Exam 1 Prep

A client reports having taken two hydrocodone/acetaminophen tablets every 4 hours for several weeks before surgery. If each tablet contains 500mg of acetaminophen, how many mg of acetaminophen had the client been ingesting per day?

6000 mg

Which precursor would the nurse recognize as common in children who develop Reye syndrome? A. Body rash B. Viral infection C. High fever D. Allergic reactions

B. Viral infection

Which adverse response to isoniazid (INH) in a client with tuberculosis would cause the nurse to determine that prompt intervention is needed? A. Orange feces B. Yellow sclera C. Temperature of 96.8 F (36C) D. Weight gain of 5 pounds (2.3 kg)

B. Yellow sclera

A health care provider prescribes 160mg of acetaminophen elixir for a child. The label on the bottle reads 100 mg/mL. How many mL of acetaminophen would the nurse administer?

1.6 mL

Which information would the nurse include in the client's medication teaching on the administration of aspirin 650mg every 6 hours as needed for arthritic pain? Select all that apply. A. Report persistent abdominal pain B. Do not chew enteric-coated tablets C. Take the aspirin with meals or a snack D. See a dentist if bleeding gums develop E. Switch to acetaminophen if tinnitus occurs

A, B, C

Which characteristics are observed in clients who have cocaine addiction? Select all that apply. A. Anxiety B. Palpitations C. Weight loss D. Sedentary habits E. Difficulties with speech

A, B, C

A parent complains that his child's teeth have yellowed. The nurse understands that with prolonged use, which medication may be responsible? A. Promethazine B. Sulfamethoxazole C. Tetracycline D. Gentamicin

C. Tetracycline

Which information would the nurse provide to a client diagnosed with chlamydia and prescribed doxycycline? Select all that apply. A. Report worsening symptoms B. Refrain from sexual relations C. Use barrier protection devices D. Contact partners to be tested E. Take the entire course of antibiotics

A, B, C, D, E Rationale: Instruct clients taking doxycycline for an STI to report worsening symptoms to the healthcare provider as it could indicate antibiotic resistance. Client should refrain from sexual relations while the infection is being treated. If they do have sexual relations, they should use barrier protection devices. They should contact their sexual partners and inform them of the need to be tested and treated for the STI. Clients should take the entire prescribed course of antibiotics to prevent recurrence of the infection.

Which clinical finding in a client receiving morphine warrants immediate follow up by the nurse? Select all that apply. A. Unconsciousness B. Bradycardia C. Polyuria D. Dilated pupils E. Bradypnea

A, B, E

Which medication increases the risk for upper GI bleeding? Select all that apply A. Aspirin B. Ibuprofen C. Ciproflaxin D. Acetaminophen E. Methylprednisolone

A, B, E

Which data suggests acute alcohol withdrawal for a post surgical client? Select all that apply. A. Tremors in both hands make it difficult for the client to hold a cup B. Systolic blood pressure has dropped 6 points over the past 6 hours C. The client is falling asleep while talking on the telephone to family D. The client's bed linens and pajamas had to be changed during the night because of diaphoresis E. The client who has been cooperative becomes verbally abusive and irritable

A, D, E

Which substance would a client taking acetaminophen routinely be advised to avoid? A. Alcohol B. Caffeine C. Diphenhydramine D. Ibuprofen

A. Alcohol

The nurse understands which medication increases the risk of Reye syndrome in children? A. Aspirin B. Naloxone C. Ibuprofen D. Acetaminophen

A. Aspirin

A pediatric client with a past history of chicken pox reports a fever and headache. Which medication would the nurse avoid giving to the client? A. Aspirin B. Tetracycline C. Nalidixic acid D. Chloramphenicol

A. Aspirin Rationale: clients with a past history of chicken pox should not be administered aspirin because of the risk of the client developing Reye syndrome. Tetracycline generally causes discoloration of the teeth. Nalidixic acid sometimes causes cartilage erosion. Chloramphenicol is associated with Gray syndrome in children.

Which recent illness would the nurse assess for in a preschooler with Reye syndrome? A. Chicken pox B. Rubella C. Rheumatic fever D. Bacterial meningitis

A. Chicken pox

A pregnant client with an infection tell the nurse that they have taken tetracycline for infections in the past and prefer to take it now. Which response would the nurse give regarding the avoidance of tetracycline administration during pregnancy? A. It alters the development of the fetal teeth buds B. Tetracycline causes fatal allergies C. It increases fetal tolerance to the medication D. It affects breast feeding adversely

A. It alters the development of the fetal teeth buds Rationale: tetracycline has an infinity for calcium; if used during tooth bud development it may cause discoloration of teeth. Tetracycline does not adversely affect breast-feeding, cause fetal allergies to the medication, or increase fetal tolerance of the medication

The nurse administers acetaminophen to a child who complains of pain after abdominal surgery. The parent asks the nurse why her child isn't being given ibuprofen. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate? A. It could prolong bleeding time B. It's contraindicated for young children C. It can suppress the healing of the incision D. It becomes ineffective when given for long periods

A. It could prolong bleeding time

Which diagnostic testing would a nurse for us on when caring for a client on isoniazid therapy for tuberculosis? A. Liver function tests B. Creative C. Hearing tests D. ECG

A. Liver function tests

The nurse provides care for a client with a long history of alcohol abuse. Which medication would the nurse anticipate will be prescribed for the client to prevent symptoms of withdrawal? A. Lorazepam B. Phenobarbital C. Chloropromazine D. Disulfiram

A. Lorazepam

Which medication is indicated for management of clinical manifestations associated with an opioid overdose? A. Naloxone B. Methadone C. Epinephrine D. Amphetamine

A. Naloxone

Which advice will the nurse provide to the client after a health care provider prescribes aspirin for a client with severe arthritis? A. Take the medicine with meals B. See a dentist if bleeding gum develops C. Switch to acetaminophen if tinnitus occurs D. Avoid spicy foods bile taking the medication

A. Take the medicine with meals

A client with a known history opioid addiction has a surgical repair of multiple stab wounds to the abdomen. After surgery, the client's pain is not relieved by the prescribed morphine injections. Which phenomenon is the client experiencing when they fail to achieve pain relief? A. Tolerance B. Habituation C. Physical addiction D. Psychological dependence

A. Tolerance

Which assessment findings are systemic manifestations of acute osteomyelitis? Select all that apply. A. Warmth at the infection site B. Malaise C. Night sweats D. Swelling at the infection site E. Restlessness

B, C, E

Which signs and symptoms would the nurse observe in a client experiencing alcohol withdrawal? Select all that apply. A. Fatigue B. Anxiety C. Diaphoresis D. Runny nose E. Psychomotor agitation

B, C, E

Which explanation would the nurse provide for administering prednisone to a client with an exacerbation of colitis? A. The client will be protected from getting an infection B. Although the medication decreases intestinal inflammation, it will not use the colitis C. Although the medication causes anorexia, weight loss may not occur D. Symptoms associated with the colitis will decrease will decrease slowly over time

B. Although the medication decreases intestinal inflammation, it will not cure the colitis

Which life-threatening complication may occur in clients taking high-dose or long-term ibuprofen? A. anaphylaxis B. GI bleeding C. Cardiac dysrhythmias D. Disulfiram reaction

B. GI bleeding

Which explanation would the nurse provide to a client with tuberculosis who asks why vitamin B6 (pyridoxine) is given with isoniazid? A. The tuberculostatic effect of isoniazid is enhanced B. Isoniazid interferes with the synthesis of this vitamin C. It will improve you immunologic defenses D. Destruction of the tuberculosis organisms is accelerated

B. Isoniazid interferes with the synthesis of this vitamin Rationale: Isoniazid leads to vitamin B6 deficiency because it completes with the vitamin for the same enzyme; this deficiency most often is manifested by peripheral neuritis, which can be controlled by the regular administration of vitamin B6. Vitamin B6 does not enhance the effects of isoniazid. Pyridoxine does not destroy organisms.

Which parent education would the nurse give about why the MMR vaccine is administered at 12 - 15 months of age? A. There is an increased risk of side effects in infants B. Maternal antibodies provide immunity about about 1 year C. It interferes with the effectiveness of vaccines given during infancy D. There are rare instances of these infections occurring during the first year of life

B. Maternal antibodies provide immunity for about 1 year Rationale: maternal antibodies to measles, mumps, and rubella infection persist in the infant until approximately 15 months of age. Side effects are no more common among infants than in toddlers. The measles vaccination does not interfere with the effectiveness of other vaccines. Although the measles, mumps, and rubella do occasionally occur after the administration of the MMR vaccine during the first year of life, the vaccine is not given during this time because of the presence of maternal antibodies

Which treatment would the nurse anticipate administering to a toddler who has acetaminophen poisoning? A. Oxygen B. N-acetylcysteine C. Naloxone D. Amyl nitrate

B. N-actylecysteine

Which type of medication would put a person at risk if they were exposed to the varicella virus? A. Anticonvulsant B. Systemic corticosteroid C. Topical antibiotic D. Antihypertensive

B. Systemic corticosteroid

Which conclusion would the nurse make regarding the client's response to pain medication when a client using a pain scale of 1-10 rates the pain as an 8 before receiving an analgesic and a 7 after being medicated? A. The client has a low pain tolerance B. The medication is not adequately effective C. The medication has sufficiently decreased the pain level D. The client needs more education about the use of pain scale?

B. Te medication is not adequately effective

Which medication is safe to take for pain in the week before a surgical procedure? A. Naproxen B. Aspirin C. Acetaminophen D. Ketorolac

C. Acetaminophen

Which instruction will the nurse give to a client who is prescribed isoniazid? a. Prolonged use can cause dark, concentrated urine b. The medication is best absorbed when taken on an empty stomach c. Drinking alcohol daily can cause medication-induced hepatitis d. Take the medication with aluminum hydroxide to minimize GI upset

C. Drinking alcohol daily can cause medication-induced hepatitis Rationale: alcohol increases hepatotoxicity of the medication. Instruct the client to avoid alcohol use during treatment. Monitor for signs of hepatitis before and after therapy. Prolonged use will not cause dark, concentrated urine. The client should take isoniazid with meals to decrease GI upset and avoid taking antacids at the same time with the medication because it impairs absorption.

Which client statement indicates that teaching about acetaminophen is effective? A. I can drink beer with this but not wine B. I need to limit my intake of acetaminophen to 650 mg a day C. I have to be careful about which OTC cold preparations I take D. I should take an emetic if i accidentally overdose on acetaminophen

C. I have to be careful about which OTC cold preparations I take Rationale: many OTC cold preparations contain acetaminophen; the amount of acetaminophen in cold preparations must be taken into consideration when the total amount of acetaminophen taken daily is calculated. Alcohol of any type increases risk of liver injury when taken with acetaminophen. A typical single dose is 650 mg for adults and should not exceed 3 to 4 g a day. An emetic is contraindicated because it may reduce the client's biliary to tolerate oral acetylcysteine, the antidote for acetaminophen.

The nurse teaches a teenage client about the administration of levofloxacin to treat a sinus infection. The nurse concludes the teaching is effective when the client makes which statement? A. I should take the medication at mealtime B. I should take the medication just before a meal C. I should take the medication 1 hour before a meal D. I should take the medication 30 minutes after a meal

C. I should take the medication 1 hour before a meal

Which action would the nurse take to decrease the risk of transmission of vancomycin-resistant enterococci (VRE)? A. Insert a urinary catheter B. Initiate droplet precautions C. Move the client to a private room D. Use a high-deficiency particulate air (HEPA) respiratory during care

C. Move the client to a private room

After completing a week of antibiotic therapy, an infant develops oral thrush. Which medication is indicated for treatment of this condition? A. Gentamicin B. Ciproflaxin C. Nystatin D. Fluconazole

C. Nystatin

Which information would the nurse provide when administering the first dose of prednisone prescribed to a client with an exacerbation of colitis? A. Prednisone protects you from getting an infection B. The medication may cause weight loss by decreasing your appetite C. Prednisone is not curative but does cause a suppression of the inflammatory process D. The medication is relatively slow in precipitating a response but is effective in reducing symptoms

C. Prednisone is not curative but does cause. Suppression of the inflammatory process

A child recovering from a severe asthma attack is given oral prednisone 15 mg twice daily. Which intervention would be a priority for the nurse? A. Having the child rest as much as possible B. Checking the child's eosinophil daily C. Preventing exposure of the child to infection D. Offering exposure of the child to infection

C. Preventing exposure if the child to infection

By which process does dexamethasone reduce swelling in the brain? A. Acts as a hyperosmotic diuretic B. Increases resistance to infection C. Reduces the inflammatory response of tissues D. Decreases the formation of cerebrospinal fluid

C. Reduces the inflammatory response of tissues

Which statement by the client indicates to the nurse a need for further teaching on isoniazid therapy? A. I will avoid alcohol treatment B. I will take the medication on an empty stomach C. I will contact my doctor if i notice tingling in my feet D. I will stop treatment once my fever has subsided

D. I will stop treatment once my fever has subsided

A sulfonamide preparation is prescribed for a child with a urinary tract infection? Which nursing responsibility is a priority when administering this medication? A. Weighing the child daily B. Giving the medication with milk C. Taking the child's temperature frequently D. Administering he medication at the prescribed times

D. Administering the medication at the prescribed times

Which potential adverse effect would the nurse monitor for in a client prescribed ceftriaxone for an infection? A. Dehydration B. Heart failure C. Constipation D. Allergic reaction

D. Allergic reaction

How would the nurse characterize Reye syndrome? A. A genetic disorder B. A bacterial infection C. An encephalopathy of unknown origin D. An acute illness that primarily affects the brain

D. An acute illness that primarily affects the brain

Which response to morphine would need to be reported immediately to the health care provider? A. Nausea B. Headache C. Drowsiness D. Bradycardia

D. Bradycardia

While assessing the mouth of a client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS), the nurse finds the condition illustrated in the image. Which pathogen is response for the client's condition? A. Cryptosporidium B. Toxoplasma Gondi C. Histoplasmosis capsulatum D. Candida albicans

D. Candida albicans Rationale: the image shows oral candidiasis or yeast. The cottage cheese-like, yellowish-white plaques and inflammation are the manifestations that indicate oral candidiasis. Cryptosporidium is responsible for cryptosporidiosis, an intestinal infection. Toxoplasmosis encephalitis is caused by toxoplasma Gondi. Histoplasmosis is caused by histoplasmosis capsulatum, a respiratory infection.

A 45-year old client who recently complete alcohol detoxification reports plans to begin using disulfirams as part of the alcoholism treatment regimen. Which client teaching would the nurse share regarding this medication? A. Voluntary compliance with the disulfiram regimen is very high B. A single dose of oral disulfiram will be effective for up to 72 hours C. Disulfiram may be taken intramuscularly and will be effective for as long as 7 days D. Foods, medications, and any topical preparation containing alcohol should be avoided

D. Foods, medications, and any topical preparation containing alcohol should be avoided

Which response would the nurse give to a client taking ibuprofen for rheumatoid arthritis who asks the nurse if acetaminophen can be substituted? A. Yes, both are antipyretics and have the same effect B. Acetaminophen irritates the stomach more than ibuprofen C. Acetaminophen is the preferred treatment for rheumatoid arthritis D. Ibuprofen has anti-inflammatory properties and acetaminophen does not

D. Ibuprofen has anti-inflammatory properties and acetaminophen does not

Which factor is the case of frequent upper respiratory tract infections in toddlers? A. Stress B. Unhealthy diet C. Lack of exercise D. Immature immune system

D. Immature immune system

A health care provider prescribes disulfiram for a client who abuses alcohol. Which action is associated with disulfiram? A. It decreases alcohol cravings B. It decreases the effects of alcohol inebriation C. It allows the client to tolerate only small amounts of alcohol D. It causes a severe adverse reaction if alcohol is consumed

D. It causes a severe adverse reaction if alcohol is consumed

Before beginning administration of morphine via patient-controlled analgesia (PCA), which assessment would the nurse perform first? A. Temperature B. Blood pressure C. Urinary output D. Respirations

D. Respirations

Which adverse effect of morphine indicates the need for naloxone administration? A. Blurred vision B. Urinary retention C. Mental confusion D. Respiratory depression

D. Respiratory depression

A child is prescribed tetracycline. The nurse understands which possible medication-related reaction is associated with this medication? A. Kernicterus B. Gray syndrome C. Reye syndrome D. Staining of teeth

D. Staining of teeth

When a client in the clinic is offered the influenza vaccine and states, "I had the vaccination already last year, so I won't need it now." Which response will the nurse give? A. The flu vaccine is recommended for everyone B. You only need 1 flu shot in your lifetime to achieve immunity C. As long as you are younger than 50 years old, you will not really need vaccination D. The immunization changes so you need to get the vaccine annually to stay protected

D. The immunization changes, so you need to get the vaccine annually to stay protected Rationale: the influenza vaccine changes to best suit the strains circulating during a particular flu season. Therefore, people need to be vaccinated annual. It is safe for most adults but some people won't allergies to components of the vaccine cannot receive it. One influenza vaccine is not adequate for lifetime immunity; it is especially important that higher risk individuals such as adults older than 50 are vaccinated but annual influenza vaccination is recommended for all individuals older than 6 months

Which explanation would the nurse include when teaching a client schedule for a bowel resection about the purpose of pre-operative antibiotics? A. They want incisional infection B. Antibiotics prevent postoperative pneumonia C. These medications limit the risk of a urinary tract infection D. They are given to eliminate bacteria from the GI tract

D. They are given to eliminate bacteria from the GI tract