor the asthma. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 8.ID: 809601968

During the assessment in the ED, the nurse is palpating the patient's chest. Which finding is a medical emergency? Trachea moved to the left Increased tactile fremitus Decreased tactile fremitus Diminished chest movement

Trachea moved to the left Tracheal deviation is a medical emergency when it is caused by a tension pneumothorax. Tactile fremitus increases with pneumonia or pulmonary edema and decreases in pleural effusion or lung hyperinflation. Diminished chest movement occurs with barrel chest, restrictive disease, and neuromuscular disease.

When planning appropriate nursing interventions for a patient with metastatic lung cancer and a 60-pack-per-year history of cigarette smoking, the nurse recognizes that the smoking has most likely decreased the patient's underlying respiratory defenses because of impairment of cough reflex. mucociliary clearance. reflex bronchoconstriction. ability to filter particles from the air.

mucociliary clearance. Smoking decreases the ciliary action in the tracheobronchial tree, resulting in impaired clearance of respiratory secretions and particles, chronic cough, and frequent respiratory infections. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 13.ID: 809602746

The nurse is teaching a patient how to self-administer ipratropium (Atrovent) via a metered dose inhaler (MDI). Which instruction given by the nurse is most appropriate to help the patient learn the proper inhalation technique? "Avoid shaking the inhaler before use." "Breathe out slowly before positioning the inhaler." "Using a spacer should be avoided for this type of medication." "After taking a puff, hold the breath for 30 seconds before exhaling."

"Breathe out slowly before positioning the inhaler." It is important to breathe out slowly before positioning the inhaler. This allows the patient to take a deeper breath while inhaling the medication, thus enhancing the effectiveness of the dose. The inhaler should be shaken well. A spacer may be used. Holding the breath after the inhalation of medication helps keep the medication in the lungs, but 30 seconds will not be possible for a patient with COPD. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 30.ID: 809602716

The physician has prescribed salmeterol (Serevent) for a patient with asthma. In reviewing the use of dry powder inhalers (DPIs) with the patient, what instructions should the nurse provide? "Close lips tightly around the mouthpiece and breathe in deeply and quickly." "To administer a DPI, you must use a spacer that holds the medicine so that you can inhale it." "You will know you have correctly used the DPI when you taste or sense the medicine going into your lungs." "Hold the inhaler several inches in front of your mouth and breathe in slowly, holding the medicine as long as possible."

"Close lips tightly around the mouthpiece and breathe in deeply and quickly." The patient should be instructed to tightly close the lips around the mouthpiece and breathe in deeply and quickly to ensure the medicine moves down deeply into the lungs. Dry powder inhalers do not require spacer devices. The patient may not taste or sense the medicine going into the lungs. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 11.ID: 809602700

The nurse in the occupational health clinic prepares to administer the influenza vaccine by nasal spray to a 35-year-old female employee. Which question should the nurse ask before administration of this vaccine? "Are you allergic to chicken?" "Could you be pregnant now?" "Did you ever have influenza?" "Have you ever had hepatitis B?"

"Could you be pregnant now?" The live attenuated influenza vaccine (LAIV) is given by nasal spray and approved for healthy people age 2 years to 49 years. The LAIV is given only to nonpregnant, healthy people. The inactivated vaccine is given by injection and is approved for use in people 6 months or older. The inactivated vaccine can be used in pregnancy, in people with chronic conditions, or in people who are immunosuppressed. Influenza vaccination is contraindicated if the person has a history of Guillain-Barré syndrome or a hypersensitivity to eggs. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 4.ID: 809552001

A 67-year-old male patient had a right total knee replacement 2 days ago. Upon auscultation of the patient's posterior chest, the nurse detects discontinuous, high-pitched breath sounds just before the end of inspiration in the lower portion of both lungs. Which statement most appropriately reflects how the nurse should document the breath sounds? "Bibasilar rhonchi present on inspiration." "Diminished breath sounds in the bases of both lungs." "Fine crackles posterior right and left lower lung fields." "Expiratory wheezing scattered throughout the lung fields."

"Fine crackles posterior right and left lower lung fields." Fine crackles are described as a series of short-duration, discontinuous, high-pitched sounds heard just before the end of inspiration.

The nurse evaluates that discharge teaching for a patient hospitalized with pneumonia has been effective when the patient makes which statement about measures to prevent a relapse? "I will seek immediate medical treatment for any upper respiratory infections." "I should continue to do deep-breathing and coughing exercises for at least 12 weeks." "I will increase my food intake to 2400 calories a day to keep my immune system well." "I must have a follow-up chest x-ray in 6 to 8 weeks to evaluate the pneumonia's resolution."

"I must have a follow-up chest x-ray in 6 to 8 weeks to evaluate the pneumonia's resolution." The follow-up chest x-ray will be done in 6 to 8 weeks to evaluate pneumonia resolution. A patient should seek medical treatment for upper respiratory infections that persist for more than 7 days. It may be important for the patient to continue with coughing and deep breathing exercises for 6 to 8 weeks, not 12 weeks, until all of the infection has cleared from the lungs. Increased fluid intake, not caloric intake, is required to liquefy secretions. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 8.ID: 809602752

The patient with HIV has been diagnosed with Candida albicans, an opportunistic infection. The nurse knows the patient needs more teaching when she says, "I will be given amphotericin B to treat the fungus." "I got this fungus because I am immunocompromised." "I need to be isolated from my family and friends so they won't get it." "The effectiveness of my therapy can be monitored with fungal serology titers."

"I need to be isolated from my family and friends so they won't get it." The patient with an opportunistic fungal infection does not need to be isolated because it is not transmitted from person to person. This immunocompromised patient will be likely to have a serious infection so it will be treated with IV amphotericin B. The effectiveness of the therapy can be monitored with fungal serology titers. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 18.ID: 809602740

The nurse teaches a 33-year-old male patient with asthma how to administer fluticasone (Flovent HFA) by metered-dose inhaler (MDI). Which statement by the patient to the nurse indicates correct understanding of the instructions? "I should not use a spacer device with this inhaler." "I will rinse my mouth each time after I use this inhaler." "I will feel my breathing improve over the next 2 to 3 hours." "I should use this inhaler immediately if I have trouble breathing."

"I will rinse my mouth each time after I use this inhaler." Fluticasone (Flovent HFA) may cause oral candidiasis (thrush). The patient should rinse the mouth with water or mouthwash after use or use a spacer device to prevent oral fungal infections. Fluticasone is an inhaled corticosteroid, and it may take 2 weeks of regular use for effects to be evident. This medication is not recommended for an acute asthma attack. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 2.ID: 809539563

The nurse teaches a 20-year-old female patient who is prescribed budesonide (Rhinocort) intranasal spray for seasonal allergic rhinitis. The nurse determines that medication teaching is successful if the patient makes which statement? "My liver function will be checked with blood tests every 2 to 3 months." "The medication will decrease the congestion within 3 to 5 minutes after use." "I may develop a serious infection because the medication reduces my immunity." "I will use the medication every day of the season whether I have symptoms or not."

"I will use the medication every day of the season whether I have symptoms or not." Budesonide should be started 2 weeks before pollen season starts and used on a regular basis, and not as needed. The spray acts to decrease inflammation and the effect is not immediate as with decongestant sprays. At recommended doses, budesonide has only local effects and will not result in immunosuppression or a systemic infection. Zafirlukast (Accolate) is a leukotriene receptor antagonist and may alter liver function tests (LFTs). LFTs must be monitored periodically in the patient taking zafirlukast. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 3.ID: 809550797

The nurse teaches a 66-year-old man with hypertension and osteoarthritis about actions to prevent and control epistaxis. Which statement, if made by the patient, indicates further teaching is required? "I should avoid using ibuprofen (Motrin) for pain and discomfort." "It is important for me to take my blood pressure medication every day." "I will sit down and pinch the tip of my nose for at least 10 to 15 minutes." "If I get a nosebleed, I will lie down flat and raise my feet above my heart."

"If I get a nosebleed, I will lie down flat and raise my feet above my heart." A simple measure to control epistaxis (or a nosebleed) is for the patient to remain quiet in a sitting position. Another measure would be to apply direct pressure by pinching the entire soft lower portion of the nose for 10 to 15 minutes. Aspirin or nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs such as ibuprofen increase the bleeding time and should be avoided. Elevated blood pressure makes epistaxis more difficult to control. The patient should continue with antihypertensive medications as prescribed. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 2.ID: 809550799

Which statement made by the patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) indicates a need for further teaching regarding the use of an ipratropium inhaler? "I can rinse my mouth following the two puffs to get rid of the bad taste." "I should wait at least 1 to 2 minutes between each puff of the inhaler." "Because this medication is not fast-acting, I cannot use it in an emergency if my breathing gets worse." "If my breathing gets worse, I should keep taking extra puffs of the inhaler until I can breathe more easily."

"If my breathing gets worse, I should keep taking extra puffs of the inhaler until I can breathe more easily." The patient should not just keep taking extra puffs of the inhaler to make breathing easier. Excessive treatment could trigger paradoxical bronchospasm, which would worsen the patient's respiratory status. Rinsing the mouth after the puffs will eliminate a bad taste. Waiting 1 to 2 minutes between each puff will facilitate the effectiveness of the administration. Ipratropium is not used in an emergency for COPD. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 31.ID: 809601974

The nurse determines that the patient understood medication instructions about the use of a spacer device when taking inhaled medications after hearing the patient state what as the primary benefit? "I will pay less for medication because it will last longer." "More of the medication will get down into my lungs to help my breathing." "Now I will not need to breathe in as deeply when taking the inhaler medications." "This device will make it so much easier and faster to take my inhaled medications."

"More of the medication will get down into my lungs to help my breathing." A spacer assists more medication to reach the lungs, with less being deposited in the mouth and the back of the throat. It does not affect the cost or increase the speed of using the inhaler. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 13.ID: 809602726

Although a diagnosis of cystic fibrosis is most often made before age 2, an 18-year-old patient at the student health center with a history of frequent lung and sinus infections has clinical manifestations consistent with undiagnosed cystic fibrosis (CF). Which information would be accurate for the nurse to include when teaching the patient about a scheduled sweat chloride test? "Sweat chloride greater than 60 mmol/L is consistent with a diagnosis of CF." "If sweating occurs after an oral dose of pilocarpine, the test for CP is positive." "The test measures the amount of sodium chloride in your postexercise sweat." "If the sweat chloride test is positive on two occasions, genetic testing will be necessary."

"Sweat chloride greater than 60 mmol/L is consistent with a diagnosis of CF." The diagnostic criteria for CF involve a combination of clinical presentation, sweat chloride testing, and genetic testing to confirm the diagnosis. The sweat chloride test is performed by placing pilocarpine on the skin and carried by a small electric current to stimulate sweat production. This takes about 5 minutes, and the patient feels a slight tingling or warmth. The sweat is collected on filter paper or gauze and then analyzed for sweat chloride concentrations (for about 1 hour). Values above 60 mmol/L for sweat chloride are consistent with the diagnosis of CF. However, a second sweat chloride test is recommended to confirm the diagnosis, unless genetic testing identifies a CF mutation. Genetic testing is used if the results from a sweat chloride test are unclear. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 5.ID: 809539567

The nurse instructs a 38-year-old female patient with a pulmonary embolism about administering enoxaparin (Lovenox) after discharge. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding about the instructions? "I need to take this medicine with meals." "The medicine will be prescribed for 10 days." "I will inject this medicine into my upper arm." "The medicine will dissolve the clot in my lung."

"The medicine will be prescribed for 10 days." Enoxaparin is a low-molecular-weight heparin that is administered for 10 to 14 days and prevents future clotting but does not dissolve existing clots. Fibrinolytic agents (e.g., tissue plasminogen activator or alteplase) dissolve an existing clot. Enoxaparin is administered subcutaneously by injection into the abdomen. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 1.ID: 809602728

A patient has been receiving oxygen per nasal cannula while hospitalized for COPD. The patient asks the nurse whether oxygen use will be needed at home. What is the most appropriate response by the nurse? "Long-term home oxygen therapy should be used to prevent respiratory failure." "Oxygen will not be needed until or unless you are in the terminal stages of this disease." "Long-term home oxygen therapy should be used to prevent heart problems related to COPD." "You will not need oxygen until your oxygen saturation drops to 88% and you have symptoms of hypoxia."

"You will not need oxygen until your oxygen saturation drops to 88% and you have symptoms of hypoxia." Long-term oxygen therapy in the home will not be considered until the oxygen saturation is less than or equal to 88% and the patient has signs of tissue hypoxia, such as cor pulmonale, erythrocytosis, or impaired mental status. PaO2 less than 55 mm Hg will also allow home oxygen therapy to be considered. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 27.ID: 809602714

The nurse is interpreting a tuberculin skin test (TST) for a 58-year-old female patient with end-stage kidney disease secondary to diabetes mellitus. Which finding would indicate a positive reaction? Acid-fast bacilli cultured at the injection site 15-mm area of redness at the TST injection site 11-mm area of induration at the TST injection site Wheal formed immediately after intradermal injection

11-mm area of induration at the TST injection site An area of induration ≥ 10 mm would be a positive reaction in a person with end-stage kidney disease. Reddened, flat areas do not indicate a positive reaction. A wheal appears when the TST is administered that indicates correct administration of the intradermal antigen. Presence of acid-fast bacilli in the sputum indicates active tuberculosis.

The nurse is caring for a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disorder (COPD) and pneumonia who has an order for arterial blood gases to be drawn. What is the minimum length of time the nurse should plan to hold pressure on the puncture site? 2 minutes 5 minutes 10 minutes 15 minutes

5 minutes After obtaining blood for an arterial blood gas measurement, the nurse should hold pressure on the puncture site for 5 minutes by the clock to be sure that bleeding has stopped. An artery is an elastic vessel under much higher pressure than veins, and significant blood loss or hematoma formation could occur if the time is insufficient.

Which patient is at highest risk of aspiration? A 58-year-old patient with absent bowel sounds 12 hours after abdominal surgery A 67-year-old patient who had a cerebrovascular accident with expressive dysphasia A 26-year-old patient with continuous enteral tube feedings through a nasogastric tube A 52-year-old patient with viral pneumonia and coarse crackles throughout the lung fields

A 26-year-old patient with continuous enteral tube feedings through a nasogastric tube Conditions that increase the risk of aspiration include decreased level of consciousness, difficulty swallowing (dysphagia), and nasogastric intubation with or without tube feeding. With loss of consciousness, the gag and cough reflexes are depressed, and aspiration is more likely to occur. Dysphasia is difficulty with speech. Absent bowel sounds and coarse crackles do not increase the risk for aspiration. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 3.ID: 809544098

Which patient is exhibiting an early clinical manifestation of hypoxemia? A 48-year-old patient who is intoxicated and acutely disoriented to time and place A 72-year-old patient who has four new premature ventricular contractions per minute A 67-year-old patient who has dyspnea while resting in the bed or in a reclining chair A 94-year-old patient who has renal insufficiency, anemia, and decreased urine output

A 72-year-old patient who has four new premature ventricular contractions per minute Early clinical manifestations of hypoxemia include dysrhythmias (e.g., premature ventricular contractions), unexplained decreased level of consciousness (e.g., disorientation), dyspnea on exertion, and unexplained decreased urine output.

Which test result identifies that a patient with asthma is responding to treatment? An increase in CO2 levels A decreased exhaled nitric oxide A decrease in white blood cell count An increase in serum bicarbonate levels

A decreased exhaled nitric oxide Nitric oxide levels are increased in the breath of people with asthma. A decrease in the exhaled nitric oxide concentration suggests that the treatment may be decreasing the lung inflammation associated with asthma and adherence to treatment. An increase in CO2 levels, decreased white blood cell count, and increased serum bicarbonate levels do not indicate a positive response to treatment in the asthma patient. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 14.ID: 809602730

When caring for a patient who is 3 hours postoperative laryngectomy, what is the nurse's highest priority assessment? Patient comfort Airway patency Incisional drainage Blood pressure and heart rate

Airway patency Remember the ABCs with prioritization. Airway patency is always the highest priority and is essential for a patient undergoing surgery surrounding the upper respiratory system. Comfort, drainage, and vital signs follow the ABCs in priority.

The patient has an order for each of the following inhalers. Which one should the nurse offer to the patient at the onset of an asthma attack? Albuterol (Proventil) Salmeterol (Serevent) Beclomethasone (Qvar) Ipratropium bromide (Atrovent)

Albuterol (Proventil) Albuterol is a short-acting bronchodilator that should be given initially when the patient experiences an asthma attack. Salmeterol (Serevent) is a long-acting β2-adrenergic agonist, which is not used for acute asthma attacks. Beclomethasone (Qvar) is a corticosteroid inhaler and not recommended for an acute asthma attack. Ipratropium bromide (Atrovent) is an anticholinergic agent that is less effective than β2-adrenergic agonists. It may be used in an emergency with a patient unable to tolerate short-acting β2-adrenergic agonists (SABAs). Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 16.ID: 809602704

When the patient with a persisting cough is diagnosed with pertussis (instead of acute bronchitis), the nurse knows that treatment will include which type of medication? Antibiotic Corticosteroid Bronchodilator Cough suppressant

Antibiotic Pertussis, unlike acute bronchitis, is caused by a gram-negative bacillus, Bordella pertussis, which must be treated with antibiotics. Corticosteroids and bronchodilators are not helpful in reducing symptoms. Cough suppressants and antihistamines are ineffective and may induce coughing episodes with pertussis. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 17.ID: 809602756

A 45-year-old man with asthma is brought to the emergency department by automobile. He is short of breath and appears frightened. During the initial nursing assessment, which clinical manifestation might be present as an early manifestation during an exacerbation of asthma? Anxiety Cyanosis Bradycardia Hypercapnia

Anxiety An early manifestation during an asthma attack is anxiety because the patient is acutely aware of the inability to get sufficient air to breathe. He will be hypoxic early on with decreased PaCO2 and increased pH as he is hyperventilating. If cyanosis occurs, it is a later sign. The pulse and blood pressure will be increased. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 3.ID: 809601972

A patient is being discharged from the emergency department after being treated for epistaxis. In teaching the family first aid measures in the event the epistaxis would recur, what measures should the nurse suggest (select all that apply)? Tilt patient's head backwards. Apply ice compresses to the nose. Tilt head forward while lying down. Pinch the entire soft lower portion of the nose. Partially insert a small gauze pad into the bleeding nostril.

Apply ice compresses to the nose. Pinch the entire soft lower portion of the nose. First aid measures to control epistaxis include placing the patient in a sitting position, leaning forward. Pinching the soft lower portion of the nose or inserting a small gauze pad into the bleeding nostril should stop the bleeding within 15 minutes. Tilting the head back or forward does not stop the bleeding, but rather allows the blood to enter the nasopharynx, which could result in aspiration or nausea/vomiting from swallowing blood. Lying down also will not decrease the bleeding.

The patient is hospitalized with pneumonia. Which diagnostic test should be used to measure the efficiency of gas transfer in the lung and tissue oxygenation? Thoracentesis Bronchoscopy Arterial blood gases Pulmonary function tests

Arterial blood gases Arterial blood gases are used to assess the efficiency of gas transfer in the lung and tissue oxygenation as is pulse oximetry. Thoracentesis is used to obtain specimens for diagnostic evaluation, remove pleural fluid, or instill medication into the pleural space. Bronchoscopy is used for diagnostic purposes, to obtain biopsy specimens, and to assess changes resulting from treatment. Pulmonary function tests measure lung volumes and airflow to diagnose pulmonary disease, monitor disease progression, evaluate disability, and evaluate response to bronchodilators.

A male patient with COPD becomes dyspneic at rest. His baseline blood gas results are PaO2 70 mm Hg, PaCO2 52 mm Hg, and pH 7.34. What updated patient assessment requires the nurse's priority intervention? Arterial pH 7.26 PaCO2 50 mm Hg Patient in tripod position Increased sputum expectoration

Arterial pH 7.26 The patient's pH shows acidosis that supports an exacerbation of COPD along with the worsening dyspnea. The PaCO2 has improved from baseline, the tripod position helps the patient's breathing, and the increase in sputum expectoration will improve the patient's ventilation. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 22.ID: 809602706

During admission of a patient diagnosed with non-small cell lung carcinoma, the nurse questions the patient related to a history of which risk factors for this type of cancer (select all that apply)? Asbestos exposure Exposure to uranium Chronic interstitial fibrosis History of cigarette smoking Geographic area in which he was born

Asbestos exposure Exposure to uranium History of cigarette smoking Non-small cell carcinoma is associated with cigarette smoking and exposure to environmental carcinogens, including asbestos and uranium. Chronic interstitial fibrosis is associated with the development of adenocarcinoma of the lung. Exposure to cancer-causing substances in the geographic area where the patient has lived for some time may be a risk, but not necessarily where the patient was born. Awarded 0.0 points out of 3.0 possible points. 10.ID: 809602770

The patient had abdominal surgery yesterday. Today the lung sounds in the lower lobes have decreased. The nurse knows this could be due to what occurring? Pain Atelectasis Pneumonia Pleural effusion

Atelectasis Postoperatively there is an increased risk for atelectasis from anesthesia as well as restricted breathing from pain. Without deep breathing to stretch the alveoli, surfactant secretion to hold the alveoli open is not promoted. Pneumonia will occur later after surgery. Pleural effusion occurs because of blockage of lymphatic drainage or an imbalance between intravascular and oncotic fluid pressures, which is not expected in this case.

The nurse is obtaining a focused respiratory assessment of a 44-year-old female patient who is in severe respiratory distress 2 days after abdominal surgery. What is most important for the nurse to assess? Auscultation of bilateral breath sounds Percussion of anterior and posterior chest wall Palpation of the chest bilaterally for tactile fremitus Inspection for anterior and posterior chest expansion

Auscultation of bilateral breath sounds Important assessments obtained during a focused respiratory assessment include auscultation of lung (breath) sounds. Assessment of tactile fremitus has limited value in acute respiratory distress. It is not necessary to assess for both anterior and posterior chest expansion. Percussion of the chest wall is not essential in a focused respiratory assessment.

A frail 82-year-old female patient develops sudden shortness of breath while sitting in a chair. What location on the chest should the nurse begin auscultation of the lung fields? Bases of the posterior chest area Apices of the posterior lung fields Anterior chest area above the breasts Midaxillary on the left side of the chest

Bases of the posterior chest area Baseline data with the most information is best obtained by auscultation of the posterior chest, especially in female patients because of breast tissue interfering with the assessment or if the patient may tire easily (e.g., shortness of breath, dyspnea, weakness, fatigue). Usually auscultation proceeds from the lung apices to the bases unless it is possible the patient will tire easily. In this case the nurse should start at the bases.

Which physical assessment finding in a patient with a lower respiratory problem best supports the nursing diagnosis of ineffective airway clearance? Basilar crackles Respiratory rate of 28 Oxygen saturation of 85% Presence of greenish sputum

Basilar crackles The presence of adventitious breath sounds indicates that there is accumulation of secretions in the lower airways. This would be consistent with a nursing diagnosis of ineffective airway clearance because the patient is retaining secretions. The rapid respiratory rate, low oxygen saturation, and presence of greenish sputum may occur with a lower respiratory problem, but do not definitely support the nursing diagnosis of ineffective airway clearance. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 4.ID: 809602766

The patient who had idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis had a bilateral lung transplantation. Now he is experiencing airflow obstruction that is progressing over time. It started with a gradual onset of exertional dyspnea, nonproductive cough, and wheezing. What are these manifestations signs of in the lung transplant patient? Pulmonary infarction Pulmonary hypertension Cytomegalovirus (CMV) Bronchiolitis obliterans (BOS)

Bronchiolitis obliterans (BOS) Bronchiolitis obliterans (BOS) is a manifestation of chronic rejection and is characterized by airflow obstruction progressing over time with a gradual onset of exertional dyspnea, nonproductive cough, wheezing, and/or low-grade fever. Pulmonary infarction occurs with lack of blood flow to the bronchial tissue or preexisting lung disease. With pulmonary hypertension, the pulmonary pressures are elevated and can be idiopathic or secondarily due to parenchymal lung disease that causes anatomic or vascular changes leading to pulmonary hypertension. CMV pneumonia is the most common opportunistic infection 1 to 4 months after lung transplant. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 1.ID: 809544083

One week after a thoracotomy, a patient with chest tubes (CTs) to water-seal drainage has an air leak into the closed chest drainage system (CDS). Which patient assessment warrants follow-up nursing interventions? Water-seal chamber has 5 cm of water. No new drainage in collection chamber Chest tube with a loose-fitting dressing Small pneumothorax at CT insertion site

Chest tube with a loose-fitting dressing If the dressing at the CT insertion site is loose, an air leak will occur and will need to be sealed. The water-seal chamber usually has 2 cm of water, but having more water will not contribute to an air leak, and it should not be drained from the CDS. No new drainage does not indicate an air leak but may indicate the CT is no longer needed. If there is a pneumothorax, the chest tube should remove the air. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 21.ID: 809602758

The nurse, when auscultating the lower lungs of the patient, hears these breath sounds. How should the nurse document these sounds? Stridor Rhonchi Coarse crackles Bronchovesicular

Coarse crackles Coarse crackles are a series of long-duration, discontinuous, low-pitched sounds caused by air passing through an airway intermittently occluded by mucus, an unstable bronchial wall, or a fold of mucosa. Coarse crackles are evident on inspiration and at times expiration. Stridor is a continuous crowing sound of constant pitch from partial obstruction of larynx or trachea. Rhonchi are a continuous rumbling, snoring, or rattling sound from obstruction of large airways with secretions. Bronchovesicular sounds are normal sounds heard anteriorly over the mainstem bronchi on either side of the sternum and posteriorly between the scapulae with a medium pitch and intensity.

When initially teaching a patient the supraglottic swallow following a radical neck dissection, with which food or fluid should the nurse begin? Cola Applesauce French fries White grape juice

Cola When learning the supraglottic swallow, it may be helpful to start with carbonated beverages because the effervescence provides clues about the liquid's position. Thin, watery fluids should be avoided because they are difficult to swallow and increase the risk of aspiration. Nonpourable pureed foods, such as applesauce, would decrease the risk of aspiration, but carbonated beverages are the better choice with which to start.

A patient with a history of tonsillitis complains of difficulty breathing. Which patient assessment data warrants emergency interventions by the nurse? Bilateral erythema of especially large tonsils Temperature 102.2° F, diaphoresis, and chills Contraction of neck muscles during inspiration β-hemolytic streptococcus in the throat culture

Contraction of neck muscles during inspiration Contraction of neck muscles during inspiration indicates that the patient is using accessory muscles for breathing and is in serious respiratory distress. The reddened and enlarged tonsils indicate pharyngitis. The increased temperature, diaphoresis, and chills indicate an infection, which could be β-hemolytic streptococcus or fungal infection, but not an emergency situation for the patient. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 14.ID: 809563031

The patient is calling the clinic with a cough. What assessment should be made first before the nurse advises the patient? Cough sound, sputum production, pattern Frequency, a family history, hematemesis Smoking, medications, residence location Weight loss, activity tolerance, orthopnea

Cough sound, sputum production, pattern The sound of the cough, sputum production and description, as well as pattern of the cough's occurrence (including acute or chronic) and what its occurrence is related to are the first assessments to be made to determine the severity. Frequency of the cough will not provide a lot of information. Family history can help to determine a genetic cause of the cough. Hematemesis is vomiting blood and not as important as hemoptysis. Smoking is an important risk factor for COPD and lung cancer and may cause a cough. Medications may or may not contribute to a cough as does residence location. Weight loss, activity intolerance, and orthopnea may be related to respiratory or cardiac problems, but are not as important when dealing with a cough.

A 24-year-old male with a gunshot wound to the right side of the chest walks into the emergency department while leaning on another young man. The patient exhibits severe shortness of breath and decreased breath sounds on the right side. Which action should the nurse take immediately? Cover the chest wound with a nonporous dressing taped on three sides. Pack the chest wound with sterile saline soaked gauze and tape securely. Stabilize the chest wall with tape and initiate positive pressure ventilation. Apply a pressure dressing over the wound to prevent excessive loss of blood.

Cover the chest wound with a nonporous dressing taped on three sides. The patient has a sucking chest wound (open pneumothorax). Air enters the pleural space through the chest wall during inspiration. Emergency treatment consists of covering the wound with an occlusive dressing that is secured on three sides. During inspiration the dressing pulls against the wound preventing air from entering the pleural space. During expiration the dressing is pushed out and air escapes through the wound and from under the dressing. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 5.ID: 809544085

The school nurse is providing information to high school students about influenza prevention. What should the nurse emphasize in teaching to prevent the transmission of the virus (select all that apply)? Cover the nose when coughing. Obtain an influenza vaccination. Stay at home when symptomatic. Drink non-caffeinated fluids daily. Obtain antibiotic therapy promptly.

Cover the nose when coughing. Obtain an influenza vaccination. Stay at home when symptomatic. Covering the nose and mouth when coughing is an effective way to prevent the spread of the virus. Obtaining an influenza vaccination helps prevent the flu. Staying at home helps prevent direct exposure of others to the virus. Drinking fluids helps liquefy secretions but does not prevent influenza. Antibiotic therapy is not used unless the patient develops a secondary bacterial infection. Awarded 0.0 points out of 3.0 possible points. 11.ID: 809563039

The nurse, who has administered a first dose of oral prednisone to a patient with asthma, writes on the care plan to begin monitoring for which patient parameters? Apical pulse Daily weight Bowel sounds Deep tendon reflexes

Daily weight Corticosteroids such as prednisone can lead to weight gain. For this reason, it is important to monitor the patient's daily weight. The drug should not affect the apical pulse, bowel sounds, or deep tendon reflexes. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 17.ID: 948097002

When teaching the patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) about smoking cessation, what information should be included related to the effects of smoking on the lungs and the increased incidence of pulmonary infections? Smoking causes a hoarse voice. Cough will become nonproductive. Decreased alveolar macrophage function Sense of smell is decreased with smoking.

Decreased alveolar macrophage function The damage to the lungs includes alveolar macrophage dysfunction that increases the incidence of infections and thus increases patient discomfort and cost to treat the infections. Other lung damage that contributes to infections includes cilia paralysis or destruction, increased mucus secretion, and bronchospasms that lead to sputum accumulation and increased cough. The patient may already be aware of respiratory mucosa damage with hoarseness and decreased sense of smell and taste, but these do not increase the incidence of pulmonary infection. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 32.ID: 809601978

After swallowing, a 73-year-old patient is coughing and has a wet voice. What changes of aging could be contributing to this abnormality? Decreased response to hypercapnia Decreased number of functional alveoli Increased calcification of costal cartilage Decreased respiratory defense mechanisms

Decreased respiratory defense mechanisms These manifestations are associated with aspiration, which more easily occur in the right lung as the right mainstem bronchus is shorter, wider, and straighter than the left mainstem bronchus. Aspiration occurs more easily in the older patient related to decreased respiratory defense mechanisms (e.g., decreases in immunity, ciliary function, cough force, sensation in pharynx). Changes of aging include a decreased response to hypercapnia, decreased number of functional alveoli, and increased calcification of costal cartilage, but these do not increase the risk of aspiration.

The nurse evaluates that nursing interventions to promote airway clearance in a patient admitted with COPD are successful based on which finding? Absence of dyspnea Improved mental status Effective and productive coughing PaO2 within normal range for the patient

Effective and productive coughing Airway clearance is most directly evaluated as successful if the patient can engage in effective and productive coughing. Absence of dyspnea, improved mental status, and PaO2 within normal range for the patient show improved respiratory status but do not evaluate airway clearance. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 23.ID: 809601976

The nurse is assigned to care for a patient who has anxiety and an exacerbation of asthma. What is the primary reason for the nurse to carefully inspect the chest wall of this patient? Allow time to calm the patient. Observe for signs of diaphoresis. Evaluate the use of intercostal muscles. Monitor the patient for bilateral chest expansion.

Evaluate the use of intercostal muscles. The nurse physically inspects the chest wall to evaluate the use of intercostal (accessory) muscles, which gives an indication of the degree of respiratory distress experienced by the patient. The other options may also occur, but they are not the primary reason for inspecting the chest wall of this patient. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 4.ID: 809602724

When admitting a patient with a diagnosis of asthma exacerbation, the nurse will assess for what potential triggers (select all that apply)? Exercise Allergies Emotional stress Decreased humidity Upper respiratory infections

Exercise Allergies Emotional stress Upper respiratory infections Although the exact mechanism of asthma is unknown, there are several triggers that may precipitate an attack. These include allergens, exercise, air pollutants, upper respiratory infections, drug and food additives, psychologic factors, and gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). Awarded 0.0 points out of 4.0 possible points. 18.ID: 809601990

What should the nurse inspect when assessing a patient with shortness of breath for evidence of long-standing hypoxemia? Chest excursion Spinal curvatures Respiratory pattern Fingernails and their base

Fingernails and their base Clubbing, a sign of long-standing hypoxemia, is evidenced by an increase in the angle between the base of the nail and the fingernail to 180 degrees or more, usually accompanied by an increase in the depth, bulk, and sponginess of the end of the finger.

Nursing assessment findings of jugular venous distention and pedal edema would be indicative of what complication of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)? Acute respiratory failure Secondary respiratory infection Fluid volume excess resulting from cor pulmonale Pulmonary edema caused by left-sided heart failure

Fluid volume excess resulting from cor pulmonale Cor pulmonale is a right-sided heart failure caused by resistance to right ventricular outflow resulting from lung disease. With failure of the right ventricle, the blood emptying into the right atrium and ventricle would be slowed, leading to jugular venous distention and pedal edema. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 26.ID: 809601996

The patient has been diagnosed with head and neck cancer. Along with the treatment for the cancer, what other treatment should the nurse expect? Nasal packing Epistaxis balloon Gastrostomy tube Peripheral skin care

Gastrostomy tube Because 50% of patients with head and neck cancer are malnourished before treatment begins, many patients need enteral feeding via a gastrostomy tube because the effects of treatment make it difficult to take in enough nutrients orally, whether surgery, chemotherapy, or radiation is used. Nasal packing could be used with epistaxis or with nasal or sinus problems. Peripheral skin care would not be expected because it is not related to head and neck cancer. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 13.ID: 809563068

Which position is most appropriate for the nurse to place a patient experiencing an asthma exacerbation? Supine Lithotomy High Fowler's Reverse Trendelenburg

High Fowler's The patient experiencing an asthma attack should be placed in high Fowler's position and may need to lean forward to allow for optimal chest expansion and enlist the aid of gravity during inspiration. The supine, lithotomy, and reverse Trendelenburg positions will not facilitation ventilation. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 5.ID: 809602732

When planning teaching for the patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), the nurse understands that what causes the manifestations of the disease? An overproduction of the antiprotease α1-antitrypsin Hyperinflation of alveoli and destruction of alveolar walls Hypertrophy and hyperplasia of goblet cells in the bronchi Collapse and hypoventilation of the terminal respiratory unit

Hyperinflation of alveoli and destruction of alveolar walls In COPD there are structural changes that include hyperinflation of alveoli, destruction of alveolar walls, destruction of alveolar capillary walls, narrowing of small airways, and loss of lung elasticity. An autosomal recessive deficiency of antitrypsin may cause COPD. Not all patients with COPD have excess mucus production by the increased number of goblet cells. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 21.ID: 809601984

The nurse is scheduled to administer seasonal influenza vaccinations to the residents of a long-term care facility. What would be a contraindication to the administration of the vaccine to a resident? Hypersensitivity to eggs Age greater than 80 years History of upper respiratory infections Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)

Hypersensitivity to eggs Although current vaccines are highly purified, and reactions are extremely uncommon, a hypersensitivity to eggs precludes vaccination because the vaccine is produced in eggs. Advanced age and a history of respiratory illness are not contraindications for influenza vaccination.

The patient seeks relief from the symptoms of an upper respiratory infection (URI) that has lasted for 5 days. Which patient assessment should the nurse use to help determine if the URI has developed into acute sinusitis? Coughing Fever, chills Dust allergy Maxillary pain

Maxillary pain The nurse should assess the patient for sinus pain or pressure as a clinical indicator of acute sinusitis. Coughing and fever are nonspecific clinical indicators of a URI. A history of an allergy that is likely to affect the upper respiratory tract is supportive of the sinusitis diagnosis but is not specific for sinusitis. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 12.ID: 809563026

The nurse is caring for a patient admitted to the hospital with pneumonia. Upon assessment, the nurse notes a temperature of 101.4° F, a productive cough with yellow sputum, and a respiratory rate of 20. Which nursing diagnosis is most appropriate based upon this assessment? Hyperthermia related to infectious illness Ineffective thermoregulation related to chilling Ineffective breathing pattern related to pneumonia Ineffective airway clearance related to thick secretions

Hyperthermia related to infectious illness Because the patient has spiked a temperature and has a diagnosis of pneumonia, the logical nursing diagnosis is hyperthermia related to infectious illness. There is no evidence of a chill, and her breathing pattern is within normal limits at 20 breaths/minute. There is no evidence of ineffective airway clearance from the information given because the patient is expectorating sputum. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 3.ID: 809602744

What is the priority nursing intervention in helping a patient expectorate thick lung secretions? Humidify the oxygen as able. Administer cough suppressant q4hr. Teach patient to splint the affected area. Increase fluid intake to 3 L/day if tolerated.

Increase fluid intake to 3 L/day if tolerated. Although several interventions may help the patient expectorate mucus, the highest priority should be on increasing fluid intake, which will liquefy the secretions so that the patient can expectorate them more easily. Humidifying the oxygen is also helpful but is not the primary intervention. Teaching the patient to splint the affected area may also be helpful in decreasing discomfort but does not assist in expectoration of thick secretions. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 6.ID: 809602774

A 68-year-old patient with bronchiectasis has copious thick respiratory secretions. Which intervention should the nurse add to the plan of care for this patient? Use the incentive spirometer for at least 10 breaths every 2 hours. Administer prescribed antibiotics and antitussives on a scheduled basis. Increase intake to at least 12 eight-ounce glasses of fluid every 24 hours. Provide nutritional supplements that are high in protein and carbohydrates.

Increase intake to at least 12 eight-ounce glasses of fluid every 24 hours. Adequate hydration helps to liquefy secretions and thus make it easier to remove them. Unless there are contraindications, the nurse should instruct the patient to drink at least 3 liters of fluid daily. Although nutrition, breathing exercises, and antibiotics may be indicated, these interventions will not liquefy or thin secretions. Antitussives may reduce the urge to cough and clear sputum, increasing congestion. Expectorants may be used to liquefy and facilitate clearing secretions. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points.

The nurse evaluates that a patient is experiencing the expected beneficial effects of ipratropium (Atrovent) after noting which assessment finding? Decreased respiratory rate Increased respiratory rate Increased peak flow readings Decreased sputum production

Increased peak flow readings Ipratropium is a bronchodilator that should result in increased peak expiratory flow rates (PEFRs). Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 29.ID: 809601998

Which clinical manifestation should the nurse expect to find during assessment of a patient admitted with pneumonia? Hyperresonance on percussion Vesicular breath sounds in all lobes Increased vocal fremitus on palpation Fine crackles in all lobes on auscultation

Increased vocal fremitus on palpation A typical physical examination finding for a patient with pneumonia is increased vocal fremitus on palpation. Other signs of pulmonary consolidation include bronchial breath sounds, egophony, and crackles in the affected area. With pleural effusion, there may be dullness to percussion over the affected area. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 5.ID: 809602768

When teaching the patient with bronchiectasis about manifestations to report to the health care provider, which manifestation should be included? Increasing dyspnea Temperature below 98.6° F Decreased sputum production Unable to drink 3 L low-sodium fluids

Increasing dyspnea The significant clinical manifestations to report to the health care provider include increasing dyspnea, fever, chills, increased sputum production, bloody sputum, and chest pain. Although drinking at least 3 L of low-sodium fluid will help liquefy secretions to make them easier to expectorate, the health care provider does not need to be notified if the patient cannot do this one day. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 1.ID: 809539561

While teaching a patient with asthma about the appropriate use of a peak flow meter, what should the nurse instruct the patient to do? Keep a record of the peak flow meter numbers if symptoms of asthma are getting worse. Use the flow meter each morning after taking medications to evaluate their effectiveness. Increase the doses of the long-term control medication if the peak flow numbers decrease. Empty the lungs and then inhale quickly through the mouthpiece to measure how fast air can be inhaled.

Keep a record of the peak flow meter numbers if symptoms of asthma are getting worse. It is important to keep track of peak flow readings daily, especially when the patient's symptoms are getting worse. The patient should have specific directions as to when to call the physician based on personal peak flow numbers. Peak flow is measured by exhaling into the flow meter and should be assessed before and after medications to evaluate their effectiveness. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 10.ID: 809601980

The nurse is evaluating if a patient understands how to safely determine whether a metered dose inhaler (MDI) is empty. The nurse interprets that the patient understands this important information to prevent medication underdosing when the patient describes which method to check the inhaler? Place it in water to see if it floats. Keep track of the number of inhalations used. Shake the canister while holding it next to the ear Check the indicator line on the side of the canister.

Keep track of the number of inhalations used. It is no longer appropriate to see if a canister floats in water or not since this is not an accurate way to determine the remaining inhaler doses. The best method to determine when to replace an inhaler is by knowing the maximum puffs available per MDI and then replacing it after the number of days when those inhalations have been used. (100 puffs/2 puffs each day = 50 days) Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 20.ID: 809601988

The nurse supervises a team including another registered nurse (RN), a licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/LVN), and unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) on a medical unit. The team is caring for many patients with respiratory problems. In what situation should the nurse intervene with teaching for a team member? LPN/LVN obtained a pulse oximetry reading of 94% but did not report it. RN taught the patient about home oxygen safety in preparation for discharge. UAP report to the nurse that the patient is complaining of difficulty breathing. LPN/LVN changed the type of oxygen device based on arterial blood gas results.

LPN/LVN changed the type of oxygen device based on arterial blood gas results. It is not within the LPN scope to change oxygen devices based on analysis of lab results. It is within the scope of practice of the RN to assess, teach, and evaluate. The LPN provides care for stable patients and may adjust oxygen flow rates depending on desired oxygen saturation levels of stable patients. The UAP may obtain oxygen saturation levels, assist patients with comfort adjustment of oxygen devices, and report changes in patient's level of consciousness or difficulty breathing. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 3.ID: 809539559

The patient had video-assisted thoracic surgery (VATS) to perform a lobectomy. What does the nurse know is the reason for using this type of surgery? The patient has lung cancer. The incision will be medial sternal or lateral. Chest tubes will not be needed postoperatively. Less discomfort and faster return to normal activity

Less discomfort and faster return to normal activity The VATS procedure uses minimally invasive incisions that cause less discomfort and allow faster healing and return to normal activity as well as lower morbidity risk and fewer complications. Many surgeries can be done for lung cancer, but pneumonectomy via thoracotomy is the most common surgery for lung cancer. The incision for a thoracotomy is commonly a medial sternotomy or a lateral approach. A chest tube will be needed postoperatively for VATS. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 19.ID: 809602760

To promote airway clearance in a patient with pneumonia, what should the nurse instruct the patient to do (select all that apply)? Maintain adequate fluid intake. Splint the chest when coughing. Maintain a 30-degree elevation. Maintain a semi-Fowler's position. Instruct patient to cough at end of exhalation.*

Maintain adequate fluid intake. Splint the chest when coughing. Instruct patient to cough at end of exhalation.* Maintaining adequate fluid intake liquefies secretions, allowing easier expectoration. The nurse should instruct the patient to splint the chest while coughing. This will reduce discomfort and allow for a more effective cough. Coughing at the end of exhalation promotes a more effective cough. The patient should be positioned in an upright sitting position (high Fowler's) with head slightly flexed. Awarded 0.0 points out of 3.0 possible points. 2.ID: 809602748

A patient had an open reduction repair of a bilateral nasal fracture. The nurse plans to implement an intervention that focuses on both nursing and medical goals for this patient. Which intervention should the nurse implement? Apply an external splint to the nose. Insert plastic nasal implant surgically. Humidify the air for mouth breathing. Maintain surgical packing in the nose.

Maintain surgical packing in the nose. A goal that is common to nursing and medical management of a patient after rhinoplasty is to prevent the formation of a septal hematoma and potential infections resulting from a septal hematoma. Therefore the nurse helps to keep the nasal packing in the nose. The packing applies direct pressure to oozing blood vessels to stop postoperative bleeding. A medical goal includes realigning the fracture with an external or internal splint. The nurse helps maintain the airway by humidifying inspired air because the nose is unable to do so following surgery because it is swollen and packed with gauze. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 10.ID: 3064805462

A patient whose tracheostomy was inserted 30 minutes ago is recovering in the postanesthesia recovery unit when he coughs and expels the tracheostomy tube. How should the nurse respond? Suction the tracheostomy opening. Maintain the airway with a sterile hemostat. Use an Ambu bag and mask to ventilate the patient. Insert the tracheostomy tube obturator into the stoma.

Maintain the airway with a sterile hemostat. As long as the patient is not in acute respiratory distress after dislodging the tracheostomy tube, the nurse should use a sterile hemostat to maintain an open airway until a sterile tracheostomy tube can be reinserted into the tracheal opening. The tracheostomy is an open surgical wound that has not had time to mature into a stoma. If the patient is in respiratory distress, the nurse will use an Ambu bag and mask to ventilate the patient temporarily. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 9.ID: 809563022

A patient with recurrent shortness of breath has just had a bronchoscopy. What is a priority nursing action immediately following the procedure? Monitor the patient for laryngeal edema. Assess the patient's level of consciousness. Monitor and manage the patient's level of pain. Assess the patient's heart rate and blood pressure.

Monitor the patient for laryngeal edema. Priorities for assessment are the patient's airway and breathing, both of which may be compromised after bronchoscopy by laryngeal edema. These assessment parameters supersede the importance of loss of consciousness (LOC), pain, heart rate, and blood pressure, although the nurse should also be assessing these.

The patient with Parkinson's disease has a pulse oximetry reading of 72%, but he is not displaying any other signs of decreased oxygenation. What is most likely contributing to his low SpO2 level? Motion Anemia Dark skin color Thick acrylic nails

Motion Motion is the most likely cause of the low SpO2 for this patient with Parkinson's disease. Anemia, dark skin color, and thick acrylic nails as well as low perfusion, bright fluorescent lights, and intravascular dyes may also cause an inaccurate pulse oximetry result. There is no mention of these or reason to suspect these in this question.

During an assessment of a 45-year-old patient with asthma, the nurse notes wheezing and dyspnea. The nurse interprets that these symptoms are related to what pathophysiologic change? Laryngospasm Pulmonary edema Narrowing of the airway Overdistention of the alveoli

Narrowing of the airway Narrowing of the airway by persistent but variable inflammation leads to reduced airflow, making it difficult for the patient to breathe and producing the characteristic wheezing. Laryngospasm, pulmonary edema, and overdistention of the alveoli do not produce wheezing. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 2.ID: 809602718

When assessing a patient's sleep-rest pattern related to respiratory health, what should the nurse ask the patient about (select all that apply)? Have trouble falling asleep? Need to urinate during the night? Awaken abruptly during the night? Sleep more than 8 hours per night? Need to sleep with the head elevated?

Need to sleep with the head elevated? Awaken abruptly during the night? Have trouble falling asleep? The patient with sleep apnea may have insomnia and/or abrupt awakenings. Patients with cardiovascular disease (e.g., heart failure that may affect respiratory health) may need to sleep with the head elevated on several pillows (orthopnea). Sleeping more than 8 hours per night or needing to urinate during the night is not indicative of impaired respiratory health.

When admitting a 45-year-old female with a diagnosis of pulmonary embolism, the nurse will assess the patient for which risk factors (select all that apply)? Obesity Pneumonia Malignancy Cigarette smoking Prolonged air travel

Obesity Malignancy Cigarette smoking Prolonged air travel An increased risk of pulmonary embolism is associated with obesity, malignancy, heavy cigarette smoking, and prolonged air travel with reduced mobility. Other risk factors include deep vein thrombosis, immobilization, surgery within the last 3 months, oral contraceptives and hormone therapy, heart failure, pregnancy, and clotting disorders. Awarded 0.0 points out of 4.0 possible points. 15.ID: 809602762

While ambulating a patient with metastatic lung cancer, the nurse observes a drop in oxygen saturation from 93% to 86%. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate based upon these findings? Continue with ambulation since this is a normal response to activity. Obtain a physician's order for arterial blood gas determinations to verify the oxygen saturation. Obtain a physician's order for supplemental oxygen to be used during ambulation and other activity. Move the oximetry probe from the finger to the earlobe for more accurate monitoring during activity.

Obtain a physician's order for supplemental oxygen to be used during ambulation and other activity. An oxygen saturation level that drops below 90% with activity indicates that the patient is not tolerating the exercise and needs to use supplemental oxygen. The patient will need to rest to resaturate. ABGs or moving the probe will not be needed as the pulse oximeter was working at the beginning of the walk. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 14.ID: 809646905

When the patient is experiencing metabolic acidosis secondary to type 1 diabetes mellitus, what physiologic response should the nurse expect to assess in the patient? Vomiting Increased urination Decreased heart rate Rapid respiratory rate

Rapid respiratory rate When a patient with type 1 diabetes has hyperglycemia and ketonemia causing metabolic acidosis, the physiologic response is to increase the respiratory rate and tidal volume to blow off the excess CO2. Vomiting and increased urination may occur with hyperglycemia, but not as physiologic responses to metabolic acidosis. The heart rate will increase.

The nurse cares for a 50-year-old patient with pneumonia that has been unresponsive to two different antibiotics. Which task is most important for the nurse to complete before administering a newly prescribed antibiotic? Teach the patient to cough and deep breathe. Take the temperature, pulse, and respiratory rate. Obtain a sputum specimen for culture and Gram stain. Check the patient's oxygen saturation by pulse oximetry.

Obtain a sputum specimen for culture and Gram stain. A sputum specimen for culture and Gram stain to identify the organism should be obtained before beginning antibiotic therapy. However, antibiotic administration should not be delayed if a specimen cannot be readily obtained because delays in antibiotic therapy can increase morbidity and mortality risks. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 4.ID: 809544091

When the patient is diagnosed with a lung abscess, what should the nurse teach the patient? Lobectomy surgery is usually needed to drain the abscess. IV antibiotic therapy will be used for a prolonged period of time. Oral antibiotics will be used when the patient and x-ray shows evidence of improvement. No further culture and sensitivity tests are needed if the patient takes the medication as ordered.

Oral antibiotics will be used when the patient and x-ray shows evidence of improvement. IV antibiotics are used until the patient and x-ray show evidence of improvement. Then oral antibiotics are used for a prolonged period of time. Culture and sensitivity testing is done during the course of antibiotic therapy to ensure that the infecting organism is not becoming resistant to the antibiotic as well as at the completion of the antibiotic therapy. Lobectomy surgery is only needed when reinfection of a large cavitary lesion occurs or to establish a diagnosis when there is evidence of a neoplasm or other underlying problem. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 20.ID: 809602764

When caring for a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), the nurse identifies a nursing diagnosis of imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements after noting a weight loss of 30 lb. Which intervention should the nurse add to the plan of care for this patient? Order fruits and fruit juices to be offered between meals. Order a high-calorie, high-protein diet with six small meals a day. Teach the patient to use frozen meals at home that can be microwaved. Provide a high-calorie, high-carbohydrate, nonirritating, frequent feeding diet.

Order a high-calorie, high-protein diet with six small meals a day. Because the patient with COPD needs to use greater energy to breathe, there is often decreased oral intake because of dyspnea. A full stomach also impairs the ability of the diaphragm to descend during inspiration, thus interfering with the work of breathing. For these reasons, the patient with COPD should eat six small meals per day taking in a high-calorie, high-protein diet, with non-protein calories divided evenly between fat and carbohydrate. The other interventions will not increase the patient's caloric intake. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 24.ID: 809602702

The nurse determines that a patient is experiencing common adverse effects from the inhaled corticosteroid beclomethasone (Beclovent) after what occurs? Hypertension and pulmonary edema Oropharyngeal candidiasis and hoarseness Elevation of blood glucose and calcium levels Adrenocortical dysfunction and hyperglycemia

Oropharyngeal candidiasis and hoarseness Oropharyngeal candidiasis and hoarseness are common adverse effects from the use of inhaled corticosteroids because the medication can lead to overgrowth of organisms and local irritation if the patient does not rinse the mouth following each dose. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 12.ID: 809602736

When teaching the patient with cystic fibrosis about the diet and medications, what is the priority information to be included in the discussion? Fat soluble vitamins and dietary salt should be avoided. Insulin may be needed with a diabetic diet if diabetes mellitus develops. Pancreatic enzymes and adequate fat, calories, protein, and vitamins are needed. Distal intestinal obstruction syndrome (DIOS) can be treated with increased water.

Pancreatic enzymes and adequate fat, calories, protein, and vitamins are needed. The patient must take pancreatic enzymes before each meal and snack and adequate fat, calories, protein, and vitamins should be eaten. Fat-soluble vitamins are needed because they are malabsorbed with the excess mucus in the gastrointestinal system. Insulin may be needed, but there is no longer a diabetic diet, and this is not priority information at this time. DIOS develops in the terminal ileum and is treated with balanced polyethylene glycol electrolyte solution (MiraLAX) to thin bowel contents. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 33.ID: 809601970

A 71-year-old patient is admitted with acute respiratory distress related to cor pulmonale. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate during admission of this patient? Perform a comprehensive health history with the patient to review prior respiratory problems. Complete a full physical examination to determine the effect of the respiratory distress on other body functions. Delay any physical assessment of the patient and review with the family the patient's history of respiratory problems. Perform a physical assessment of the respiratory system and ask specific questions related to this episode of respiratory distress.

Perform a physical assessment of the respiratory system and ask specific questions related to this episode of respiratory distress. Because the patient is having respiratory difficulty, the nurse should ask specific questions about this episode and perform a physical assessment of this system. Further history taking and physical examination of other body systems can proceed once the patient's acute respiratory distress is being managed. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 12.ID: 809602776

During discharge teaching for a 65-year-old patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and pneumonia, which vaccine should the nurse recommend that this patient receive? Pneumococcal Staphylococcus aureus Haemophilus influenzae Bacille-Calmette-Guérin (BCG)

Pneumococcal The pneumococcal vaccine is important for patients with a history of heart or lung disease, recovering from a severe illness, age 65 or over, or living in a long-term care facility. A Staphylococcus aureus vaccine has been researched but not yet been effective. The Haemophilus influenzae vaccine would not be recommended as adults do not need it unless they are immunocompromised. The BCG vaccine is for infants in parts of the world where tuberculosis (TB) is prevalent. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 7.ID: 809602772

After assisting at the bedside with a thoracentesis, the nurse should continue to assess the patient for signs and symptoms of what? Bronchospasm Pneumothorax Pulmonary edema Respiratory acidosis

Pneumothorax Because thoracentesis involves the introduction of a catheter into the pleural space, there is a risk of pneumothorax. Thoracentesis does not carry a significant potential for causing bronchospasm, pulmonary edema, or respiratory acidosis.

What nursing intervention is most appropriate to enhance oxygenation in a patient with unilateral malignant lung disease? Positioning patient on right side Maintaining adequate fluid intake Positioning patient with "good lung" down Performing postural drainage every 4 hours

Positioning patient with "good lung" down Therapeutic positioning identifies the best position for the patient, thus assuring stable oxygenation status. Research indicates that positioning the patient with the unaffected lung (good lung) dependent best promotes oxygenation in patients with unilateral lung disease. For bilateral lung disease, the right lung down has best ventilation and perfusion. Increasing fluid intake and performing postural drainage will facilitate airway clearance, but positioning is most appropriate to enhance oxygenation. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 11.ID: 809602742

A patient with a recent history of a dry cough has had a chest x-ray that revealed the presence of nodules. In an effort to determine whether the nodules are malignant or benign, what is the primary care provider likely to order? Thoracentesis Pulmonary angiogram CT scan of the patient's chest Positron emission tomography (PET)

Positron emission tomography (PET) PET is used to distinguish benign and malignant pulmonary nodules. Because malignant lung cells have an increased uptake of glucose, the PET scan (which uses an IV radioactive glucose preparation) can demonstrate increased uptake of glucose in malignant lung cells. This differentiation cannot be made using CT, a pulmonary angiogram, or thoracentesis.

The nurse teaches pursed lip breathing to a patient who is newly diagnosed with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). The nurse reinforces that this technique will assist respiration by which mechanism? Loosening secretions so that they may be coughed up more easily Promoting maximal inhalation for better oxygenation of the lungs Preventing bronchial collapse and air trapping in the lungs during exhalation Increasing the respiratory rate and giving the patient control of respiratory patterns

Preventing bronchial collapse and air trapping in the lungs during exhalation The purpose of pursed lip breathing is to slow down the exhalation phase of respiration, which decreases bronchial collapse and subsequent air trapping in the lungs during exhalation. It does not affect secretions, inhalation, or increase the rate of breathing. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 25.ID: 809602722

All of the following care tasks are needed by a patient admitted for joint replacement surgery who has had a permanent tracheostomy for over 10 years. Which task is appropriate for the nurse to delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? Suction the tracheostomy. Check stoma site for skin breakdown. Complete tracheostomy care using sterile technique. Provide oral care with a toothbrush and tonsil suction tube.

Provide oral care with a toothbrush and tonsil suction tube. Oral care (for a stable patient with a tracheostomy) can be delegated to UAP. A registered nurse would be responsible for assessments (e.g., checking the stoma for skin breakdown) and tracheostomy suctioning and care. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points.

The nurse determines that the patient is not experiencing adverse effects of albuterol (Proventil) after noting which patient vital sign? Pulse rate of 72/minute Temperature of 98.4° F Oxygen saturation 96% Respiratory rate of 18/minute

Pulse rate of 72/minute Albuterol is a β2-agonist that can sometimes cause adverse cardiovascular effects. These would include tachycardia and angina. A pulse rate of 72 indicates that the patient did not experience tachycardia as an adverse effect. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 15.ID: 809602712

A 62-year-old male has a tracheostomy tube after reconstructive surgery for invasive head and neck cancer. What is most important for the nurse to assess before performing tracheostomy cannula care? Level of consciousness Quality of breath sounds Presence of the gag reflex Tracheostomy cuff pressure

Quality of breath sounds Before performing tracheostomy care, the nurse will auscultate lung sounds to determine the presence of secretions. To prevent aspiration, secretions must be cleared either by coughing or by suctioning before performing tracheostomy cannula care. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 5.ID: 809552003

What is the priority nursing assessment in the care of a patient who has a tracheostomy? Electrolyte levels and daily weights Assessment of speech and swallowing Respiratory rate and oxygen saturation Pain assessment and assessment of mobility

Respiratory rate and oxygen saturation The priority assessment in the care of a patient with a tracheostomy focuses on airway and breathing. These assessments supersede the nurse's assessments that may also be necessary, such as nutritional status, speech, pain, and swallowing ability. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 8.ID: 809563024

The patient's arterial blood gas results show the PaO2 at 65 mmHg and the SaO2 at 80%. What early manifestations should the nurse expect to observe in this patient? Restlessness, tachypnea, tachycardia, and diaphoresis Unexplained confusion, dyspnea at rest, hypotension, and diaphoresis Combativeness, retractions with breathing, cyanosis, and decreased output Coma, accessory muscle use, cool and clammy skin, and unexplained fatigue

Restlessness, tachypnea, tachycardia, and diaphoresis With inadequate oxygenation, early manifestations include restlessness, tachypnea, tachycardia, and diaphoresis, decreased urinary output, and unexplained fatigue. The unexplained confusion, dyspnea at rest, hypotension, and diaphoresis; combativeness, retractions with breathing, cyanosis, and decreased urinary output; coma, accessory muscle use, cool and clammy skin, and unexplained fatigue occur as later manifestations of inadequate oxygenation.

The nurse is assisting a patient to learn self-administration of beclomethasone, two puffs inhaled every 6 hours. What should the nurse explain as the best way to prevent oral infection while taking this medication? Chew a hard candy before the first puff of medication. Rinse the mouth with water before each puff of medication. Ask for a breath mint following the second puff of medication. Rinse the mouth with water following the second puff of medication.

Rinse the mouth with water following the second puff of medication. Because beclamethosone is a corticosteroid, the patient should rinse the mouth with water following the second puff of medication to reduce the risk of fungal overgrowth and oral infection. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 19.ID: 809602710

The nurse is caring for a 73-year-old patient who underwent a left total knee arthroplasty. On the third postoperative day, the patient complains of shortness of breath, slight chest pain, and that "something is wrong." Temperature is 98.4° F, blood pressure 130/88, respirations 36/minute, and oxygen saturation 91% on room air. What action should the nurse take first? Notify the physician. Administer a nitroglycerin tablet sublingually. Conduct a thorough assessment of the chest pain. Sit the patient up in bed as tolerated and apply oxygen.

Sit the patient up in bed as tolerated and apply oxygen. The patient's clinical picture is most likely pulmonary embolus, and the first action the nurse takes should be to assist with the patient's respirations. For this reason, the nurse should sit the patient up as tolerated and apply oxygen before notifying the physician. The nitroglycerin tablet would not be helpful, and the oxygenation status is a bigger problem than the slight chest pain at this time. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 16.ID: 809602754

After admitting a patient from home to the medical unit with a diagnosis of pneumonia, which physician orders will the nurse verify have been completed before administering a dose of cefuroxime (Ceftin) to the patient? Orthostatic blood pressures Sputum culture and sensitivity Pulmonary function evaluation Serum laboratory studies ordered for AM

Sputum culture and sensitivity The nurse should ensure that the sputum for culture and sensitivity was sent to the laboratory before administering the cefuroxime as this is community-acquired pneumonia. It is important that the organisms are correctly identified (by the culture) before the antibiotic takes effect. The test will also determine whether the proper antibiotic has been ordered (sensitivity testing). Although antibiotic administration should not be unduly delayed while waiting for the patient to expectorate sputum, orthostatic BP, pulmonary function evaluation, and serum laboratory tests will not be affected by the administration of antibiotics. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 9.ID: 809646593

Which task can the registered nurse (RN) delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) in the care of a stable patient who has a tracheostomy? Assessing the need for suctioning Suctioning the patient's oropharynx Assessing the patient's swallowing ability Maintaining appropriate cuff inflation pressure

Suctioning the patient's oropharynx Providing the individual has been trained in correct technique, UAP may suction the patient's oropharynx. Assessing the need for suctioning should be performed by an RN or licensed practical nurse, whereas swallowing assessment and the maintenance of cuff inflation pressure should be performed solely by the RN.

A 73-year-old female patient who lives alone is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of pneumococcal pneumonia. Which clinical manifestation, if observed by the nurse, indicates that the patient is likely to be hypoxic? Sudden onset of confusion Oral temperature of 102.3o F Coarse crackles in lung bases Clutching chest on inspiration

Sudden onset of confusion Confusion or stupor (related to hypoxia) may be the only clinical manifestation of pneumonia in an older adult patient. An elevated temperature, coarse crackles, and pleuritic chest pain with guarding may occur with pneumonia, but these symptoms do not indicate hypoxia. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 2.ID: 809544901

The nurse is caring for a 48-year-old male patient admitted for exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. The patient develops severe dyspnea at rest, with a change in respiratory rate from 26 breaths/minute to 44 breaths/minute. Which action by the nurse would be the most appropriate? Have the patient perform huff coughing. Perform chest physiotherapy for 5 minutes. Teach the patient to use pursed-lip breathing. Instruct the patient in diaphragmatic breathing.

Teach the patient to use pursed-lip breathing. Pursed-lip breathing (PLB) prolongs exhalation and prevents bronchiolar collapse and air trapping. PLB is simple and easy to teach and learn. It also gives the patient more control over breathing. Evidence from controlled studies does not support the use of diaphragmatic breathing in patients with COPD. Diaphragmatic breathing results in hyperinflation because of increased fatigue and dyspnea and abdominal paradoxical breathing rather than with normal chest wall motion. Chest physiotherapy (percussion and vibration) is used primarily for patients with excessive bronchial secretions who have difficulty clearing them. Huff coughing is a technique that helps patients with COPD to use a forced expiratory technique to clear secretions. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 4.ID: 809539565

The nurse notices clear nasal drainage in a patient newly admitted with facial trauma, including a nasal fracture. What should the nurse do first? Test the drainage for the presence of glucose. Suction the nose to maintain airway clearance. Document the findings and continue monitoring. Apply a drip pad and reassure the patient this is normal.

Test the drainage for the presence of glucose. Clear nasal drainage suggests leakage of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). The drainage should be tested for the presence of glucose, which would indicate the presence of CSF. Suctioning should not be done. Documenting the findings and monitoring are important after notifying the health care provider. A drip pad may be applied, but the patient should not be reassured that this is normal.

The patient has decided to use the voice rehabilitation that offers the best speech quality even though it must be cleaned regularly. The nurse knows that this is what kind of voice rehabilitation? Electromyograph Intraoral electrolarynx Neck type electrolarynx Transesophageal puncture

Transesophageal puncture The transesophageal puncture provides a fistula between the esophagus and trachea with a one-way valved prosthesis to prevent aspiration from the esophagus to the trachea. Air moves from the lungs, vibrates against the esophagus, and words are formed with the tongue and lips as the air moves out the mouth. The electromyography and both electrolarynx methods produce low-pitched mechanical sounds. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 1.ID: 809552005

In assessment of the patient with acute respiratory distress, what should the nurse expect to observe (select all that apply)? Cyanosis Tripod position Kussmaul respirations Accessory muscle use Increased AP diameter

Tripod position Accessory muscle use Tripod position and accessory muscle use indicate moderate to severe respiratory distress. Cyanosis may be related to anemia, decreased oxygen transfer in the lungs, or decreased cardiac output. Therefore it is a nonspecific and unreliable indicator of only respiratory distress. Kussmaul respirations occur when the patient is in metabolic acidosis to increase CO2 excretion. Increased AP diameter occurs with lung hyperinflation from COPD, cystic fibrosis, or with advanced age.

A patient with an acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) needs to receive precise amounts of oxygen. Which equipment should the nurse prepare to use? Oxygen tent Venturi mask Nasal cannula Oxygen-conserving cannula

Venturi mask The Venturi mask delivers precise concentrations of oxygen and should be selected whenever this is a priority concern. The other methods are less precise in terms of amount of oxygen delivered. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 9.ID: 809601992

Before discharge, the nurse discusses activity levels with a 61-year-old patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and pneumonia. Which exercise goal is most appropriate once the patient is fully recovered from this episode of illness? Slightly increase activity over the current level. Swim for 10 min/day, gradually increasing to 30 min/day. Limit exercise to activities of daily living to conserve energy. Walk for 20 min/day, keeping the pulse rate less than 130 beats/min.

Walk for 20 min/day, keeping the pulse rate less than 130 beats/min. The patient will benefit from mild aerobic exercise that does not stress the cardiorespiratory system. The patient should be encouraged to walk for 20 min/day, keeping the pulse rate less than 75% to 80% of maximum heart rate (220 - patient's age). Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 28.ID: 809601982

The nurse is caring for a patient with an acute exacerbation of asthma. Following initial treatment, what finding indicates to the nurse that the patient's respiratory status is improving? Wheezing becomes louder. Cough remains nonproductive. Vesicular breath sounds decrease. Aerosol bronchodilators stimulate coughing.

Wheezing becomes louder. The primary problem during an exacerbation of asthma is narrowing of the airway and subsequent diminished air exchange. As the airways begin to dilate, wheezing gets louder because of better air exchange. Vesicular breath sounds will increase with improved respiratory status. After a severe asthma exacerbation, the cough may be productive and stringy. Coughing after aerosol bronchodilators may indicate a problem with the inhaler or its use. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 6.ID: 809602708

The nurse identifies the nursing diagnosis of activity intolerance for a patient with asthma. In patients with asthma, the nurse assesses for which etiologic factor for this nursing diagnosis? Work of breathing Fear of suffocation Effects of medications Anxiety and restlessness

Work of breathing When the patient does not have sufficient gas exchange to engage in activity, the etiologic factor is often the work of breathing. When patients with asthma do not have effective respirations, they use all available energy to breathe and have little left over for purposeful activity. Fear of suffocation, effects of medications or anxiety, and restlessness are not etiologies for activity intolerance for a patient with asthma. Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points. 7.ID: 809601986