Exam 2 Review Questions

A patient with renal impairment requires bowel cleansing before a diagnostic procedure. The nurse prepares to administer which laxative?

*osmotic laxative: Magnesium Hydroxide

T/F? Filgrastim is given orally only

False - given IV or SubQ *don't freeze; can be left at room temp up to 24 hrs before use *single & multidose vials *do not shake

T/F? IV heparin is always used for DVT prophylaxis.

False - given subQ for DVT prophylaxis. IV given when there is a thrombus

T/F? Dextromethorphan is the most effective OTC non-opioid cough suppressant.

True

T/F? Hypokalemia can increase the possibility of digoxin toxicity.

True

T/F? Lifestyle modifications should be recommended for all patients with dyslipidemia, even those on medications.

True

T/F? Oprelvekin (interleukin II)to minimize thrombocytopenia. - the nurse must monitor carefully for fluid retention

True

T/F? Therapy for H. Pylori could affect the INR for a pt taking warfarin

True

T/F? Aprepitant (Emend) Has BEST effect for CINV (Chemo Induced Nausea and Vomiting) should be administered with another anti-emetic drug (eg Ondansetron)

True (it also has many DDIs)

T/F? Caution should be taken when giving antacids in relation to other drugs:

True - they affect absorption of many drugs

A pregnant patient who is taking ondansetron for morning sickness tells the nurse she is experiencing headache and dizziness. What will the nurse tell her? a. These are common side effects of ondansetron. b. She should stop taking the ondansetron immediately. c. She should report these adverse effects to her provider. d. It is not safe to take this drug during pregnancy.

a. These are common side effects of ondansetron.

"In giving SL nitroglycerin, the proper procedure is to:" a. "one tablet every 6 minutes, with a maximum of 3 tablets" b. "one tablet every 3 minutes, with a maximum of 3" c. one tablet every 5 minutes with a maximum of 3 d. one tablet every 2 minutes with a maximum of 3

c. one tablet every 5 minutes with a maximum of 3

What is a positive ADVERSE Effect of thiazide diuretic therapy? a. increases edema b. slows progression of DM c. promotes diuresis d. electrolyte imbalance

c. promotes diuresis

The nurse is monitoring a patient receiving a heparin infusion for the treatment of pulmonary embolism. Which assessment finding most likely relates to an adverse effect of heparin? a. elevated blood pressure b. visual disturbances c. inspiratory wheezing d. discolored urine

d. discolored urine (blood in urine)

A patient who takes warfarin for atrial fibrillation undergoes hip replacement surgery. On the second postoperative day, the nurse assesses the patient and notes an oxygen saturation of 83%, pleuritic chest pain, shortness of breath, and hemoptysis. The nurse will contact the provider to report possible ____ and request an order for ____. a. congestive heart failure; ibuprofen b. hemorrhage; vitamin K c. myocardial infarction; alteplase (Activase) d. pulmonary embolism; heparin

d. pulmonary embolism; heparin

"Patients receive adjunct therapy, such as aspirin to:" a. further decrease oxygen demand of the heart b. prevent hypotension caused by nitroglycerin therapy c. prevent bradycardia caused by other agents d. slow the progression of coronary artery disease

d. slow the progression of coronary artery disease

A pt is prescribed ranitidine and calcium carbonate for the treatment of PUD. What should the nurse teach the pt to do? a. pts on ranitidine should never receive antacids concurrently b. always take meds together to enhance effectiveness c. instruct pt to take ranitidine at bedtime d. wait at least 1 hr between admin of the 2 medications

d. wait at least 1 hr between admin of the 2 medications

Which of the following statements are TRUE? (select all) a. Many transgender clients feel disrespected when being seen by healthcare providers. b. All transgender patients receive hormone replacement c. All transgender patients follow the same treatment d. Providers must strive to provide a safe environment for transgender patients

a & d

What should the nurse include in the discharge teaching for a patient prescribed amiodarone? (Select all that apply.) a. "Check your pulse daily and report excessive slowing to your healthcare provider immediately." b. "Wear sunblock and protective clothing when you are outdoors." c. "Take amiodarone with grapefruit juice." d. "Take the medication on an empty stomach." e. "Immediately notify your healthcare provider of shortness of breath, cough, or chest pain."

a. "Check your pulse daily and report excessive slowing to your healthcare provider immediately." b. "Wear sunblock and protective clothing when you are outdoors." e. "Immediately notify your healthcare provider of shortness of breath, cough, or chest pain."

The nurse provides discharge instructions to a patient prescribed verapamil SR (sustained release) 120 mg PO daily for hypertension. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the medication? a. "I must make sure I swallow the pill whole." b. "I will take the medication with grapefruit juice each morning." c. "I'll need to reduce the amount of fiber in my diet." d. "I should expect occasional loose stools from this medication."

a. "I must make sure I swallow the pill whole." *do not take with GF juice, increase fiber (bc it causes constipation)

An adult male patient is taking medication for blood pressure management. The patient states to the nurse, "I'm not going to take these drugs anymore because they are interfering with my sex life." What is the most appropriate response by the nurse? a. "Let's discuss this effect with your prescriber. There are other drugs available to manage your blood pressure that may not have the same adverse effect." b. "I am glad you told me about your experience with this common side effect. Sexual performance can be a difficult subject to discuss." c. "I understand how discouraging it must be to live with this adverse effect, but you could have a stroke if you do not take your blood pressure medications." d. "It is unfortunate these drugs can cause erectile dysfunction but managing your blood pressure is more important than your sexual performance."

a. "Let's discuss this effect with your prescriber. There are other drugs available to manage your blood pressure that may not have the same adverse effect."

What is the normal range for Potassium? a. 3.5-5 meq/L b. 4-6 meq/L c. 8-10 meq/L d. 3-5 gm/dL

a. 3.5-5 meq/L

The nurse is caring for a patient prescribed gemfibrozil. For which patient should the nurse question the use of this drug? a. A patient with elevated triglycerides who has not responded to dietary changes b. A patient with history of gallstones and elevated triglycerides c. A patient with elevated very-low-density lipoprotein (VLDL) levels d. A patient with cardiovascular disease and elevated triglycerides

a. A patient with elevated triglycerides who has not responded to dietary changes

Which class of drugs is most effective in preventing and treating seasonal allergic rhinitis? a. intranasal glucocorticoids b. antitussives c. oral antihistamines d. oral sympathomimetics

a. intranasal glucocorticoids *prototype: mometasone (anti-inflam)

Which drug is considered the most effective at lowering LDL cholesterol (Hint: It is also the most prescribed drug for this indication)? a. Atorvastatin b. Gemfibrozil c. Ezetimibe d. Cholestyramine

a. Atorvastatin

The healthcare provider prescribes atorvastatin for a patient discharged from the hospital post-myocardial infarction. Which instructions are most appropriate for the nurse to include in the patient's teaching plan? (Select all that apply.) a. Before starting this medication a blood test will be done to check your total cholesterol level and to measure liver enzymes." b. "Do not start any new medications without first talking to your healthcare provider." c. "Lower the total fat and saturated fat in your diet by increasing your intake of fresh fruits and vegetables and whole grains." d. "Take one 325-mg aspirin 30 minutes before your dose to lessen the problem of flushing and itching that can occur with this drug." e. "Take your medication in the morning, with a full glass of water for best results."

a. Before starting this medication a blood test will be done to check your total cholesterol level and to measure liver enzymes." b. "Do not start any new medications without first talking to your healthcare provider." c. "Lower the total fat and saturated fat in your diet by increasing your intake of fresh fruits and vegetables and whole grains."

Why is intramuscular (IM) administration of promethazine preferred over intravenous (IV) administration? a. Extravasation of IV promethazine can lead to abscess formation or tissue necrosis. b. The risk of respiratory depression is eliminated with IM injection. c. IM injection has a more rapid onset of action. d. Extrapyramidal reactions do not occur when the drug is administered IM.

a. Extravasation of IV promethazine can lead to abscess formation or tissue necrosis.

The nurse is caring for a patient who takes spironolactone and captopril for treatment of heart failure. What finding indicates a potential interaction between these two drugs? a. Hyperkalemia b. Hypoglycemia c. Elevated serum captopril level d. Bradycardia

a. Hyperkalemia *both cause hyperkalemia

Phenylephrine: what is TRUE about this drug? a. It is an alpha 1 agonist b. It is an alpha 1 blocker c. It is a beta 1 blocker d. It is a beta 1 stmulant (agonist)

a. It is an alpha 1 agonist

A patient who has gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is taking calcium carbonate. How does this drug achieve the desired therapeutic effect? a. Neutralized gastric acid b. Reduced duodenal pH c. Increased barrier to pepsin d. Reduced stomach acid

a. Neutralized gastric acid

A patient is receiving a continuous heparin infusion for venous thromboembolism treatment. Which laboratory results should the nurse regularly monitor after the infusion starts to assess for therapeutic and/or adverse effects? (Select all that apply.) a. Platelets b. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) c. Vitamin K level d. international normalized ratio (INR) e. Prothrombin time (PT)

a. Platelets b. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)

Which outcome would be most appropriate for a nurse to establish for a patient with a cough who takes an antitussive with codeine? a. Respiratory rate of 12 to 24 breaths per minute b. Effective productive cough c. Warm, dry, pink skin d. Oriented to time, place, and person

a. Respiratory rate of 12 to 24 breaths per minute *codeine can cause resp depression

A patient with angina is being discharged with a prescription for nitroglycerin sublingual tablets. Which instruction should the nurse include? a. The tablets should stay in the original container b. The tablets are only good for 1 month after the container is opened. c. Effects of sublingual nitroglycerin begin in 5 to 10 minutes. d. Sublingual nitroglycerin tablets are also effective when swallowed whole.

a. The tablets should stay in the original container this med can break down in light - need nonpermeable IV tube

Which of the following is contraindicated if the pt receives sildenafil (Viagra) for impotence? a. Vasodilators like nitroglycerin b. tylenol c. low fat diets d. none of the above

a. Vasodilators like nitroglycerin

The nurse is teaching a patient prescribed captopril for the treatment of hypertension. Which instructions should the nurse include? (Select all that apply.) a. a persist dry cough may occur b. you can stop med once BP is normal c. most pts on this med will develop a sore throat and fever d. report difficulty breathing immediately e. avoid potassium salt substitutes

a. a persist dry cough may occur d. report difficulty breathing immediately e. avoid potassium salt substitutes

Heparin enhances the anticoagulant activity of what naturally occurring substance? a. antithrombin b. thrombin c. factor X d. vitamin k

a. antithrombin

How does diphenhydramine work? a. blocks action of histamine at the H1 receptors b. increases uptake of histamine (H1) at receptors c. blocks action of histamine at the H2 receptors d. increases uptake of histamine (H2) at receptors

a. blocks action of histamine at the H1 receptors

Blood pressure is the culmination of: a. cardiac output and peripheral resistance b. cardiac outflow and peripheral release c. cardiac outflow and peripheral resistance d. cardiac output and peripheral restriction

a. cardiac output and peripheral resistance

Warfarin works by which of the following mechanisms: a. competitively blocks vitamin k at its sites of action b. lysing plasmin c. inhibiting platelet synthesis d. preventing conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin

a. competitively blocks vitamin k at its sites of action

With amoxicillin, a bing concern is: a. drug allergy = or allergy to PCN b. green teeth c. gum disease d. tendon rupture

a. drug allergy = or allergy to PCN

What electrolyte disturbance can happen with captopril (Capoten)? a. hyperkalemia b. hypokalemia c. euvolemia d. hypernatremia

a. hyperkalemia

Estrogens can: a. increase a pt's risk of thrombus b. decrease a pt's risk of thrombus c. increase acne d. none of the above

a. increase a pt's risk of thrombus

An 80-year-old patient with a history of renal insufficiency recently was started on ranitidine. Which assessment finding indicates that the patient may be experiencing an adverse effect of the medication? a. new onset of disorientation to time & place b. 3+ pitting edema c. HR changes (increased) d. pain with urination

a. new onset of disorientation to time & place *be aware of possible CNS effects in elderly

Loop diuretics promote the excretion of ? a. potassium b. uric acid c. glucose d. none of above

a. potassium

The nurse understands patients receiving nitroglycerin are at risk for which adverse effects?(Select all that apply.) a. tachycardia b. dizziness c. wheezing d. bradycardia e. headache

a. tachycardia b. dizziness e. headache

levonorgesterel (Plan B) will NOT: a. terminate a pregnancy b. prevent heavy bleeding c. prevent nausea d. be given to a pt over 22yo

a. terminate a pregnancy

The parent of a pediatric patient with nasal stuffiness and congestion asks a nurse about cold remedies. Which additional information is the priority for the nurse to obtain? a. Developmental stage b. Age c. Body weight d. Swallowing ability

b. Age *should be avoided <4yo & never <2yo

Which are the main types of drugs used to prevent or relieve anginal pain? (Select all that apply.) a. statins b. CCBs c. Beta blockers d. platelet inhibitors e. nitrates

b. CCBs c. Beta blockers e. nitrates

A patient with low platelet count is receiving oprelvekin. Which adverse effects are most likely associated with this drug? Select all that apply a. Hypotension b. Fluid retention c. accelerated tumor progression d. a-fib e. anaphylactic rxns

b. Fluid retention d. a-fib e. anaphylactic rxns *fluid retention, edema, dysrhythmias, allergic rxns

The nurse is evaluating the teaching done with a patient who has a new prescription for captopril. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for FURTHER teaching? a. I will call if I develop a bothersome cough b. I cannot eat spinach while on this medication c. I will call if I notice a rash or wheals on my skin d. I will decrease my sodium intake

b. I cannot eat spinach while on this medication

A postoperative patient is scheduled to start taking bisacodyl once per day. When is the best time of day for this medication to be taken? a. At the evening meal b. Just before bedtime c. Before the morning bath d. After ambulating

b. Just before bedtime *cody is constipated from taking too many drugs, so he takes bisaCODYl at bedtime

An 89-year old patient is status post a prosthetic mitral valve replacement. He is on warfarin(Coumadin) daily and his most recent INR is 4.5. The nurse has notified the provider of the lab results. Which of the following is the best nursing intervention for patient at this point? a. Monitor I&O b. Monitor for bleeding c. Monitor for dysrhythmias d. Monitor for DVT

b. Monitor for bleeding

The nurse is administering intravenous lidocaine to a patient with a ventricular dysrhythmia. What is the priority nursing intervention to prevent a potential complication with this drug? a. Instruct to report any chest pain b. Monitor the electrocardiogram (ECG) c. Keep naloxone at the bedside d. Obtain a complete blood count

b. Monitor the electrocardiogram (ECG)

A patient with an elevated triglyceride level is prescribed niacin ER (extended release). Which laboratory value is most important for the nurse to monitor for in this patient? a. BUN b. CBC c. ALT d. CK

c. ALT *liver toxicity is AE

A nurse is planning care for a patient who takes fexofenadine for allergic rhinitis. Which outcome should the nurse anticipate? a. Use limited to allergy season b. Relief of sneezing and itching c. No complaints of dry mouth d. Absence of rebound congestion

b. Relief of sneezing and itching

The nurse is caring for a patient receiving amiodarone. Which body system should the nurse assess for serious adverse effects of this medication? a. Musculoskeletal b. Respiratory c. Renal d. Gastrointestinal

b. Respiratory *Pulm. toxicity is a major AE. s/s: cough, dyspnea, chest pain

The nurse is caring for a patient receiving hydralazine. The healthcare provider prescribes propranolol. The nurse knows that a drug such as propranolol often is combined with hydralazine for what purpose? a. To prevent heart failure b. To protect against reflex tachycardia c. To improve hypotensive effects d. To reduce the risk of headache

b. To protect against reflex tachycardia *hydralazine is a direct vasodilator & can cause reflex tachy, exacerbate HF, ortho hypTN *beta blockers slow heart

The nurse is caring for a patient who takes warfarin for prevention of deep vein thrombosis. The patient has an international normalized ratio (INR) of 2.7. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate? a. Admin IV push protamine sulfate b. admin the dose c. call hc provider to increase dose d. prepare to admin Vit K

b. admin the dose

How is it be possible to have a patient on a beta blocker when the patient has HF? a. it slows down HR b. at low doses, beta blockers protect the heart from sympathetic stimulation c. beta blockers cause SEVERE hypotension d. pts with HF should not be on beta blockers

b. at low doses, beta blockers protect the heart from sympathetic stimulation

Which medication is indicated for suppression of cough? a. mometazone b. benzonatate c. guiafenesin d. azelastine

b. benzonatate

The nurse is caring for a patient undergoing cancer chemotherapy who presents with rash, bone pain, hypertension, and pedal edema. Which symptom is most likely to be related to the filgrastim the patient is receiving? a. swelling of the feet b. bone pain c. rash d. headache

b. bone pain *eliminate with tylenol *oprelvakin causes fluid overload *epoeitin causes HTN

What should as astute nurse teach when his or her patient first starts verapamil (Non-dihydropyridine)? a. to give 3 pills (5 min apart) before calling 911 b. bowel regimen c. wear TEDS stockings d. have patient lie down before administering IV dose

b. bowel regimen *causes constipation!

The nurse is caring for a patient prescribed a cholesterol-lowering drug. Which of the following drugs is least likely to cause systemic side effects? a. atorvastatin b. colesevelam c. gemfibrozil d. niacin

b. colesevelam *limited to GI effects *the other meds listed can cause myopathy, liver toxicity, intense flushing (niacin)

A pt is prescribed amoxicillin and tetracycline to treat PUD. The nurse will instruct the pt that these medications will do what? a. prevent GI infections that cause gastric bleeding b. destroy the bacteria in the stomach that are causing ulceration c. reduce gastric acid production & alkalize the stomach fluids d. reduce the secretion of pepsin in the stomach

b. destroy the bacteria in the stomach that are causing ulceration

A patient with angina pectoris has been prescribed nifedipine. Which possible adverse effects should the nurse expect with this medication? (Select all that apply.) a. sedation b. edema of ankles & feet c. overgrowth of gum tissue d. N/V e. constipation

b. edema of ankles & feet c. overgrowth of gum tissue

The nurse is preparing to administer an oral dose of digoxin. The apical pulse rate is 64. What nursing action is most appropriate? a. assess for signs of digoxin toxicity b. give the med c. notify the health care provider d. obtain serum digoxin level

b. give the med normal: 60-100

Aliskiren (Tekturna) can cause: a. hyponatremia b. hyperkalemia c. euvolemia d. hypokalemia

b. hyperkalemia

WHich of the following statements concerning Diphenoxylate/atropine (Lomotil) is FALSE? a. CNS effects can happen at high doses b. increased GI motility c. if severe OD occurs, you can be treated with naloxone d. it is considered the most effective antidiarrheal agent

b. increased GI motility

Pt education for the pt with PUD should include: a. monitor for signs of GI bleed b. eliminate ETOH c. Avoid smoking & NSAIDS d. All of the above

d. All of the above

The nurse should teach patients who are prescribed warfarin to eat consistent amounts of which of the following foods? select all that apply: a. citrus b. liver c. green, leafy vegetables d. mayonnaise e. red meat

b. liver c. green, leafy vegetables (these have high vit K content)

Which medication used to promote gastric ulcer healing should never be used during pregnancy? a. ranitidine b. misoprostol c. omeprazole d. sucralfate

b. misoprostol *causes uterine contractions

A patient with cardiovascular disease is taking atorvastatin. The nurse is monitoring for potential adverse effects. Which finding indicates a potential adverse effect of this drug? a. low platelet count b. muscle pain and tenderness c. high blood pressure d. wheezing & SOB

b. muscle pain and tenderness

Which of the following patients should not be prescribed ezetimibe? a. severe renal impairment b. severe liver dysfunction c. severe gall bladder disease d. stage 4 HF

b. severe liver dysfunction

Which instruction should the nurse include in the teaching for a patient prescribed fexofenadine for seasonal allergic rhinitis? a. expect a decrease in nasal congestion in a day or two b. take the medication daily throughout allergy season c. take stool softener to avoid side effect of constipation d. clean out nasal applicator after use to prevent contamination

b. take the medication daily throughout allergy season

What instruction should the nurse give a patient who is to take bismuth subsalicylate for eradication of H. pylori? a. Do not drink alcohol while taking this medication b. the drug can cause your bowel movements to be black c. Nausea & diarrhea are common side effects d. take the medication thru a straw to prevent teeth staining

b. the drug can cause your bowel movements to be black

The nurse is administering epoetin alfa to a patient receiving chemotherapy. Which adverse effect is a potential risk with this drug? a. Bone pain b. Hypotension c. Accelerated tumor progression d. Easy Bruising

c. Accelerated tumor progression *basically feeding tumor

Which finding in a patient taking phenylephrine nasal spray every 2 hours would indicate that the patient has developed an adverse effect? a. dry mouth & constipation b. itching & skin rash c. congestion & stuffiness d. drowsiness & sedation

c. congestion & stuffiness *rebound congestion if take too much

Which statement by the patient taking fexofenadine would require further teaching? a. "I know that I don't have to be as concerned about sleepiness with this medication as I used to be with other allergy medications." b. "I will take this medication as directed on the package." c. "I will take this medication in the morning with my juice and breakfast" d. "This mediation will help with my seasonal allergies"

c. "I will take this medication in the morning with my juice and breakfast" *avoid fruit juice 4h before or 1-2h after dose

A patient asks a nurse, "Why should I switch to fexofenadine for my allergies when I've taken diphenhydramine for so long?" Which of the following is the best response? a. "The dosing is more convenient, because you take it once a week." b. "You'll have much less risk of cardiac problems." c. "There is not nearly as much drowsiness and sedation." d. "The biggest benefit is that the cost is so much lower."

c. "There is not nearly as much drowsiness and sedation." *2nd gen antihistamine

Which statement by a patient indicates understanding of a nurse's teaching about mometasone nasal spray? a. "I realize that I only need to take this when my symptoms are really bad." b. "I'll have to be more careful about not falling, because my bones may break more easily." c. "This drug will help prevent the inflammation and irritation from my allergies." d. "I'll gradually stop taking this so I don't have any problems with withdrawal."

c. "This drug will help prevent the inflammation and irritation from my allergies." *this is a glucocorticoid that reduces inflammation

Which of these laboratory test results (which are flagged as abnormal on the lab report) would be a priority to report to the prescriber if a patient is on prescribed heparin? a. aPTT 75 seconds b. BUN 22 mg/mL c. Platelet count 40,000/mm3 d. WBC 11,000/mm3

c. Platelet count 40,000/mm3 (platelets are last line of defense - these are way too low)

Which complaint indicates that a patient is experiencing an adverse effect of mometasone nasal spray? a. Runny nose b. Sneezing c. Sore throat d. Nasal congestion

c. Sore throat

Which medication is most likely to cause the side effect of constipation? a. Captopril b. Nifedipine c. Verapamil d. Amlodipine

c. Verapamil

"Whenever possible, in treating dysrhythmias, the goal is to:" a. treat the lack of impulses traveling through the heart b. repair the musculature of the heart c. address the underlying cause of the dysrhythmia (e.g., hypomagnesemia) d. none of the above

c. address the underlying cause of the dysrhythmia (e.g., hypomagnesemia)

The antidote for rivaroxaban (Xarelto) is: a. idarucizumab b. protamine sulfate c. andexanet alpha d. vitamin k

c. andexanet alpha

A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about antidysrhythmic medications. Which statement by the student indicates understanding of the teaching? a. for most antidysrhythmic drugs, there is evidence of reduced mortality b. AEs of these drugs, which are mainly noncardiac in nature, are rarely serious c. antidysrhythmic drugs can cause new dysrhythmias or worsen existing ones d. correcting underlying electrolyte abnormalities will not impact treatment

c. antidysrhythmic drugs can cause new dysrhythmias or worsen existing ones

Pts on long-term therapy for GERD who are being treated with omeprazole must be monitored for: a. constipation b. malnutrition c. bone fractures d. hypermagnesemia

c. bone fractures (also hypOmagnesemia)

The nurse is reviewing the prescriber's orders and notes that omeprazole has been ordered for a patient admitted with acute coronary syndrome (ACS). The nurse should be concerned if this medication is combined with which medication noted on the patient's record? a. metoprolol b. heparin c. clopidogrel d. aspirin

c. clopidogrel *PPIs inhibit CYP2C19 which is necessary for Clopidogrel to work

A patient is taking a first-generation H1 blocker for the treatment of allergic rhinitis. It is most important for the nurse to assess for which adverse effect? a. wheezing b. skin flushing c. dry mouth d. insomnia

c. dry mouth

The nurse is teaching a group of patients about dietary approaches to reduce cholesterol levels. Which statement is most important to include in the teaching? a. Lower your cholesterol to 300mg/day b. eliminate red meat and pork from your diet c. read food labels and reduce your intake of saturated fats d. reduce salt consumption to keep your sodium intake to 2400mg/dal

c. read food labels and reduce your intake of saturated fats

Omeprazole has the following mechanism of action: a. stimulates gastric acid secretion b. inhibits histamine 2 receptors c. suppresses gastric acid production d. eliminates peristalsis

c. suppresses gastric acid production

A patient who has traveler's diarrhea asks the nurse about using loperamide to stop the symptoms. What will the nurse tell the patient about this drug? a. loperamide is used for moderate to severe symptoms only b. this drug is useful as prophylaxis to prevent symptoms c. use of this drug may prolong symptoms by slowing peristalsis d. this drug is only effective to treat certain infectious agents

c. use of this drug may prolong symptoms by slowing peristalsis *traveler's diarrhea is usually bacterial - would also want to avoid Rx Opioid - diphenoxylate/atropine

A nurse is teaching a patient who is to start taking an expectorant. The nurse provides the patient with which of these instructions? a. "Increase your fiber and fluid intake to prevent constipation." b. "Take the medication once a day only, usually at bedtime." c. "Restrict cold fluids to promote reduced mucus production." d. "Increase your fluid intake to reduce the viscosity of secretions."

d. "Increase your fluid intake to reduce the viscosity of secretions." *guaifenesin = expectorant

Which instruction should be included in the teaching for a patient being started on azelastine? a. "You will experience a decrease in nasal congestion if the medication is working." b. "Headache is a common and serious side effect of the medication." c. "Take the pill in the morning before breakfast." d. "You may experience an unpleasant taste in your mouth when using azelastine."

d. "You may experience an unpleasant taste in your mouth when using azelastine." *this is a nasal antihistamine - can also cause nose bleeds, and other anticholinergic effects (dry mouth, etc)

The healthcare provider orders furosemide 20 mg IV twice daily. The medication available is furosemide 10 mg/mL vial. How many mL will the nurse administer with each dose? a. 0.5 mL b. 4 mL c. 1 mL d. 2 mL

d. 2 mL

The anticoagulant effects of warfarin typically occur within: a. 30 minutes b. 6 hours c. 24 hours d. 3 to 4 days

d. 3 to 4 days

The nurse knows that which statement is accurate for enoxaparin? a. It equally reduces the activity of thrombin and factor Xa b. It has a lower bioavailability and shorter half-life than unfractionated heparin c. It has selective inhibition of factor Xa and no effect on thrombin d. It reduces the activity of factor Xa more than the activity of thrombin

d. It reduces the activity of factor Xa more than the activity of thrombin

The nurse has just administered the initial dose of captopril to a newly admitted patient with hypertension. What is the priority nursing intervention over the next several hours? a. auscultate lung sounds b. check HR c. draw K level d. Monitor BP

d. Monitor BP *to see if drug is working

The hc provider prescribes epoeitin alfa for a patient. The nurse should contact the hc provider to question the Rx for which of the following patients? a. a pt taking zidovudine for HIV b. a pt with chronic renal failure c. a pt with nonmyeloid malignancy chemo-induced anemia d. a pt with uncontrolled HTN

d. a pt with uncontrolled HTN

HCTZ (thiazide diuretic) can cause: a. hyperuricemia b. hypokalemia c. hypotension d. all of the above

d. all of the above

Spironolactone has which of the following AE? a. hyperkalemia b. menstrual irregularities c. gynecomastia d. all of the above

d. all of the above

The signs and symptoms of hypokalemia include which of the following: a. muscle weakness b. feeling of "irregular heart beat" c. muscle cramps d. all of the above

d. all of the above

Lidocaine toxicity is dose related and an EARLY symptoms is: a. hypotension b. respiratory depression c. heart block d. confusion

d. confusion

The nurse is caring for a patient prescribed quinidine for a supraventricular dysrhythmia. What is a common adverse effect of this drug? a. blurred vision b. constipation c. urinary retention d. diarrhea

d. diarrhea