Exam 1

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A Cuban American client has been prescribed an antipsychotic medication. Which response is most important for the nurse to make to this client?

"Call the doctor immediately if you experience any of the s/e we talked about"

A client has been discharged from the hospital with a prescription for lorazepam (Ativan). Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide to this client?

"Make sure you don't drink any alcohol when you're taking this medication."

When providing care to a client experiencing aggressive behavior, the nurse integrates knowledge about potential biologic factors contributing to the condition. Which of the following brain structures would the nurse identify as playing a role in the client's aggression? ~select all that apply~

- Limbic system - Frontal lobe - Temporal lobe

When haloperidol (Haldol) is given an a depot injection, it has an effectiveness of which duration?

4 weeks

A nurse is teaching family members about the brain's connection to behaviors commonly seen in mental illness. How can the nurse best explain the term "neurotransmitter" to the family?

A chemical release in the brain

Which of the following clients would not be able to undergo a magnetic resonance imaging scan?

A client with a pacemaker

Patients diagnosed with myasthenia gravis have a decrease in which of the following receptors?

Acetylcholine

A client is receiving clozapine (Clozaril). For which life-threatening disorder should the nurse be alert when assessing this patient?

Agranulocytosis

Which of the following is most essential when planning care for a client who is experiencing a crisis? A) Explore previous coping strategies B) Explore underlying personality dynamics C) Focus on emotional deficits D) Offer a referral to a self-help group

Ans: A Feedback: Crisis intervention focuses on using the person's strengths, such as previous coping skills, and providing support to deal with the current situation. Exploring underlying personality dynamics and focusing on emotional deficits would not help the client in the crisis situation. When the client is in a crisis situation, offering a self-help group would not be appropriate.

A basic assumption of Freud's psychoanalytic theory is that A) all human behavior can be caused and can be explained. B) human behavior is entirely unconscious. C) free association is the key to understanding. D) sexuality does not relate to behavior.

Ans: A Feedback: Freud believed that everything we do has meaning, whether it is conscious or unconscious. Freud believed that human behavior can be motivated by subconscious thoughts and feelings but could also be in the preconscious or unconscious. Freud based his theory of childhood development on the belief that sexual energy, termed libido, was the driving force of human behavior.

A nurse is meeting with a crisis support group. In efforts to help patients identify with one another, the nurse explains which of the following about the crisis experience? A) "Even happy events can cause a crisis if the stress is overwhelming." B) "Only people who have unfortunate life events will experience a crisis." C) "A person has no control over how a crisis will affect him or her." D) "People can prevent all crises if they develop good coping skills early."

Ans: A Feedback: Not all events that result in crisis are "negative" in nature. Events like marriage, retirement, and childbirth are often desirable for the individual but may still present overwhelming challenges. All individuals can experience a crisis when they confront some life circumstance or stressor that they cannot effectively manage through use of their customary coping skills. A number of factors can influence how a person experiences a crisis.

The nurse would recommend individual therapy for the patient who expresses a desire to A) bring about personal changes. B) gain a sense of belonging. C) develop leadership skills. D) learn more about treatment.

Ans: A Feedback: People generally seek individual psychotherapy based on their desire to understand themselves and their behavior, to make personal changes, to improve interpersonal relationships, or to get relief from emotional pain or unhappiness. Groups are recommended for persons to accomplish tasks that require cooperation, collaboration, or working together.

Which of the following is the most prevalent neurotransmitter in the nervous system

Norepinephrine

A nurse is assisting a patient who is working on the technique of systematic desensitization. When the patient feels anxious, the nurse can best use the principles of this technique by stating, A) "Use the deep breathing techniques we practiced yesterday." B) "What is the worst that will happen if you confront this fear?" C) "Tell me how you are feeling right now." D) "I can see you are anxious. Let's stop for a minute."

Ans: A Feedback: Systematic desensitization can be used to help clients overcome irrational fears and anxiety associated with phobias. The client learns and practices relaxation techniques to decrease and manage anxiety. He or she is then exposed to the least anxiety provoking situation and uses the relaxation techniques to manage the resulting anxiety. Confronting irrational thoughts is part of rational emotive therapy. Encouraging expression of feelings is associated with gestalt therapy.

Which of the following considerations should have the most influence in the nurse's choice of the treatment for the client? A) The client's feelings and perceptions about his or her situation B) The nurse's beliefs about the theories of psychosocial development C) The nurse's familiarity with the type of treatment D) Any approach to treatment should work with any client.

Ans: A Feedback: The client's feelings and perceptions about his or her situation are the most influential factors in determining his or her response to therapeutic interventions, rather than what the nurse believes the client should do. The nurse must examine his or her beliefs about the theories of psychosocial development and realize that many treatment approaches are available. Different treatments may work for different clients: no one approach works for everyone. Becoming familiar with the variety of psychosocial approaches for working with clients will increase the nurse's effectiveness in promoting the client's health and well-being.

A patient reports a pattern of being suspicious and mistrusting of others, causing difficulty in sustaining lasting relationships. Which stage according to Erikson's psychosocial development was not successfully completed? A) Trust B) Autonomy C) Initiative D) Industry

Ans: A Feedback: The formation of trust is essential: mistrust, the negative outcome of this stage, will impair the person's development throughout his or her life.

A client diagnosed with a mild anxiety disorder has been referred to treatment in a community mental health center. Treatment most likely provided at the center includes A) medical management of symptoms. B) daily psychotherapy. C) constant staff supervision. D) psychological stabilization.

Ans: A Feedback: Community mental health centers focus on rehabilitation, vocational needs, education, and socialization, as well as on management of symptoms and medication. Daily therapies, constant supervision, and stabilization require a more acute care inpatient setting.

The legislation enacted in 1963 was largely responsible for which of the following shifts in care for the mentally ill? A) The widespread use of community-based services B) The advancement in pharmacotherapies C) Increased access to hospitalization D) Improved rights for clients in long-term institutional care

Ans: A Feedback: The Community Mental Health Centers Construction Act of 1963 accomplished the release of individuals from long-term stays in state institutions, the decrease in admissions to hospitals, and the development of community-based services as an alternative to hospital care.

Which of the following is considered an atypical antipsychotic?

Olanzapine (Zyprexa)

Which of the following is defined as an advanced-level function in the practice area of psychiatric mental health nursing? A) Case management B) Counseling C) Evaluation D) Health teaching

Ans: C Feedback: Advanced-level functions are psychotherapy, prescriptive authority, consultation and liaison, evaluation, and program development and management. Case management, counseling, and health teaching are basic-level functions in the practice area of psychiatric mental health nursing.

The major problems with large state institutions are: Select all that apply. A) attendants were accused of abusing the residents. B) stigma associated with residence in an insane asylum. C) clients were geographically isolated from family and community. D) increasing financial costs to individual residents.

Ans: A, C Feedback: Clients were often far removed from the local community, family, and friends because state institutions were usually in rural or remote settings. Choices B and D were not major problems associated with large state instructions.

Which of the following statements about mental illness are true? Select all that apply. A) Mental illness can cause significant distress, impaired functioning, or both. B) Mental illness is only due to social/cultural factors. C) Social/cultural factors that relate to mental illness include excessive dependency on or withdrawal from relationships. D) Individuals suffering from mental illness are usually able to cope effectively with daily life. E) Individuals suffering from mental illness may experience dissatisfaction with relationships and self.

Ans: A, D, E Feedback: Mental illness can cause significant distress, impaired functioning, or both. Mental illness may be related to individual, interpersonal, or social/cultural factors. Excessive dependency on or withdrawal from relationships are interpersonal factors that relate to mental illness. Individuals suffering from mental illness can feel overwhelmed with daily life. Individuals suffering from mental illness may experience dissatisfaction with relationships and self.

Which one of the following is a result of federal legislation? A) Making it easier to commit people for mental health treatment against their will. B) Making it more difficult to commit people for mental health treatment against their will. C) State mental institutions being the primary source of care for mentally ill persons. D) Improved care for mentally ill persons.

Ans: B Feedback: Commitment laws changed in the early 1970s, making it more difficult to commit people for mental health treatment against their will. Deinstitutionalization accomplished the release of individuals from long-term stays in state institutions. Deinstitutionalization also had negative effects in that some mentally ill persons are subjected to the revolving door effect, which may limit care for mentally ill persons.

A client grieving the recent loss of her husband asks if she is becoming mentally ill because she is so sad. The nurse's best response would be, A) You may have a temporary mental illness because you are experiencing so much pain. B) You are not mentally ill. This is an expected reaction to the loss you have experienced. C) Were you generally dissatisfied with your relationship before your husband's death? D) Try not to worry about that right now. You never know what the future brings

Ans: B Feedback: Mental illness includes general dissatisfaction with self, ineffective relationships, ineffective coping, and lack of personal growth. Additionally the behavior must not be culturally expected. Acute grief reactions are expected and therefore not considered mental illness. False reassurance or overanalysis does not accurately address the client's concerns.

Which of the following statements comparing buspirone to benzodiazepines is accurate?

Buspirone does not cause drowsiness

A nurse is working with a patient with an eating disorder who refuses to eat a muffin. The nurse asks the patient "Is there any way that you could see the muffin as just flour and water, basic nutrients your body needs?" In this statement, the nurse is using which type of therapy? A) Rational emotive therapy B) Cognitive therapy C) Gestalt therapy D) Reality therapy

Ans: B Feedback: Cognitive therapy focuses on immediate thought processing, or how a person perceives or interprets his or her experience and determines how he or she behaves. Rational emotive therapy considers not only thoughts but feelings associated with thoughts. Gestalt therapy focuses on the person's thoughts and feelings in the here and now. Reality therapy challenges people to examine how behavior interferes with life goals.

Which one of the following is an important characteristic of an effective therapist and client relationship in individual psychotherapy? A) Homogeneity between the client and the therapist. B) Mutual benefit for the client and the therapist. C) The client must adapt to the therapist's style of therapy and theoretical beliefs. D) Match between the theoretical beliefs and style of therapy and the client's needs and expectations of therapy.

Ans: B Feedback: Compatibility between the therapist and the client is required for therapy to be effective. The client must select a therapist whose theoretical beliefs and style of therapy are congruent with the client's needs and expectations of therapy. It is not required that the client and therapist be the same. The client's benefit is the most important consideration. The client also may have to try different therapists to find a good match.

The family members of a patient with bipolar disorder express frustration with the unpredictable behaviors of their loved one. Which group should the nurse suggest as most helpful to this family? A) Family therapy group B) Family education group C) Psychotherapy group D) Self-help support group

Ans: B Feedback: Family education discusses the clinical treatment of mental illnesses and teaches the knowledge and skills that family members need to cope more effectively. The goals of family therapy groups include understanding how family dynamics contribute to the client's psychopathology, mobilizing the family's inherent strengths and functional resources, restructuring maladaptive family behavioral styles, and strengthening family problem-solving behaviors. The goal of a psychotherapy group is for members to learn about their behavior and to make positive changes in their behavior by interacting and communicating with others. In a self-help group, members share a common experience, but the group is not a formal or structured therapy group.

The primary purpose for generalist nurses to develop skills with psychosocial interventions is A) psychosocial interventions are included on the nursing licensure examinations. B) psychosocial interventions are needed in all nursing practice settings. C) nurses will be consulted to assist in the care of psychiatric patients in acute care settings. D) there are a growing number of nursing practice opportunities in mental health settings.

Ans: B Feedback: Nurses often use psychosocial interventions to help meet clients' needs and achieve outcomes in all practice settings, not just mental health. Psychosocial interventions are included on the licensing exam, but that is not the primary reason for developing proficiency. Any health-care personnel will care for psychiatric patients in acute care settings. Current trends reflect a decline in mental health services and employment opportunities.

A client is supposed to be ambulating ad lib. Instead, he refuses to get out of bed, asks for a bed bath, and makes many demands of the nurses. He also yells that they are lazy and incompetent. The client's behavior is an example of which of the following defense mechanisms? A) Introjection B) Projection C) Rationalization D) Reaction formation

Ans: B Feedback: Projection is blaming unacceptable thoughts on others; the client cannot accept the fact that he may be lazy or incompetent to care for himself. Introjection is accepting another person's attitudes, beliefs, and values as one's own. Rationalization is excusing one's own behavior to avoid guilt, responsibility, conflict, anxiety, or loss of self-concept. Reaction formation is acting the opposite of what one thinks or feels.

A patient who has been working on controlling impulsive behavior shows a strengthening ego through which of the following behaviors? A) Going to therapy only when there is nothing more desirable to do B) Weighing the advantages and disadvantages before making a decision C) Telling others in the group the right way to act D) Reporting having fun at a recent social event

Ans: B Feedback: The id is the part of one's nature that reflects basic or innate desires such as pleasure- seeking behavior, aggression, and sexual impulses. The id seeks instant gratification, causes impulsive unthinking behavior, and has no regard for rules or social convention. The superego is the part of a person's nature that reflects moral and ethical concepts, values, and parental and social expectations; therefore, it is in direct opposition to the id. The third component, the ego, is the balancing or mediating force between the id and the superego. The ego represents mature and adaptive behavior that allows a person to function successfully in the world.

The nurse has established a therapeutic relationship with a patient. The patient is beginning to share feelings openly with the nurse. The relationship has entered which phase according to Peplau's theory? A) Orientation B) Identification C) Exploitation D) Resolution

Ans: B Feedback: The orientation phase is directed by the nurse and involves engaging the client in treatment, providing explanations and information, and answering questions. The identification phase begins when the client works interdependently with the nurse, expresses feelings, and begins to feel stronger. In the exploitation phase, the client makes full use of the services offered. In the resolution phase, the client no longer needs professional services and gives up dependent behavior and the relationship ends.

Which cognitive mode, according to Harry Stack Sullivan, begins in early childhood as the child begins to connect experiences in sequence? A) Prototaxic mode B) Parataxic mode C) Bitaxic mode D) Syntaxic mode

Ans: B Feedback: The parataxic mode begins in early childhood as the child begins to connect experiences in sequence. The child may not make logical sense of the experiences, although he or she may not understand what he or she is doing. The prototaxic mode involves brief, unconnected experiences that have no relationship to one another. In the syntaxic mode, the person begins to perceive himself or herself and the world within the context of the environment and can analyze experiences in a variety of settings. There is not a bitaxic mode.

A college student decides to go to a party the night before a major exam instead of studying. After receiving a low score on the exam, the student tells a fellow student, "I have to work too much and don't have time to study. It wouldn't matter anyway because the teacher is so unreasonable." The defense mechanisms the student is using are A) denial and displacement B) rationalization and projection C) reaction formation and resistance D) regression and compensation

Ans: B Feedback: When stating that it wouldn't matter if the student studied, the student is using rationalization, which is excusing own behavior to avoid guilt, responsibility, conflict, anxiety, or loss of self-respect. When stating that the teacher is unreasonable, the student is using projection or the unconscious blaming of unacceptable inclinations or thoughts as an external object. Denial is the failure to acknowledge an unbearable condition. Displacement is the ventilation of intense feelings toward persons less threatening than the one who aroused those feelings. Reaction formation is acting the opposite of what one thinks or feels. Resistance is overt or covert antagonism toward remembering or processing anxiety-producing information. Regression is moving back to a previous developmental stage to feel safe or have needs met. Compensation is overachievement in one area to offset real or perceived deficiencies in another area.

Which of the following is a standard of professional performance? A) Assessment B) Education C) Planning D) Implementation

Ans: B Feedback: Education is a standard of professional performance. Other standards of professional performance include the quality of practice, professional practice evaluation, collegiality, collaboration, ethics, research, resource utilization, and leadership. Assessment, planning, and implementation are components of the nursing process, not standards of professional performance.

The nurse is assessing the factors contributing to the well-being of a newly admitted client. Which of the following would the nurse identify as having a positive impact on the individual's mental health? A) Not needing others for companionship B) The ability to effectively manage stress C) A family history of mental illness D) Striving for total self-reliance

Ans: B Feedback: Individual factors influencing mental health include biologic makeup, autonomy, independence, self-esteem, capacity for growth, vitality, ability to find meaning in life, emotional resilience or hardiness, sense of belonging, reality orientation, and coping or stress management abilities. Interpersonal factors such as intimacy and a balance of separateness and connectedness are both needed for good mental health, and therefore a healthy person would need others for companionship. A family history of mental illness could relate to the biologic makeup of an individual, which may have a negative impact on an individual's mental health, as well as a negative impact on an individual's interpersonal and social/cultural factors of health. Total self-reliance is not possible, and a positive social/cultural factor is access to adequate resources.

The appropriate action for a student nurse who says the wrong thing is to A) pretend that the student nurse did not say it. B) restate it by saying, That didn't come out right. What I meant was... C) state that it was a joke. D) ignore the error, since no one is perfect.

Ans: B Feedback: No one magic phrase can solve a client's problems; likewise, no single statement can significantly worsen them. Listening carefully, showing genuine interest, and caring about the client are extremely important. A nurse who possesses these elements but says something that sounds out of place can simply restate it by saying, That didn't come out right. What I meant was Pretending that the student nurse did not say it, stating that it was a joke, and ignoring the error are not likely to help the student nurse build and maintain credibility with the client.

Which is included in Healthy People 2020 objectives? A) To decrease the incidence of mental illness B) To increase the number of people who are identified, diagnosed, treated, and helped to live healthier lives C) To provide mental health services only in the community D) To decrease the numbers of people who are being treated for mental illness

Ans: B Feedback: One of the Healthy People 2020 objectives is to increase the number of people who are identified, diagnosed, treated, and helped to live healthier lives. It may not be possible to decrease the incidence of mental illness. At this time, the focus is on ensuring that persons with mental illness are receiving needed treatment. It may not be possible or desirable to provide mental health services only in the community.

Which of the following is a standard of practice? A) Quality of care B) Outcome identification C) Collegiality D) Performance appraisal

Ans: B Feedback: Standards of practice include assessment, diagnosis, outcomes identification, planning, implementation, coordination of care, health teaching and health promotion, and milieu therapy. The standards of professional performance include quality of practice, education, professional practice evaluation, collegiality, collaboration, ethics, research, resource utilization, and leadership

The goal of the 1963 Community Mental Health Centers Act was to A) ensure patients' rights for the mentally ill. B) deinstitutionalize state hospitals. C) provide funds to build hospitals with psychiatric units. D) treat people with mental illness in a humane fashion.

Ans: B Feedback: The 1963 Community Mental Health Centers Act intimated the movement toward treating those with mental illness in a less restrictive environment. This legislation resulted in the shift of clients with mental illness from large state institutions to care based in the community. Answer choices A, C, and D were not purposes of the 1963 Community Mental Health Centers Act.

The creation of asylums during the 1800s was meant to A) improve treatment of mental disorders. B) provide food and shelter for the mentally ill. C) punish people with mental illness who were believed to be possessed. D) remove dangerous people with mental illness from the community.

Ans: B Feedback: The asylum was meant to be a safe haven with food, shelter, and humane treatment for the mentally ill. Asylums were not used to improve treatment of mental disorders or to punish mentally ill people who were believed to be possessed. The asylum was not created to remove the dangerously mentally ill from the community.

What is meant by the term "revolving door effect" in mental health care? A) An overall reduction in incidence of severe mental illness B) Shorter and more frequent hospital stays for persons with severe and persistent mental illness C) Flexible treatment settings for mentally ill D) Most effective and least expensive treatment settings

Ans: B Feedback: The revolving door effect refers to shorter, but more frequent, hospital stays. Clients are quickly discharged into the community where services are not adequate; without adequate community services, clients become acutely ill and require rehospitalization. The revolving door effect does not refer to flexible treatment settings for mentally ill. Even though hospitalization is more expensive than outpatient treatment, if utilized appropriately could result in stabilization and less need for emergency department visits and/or rehospitalization. The revolving door effect does not relate to the incidence of severe mental illness.

A new graduate nurse has accepted a staff position at an inpatient mental health facility. The graduate nurse can expect to be responsible for basic-level functions, including A) providing clinical supervision. B) using effective communication skills. C) adjusting client medications. D) directing program development.

Ans: B Feedback: Basic-level functions include counseling, milieu therapy, self-care activities, psychobiologic interventions, health teaching, case management, and health promotion and maintenance. Advanced-level functions include psychotherapy, prescriptive authority for drugs, consultation and liaison, evaluation, program development and management, and clinical supervision.

Which of the following are examples of adventitious crises? Select all that apply. A) Death of a loved one B) Natural disasters C) Violent crimes D) War E) Leaving home for the first time

Ans: B, C, D Feedback: Adventitious crises include natural disasters like floods, earthquakes, or hurricanes; war, terrorist attacks; riots; and violent crimes such as rape or murder. Maturational or developmental crises are predictable events in the normal course of life, such as leaving home for the first time, getting married, having a baby, and beginning a career. Situational crises are unanticipated or sudden events that threaten the individual's integrity, such as the death of a loved one, loss of a job, and physical or emotional illness in the individual or family member.

Which antidepressant classification is potentially lethal in overdose?

Phenelzine

Which of the following theories could be classified as humanistic theories? Select all that apply. A) Cognitive therapy B) Maslow's hierarchy of needs C) Gestalt therapy D) Rogers' client-centered therapy E) Rational emotive therapy F) Piaget's cognitive stages of development

Ans: B, D Feedback: Humanism represents a significant shift away from the psychoanalytic view of the individual as a neurotic, impulse-driven person with repressed psychic problems and away from the focus on and examination of the client's past experiences. Humanistic theories include Maslow's hierarchy of needs and Rogers' client-centered therapy. Cognitive therapy is an existential therapy that focuses on immediate thought processing--how a person perceives or interprets his or her experience and determines how he or she feels and behaves. Gestalt therapy is an existential therapy that emphasizes the person's feelings and thoughts in the here and now. Rational emotive therapy is an existential theory that looks at irrational beliefs and automatic thoughts that make people unhappy. Piaget's cognitive stages of development is a developmental theory.

A student appears very nervous on the first day of clinical in a psychiatric setting. The student reviews the instructor's guidelines and appropriately takes which of the following actions? Select all that apply. A) Tells the client about personal events and interests B) Discusses the anxious feelings with the instructor C) Assumes that the client's unwillingness to talk to a student nurse is a personal insult or failure D) Builds rapport with the patient before asking personal questions E) Consults the instructor if a shocking situation arises F) Gravitates to clients that the student may know personally

Ans: B, D, E Feedback: Listening carefully, showing genuine interest, and caring about the client are extremely important rather than speaking about oneself. The student must deal with his or her own anxiety about approaching a stranger to talk about very sensitive and personal issues. Student nurses should not see the client's unwillingness to talk to a student nurse as a personal insult or behavior. Being available and willing to listen are often all it takes to begin a significant interaction with someone. Questions involving personal matters should not be the first thing a student says to the client. These issues usually arise after some trust and rapport have been established. The nursing instructor and staff are always available to assist if the client is shocking or distressing to the student. If the student recognizes someone he or she knows, it is usually best for the student to talk with the client and reassure him or her about confidentiality. The client should be reassured that the student will not read the client's record and will not be assigned to work with the client.

Which of the following are true regarding mental health and mental illness? A) Behavior that may be viewed as acceptable in one culture is always unacceptable in other cultures. B) It is easy to determine if a person is mentally healthy or mentally ill. C) In most cases, mental health is a state of emotional, psychological, and social wellness evidenced by satisfying interpersonal relationships, effective behavior and coping, positive self-concept, and emotional stability. D) Persons who engage in fantasies are mentally ill.

Ans: C Feedback: What one society may view as acceptable and appropriate behavior, another society may see that as maladaptive, and inappropriate. Mental health and mental illness are difficult to define precisely. In most cases, mental health is a state of emotional, psychological, and social wellness evidenced by satisfying interpersonal relationships, effective behavior and coping, positive self-concept, and emotional stability. Persons who engage in fantasies may be mentally healthy, but the inability to distinguish reality from fantasy is an individual factor that may contribute to mental illness.

Which of the following terms is used to describe the amount of the drug needed to achieve the maximum effect?

Potency

Which of the following is a major developmental task of middle adulthood? A) Developing intimacy B) Learning to manage conflict C) Reexamining life goals D) Resolving the past

Ans: C Feedback: An important task for middle-aged adults is to examine life goals, ideally with some satisfaction. Developing intimacy occurs in young adulthood. Learning to manage conflict occurs in preschool. Resolving the past and accepting responsibility for oneself and life occur in maturity.

Which approach to therapy is most effective when planning for a client with negative thinking? A) Behavior modification B) Client-centered therapy C) Cognitive therapy D) Reality therapy

Ans: C Feedback: Cognitive therapy focuses on changing the client's thinking first, in the belief that then feelings and behavior can change as well. Behavior modification is a method of attempting to strengthen a desired behavior or response by reinforcement, either positive or negative. Client-centered therapy focuses on the role of the client, rather than the therapist, as the key to the healing process. Reality therapy focuses on the person's behavior and how that behavior keeps him or her from achieving life goals.

The nurse understands that crises are self-limiting. This implies that upon evaluation of crisis intervention, the nurse should assess for which outcome? A) The patient will identify possible causes for the crisis. B) The patient will discover a new sense of self-sufficiency in coping. C) The patient will resume the precrisis level of functioning. D) The patient will express anger regarding the crisis event.

Ans: C Feedback: Crises usually exist for 4 to 6 weeks. At the end of that time, the crisis is resolved in one of three ways. In the first two, the person either returns to his or her precrisis level of functioning or begins to function at a higher level; both are positive outcomes for the individual. The third resolution is that the person's functioning stabilizes at a level lower than precrisis functioning, which is a negative outcome for the individual. Assisting the person to use existing supports or helping the individual find new sources of support can decrease the feelings of being alone or overwhelmed. The patient may develop guilt if he or she examines possible causes for the crisis. Expression of anger at 4 to 6 weeks indicates a less than favorable outcome of crisis intervention.

A client begins to take stock of his life and look into the future. The nurse assesses that this client is in which of Erikson's developmental stages? A) Identity versus role confusion B) Industry versus inferiority C) Integrity versus despair D) Generativity versus stagnation

Ans: C Feedback: Erikson's stage of integrity versus despair is when an adult begins to reflect on his or her life. Identity versus role confusion occurs in adolescence when the person is forming a sense of self and belonging. Integrity versus despair occurs in maturity; accepting responsibility for oneself and life is the corresponding task. Generativity versus stagnation occurs in middle adulthood, which includes the tasks of being creative and productive and establishing the next generation.

A student nurse attends a self-help group as part of a class assignment. While there the student recognizes a family friend. Upon returning home, the student talks about the experience with the family. The student's actions can be described as A) appropriate; persons familiar with group members are allowed self-help group membership. B) appropriate; self-help groups are not professional and therefore are open to public knowledge. C) inappropriate; most self-help groups have a rule of confidentiality. D) inappropriate; the student should not have been allowed to attend the group.

Ans: C Feedback: Most self-help groups have a rule of confidentiality: whoever is seen and whatever is said at the meetings cannot be divulged to others or discussed outside the group. In many 12-step programs, such as Alcoholics Anonymous and Gamblers Anonymous, people use only their first names, so their identities are not divulged (although in some settings, group members do know one another's names).

The nurse is assessing a client who is talking about her son's recent death but who shows no emotion of any kind. The nurse recognizes this behavior as which of the following defense mechanisms? A) Dissociation B) Displacement C) Intellectualization D) Suppression

Ans: C Feedback: The client is aware of the facts of the situation but does not show the emotions associated with the situation. Dissociation involves dealing with emotional conflict by a temporary alteration in consciousness or identity. Displacement is the ventilation of intense feelings toward a person less threatening than the one who aroused those feelings. Suppression is replacing the desired gratification with one that is more readily available.

Group members are actively discussing a common topic. Members are sharing that they identify with what others are saying. The nurse leader recognizes that the group is in which stage of group development? A) Planning B) Initial C) Working D) Termination

Ans: C Feedback: The working stage of group development begins as members begin to focus their attention on the purpose or task the group is trying to accomplish. The beginning stage of group development, or the initial stage, commences as soon as the group begins to meet. Members introduce themselves, a leader can be selected, the group purpose is discussed, and rules and expectations for group participation are reviewed. The final stage, or termination, of the group occurs before the group disbands. The work of the group is reviewed, with the focus on group accomplishments or growth of group members.

A teenage patient defies the nurse's repeated requests to turn off the video game and go to sleep. The teen says angrily, "You sound just like my mother at home!" and continues to play the video game. The nurse understands that this statement likely indicates A) the need of stricter discipline at home. B) early signs of oppositional defiant disorder. C) viewing the nurse as her mother. D) expression of developing autonomy.

Ans: C Feedback: Transference occurs when the client displaces onto the therapist attitudes and feelings that the client originally experienced in other relationships. Transference patterns are automatic and unconscious in the therapeutic relationship. The occurrence of transference does not indicate ineffective parenting or disciplinary practices, nor is it indicative of a disorder. Autonomy is developed much earlier in the toddler years.

The nurse is working with a client who has a history of inflicting spousal abuse. Although the nurse does not condone domestic violence, the nurse treats the client with unconditional positive regard through which of the following? A) The nurse tries to understand the feelings that might have led to violent behavior. B) The nurse uses honest emotional expression in relating to client. C) The client is still viewed as someone worthy of respect and assistance. D) The nurse relates to the client as if he were her own spouse.

Ans: C Feedback: Unconditional positive regard involves nonjudgmental caring for the client that is not dependent on the client's behavior. Genuineness is a realness or congruence between what the therapist feels and what he or she says to the client. Empathetic understanding is when the therapist senses the feelings and personal meaning from the client and communicates this understanding to the client.

One of the unforeseen effects of the movement toward community mental health services is A) fewer clients suffering from persistent mental illnesses. B) an increased number of hospital beds available for clients seeking treatment. C) an increased number of admissions to available hospital services. D) Longer hospital stays for people needing mental health services.

Ans: C Feedback: Although people with severe and persistent mental illness have shorter hospital stays, they are admitted to hospitals more frequently. Although deinstitutionalization reduced the number of public hospital beds by 80%, the number of admissions to those beds correspondingly increased by 90%. The number of individuals with mental illness did not change.

Which is a positive aspect of treating clients with mental illness in a community-based care? A) You will not be allowed to go out with your friends while in the program. B) You will have to have supervision when you want to go anywhere else in the community. C) You will be able to live in your own home while you still see a therapist regularly. D) You will have someone in your home at all times to ask questions if you have any concerns.

Ans: C Feedback: Clients can remain in their communities, maintain contact with family and friends, and enjoy personal freedom that is not possible in an institution. Full-time home care is not included in community-based programs.

Psychiatric nursing became a requirement in nursing education in which year? A) 1930 B) 1940 C) 1950 D) 1960

Ans: C Feedback: It was not until 1950 that the National League for Nursing, which accredits nursing programs, required schools to include an experience in psychiatric nursing.

Which of the following statements is true of treatment of people with mental illness in the United States today? A) Substance abuse is effectively treated with brief hospitalization. B) Financial resources are reallocated from state hospitals to community programs and support. C) Only 25% of people needing mental health services are receiving those services. D) Emergency department visits by persons who are acutely disturbed are declining.

Ans: C Feedback: Only one in four (25%) adults needing mental health care receives the needed services. Substance abuse issues cannot be dealt with in the 3 to 5 days typical for admissions in the current managed care environment. Money saved by states when state hospitals were closed has not been transferred to community programs and support. Although people with severe and persistent mental illness have shorter hospital stays, they are admitted to hospitals more frequently. In some cities, emergency department visits for acutely disturbed persons have increased by 400% to 500%.

Which one of the following is one of the American Nurses Association standards of practice for psychiatric-mental health nursing? A) Prescriptive authority is granted to psychiatric-mental health registered nurses. B) All aspects of Standard 5: Implementation may be carried out by psychiatric-mental health registered nurses. C) Some aspects of Standard 5: Implementation may only be carried out by psychiatric-mental health advanced practice nurses. D) Psychiatric-mental health advanced practice nurses are the only ones who may provide milieu therapy.

Ans: C Feedback: Prescriptive authority is used by psychiatric-mental health advanced practice registered nurses in accordance with state and federal laws and regulations. Standards are advanced practice interventions and may be performed only by the psychiatricñmental health advanced practice registered nurse. Psychiatric-mental health registered nurses may provide milieu therapy according to Standard. This is not restricted to psychiatric-mental health advanced practice nurses.

The first training of nurses to work with persons with mental illness was in 1882 in which state? A) California B) Illinois C) Massachusetts D) New York

Ans: C Feedback: The first training for nurses to work with persons with mental illness was in 1882 at McLean Hospital in Belmont, Massachusetts

Before the period of the enlightenment, treatment of the mentally ill included A) creating large institutions to provide custodial care. B) focusing on religious education to improve their souls. C) placing the mentally ill on display for the public's amusement. D) providing a safe refuge or haven offering protection.

Ans: C Feedback: In 1775, visitors at St. Mary's of Bethlehem were charged a fee for viewing and ridiculing the mentally ill, who were seen as animals, less than human. Custodial care was not often provided as persons who were considered harmless were allowed to wander in the countryside or live in rural communities, and more dangerous lunatics were imprisoned, chained, and starved. In early Christian times, primitive beliefs and superstitions were strong. The mentally ill were viewed as evil or possessed. Priests performed exorcisms to rid evil spirits, and in the colonies, witch hunts were conducted with offenders burned at the stake. It was not until the period of enlightenment when persons who were mentally ill were offered asylum as a safe refuge or haven offering protection at institutions.

A patient states, "I hate spending time with my family. They're always on my back about something! I won't do anything they ask me to do." Which response by the nurse reflects a behavioral perspective? A) "Let's play like I'm your parent, and we'll practice some better ways to communicate that won't result in an argument." B) "Some medicines really help with anger. Are you interested in talking to your physician about starting you on something?" C) "That's probably your way of getting back at them for being strict with you when you were younger." D) "If you agree to start doing what your parents request, then they have agreed to respect your privacy more."

Ans: D Feedback: Behaviorism is a school of psychology that focuses on observable behaviors and what one can do externally to bring about behavior changes. It does not attempt to explain how the mind works. Behavior can be changed through a system of rewards and punishments. Practicing communication is a psychotherapy technique to improve interpersonal relationships. Use of medications is not grounded in behavioral perspective. Analyzing the reasons for the behavior is not grounded in behavioral perspective.

Which one of the following statements is most accurate regarding the cohesiveness of a group in group therapy? A) It is commonly present in the first meeting of the group. B) It is necessary for the group to have maximum cohesiveness, the more the better. C) Group cohesiveness is the degree to which members think alike and many things are left unspoken. D) Cohesiveness is a desirable group characteristic that is associated with positive group outcomes.

Ans: D Feedback: Cohesiveness is a desirable group characteristic that is associated with positive group outcomes. It is not common for the group to be cohesive during the first meeting of the group. During the first meeting, or the initial stage, members introduce themselves and the parameters of the group are established. Group members begin to ìcheck outî one another and the leaders as they determine their levels of comfort in the group setting. Cohesiveness is associated with the working stage of a group that may take two or three sessions in a therapy group because members must develop some level of trust before sharing personal feelings or difficult situations. If a group is ìoverly cohesive,î in that uniformity and agreement become the group's implicit goals, there may be a negative effect on the group outcome as members may not offer needed feedback and this may thwart critical thinking and creative problem solving. Group cohesiveness is the degree to which members work together cooperatively to accomplish the purpose.

A nursing supervisor reprimands an employee for being chronically late for work. If the employee handles the reprimand using the defense mechanism of displacement, he would most likely do which of the following? A) Argue with the supervisor that he is usually on time B) Make a special effort to be on time tomorrow C) Tell fellow employees that the supervisor is picking on him D) Tell the unit housekeeper that his work is sloppy

Ans: D Feedback: Displacement involves venting feelings toward another, less threatening person. Arguing is denial. Making a special effort is compensation. Telling fellow employees that the supervisor is picking on him is projection.

A patient has just been told she has cervical cancer. When asked about how this is impacting her, she states, "It's just an infection; it will clear up." The statement indicates that this patient A) needs education on cervical cancer. B) is unable to express her true emotions. C) should be immediately referred to a cancer support group. D) is using denial to protect herself from an emotionally painful thought.

Ans: D Feedback: Ego defense mechanisms are methods of attempting to protect the self and cope with basic drives or emotionally painful thoughts, feelings, or events. Most defense mechanisms operate at the unconscious level of awareness, so people are not aware of what they are doing and often need help to see the reality. Education and referrals are premature at this point in the patient's ability to cope.

A patient is being admitted to an inpatient unit for treatment of anorexia nervosa. Of the following assessment data, which should the nurse place as highest priority in the plan of care? A) Weight 24% below normal for height B) Distorted body image C) Feelings of inadequacy D) Frequent vomiting after meals

Ans: D Feedback: Maslow's hierarchy of needs hypothesizes that the basic needs at the bottom of the pyramid dominate the person's behavior until those needs were met, at which time the next level of needs would become dominant. Vomiting threatens fluid and electrolyte balance and poses a more acute threat to survival than low weight. Once basic physical needs are met, the higher level needs such as body image and self-esteem can be addressed.

A patient is blaming his impending divorce on the fact that his wife goes out frequently with her girlfriends. If using reality therapy, the nurse would help the patient with which of the following responses? A) "If you really love her, she should love you as well." B) "What does being divorced mean for you?" C) "How do you feel about your marriage ending?" D) "What role do you think you have played in the end of your marriage?"

Ans: D Feedback: Reality therapy challenges clients to examine the ways in which their own behavior thwarts their attempts to achieve life goals. Others are often assigned the blame when people hold onto irrational thinking. The search for meaning is associated with logotherapy. Exploring feelings are associated with gestalt therapy.

During the initial interview with a client in crisis, the initial priority is to A) assess the adequacy of the support system. B) assess for substance use. C) determine the precrisis level of functioning. D) evaluate the potential for self-harm.

Ans: D Feedback: Safety is always the priority; clients in crisis may be suicidal. Assessing the adequacy of the support system, assessing for substance use, and determining the precrisis level of functioning would be important assessments but not as high priority as evaluating the potential for self-harm.

Patients on an inpatient psychiatric unit can earn off-unit privileges for daily use of socially appropriate behavior. This is an example of employing which concept of behavior modification? A) Systematic desensitization B) Negative reinforcement C) Classical conditioning D) Operant conditioning

Ans: D Feedback: The theory of operant conditioning says people learn their behavior from their history or past experiences, particularly those experiences that were repeatedly reinforced. Behavior that is rewarded with reinforcers tends to recur. Positive reinforcers that follow a behavior increase the likelihood that the behavior will recur. In classical conditioning, behavior can be changed through conditioning with external or environmental conditions or stimuli. Negative reinforcement involves removing a stimulus immediately after a behavior occurs so that the behavior is more likely to occur again. In systematic desensitization, the client learns and practices relaxation techniques to decrease and manage anxiety. He or she is then exposed to the least anxiety provoking situation and uses the relaxation techniques to manage the resulting anxiety.

Which would be a reason for a student nurse to use the DSM? A) Identifying the medical diagnosis B) Treat clients C) Evaluate treatments D) Understand the reason for the admission and the nature of psychiatric illnesses.

Ans: D Feedback: Although student nurses do not use the DSM to diagnose clients, they will find it a helpful resource to understand the reason for the admission and to begin building knowledge about the nature of psychiatric illnesses. Identifying the medical diagnosis, treating, and evaluating treatments are not a part of the nursing process.

The nurse consults the DSM for which of the following purposes? A) To devise a plan of care for a newly admitted client B) To predict the client's prognosis of treatment outcomes C) To document the appropriate diagnostic code in the client's medical record D) To serve as a guide for client assessment

Ans: D Feedback: The DSM provides standard nomenclature, presents defining characteristics, and identifies underlying causes of mental disorders. It does not provide care plans or prognostic outcomes of treatment. Diagnosis of mental illness is not within the generalist RN's scope of practice, so documenting the code in the medical record would be inappropriate.

Which of the following is the priority of the Healthy People 2020 objectives for mental health? A) Improved inpatient care B) Primary prevention of emotional problems C) Stress reduction and management D) Treatment of mental illness

Ans: D Feedback: The objectives are to increase the number of people who are identified, diagnosed, treated, and helped to live healthier lives. The objectives also strive to decrease rates of suicide and homelessness, to increase employment among those with serious mental illness, and to provide more services both for juveniles and for adults who are incarcerated and have mental health problems. Answer choices A, B, and C are not priorities of Healthy People 2020.

A significant change in the treatment of people with mental illness occurred in the 1950s when A) community support services were established. B) legislation dramatically changed civil commitment procedures. C) the Patient's Bill of Rights was enacted. D) psychotropic drugs became available for use.

Ans: D Feedback: The development of psychotropic drugs, or drugs used to treat mental illness, began in the 1950s. Answer choices A, B, and C did not occur in the 1950s.

Which medication classification blocks serotonin reuptake?

Antidepressant

Which of the following is not an action expected of a benzodiazepine?

Antidepressant

A patient is experiencing hallucinations and delusions. The nurse would expect the physician to order which classification of medication?

Antipsychotic

The brain stem consists of which of the following structures?

Midbrain

Which of the following neurological functions are governed by the action of serotonin?

Mood

Lithium was one of the first psychotropic drugs developed. Lithium is in which of the following medication classifications?

Mood stabilizer

A client w/ a history of depression has been receiving outpatient treatment for several months but has now been brought to the ER by her husband. The husband states that she had visual hallucinations earlier in the day. She has an unstable gait and vomited on the way to the hospital. In addition to monitoring the client's vital signs, the care team should prioritize what action?

Discontinuing the client's SSRI

A client has been diagnosed with Parkinson's disease. Which of the following neurotransmitters is decreased in those with Parkinson's disease?

Dopamine

Increased activity in which of the following neurotransmitters is implicated in increased impulsivity and violent behavior?

Dopamine

Abnormalities in which of the following lobes are believed to be associated with schizophrenia?

Frontal

Benzodiazepines increase which of the following neurotransmitter functions?

GABA

A nursing instructor asks a student to explain the influence of chronobiology on depression. Which of the following would the student include when responding?

Internal and external triggers can elicit biologic rhythm changes indicative of clinical depression

Several neuroimaging techniques are available for researchers and practitioners. What value does this technology have in diagnosing disorders of the brain?

It provides data about the structures of the brain correlated with their activity.

Which of the following is considered the first-line treatment for bipolar disorder?

Lithium

A client is seen in an outpatient mental health clinic for complaints of involuntary tongue movement, blinking, and facial grimacing. This syndrome would be identified correctly as which of the following?

Tardive dyskinesia

The mental health nurse instructs a client prescribed phenelzine (Nardil) to avoid aged foods, such as wine and cheese. For which of the following reasons are these instructions important for client safety?

The foods contain tyramine, which may provoke hypertension crisis

Which of the following antipsychotic drugs can cause a lengthening of the QT interval?

Thioridazine (Mellaril)


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