EXAM #3 PREP U

Management of a patient with ascites includes nutritional modifications and diuretic therapy. Which of the following interventions would a nurse expect to be part of patient care? Select all that apply. A. Aldactone, an aldosterone-blocking agent would be used. B. Zaroxolyn would be the thiazide diuretic of choice. C. A daily weight change of 0.5 pounds would require health care provider notification. D. Daily salt intake would be restricted to 2 grams or less. E. The diuretic will be held if the serum sodium level decreases to <134 m Eq/L.

A. Aldactone, an aldosterone-blocking agent would be used. D. Daily salt intake would be restricted to 2 grams or less. E. The diuretic will be held if the serum sodium level decreases to <134 m Eq/L. Explanation: Lasix, a loop diuretic, combined with Aldactone is the most effective regimen to control ascites. The serum sodium level should not drop below 134 mEq/L. A daily weight change of 1.1 lb (those without peripheral edema) or 2.2 lbs (those with peripheral edema) should be reported.

Increased appetite and thirst may indicate that a client with chronic pancreatitis has developed diabetes mellitus. Which of the following explains the cause of this secondary diabetes?

Dysfunction of the pancreatic islet cells Explanation: Diabetes mellitus resulting from dysfunction of the pancreatic islet cells is treated with diet, insulin, or oral antidiabetic agents. The hazard of severe hypoglycemia with alcohol consumption is stressed to the client and family. When secondary diabetes develops in a client with chronic pancreatitis, the client experiences increased appetite, thirst, and urination. A standard treatment with pancreatitis is to make the client NPO. The dysfunction is related to the pancreas, not the liver.

Which of the following the are early manifestations of liver cancer? Select all that apply.

Pain Continuous aching in the back Explanation: Early manifestations of liver cancer include pain and continuous dull aching in the right upper quadrant epigastrium or back. Weight loss, anorexia, and anemia may occur. Jaundice is present only if the larger bile ducts are occluded by the pressure of malignant nodules in the hilum of the liver. Fever and vomiting are not associated manifestations.

The physician has written the following orders for a new client admitted with pancreatitis: bed rest, nothing by mouth (NPO), and administration of total parenteral nutrition (TPN) . Which does the nurse attribute as the reason for NPO status?

To avoid inflammation of the pancreas Explanation: Pancreatic secretion is increased by food and fluid intake and may cause inflammation of the pancreas.

When caring for a patient with an uncomplicated, mild urinary tract infection (UTI), the nurse knows that recent studies have shown which of the following drugs to be a good choice for short-course (e.g., 3-day) therapy?

Levofloxacin (Levaquin) Explanation: Levofloxacin, a fluoroquinolone, is a good choice for short-course therapy of uncomplicated, mild to moderate UTI. Clinical trial data show high patient compliance with the 3-day regimen (95.6%) and a high eradication rate for all pathogens (96.4%). Trimethoprim sulfamethoxazole is a commonly used medication for treatment of a complicated UTI, such as pyelonephritis. Nitrofurantoin is a commonly used medication for treatment of a complicated UTI, such as pyelonephritis. Ciprofloxacin is a good choice for treatment of a complicated UTI. Recent studies have found ciprofloxacin to be significantly more effective than TMP-SMX in community-based patients and in nursing home residents.

The nurse is conducting a history and assessment related to a client's incontinence. Which element should the nurse include in the assessment before beginning a bladder training program?

Medication usage Explanation: It is essential to assess the client's physical and environmental conditions before beginning a bladder training program, because the patient may not be able to reach the bathroom in time. During the bladder training program, a change in environment may be an effective suggestion for the client. It is not so essential to assess the client's history of allergy, occupation, and smoking habits before beginning a bladder training program.

The clinic nurse is teaching a young woman about preventing recurrent urinary tract infections. What information should the nurse include?

Drink liberal amounts of fluids. Explanation: The patient is encouraged to drink liberal amounts of fluids (water is the best choice) to increase urine production and flow, which flushes the bacteria from the urinary tract. Frequent voiding (every 2 to 3 hours) is encouraged to empty the bladder completely because this can significantly lower urine bacterial counts, reduce urinary stasis, and prevent reinfection. The patient should be encouraged to shower rather than bathe.

A patient with acute pancreatitis puts the call bell on to tell the nurse about an increase in pain. The nurse observes the patient guarding; the abdomen is board-like and no bowel sounds are detected. What is the major concern for this patient?

The patient has developed peritonitis. Explanation: Abdominal guarding is present. A rigid or board-like abdomen may develop and is generally an ominous sign, usually indicating peritonitis (Privette et al., 2011).

Which condition in a client with pancreatitis makes it necessary for the nurse to check fluid intake and output, check hourly urine output, and monitor electrolyte levels?

Frequent vomiting, leading to loss of fluid volume Explanation: Fluid and electrolyte disturbances are common complications because of nausea, vomiting, movement of fluid from the vascular compartment to the peritoneal cavity, diaphoresis, fever, and the use of gastric suction. The nurse assesses the client's fluid and electrolyte status by noting skin turgor and moistness of mucous membranes. The nurse weighs the client daily and carefully measures fluid intake and output, including urine output, nasogastric secretions, and diarrhea.

A client with suspected biliary obstruction due to gallstones reports changes to the color of his stools. Which stool color does the nurse recognize as common to biliary obstruction?

Gray Explanation: A gray-white stool color is common with a biliary obstruction because the stool is no longer colored with bile pigments.

A client and spouse are visiting the clinic. The client recently experienced a seizure and says she has been having difficulty writing. Before the seizure, the client says that for several weeks she was sleeping late into the day but having restlessness and insomnia at night. The client's husband says that he has noticed the client has been moody and slightly confused. Which of the following problems is most consistent with the client's clinical manifestations?

Hepatic encephalopathy Explanation: The earliest symptoms of hepatic encephalopathy include minor mental changes and motor disturbances. The client appears slightly confused and unkempt and has alterations in mood and sleep patterns. The client tends to sleep during the day and have restlessness and insomnia at night. As hepatic encephalopathy progresses, the client may become difficult to awaken and completely disoriented with respect to time and place. With further progression, the client lapses into frank coma and may have seizures. Simple tasks, such as handwriting, become difficult.

When performing a physical examination on a client with cirrhosis, a nurse notices that the client's abdomen is enlarged. Which of the following interventions should the nurse consider?

Measure abdominal girth according to a set routine. Explanation: If the abdomen appears enlarged, the nurse measures it according to a set routine. The nurse reports any change in mental status or signs of gastrointestinal bleeding immediately. It is not essential for the client to take laxatives unless prescribed. The client's food intake does not affect the size of the abdomen in case of cirrhosis.

A client has ascites. Which of the following interventions would the nurse prepare to assist with implementing to help the client control this condition? Select all that apply.

Instructing the client to remove salty and salted foods from the diet Administering prescribed spironolactone (Aldactone) Assisting with placement of a transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt Explanation: The goal of treatment for the client with ascites is a negative sodium balance to reduce fluid retention. Table salt, salty foods, salted butter and margarine, and all ordinary canned and frozen foods that are not specifically prepared for low-sodium diets should be avoided. Spironolactone (Aldactone), an aldosterone-blocking agent, is most often the first-line therapy in clients with ascites from cirrhosis. Transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS) is a method of treating ascites in which a cannula is threaded into the portal vein by the transjugular route. In clients with ascites, an upright posture is associated with activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system and sympathetic nervous system. This causes reduced renal glomerular filtration and sodium excretion and a decreased response to loop diuretics. Therefore, bed rest may be a useful therapy, especially for clients whose condition is refractory to diuretics. Other measures include assessment and documentation of intake and output, abdominal girth, and daily weight to assess fluid status.

A nurse practitioner treating a patient who is diagnosed with hepatitis A should provide health care information. Which of the following statements are correct for this disorder? Select all that apply.

There is a 70% chance that jaundice will occur. Transmission of the virus is possible with oral-anal contact during sex. Typically there is a spontaneous recovery. Explanation: The incubation period for hepatitis A is 15 to 50 days, with an average of 28 days. The risk of cirrhosis occurs with hepatitis B. SHAPER 49

The nurse is caring for a client who is scheduled for the creation of an ileal conduit. Which statement by the client provides evidence that client teaching was effective?

"My urine will be eliminated through a stoma." Explanation: An ileal conduit is a non-continent urinary diversion whereby the ureters drain into an isolated section of ileum. A stoma is created at one end of the ileum, exiting through the abdominal wall.

A nurse should monitor blood glucose levels for a patient diagnosed with hyperinsulinism. What blood value does the nurse recognize as inadequate to sustain normal brain function?

30 mg/dL Explanation: Hyperinsulinism is caused by overproduction of insulin by the pancreatic islets. Occasionally, tumors of nonpancreatic origin produce an insulin-like material that can cause severe hypoglycemia and may be responsible for seizures coinciding with blood glucose levels that are too low to sustain normal brain function (i.e., lower than 30 mg/dL [1.6 mmol/L]) (Goldman & Schafer, 2012; McPherson & Pincus, 2011).

The nurse is assisting the physician with a procedure to remove ascitic fluid from a client with cirrhosis. What procedure does the nurse ensure the client understands will be performed?

Abdominal paracentesis Explanation: Abdominal paracentesis may be performed to remove ascitic fluid. Abdominal fluid is rapidly removed by careful introduction of a needle through the abdominal wall, allowing the fluid to drain. Fluid is removed from the lung via a thoracentesis. Fluid cannot be removed with an abdominal CT scan, but it can assist with placement of the needle. Fluid cannot be removed via an upper endoscopy.

A client comes to the emergency department complaining of severe pain in the right flank, nausea, and vomiting. The physician tentatively diagnoses right ureterolithiasis (renal calculi). When planning this client's care, the nurse should assign the highest priority to which nursing diagnosis?

Acute pain Explanation: Ureterolithiasis typically causes such acute, severe pain that the client can't rest and becomes increasingly anxious. Therefore, the nursing diagnosis of Acute pain takes highest priority. Diagnoses of Risk for infection and Impaired urinary elimination are appropriate when the client's pain is controlled. A diagnosis of Imbalanced nutrition: Less than body requirements isn't pertinent at this time.

The nurse is irrigating a colostomy when the patient says, "You will have to stop, I am cramping so badly." What is the priority action by the nurse?

Clamp the tubing and give the patient a rest period. Explanation: When irrigating a colostomy, the nurse should allow tepid fluid to enter the colon slowly. If cramping occurs, the nurse should clamp off the tubing and allow the patient to rest before progressing. Water should flow in over a 5- to 10-minute period.

A nurse applies an ostomy appliance to a client who is recovering from ileostomy surgery. Which intervention should the nurse utilize to prevent leakage from the appliance?

Ask the client to remain inactive for 5 minutes. Explanation: After applying the ostomy appliance, the nurse should ask the client to remain inactive for 5 minutes to allow body heat to strengthen the adhesive bond. The adhesive faceplate should be pressed from the stomal edge outward to prevent the formation of wrinkles. A small amount of air should also be allowed to be trapped in the pouch; liquid feces will then drain to the bottom of the pouch, placing less tension on it.

Which objective symptom of a UTI is most common in older adults, especially those with dementia?

Change in cognitive functioning Explanation: The most common objective finding is a change in cognitive functioning, especially in those with dementia, because these clients usually exhibit even more profound cognitive changes with the onset of a UTI. Incontinence, hematuria, and back pain are not the most common presenting objective symptoms.

A patient has been diagnosed with a UTI and is prescribed an antibiotic. What first-line fluoroquinolone antibacterial agent for UTIs has been found to be significantly effective?

Cipro Explanation: Ciprofloxacin (Cipro) is a fluoroquinolone used to treat UTIs. Co-trimoxazole (Bactrim, Septra) is a trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole combination medication. Nitrofurantoin (Macrodantin, Furadantin) is an anti-infective urinary tract medication.

When assessing a client with cirrhosis of the liver, which of the following stool characteristics is the client likely to report?

Clay-colored or whitish Explanation: Many clients report passing clay-colored or whitish stools as a result of no bile in the gastrointestinal tract. The other stool colors would not be absolute indicators of cirrhosis of the liver but may indicate other GI tract disorders.

A nurse is caring for a client with cholelithiasis. Which sign indicates obstructive jaundice?

Clay-colored stools Explanation: Obstructive jaundice develops when a stone obstructs the flow of bile in the common bile duct. When the flow of bile to the duodenum is blocked, the lack of bile pigments results in a clay-colored stool. In obstructive jaundice, urine tends to be dark amber (not straw-colored) as a result of soluble bilirubin in the urine. Hematocrit levels aren't affected by obstructive jaundice. Because obstructive jaundice prevents bilirubin from reaching the intestine (where it's converted to urobilinogen), the urine contains no urobilinogen.

A client is admitted to the healthcare facility suspected of having acute pancreatitis and undergoes laboratory testing. Which of the following would the nurse expect to find?

Elevated urine amylase levels Explanation: Elevated serum and urine amylase, lipase, and liver enzyme levels accompany significant pancreatitis. If the common bile duct is obstructed, the bilirubin level is above normal. Blood glucose levels and white blood cell counts can be elevated. Serum electrolyte levels (calcium, potassium, and magnesium) are low. CHAPTER 50

What test should the nurse prepare the client for that will locate stones that have collected in the common bile duct?

Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) Explanation: ERCP locates stones that have collected in the common bile duct. A colonoscopy will not locate gallstones but only allows visualization of the large intestine. Abdominal x-ray is not a reliable locator of gallstones. A cholecystectomy is the surgical removal of the gallbladder.

Which of the following would be most appropriate for a client who is experiencing biliary colic?

Ensure that the client rests. Explanation: During an attack of biliary colic, the nurse should ensure that the client rests. The nurse should not give the client a full meal; instead, the nurse should monitor the client's ability to digest a bland liquid diet. The nurse should also administer antispasmodics or analgesics as prescribed to relieve pain and discomfort.

A client is being prepared to undergo laboratory and diagnostic testing to confirm the diagnosis of cirrhosis. Which test would the nurse expect to be used to provide definitive confirmation of the disorder?

Liver biopsy Explanation: A liver biopsy which reveals hepatic fibrosis is the most conclusive diagnostic procedure. Coagulation studies provide information about liver function but do not definitively confirm the diagnosis of cirrhosis. Magnetic resonance imaging and radioisotope liver scan help to support the diagnosis but do not confirm it. These tests provide information about the liver's enlarged size, nodular configuration, and distorted blood flow.

The nurse identifies a potential collaborative problem of electrolyte imbalance for a client with severe acute pancreatitis. Which assessment finding alerts the nurse to an electrolyte imbalance associated with acute pancreatitis?

Muscle twitching and finger numbness Explanation: Muscle twitching and finger numbness indicate hypocalcemia, a potential complication of acute pancreatitis. Calcium may be prescribed to prevent or treat tetany, which may result from calcium losses into retroperitoneal (peripancreatic) exudate. The other data indicate other complications of acute pancreatitis but are not indicators of electrolyte imbalance.

A client has undergone a liver biopsy. After the procedure, the nurse should place the client in which position?

On the right side Explanation: Immediately after the biopsy, assist the client to turn on to the right side; place a pillow under the costal margin, and caution the client to remain in this position. In this position, the liver capsule at the site of penetration is compressed against the chest wall, and the escape of blood or bile through the perforation made for the biopsy is impeded. Positioning the client on the left side is not indicated. Positioning the client in the Trendelenburg position may be indicated if the client is in shock, but it is not the position designed for the client after liver biopsy. The high Fowler position is not indicated for the client after liver biopsy.

What initial measure can the nurse implement to reduce risk of injury for a client with liver disease?

Pad the side rails on the bed Explanation: Padding the side rails can reduce injury if the client becomes agitated or restless. Restraints would not be an initial measure to implement. Four side rails are considered a restraint, and this would not be an initial measure to implement. Family and friends generally assist in calming a client.

Which is the most common cause of esophageal varices?

Portal hypertension Explanation: Esophageal varices are almost always caused by portal hypertension, which results from obstruction of the portal circulation within the damaged liver. Jaundice occurs when the bilirubin concentration in the blood is abnormally elevated. Ascites results from circulatory changes within the diseased liver. Asterixis is an involuntary flapping movement of the hands associated with metabolic liver dysfunction.

The nurse is caring for a client with cirrhosis. Which assessment findings indicate that the client has deficient vitamin K absorption caused by this hepatic disease?

Purpura and petechiae Explanation: A hepatic disorder, such as cirrhosis, may disrupt the liver's normal use of vitamin K to produce prothrombin (a clotting factor). Consequently, the nurse should monitor the client for signs of bleeding, including purpura and petechiae. Dyspnea and fatigue suggest anemia. Ascites and orthopnea are unrelated to vitamin K absorption. Gynecomastia and testicular atrophy result from decreased estrogen metabolism by the diseased liver.

Which liver function study is used to show the size of the liver and hepatic blood flow and obstruction?

Radioisotope liver scan Explanation: A radioisotope liver scan assesses liver size and hepatic blood flow and obstruction. Magnetic resonance imaging is used to identify normal structures and abnormalities of the liver and biliary tree. Angiography is used to visualize hepatic circulation and detect the presence and nature of hepatic masses. Electroencephalography is used to detect abnormalities that occur with hepatic coma.

A client realizes that regular use of laxatives has greatly improved bowel patterns. However, the nurse cautions this client against the prolonged use of laxatives for which reason?

The client's natural bowel function may become sluggish. Explanation: It is essential for the nurse to caution the client against the prolonged use of laxatives because it decreases muscle tone in the large intestine. Prolonged use of laxatives may cause the client's natural bowel function to become sluggish. Laxatives do not increase the risk of developing inflammatory bowel disease, arthritis, or arthralgia, nor do they cause a loss in appetite.

The nurse is caring for a patient with acute pancreatitis. The patient has an order for an anticholinergic medication. The nurse explains that the patient will be receiving that medication for what reason?

To reduce gastric and pancreatic secretions Explanation: Anticholinergic medications reduce gastric and pancreatic secretion.

Which of the following diagnostic studies definitely confirms the presence of ascites?

Ultrasound of liver and abdomen Explanation: Ultrasonography of the liver and abdomen will definitively confirm the presence of ascites. An abdominal x-ray, colonoscopy, and computed tomography of the abdomen would not confirm the presence of ascites.

The nurse is assessing a client for constipation. Which review should the nurse conduct first to identify the cause of constipation?

Usual pattern of elimination Explanation: Constipation has many possible causes and assessing the client's usual pattern of elimination is the first step in identifying the cause. The nurse should obtain a description of the bowel elimination pattern, asking about the frequency, overall appearance and consistency of stool, blood in the stool, pain, and effort necessary to pass stool. It is also essential for the nurse to review the client's current medications, diet, and activity levels.

Which medication is used to decrease portal pressure, halting bleeding of esophageal varices?

Vasopressin Explanation: Vasopressin may be the initial therapy for esophageal varices because it produces constriction of the splanchnic arterial bed and decreases portal hypertension. Nitroglycerin has been used to prevent the side effects of vasopressin. Spironolactone and cimetidine do not decrease portal hypertension.

Diet therapy for clients diagnosed with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) includes:

high-fiber diet. Explanation: A high-fiber diet is prescribed to help control diarrhea and constipation. Foods that are possible irritants, such as caffeine, spicy foods, lactose, beans, fried foods, corn, wheat, and alcohol, should be avoided. Fluids should not be taken with meals because they cause abdominal distention.

A resident at a long-term care facility lost the ability to swallow following a stroke 4 years ago. The client receives nutrition via a PEG tube, has adapted well to the tube feedings, and remains physically and socially active. Occasionally, the client develops constipation that requires administration of a laxative to restore regular bowel function. What is the most likely cause of this client's constipation?

lack of free water intake Explanation: A client who cannot swallow food cannot drink enough water to meet daily needs. Inadequate fluid intake is a common cause of constipation.

A typical sign/symptom of appendicitis is:

nausea. Explanation: Nausea, with or without vomiting, is typically associated with appendicitis. Pain is generally felt in the right lower quadrant. Rebound tenderness, or pain felt upon the release of pressure applied to the abdomen, may be present with appendicitis. Low-grade fever is associated with appendicitis.

A nurse in the surgical ICU just received a client from recovery following a Whipple procedure. Which nursing diagnoses should the nurse consider when caring for this acutely ill client? Select all that apply.

potential for infection acute pain and discomfort alterations in respiratory function Explanation: Monitor for potential for infection related to invasive procedure and poor physical condition. Monitor for pain related to extensive surgical incision. Monitor for alterations in respiratory function related to extensive surgical incisions, immobility, and prolonged anesthesia. Client is at risk for fluid volume deficit related to hemorrhage and loss of fluids.

A client with cholelithiasis has a gallstone lodged in the common bile duct. When assessing this client, the nurse expects to note:

yellow sclerae. Explanation: Yellow sclerae are an early sign of jaundice, which occurs when the common bile duct is obstructed. Urine normally is light amber. Circumoral pallor and black, tarry stools don't occur in common bile duct obstruction; they are signs of hypoxia and GI bleeding, respectively.

A patient with a UTI is having burning and pain when urinating. What urinary analgesic is prescribed for relief of these symptoms?

Pyridium Explanation: The urinary analgesic agent phenazopyridine (Pyridium) is used specifically for relief of burning, pain, and other symptoms associated with UTI.

A nurse cares for an older adult client and teaches the client about age-related changes of the biliary tract. What statements will the nurse include when discussing age-related changes that occur in the pancreas of the older adult? Select all that apply.

"The pancreas develops fibrous material with age." "The pancreas develops fatty deposits with age." "The pancreas decreases secretion of enzymes with age." "The pancreas decreases bicarbonate secretion with age." Explanation: Age-related changes to the pancreas include: the development of fibrous material and fatty deposits, as well as decreased secretion of both pancreatic enzymes and bicarbonate. The pancreas remains the same size as the client ages and atrophy is not a normal age-related finding.

A student accepted into a nursing program must begin receiving the hepatitis B series of injections. The student asks when the next two injections should be administered. What is the best response by the instructor?

"You must have the second one in 1 month and the third in 6 months." Explanation: Both forms of the hepatitis B vaccine are administered intramuscularly in three doses; the second and third doses are given 1 and 6 months, respectively, after the first dose.

A client is diagnosed with colon cancer, located in the lower third of the rectum. What does the nurse understand will be the surgical treatment option for this client?

Abdominoperineal resection Explanation: A cancerous mass in the lower third of the rectum will result in an abdominoperineal resection with a wide excision of the rectum and the creation of a sigmoid colostomy. An encapsulated colorectal tumor may be removed without taking away surrounding healthy tissue. This type of tumor, however, may call for partial or complete surgical removal of the colon (colectomy). Occasionally, the tumor causes a partial or complete bowel obstruction. If the tumor is in the colon and upper third of the rectum, a segmental resectionis performed. In this procedure, the surgeon removes the cancerous portion of the colon and rejoins the remaining portions of the GI tract to restore normal intestinal continuity.

A client diagnosed with acute pancreatitis is being transferred to another facility. The nurse caring for the client completes the transfer summary, which includes information about the client's drinking history and other assessment findings. Which assessment findings confirm the diagnosis of acute pancreatitis?

Pain with abdominal distention and hypotension Explanation: Assessment findings associated with pancreatitis include pain with abdominal distention and hypotension. Blood in stools and recent hypertension aren't associated with pancreatitis; fatty diarrhea and hypotension are usually present. Presence of easy bruising and bradycardia aren't found with pancreatitis; the client typically experiences tachycardia, not bradycardia. Adventitious breath sounds and hypertension aren't associated with pancreatitis.

Ammonia, the major etiologic factor in the development of encephalopathy, inhibits neurotransmission. Increased levels of ammonia are damaging to the body. The largest source of ammonia is from:

The digestion of dietary and blood proteins. Explanation: Circumstances that increase serum ammonia levels tend to aggravate or precipitate hepatic encephalopathy. The largest source of ammonia is the enzymatic and bacterial digestion of dietary and blood proteins in the GI tract. Ammonia from these sources increases as a result of GI bleeding (i.e., bleeding esophageal varices, chronic GI bleeding), a high-protein diet, bacterial infection, or uremia.

After teaching a group of students about malignant bladder tumors, the instructor determines that the teaching was successful when the students identify which of the following clients as having the greatest risk for developing a malignant bladder tumor?

Client with a history of cigarette smoking Explanation: Environmental and occupational health hazards are associated with bladder tumors. Therefore, the client who smokes is at the greatest risk for a malignant tumor. The client with a history of untreated gonorrhea is most vulnerable to urethral strictures, while the client with a history of bladder inflammation may be vulnerable to interstitial cystitis. Finally, the client with sexually transmitted disease may be vulnerable to acquiring urethritis.

Which is an age-related change of the hepatobiliary system?

Decreased blood flow Explanation: Age-related changes of the hepatobiliary system include decreased blood flow, decreased drug clearance capability, increased presence of gall stones, and a steady decrease in the size and weight of the liver.

When caring for a client with hepatitis B, the nurse should monitor closely for the development of which finding associated with a decrease in hepatic function?

Irritability and drowsiness Explanation: Although all the options are associated with hepatitis B, the onset of irritability and drowsiness suggests a decrease in hepatic function. To detect signs and symptoms of disease progression, the nurse should observe for disorientation, behavioral changes, and a decreasing level of consciousness and should monitor the results of liver function tests, including the blood ammonia level. If hepatic function is decreased, the nurse should take safety precautions.

Examination of a client's bladder stones reveal that they are primarily composed of uric acid. The nurse would expect to provide the client with which type of diet?

Low purine Explanation: A low-purine diet is used for uric acid stones; the benefits, however, are unknown. Clients with a history of calcium oxalate stone formation need a diet that is adequate in calcium and low in oxalate. Only clients who have type II absorptive hypercalciuria—approximately half of the clients—need to limit calcium intake. Usually, clients are told to increase their fluid intake significantly, consume a moderate protein intake, and limit sodium. Avoiding excessive protein intake is associated with lower urinary oxalate and lower uric acid levels. Reducing sodium intake can lower urinary calcium levels.

A client with carcinoma of the head of the pancreas is scheduled for surgery. Which of the following should a nurse administer to the client before surgery?

Vitamin K Explanation: Clients with carcinoma of the head of the pancreas typically require vitamin K before surgery to correct a prothrombin deficiency. Potassium would be given only if the client's serum potassium levels were low. Oral bile acids are not prescribed for a client with carcinoma of the head of the pancreas; they are given to dissolve gallstones. Vitamin B has no implications in the surgery.

The nurse caring for an older adult client diagnosed with diarrhea is administering and monitoring the client's medications. Because one of the client's medications is digitalis (digoxin), the nurse monitors the client closely for:

hypokalemia. Explanation: The older client taking digoxin must be aware of how quickly dehydration and hypokalemia can occur with diarrhea. The nurse teaches the client to recognize the symptoms of hypokalemia because low levels of potassium intensify the action of digitalis, leading to digitalis toxicity.