Exam 4 COTAC II Ameritech, Exam 4

Decreased ablumin indicates

hepatic disease

How should a client be positioned to recieve an EGD

left side laying with HOB elevated

Elevated alpha-fetoprotein indicates

liver cancer, cirrhosis, hepatitis

elevated alkaline phosphatase (ALP) indicates

liver damage

elevated ammonia indicates

liver disease

This anesthesia and medications are used for colonoscopies

midazolam (moderate sedation), fentanyl opiate, propofol

What medications are given in a EGD procedure?

moderate sedation through IV Atropine to decrease secretions

Elevated amylase and lipase indicate

pancreatitis

What parts of the body does a colonoscopy view?

rectum, sigmoid, descending, transvers and ascending colon

What position should a client be in recieving an ERCP?

semiprone and repositioning throughout the procedure

This test is done by a short scope entering the anus and visualizing the anus, rectum, and sigmoid colon. It is done to determine colon cncer, investigate GI bleed, diagnose or monitor inflammatory bowel disease

sigmoidoscopy

This test uses a flexible fiberoptic scope which enters the anus and visualizes the rectum, sigmoid, descending, transverse, and ascending colon.

Colonoscopy

This test is done by swallowing a capsule with a glass of water for a video enteroscopy to visualize the entire small bowel over an 8- hr period.

MsA- Small bowel capsule endoscopy

What is the difference between peripheral parenteral nutrition (PPN) and TPN?

PPN is less hypertonic and is intended for short term use. It is given in a larger peripheral vein

A nurse is reviewing the clinical manifestations of hyperthyroidism with the client. Which of the following findings should the nurse include? Select all that apply. A. Anorexia B. Heat intolerance C. Constipation D. Palpitations E. Weight loss F. Bradycardia

B, D, E

What are compications that can occur with a paracentesis procedure?

-Hypovolemia: Albumin levels drop as peritoneal vluid is removed. Make sure drainage is slow. monitor for tachycardia, hypotension, pallor, diaphoresis and dizziness -Bladder perforation- s/s- hematuria, low urine output, suprapubic pain or distention, symptoms of cystitis and fever. -Peritonitis: s/s abdominal pain, fever, n/v, absent or diminished bowel sounds

Name some preprocedure steps a nurse will take before general endoscopy procedures

-Make sure the client understands the procedure -informed consent -baseline vitals -baseline labs -medical hisotry is evaluated -take in to account their age, current health, cognitive status, support systme, recent food and fluid intake, medications, etc

Name complications with TPN (4)

-Metabolic complications (hyperglycemia, hypoglycemia, vit deficieny; monito labs and hyperglycemia s/s) -Air embolism (watch for a pressure change during tubing exchanges; monitor for sudden onset of dyspnea, chest pain, anxiety, hypoxia- this is air embolism- turn the client on his left side in trendelburg and notify provider) -Infection (Look for erythemia, tenderness, exudate-change IV tubing and dressing as ordered) -Fluid imbalance (TPN is hyperosmotic and poses a risk for fluid volume excess, listen for crackles, monitor I and O)

List some techniques of ongoing care for a client recieving a feeding?

-assess vitals every 4-8 hour -check capillary glucose every 4-6 hours -Keep dextrose 10% in water at the bedside in case the solution is unexpectedly ruined or the next bag is not available. This minimizes the tisk of hypoglycemia -Clients recieving TPN frequently need supplemental regular insulin until the pancreas can increase its endogenous production of insulin. -Dont increase the rate of a feeding, even if you are late giving it- this can cause hyperglycemia

What should a client do in preparation to an occult blood test?

-medication restriction 7 days before tesing starts; no NSAIDs, anticoagulants -Dietary restrictions as testing goes: low vit C, red meats, chicken, fish

Postprocedure steps a nurse will take after a general endoscopy procedure

-monitor vitals -assess for complications -Some surgeried may require food restrictions

Complications with enteral feedings

-overfeeding (check residual every 4 hours) -Diarrhea ( slow rate of feeding and notify provider) -Aspiration pneumonia (This is lifethreatening, stop the feeding, turn client to side and stop the feeding) -Refeeding syndrome (A client is in a starvation state and has started catabolizing protein and fat for energy- watch for weakness, SOB, serum electrolytes)

Complications with endoscopic tests

-oversedation -hemorrhage (watch bleeding, cool clammy skin, hypotension, tachycardia, dizziness, and tachypnea -Aspiration (watch for dyspnea, tachypnea, adventitious breath sounds, tachycardia, fever) -Perforation of the GI tract (watch for chest or abdominal pain, fever, nausea, vomiting, abdominal distention)

What can be included in a GI study? (these are tests used to diagnose what?)

-radiographic imaging of the esophagus, somach, and entire intestinal tract *These images are done by instilling radiopague liquid in the mouth or into the rectum -This tests are performed to help diagnose gastric ulcers, peristaltic disorders, tumors, varices, and intestinal enlargements or constrictions.

When can a pt eat after swallowing the MsA capsule?

4 hours after

Standard IV bolus therapy is typically no more than ________ calories a day

700

33. A patient with Cushing syndrome has been hospitalized after a fall. The dietician consulted works with the patient to improve the patients nutritional intake. What foods should a patient with Cushing syndrome eat to optimize health? Select all that apply. A) Foods high in vitamin D B) Foods high in calories C) Foods high in protein D) Foods high in calcium E) Foods high in sodium

: A, C, D Feedback: Foods high in vitamin D, protein, and calcium are recommended to minimize muscle wasting and osteoporosis. Referral to a dietitian may assist the patient in selecting appropriate foods that are also low in sodium and calories.

8. A nurse caring for a patient with diabetes insipidus is reviewing laboratory results. What is an expected urinalysis finding? A) Glucose in the urine B) Albumin in the urine C) Highly dilute urine D) Leukocytes in the urine

: C Feedback: Patients with diabetes insipidus produce an enormous daily output of very dilute, water-like urine with a specific gravity of 1.001 to 1.005. The urine contains no abnormal substances such as glucose or albumin. Leukocytes in the urine are not related to the condition of diabetes insipidus, but would indicate a urinary tract infection, if present in the urine.

6. The nurse is teaching a patient that the body needs iodine for the thyroid to function. What food would be the best source of iodine for the body? A) Eggs B) Shellfish C) Table salt D) Red meat

: C Feedback: The major use of iodine in the body is by the thyroid. Iodized table salt is the best source of iodine.

7. A patient is prescribed corticosteroid therapy. What would be priority information for the nurse to give the patient who is prescribed long-term corticosteroid therapy? A) The patients diet should be low protein with ample fat. B) The patient may experience short-term changes in cognition. C) The patient is at an increased risk for developing infection. D) The patient is at a decreased risk for development of thrombophlebitis and thromboembolism.

: C Feedback: The patient is at increased risk of infection and masking of signs of infection. The cardiovascular effects of corticosteroid therapy may result in development of thrombophlebitis or thromboembolism. Diet should be high in protein with limited fat. Changes in appearance usually disappear when therapy is no longer necessary. Cognitive changes are not common adverse effects.

A nurse at the beginning of the shift is assessing a client who has Cushing's disease. Which of the following is a priority assessment? A. Weight gain B. Fatigue C. Fragile skin D. Joint pain

A

A nurse in a provider's office is assessing a client who has hypothyroidism and recently began treatment with thyroid hormone replacement therapy. Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the client might need a decrease in the dosage of the medication? A. Hand tremors B. Bradycardia C. Pallor D. Slow speech

A

A nurse is caring for a client who has a primary adrenal insufficiency and is preparing to undergo an ACTH stimulation test. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect after an IV injection of cosyntropin? A. No change in plasma cortisol B. Elevated fasting blood glucose C. Decrease in sodium D. Increase in urinary output

A

A nurse is reviewing the laboratory findings of the client has suspected hyperthyroidism. An elevation of which of the following supports this diagnosis? A. Triiodothyroxine B. Plasma-free metanephrine C. Urine Cortisol D. Urine osmolality

A

An abrupt rate change in administering feedings through a pump can cause...

A significantly altered blood glucose level. NEVER ABRUPTLY STOP TPN.

A nurse in an intensive care unit is admitting a client who has myxedema coma. Which of the following should the nurse anticipate in caring for this client? A. Observe cardiac monitor for dysrhythmias B. Observe for evidence of urinary tract infection C. Initiate IV fluids using 0.9% sodium chloride D. Administer a levothyroxine IV bolus E. Provide warmth using a heating pad

A, B, C, D

A nurse is reviewing serum laboratory results for a client who has Addison's disease. Which of the following findings are typical for a client who has his condition? A. Sodium 130 mEq/L B. Potassium 6.1 mEq/L C. Calcium 11.6 mg/dL D. BUN 28 mg/dL E. Glucose 65 mg/dL

A, B, C, E

A nurse is reviewing the laboratory findings of a client who has Cushing's disease. Which of the following findings are expected for this client? A. Sodium 150 mEq/L B. Potassium 3.3 mEq/L C. Calcium 8.0 mg/dL D. Lymphocyte count 35% E. Fasting glucose 145 mg/dL

A, B, C, E

A nurse in a providers office is planning care for a client who has a new diagnosis of Graves' disease and a new prescription for methimazole (Tapazole). Which of the following should the nurse include in the plan of care? A. Monitor CBC B. Monitor triiodothyronine C. Inform the client to increase consumption of shellfish D. Advise the client to take the medication at the same time every day E. Inform the client that an adverse effects of this medication is iodine toxicity

A, B, D

The nurse is planning care for a client who has Cushing's disease. In planning care, the nurse should recognize that the clients with Cushing's disease are increased risk for which of the following? A. Infection B. Gastric ulcer C. Renal calculi D. Bone fractures E. Dysphagia

A, B, D

The nurse is preparing to receive a client from the PACU who is post operative following a thyroidectomy. The nurse should ensure that which of the following equipment is available? Select all that apply. A. Suction equipment B. Humidified O2 C. Flashlight D. Tracheostomy tray E. Chest tube tray

A, B, D

A nurse is caring for a client who has SIADH. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect? A. Decreased serum sodium B. Urine specific gravity of 1.001 C. Serum osmolarity 230 MOSM/liter D. Polyuria E. increased thirst

A, C

The nurse is reviewing the health record of a client who has syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which of the following laboratory findings should the nurse anticipate? A. Low sodium B. High serum potassium C. Increased urine osmolality D. High urine sodium E. Increased urine specific gravity

A, C, D, E

39. A 55-year-old female patient with hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC) is undergoing radiofrequency ablation. The nurse should recognize what goal of this treatment? A) Destruction of the patient's liver tumor B) Restoration of portal vein patency C) Destruction of a liver abscess D) Reversal of metastasis

Ans: A Feedback: Using radiofrequency ablation, a tumor up to 5 cm in size can be destroyed in one treatment session. This technique does not address circulatory function or abscess formation. It does not allow for the reversal of metastasis.

A nurse is admitting a client who has acute adrenal insufficiency to the intensive care unit. Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse anticipate? A. IV therapy with 0.45% sodium chloride B. Regular insulin C. Hydrocortisone sodium succinate (Solu-Cortef) D. Sodium polyestyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate) E. Furosemide (Lasix)

B, C, D, E

20. During a health education session, a participant has asked about the hepatitis E virus. What prevention measure should the nurse recommend for preventing infection with this virus? A) Following proper hand-washing techniques B) Avoiding chemicals that are toxic to the liver C) Wearing a condom during sexual contact D) Limiting alcohol intake

Ans: A Feedback: Avoiding contact with the hepatitis E virus through good hygiene, including hand-washing, is the major method of prevention. Hepatitis E is transmitted by the fecal-oral route, principally through contaminated water in areas with poor sanitation. Consequently, none of the other listed preventative measures is indicated.

5. A nurse is caring for a patient with cancer of the liver whose condition has required the insertion of a percutaneous biliary drainage system. The nurse's most recent assessment reveals the presence of dark green fluid in the collection container. What is the nurse's best response to this assessment finding? A) Document the presence of normal bile output. B) Irrigate the drainage system with normal saline as ordered. C) Aspirate a sample of the drainage for culture. D) Promptly report this assessment finding to the primary care provider.

Ans: A Feedback: Bile is usually a dark green or brownish-yellow color, so this would constitute an expected assessment finding, with no other action necessary.

29. A group of nurses have attended an inservice on the prevention of occupationally acquired diseases that affect healthcare providers. What action has the greatest potential to reduce a nurse's risk of acquiring hepatitis C in the workplace? A) Disposing of sharps appropriately and not recapping needles B) Performing meticulous hand hygiene at the appropriate moments in care C) Adhering to the recommended schedule of immunizations D) Wearing an N95 mask when providing care for patients on airborne precautions

Ans: A Feedback: HCV is bloodborne. Consequently, prevention of needlestick injuries is paramount. Hand hygiene, immunizations and appropriate use of masks are important aspects of overall infection control, but these actions do not directly mitigate the risk of HCV.

15. A patient with a liver mass is undergoing a percutaneous liver biopsy. What action should the nurse perform when assisting with this procedure? A) Position the patient on the right side with a pillow under the costal margin after the procedure. B) Administer 1 unit of albumin 90 minutes before the procedure as ordered. C) Administer at least 1 unit of packed red blood cells as ordered the day before the scheduled procedure. D) Confirm that the patient's electrolyte levels have been assessed prior to the procedure.

Ans: A Feedback: Immediately after a percutaneous liver biopsy, assist the patient to turn onto the right side and place a pillow under the costal margin. Prior administration of albumin or PRBCs is unnecessary. Coagulation tests should be performed, but electrolyte analysis is not necessary.

38. A nurse on a solid organ transplant unit is planning the care of a patient who will soon be admitted upon immediate recovery following liver transplantation. What aspect of nursing care is the nurse's priority? A) Implementation of infection-control measures B) Close monitoring of skin integrity and color C) Frequent assessment of the patient's psychosocial status D) Administration of antiretroviral medications

Ans: A Feedback: Infection control is paramount following liver transplantation. This is a priority over skin integrity and psychosocial status, even though these are valid areas of assessment and intervention. Antiretrovirals are not indicated.

14. A patient is being discharged after a liver transplant and the nurse is performing discharge education. When planning this patient's continuing care, the nurse should prioritize which of the following risk diagnoses? A) Risk for Infection Related to Immunosuppressant Use B) Risk for Injury Related to Decreased Hemostasis C) Risk for Unstable Blood Glucose Related to Impaired Gluconeogenesis D) Risk for Contamination Related to Accumulation of Ammonia

Ans: A Feedback: Infection is the leading cause of death after liver transplantation. Pulmonary and fungal infections are common; susceptibility to infection is increased by the immunosuppressive therapy that is needed to prevent rejection. This risk exceeds the threats of injury and unstable blood glucose. The diagnosis of Risk for Contamination relates to environmental toxin exposure.

17. A patient has developed hepatic encephalopathy secondary to cirrhosis and is receiving care on the medical unit. The patient's current medication regimen includes lactulose (Cephulac) four times daily. What desired outcome should the nurse relate to this pharmacologic intervention? A) Two to 3 soft bowel movements daily B) Significant increase in appetite and food intake C) Absence of nausea and vomiting D) Absence of blood or mucus in stool

Ans: A Feedback: Lactulose (Cephulac) is administered to reduce serum ammonia levels. Two or three soft stools per day are desirable; this indicates that lactulose is performing as intended. Lactulose does not address the patient's appetite, symptoms of nausea and vomiting, or the development of blood and mucus in the stool.

7. A triage nurse in the emergency department is assessing a patient who presented with complaints of general malaise. Assessment reveals the presence of jaundice and increased abdominal girth. What assessment question best addresses the possible etiology of this patient's presentation? A) "How many alcoholic drinks do you typically consume in a week?" B) "To the best of your knowledge, are your immunizations up to date?" C) "Have you ever worked in an occupation where you might have been exposed to toxins?" D) "Has anyone in your family ever experienced symptoms similar to yours?"

Ans: A Feedback: Signs or symptoms of hepatic dysfunction indicate a need to assess for alcohol use. Immunization status, occupational risks, and family history are also relevant considerations, but alcohol use is a more common etiologic factor in liver disease.

9. A nurse is caring for a patient with hepatic encephalopathy. While making the initial shift assessment, the nurse notes that the patient has a flapping tremor of the hands. The nurse should document the presence of what sign of liver disease? A) Asterixis B) Constructional apraxia C) Fetor hepaticus D) Palmar erythema

Ans: A Feedback: The nurse will document that a patient exhibiting a flapping tremor of the hands is demonstrating asterixis. While constructional apraxia is a motor disturbance, it is the inability to reproduce a simple figure. Fetor hepaticus is a sweet, slightly fecal odor to the breath and not associated with a motor disturbance. Skin changes associated with liver dysfunction may include palmar erythema, which is a reddening of the palms, but is not a flapping tremor.

A nurse is collecting an admission history from a female client who has hypothyroidism. Which of the following findings are expected with this condition? A. Diarrhea B. Menorrhagia C. Dry skin D. Increased libido E. Hoarseness

B, C, E

21. A patient with suspected adrenal insufficiency has been ordered an adrenocorticotropic hormone - 987 (ACTH) stimulation test. Administration of ACTH caused a marked increase in cortisol levels. How should the nurse interpret this finding? A) The patients pituitary function is compromised. B) The patients adrenal insufficiency is not treatable. C) The patient has insufficient hypothalamic function. D) The patient would benefit from surgery.

Ans: A Feedback: An adrenal response to the administration of a stimulating hormone suggests inadequate production of the stimulating hormone. In this case, ACTH is produced by the pituitary and, consequently, pituitary hypofunction is suggested. Hypothalamic function is not relevant to the physiology of this problem. Treatment exists, although surgery is not likely indicated.

4. A nurse educator is teaching a group of recent nursing graduates about their occupational risks for contracting hepatitis B. What preventative measures should the educator promote? Select all that apply. A) Immunization B) Use of standard precautions C) Consumption of a vitamin-rich diet D) Annual vitamin K injections E) Annual vitamin B12 injections

Ans: A, B Feedback: People who are at high risk, including nurses and other health care personnel exposed to blood or blood products, should receive active immunization. The consistent use of standard precautions is also highly beneficial. Vitamin supplementation is unrelated to an individual's risk of HBV.

21. A patient's physician has ordered a "liver panel" in response to the patient's development of jaundice. When reviewing the results of this laboratory testing, the nurse should expect to review what blood tests? Select all that apply. A) Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) B) C-reactive protein (CRP) C) Gamma-glutamyl transferase (GGT) D) Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) E) B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP)

Ans: A, C, D Feedback: Liver function testing includes GGT, ALT, and AST. CRP addresses the presence of generalized inflammation and BNP is relevant to heart failure; neither is included in a liver panel.

33. A patient with end-stage liver disease has developed hypervolemia. What nursing interventions would be most appropriate when addressing the patient's fluid volume excess? Select all that apply. A) Administering diuretics B) Administering calcium channel blockers C) Implementing fluid restrictions D) Implementing a 1500 kcal/day restriction E) Enhancing patient positioning

Ans: A, C, E Feedback: Administering diuretics, implementing fluid restrictions, and enhancing patient positioning can optimize the management of fluid volume excess. Calcium channel blockers and calorie restriction do not address this problem.

26. A patient with a diagnosis of esophageal varices has undergone endoscopy to gauge the progression of this complication of liver disease. Following the completion of this diagnostic test, what nursing intervention should the nurse perform? A) Keep patient NPO until the results of test are known. B) Keep patient NPO until the patient's gag reflex returns. C) Administer analgesia until post-procedure tenderness is relieved. D) Give the patient a cold beverage to promote swallowing ability.

Ans: B Feedback: After the examination, fluids are not given until the patient's gag reflex returns. Lozenges and gargles may be used to relieve throat discomfort if the patient's physical condition and mental status permit. The result of the test is known immediately. Food and fluids are contraindicated until the gag reflex returns.

11. A participant in a health fair has asked the nurse about the role of drugs in liver disease. What health promotion teaching has the most potential to prevent drug-induced hepatitis? A) Finish all prescribed courses of antibiotics, regardless of symptom resolution. B) Adhere to dosing recommendations of OTC analgesics. C) Ensure that expired medications are disposed of safely. D) Ensure that pharmacists regularly review drug regimens for potential interactions.

Ans: B Feedback: Although any medication can affect liver function, use of acetaminophen (found in many over-the-counter medications used to treat fever and pain) has been identified as the leading cause of acute liver failure. Finishing prescribed antibiotics and avoiding expired medications are unrelated to this disease. Drug interactions are rarely the cause of drug-induced hepatitis.

24. A nurse is caring for a patient who has been admitted for the treatment of advanced cirrhosis. What assessment should the nurse prioritize in this patient's plan of care? A) Measurement of abdominal girth and body weight B) Assessment for variceal bleeding C) Assessment for signs and symptoms of jaundice D) Monitoring of results of liver function testing

Ans: B Feedback: Esophageal varices are a major cause of mortality in patients with uncompensated cirrhosis. Consequently, this should be a focus of the nurse's assessments and should be prioritized over the other listed assessments, even though each should be performed.

19. A nurse is caring for a patient with a blocked bile duct from a tumor. What manifestation of obstructive jaundice should the nurse anticipate? A) Watery, blood-streaked diarrhea B) Orange and foamy urine C) Increased abdominal girth D) Decreased cognition

Ans: B Feedback: If the bile duct is obstructed, the bile will be reabsorbed into the blood and carried throughout the entire body. It is excreted in the urine, which becomes deep orange and foamy. Bloody diarrhea, ascites, and cognitive changes are not associated with obstructive jaundice.

32. A nurse is caring for a patient with cirrhosis secondary to heavy alcohol use. The nurse's most recent assessment reveals subtle changes in the patient's cognition and behavior. What is the nurse's most appropriate response? A) Ensure that the patient's sodium intake does not exceed recommended levels. B) Report this finding to the primary care provider due to the possibility of hepatic encephalopathy. C) Inform the primary care provider that the patient should be assessed for alcoholic hepatitis. D) Implement interventions aimed at ensuring a calm and therapeutic care environment.

Ans: B Feedback: Monitoring is an essential nursing function to identify early deterioration in mental status. The nurse monitors the patient's mental status closely and reports changes so that treatment of encephalopathy can be initiated promptly. This change in status is likely unrelated to sodium intake and would not signal the onset of hepatitis. A supportive care environment is beneficial, but does not address the patient's physiologic deterioration.

22. A patient with liver disease has developed jaundice; the nurse is collaborating with the patient to develop a nutritional plan. The nurse should prioritize which of the following in the patient's plan? A) Increased potassium intake B) Fluid restriction to 2 L per day C) Reduction in sodium intake D) High-protein, low-fat diet

Ans: C Feedback: Patients with ascites require a sharp reduction in sodium intake. Potassium intake should not be correspondingly increased. There is no need for fluid restriction or increased protein intake.

30. A patient has been admitted to the critical care unit with a diagnosis of toxic hepatitis. When planning the patient's care, the nurse should be aware of what potential clinical course of this health problem? Place the following events in the correct sequence. 1. Fever rises. 2. Hematemesis. 3. Clotting abnormalities. 4. Vascular collapse. 5. Coma. A) 1, 2, 5, 4, 3 B) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 C) 2, 3, 1, 4, 5 D) 3, 1, 2, 5, 4

Ans: B Feedback: Recovery from acute toxic hepatitis is rapid if the hepatotoxin is identified early and removed or if exposure to the agent has been limited. Recovery is unlikely if there is a prolonged period between exposure and onset of symptoms. There are no effective antidotes. The fever rises; the patient becomes toxic and prostrated. Vomiting may be persistent, with the emesis containing blood. Clotting abnormalities may be severe, and hemorrhages may appear under the skin. The severe GI symptoms may lead to vascular collapse. Delirium, coma, and seizures develop, and within a few days the patient may die of fulminant hepatic failure unless he or she receives a liver transplant.

13. A patient has been diagnosed with advanced stage breast cancer and will soon begin aggressive treatment. What assessment findings would most strongly suggest that the patient may have developed liver metastases? A) Persistent fever and cognitive changes B) Abdominal pain and hepatomegaly C) Peripheral edema unresponsive to diuresis D) Spontaneous bleeding and jaundice

Ans: B Feedback: The early manifestations of malignancy of the liver include pain—a continuous dull ache in the right upper quadrant, epigastrium, or back. Weight loss, loss of strength, anorexia, and anemia may also occur. The liver may be enlarged and irregular on palpation. Jaundice is present only if the larger bile ducts are occluded by the pressure of malignant nodules in the hilum of the liver. Fever, cognitive changes, peripheral edema, and bleeding are atypical signs.

35. A patient with cirrhosis has experienced a progressive decline in his health; and liver transplantation is being considered by the interdisciplinary team. How will the patient's prioritization for receiving a donor liver be determined? A) By considering the patient's age and prognosis B) By objectively determining the patient's medical need C) By objectively assessing the patient's willingness to adhere to post-transplantation care D) By systematically ruling out alternative treatment options

Ans: B Feedback: The patient would undergo a classification of the degree of medical need through an objective determination known as the Model of End-Stage Liver Disease (MELD) classification, which stratifies the level of illness of those awaiting a liver transplant. This algorithm considers multiple variables, not solely age, prognosis, potential for adherence, and the rejection of alternative options.

28. A patient with a history of injection drug use has been diagnosed with hepatitis C. When collaborating with the care team to plan this patient's treatment, the nurse should anticipate what intervention? A) Administration of immune globulins B) A regimen of antiviral medications C) Rest and watchful waiting D) Administration of fresh-frozen plasma (FFP)

Ans: B Feedback: There is no benefit from rest, diet, or vitamin supplements in HCV treatment. Studies have demonstrated that a combination of two antiviral agents, Peg-interferon and ribavirin (Rebetol), is effective in producing improvement in patients with hepatitis C and in treating relapses. Immune globulins and FFP are not indicated.

36. A nurse has entered the room of a patient with cirrhosis and found the patient on the floor. The patient states that she fell when transferring to the commode. The patient's vital signs are within reference ranges and the nurse observes no apparent injuries. What is the nurse's most appropriate action? A) Remove the patient's commode and supply a bedpan. B) Complete an incident report and submit it to the unit supervisor. C) Have the patient assessed by the physician due to the risk of internal bleeding. D) Perform a focused abdominal assessment in order to rule out injury.

Ans: C Feedback: A fall would necessitate thorough medical assessment due to the patient's risk of bleeding. The nurse's abdominal assessment is an appropriate action, but is not wholly sufficient to rule out internal injury. Medical assessment is a priority over removing the commode or filling out an incident report, even though these actions are appropriate.

31. A previously healthy adult's sudden and precipitous decline in health has been attributed to fulminant hepatic failure, and the patient has been admitted to the intensive care unit. The nurse should be aware that the treatment of choice for this patient is what? A) IV administration of immune globulins B) Transfusion of packed red blood cells and fresh-frozen plasma (FFP) C) Liver transplantation D) Lobectomy

Ans: C Feedback: Liver transplantation carries the highest potential for the resolution of fulminant hepatic failure. This is preferred over other interventions, such as pharmacologic treatments, transfusions, and surgery.

3. A patient with portal hypertension has been admitted to the medical floor. The nurse should prioritize which of the following assessments related to the manifestations of this health problem? A) Assessment of blood pressure and assessment for headaches and visual changes B) Assessments for signs and symptoms of venous thromboembolism C) Daily weights and abdominal girth measurement D) Blood glucose monitoring q4h

Ans: C Feedback: Obstruction to blood flow through the damaged liver results in increased blood pressure (portal hypertension) throughout the portal venous system. This can result in varices and ascites in the abdominal cavity. Assessments related to ascites are daily weights and abdominal girths. Portal hypertension is not synonymous with cardiovascular hypertension and does not create a risk for unstable blood glucose or VTE.

16. A nurse is caring for a patient with hepatic encephalopathy. The nurse's assessment reveals that the patient exhibits episodes of confusion, is difficult to arouse from sleep and has rigid extremities. Based on these clinical findings, the nurse should document what stage of hepatic encephalopathy? A) Stage 1 B) Stage 2 C) Stage 3 D) Stage 4

Ans: C Feedback: Patients in the third stage of hepatic encephalopathy exhibit the following symptoms: stuporous, difficult to arouse, sleeps most of the time, exhibits marked confusion, incoherent in speech, asterixis, increased deep tendon reflexes, rigidity of extremities, marked EEG abnormalities. Patients in stages 1 and 2 exhibit clinical symptoms that are not as advanced as found in stage 3, and patients in stage 4 are comatose. In stage 4, there is an absence of asterixis, absence of deep tendon reflexes, flaccidity of extremities, and EEG abnormalities.

A nurse is caring for a client who has Addison's disease and is taking hydrocortisone (Cortef). Which of the following medication instructions is appropriate for the nurse to include? A. Take the medication on an empty stomach. B. Notify the provider of any illness or stress. C. Report any symptoms of weakness or dizziness. D. Do not discontinue the medication suddenly. E. Eat a low sodium diet.

B, C, D

40. A nurse is caring for a patient with severe hemolytic jaundice. Laboratory tests show free bilirubin to be 24 mg/dL. For what complication is this patient at risk? A) Chronic jaundice B) Pigment stones in portal circulation C) Central nervous system damage D) Hepatomegaly

Ans: C Feedback: Prolonged jaundice, even if mild, predisposes to the formation of pigment stones in the gallbladder, and extremely severe jaundice (levels of free bilirubin exceeding 20 to 25 mg/dL) poses a risk for CNS damage. There are not specific risks of hepatomegaly or chronic jaundice resulting from high bilirubin.

12. Diagnostic testing has revealed that a patient's hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC) is limited to one lobe. The nurse should anticipate that this patient's plan of care will focus on what intervention? A) Cryosurgery B) Liver transplantation C) Lobectomy D) Laser hyperthermia

Ans: C Feedback: Surgical resection is the treatment of choice when HCC is confined to one lobe of the liver and the function of the remaining liver is considered adequate for postoperative recovery. Removal of a lobe of the liver (lobectomy) is the most common surgical procedure for excising a liver tumor. While cryosurgery and liver transplantation are other surgical options for management of liver cancer, these procedures are not performed at the same frequency as a lobectomy. Laser hyperthermia is a nonsurgical treatment for liver cancer.

6. A patient who has undergone liver transplantation is ready to be discharged home. Which outcome of health education should the nurse prioritize? A) The patient will obtain measurement of drainage from the T-tube. B) The patient will exercise three times a week. C) The patient will take immunosuppressive agents as required. D) The patient will monitor for signs of liver dysfunction.

Ans: C Feedback: The patient is given written and verbal instructions about immunosuppressive agent doses and dosing schedules. The patient is also instructed on steps to follow to ensure that an adequate supply of medication is available so that there is no chance of running out of the medication or skipping a dose. Failure to take medications as instructed may precipitate rejection. The nurse would not teach the patient to measure drainage from a T-tube as the patient wouldn't go home with a T-tube. The nurse may teach the patient about the need to exercise or what the signs of liver dysfunction are, but the nurse would not stress these topics over the immunosuppressive drug regimen.

25. A patient with a diagnosis of cirrhosis has developed variceal bleeding and will imminently undergo variceal banding. What psychosocial nursing diagnosis should the nurse most likely prioritize during this phase of the patient's treatment? A) Decisional Conflict B) Deficient Knowledge C) Death Anxiety D) Disturbed Thought Processes

Ans: C Feedback: The sudden hemorrhage that accompanies variceal bleeding is intensely anxiety-provoking. The nurse must address the patient's likely fear of death, which is a realistic possibility. For most patients, anxiety is likely to be a more acute concern than lack of knowledge or decisional conflict. The patient may or may not experience disturbances in thought processes.

2. A nurse is performing an admission assessment of a patient with a diagnosis of cirrhosis. What technique should the nurse use to palpate the patient's liver? A) Place hand under the right lower abdominal quadrant and press down lightly with the other hand. B) Place the left hand over the abdomen and behind the left side at the 11th rib. C) Place hand under right lower rib cage and press down lightly with the other hand. D) Hold hand 90 degrees to right side of the abdomen and push down firmly.

Ans: C Feedback: To palpate the liver, the examiner places one hand under the right lower rib cage and presses downward with light pressure with the other hand. The liver is not on the left side or in the right lower abdominal quadrant.

27. A patient with esophageal varices is being cared for in the ICU. The varices have begun to bleed and the patient is at risk for hypovolemia. The patient has Ringer's lactate at 150 cc/hr infusing. What else might the nurse expect to have ordered to maintain volume for this patient? A) Arterial line B) Diuretics C) Foley catheter D) Volume expanders

Ans: D Feedback: Because patients with bleeding esophageal varices have intravascular volume depletion and are subject to electrolyte imbalance, IV fluids with electrolytes and volume expanders are provided to restore fluid volume and replace electrolytes. Diuretics would reduce vascular volume. An arterial line and Foley catheter are likely to be ordered, but neither actively maintains the patient's volume.

1. A nurse is caring for a patient with liver failure and is performing an assessment in the knowledge of the patient's increased risk of bleeding. The nurse recognizes that this risk is related to the patient's inability to synthesize prothrombin in the liver. What factor most likely contributes to this loss of function? A) Alterations in glucose metabolism B) Retention of bile salts C) Inadequate production of albumin by hepatocytes D) Inability of the liver to use vitamin K

Ans: D Feedback: Decreased production of several clotting factors may be partially due to deficient absorption of vitamin K from the GI tract. This probably is caused by the inability of liver cells to use vitamin K to make prothrombin. This bleeding risk is unrelated to the roles of glucose, bile salts, or albumin.

34. A patient with liver cancer is being discharged home with a biliary drainage system in place. The nurse should teach the patient's family how to safely perform which of the following actions? A) Aspirating bile from the catheter using a syringe B) Removing the catheter when output is 15 mL in 24 hours C) Instilling antibiotics into the catheter D) Assessing the patency of the drainage catheter

Ans: D Feedback: Families should be taught to provide basic catheter care, including assessment of patency. Antibiotics are not instilled into the catheter and aspiration using a syringe is contraindicated. The family would not independently remove the catheter; this would be done by a member of the care team when deemed necessary.

10. A local public health nurse is informed that a cook in a local restaurant has been diagnosed with hepatitis A. What should the nurse advise individuals to obtain who ate at this restaurant and have never received the hepatitis A vaccine? A) The hepatitis A vaccine B) Albumin infusion C) The hepatitis A and B vaccines D) An immune globulin injection

Ans: D Feedback: For people who have not been previously vaccinated, hepatitis A can be prevented by the intramuscular administration of immune globulin during the incubation period, if given within 2 weeks of exposure. Administration of the hepatitis A vaccine will not protect the patient exposed to hepatitis A, as protection will take a few weeks to develop after the first dose of the vaccine. The hepatitis B vaccine provides protection again the hepatitis B virus, but plays no role in protection for the patient exposed to hepatitis A. Albumin confers no therapeutic benefit.

37. A patient with liver cancer is being discharged home with a hepatic artery catheter in place. The nurse should be aware that this catheter will facilitate which of the following? A) Continuous monitoring for portal hypertension B) Administration of immunosuppressive drugs during the first weeks after transplantation C) Real-time monitoring of vascular changes in the hepatic system D) Delivery of a continuous chemotherapeutic dose

Ans: D Feedback: In most cases, the hepatic artery catheter has been inserted surgically and has a prefilled infusion pump that delivers a continuous chemotherapeutic dose until completed. The hepatic artery catheter does not monitor portal hypertension, deliver immunosuppressive drugs, or monitor vascular changes in the hepatic system.

8. A nurse is participating in the emergency care of a patient who has just developed variceal bleeding. What intervention should the nurse anticipate? A) Infusion of intravenous heparin B) IV administration of albumin C) STAT administration of vitamin K by the intramuscular route D) IV administration of octreotide (Sandostatin)

Ans: D Feedback: Octreotide (Sandostatin)—a synthetic analog of the hormone somatostatin—is effective in decreasing bleeding from esophageal varices, and lacks the vasoconstrictive effects of vasopressin. Because of this safety and efficacy profile, octreotide is considered the preferred treatment regimen for immediate control of variceal bleeding. Vitamin K and albumin are not administered and heparin would exacerbate, not alleviate, bleeding.

18. A nurse is performing an admission assessment for an 81-year-old patient who generally enjoys good health. When considering normal, age-related changes to hepatic function, the nurse should anticipate what finding? A) Similar liver size and texture as in younger adults B) A nonpalpable liver C) A slightly enlarged liver with palpably hard edges D) A slightly decreased size of the liver

Ans: D Feedback: The most common age-related change in the liver is a decrease in size and weight. The liver is usually still palpable, however, and is not expected to have hardened edges.

23. A nurse is amending a patient's plan of care in light of the fact that the patient has recently developed ascites. What should the nurse include in this patient's care plan? A) Mobilization with assistance at least 4 times daily B) Administration of beta-adrenergic blockers as ordered C) Vitamin B12 injections as ordered D) Administration of diuretics as ordered

Ans: D Feedback: Use of diuretics along with sodium restriction is successful in 90% of patients with ascites. Beta-blockers are not used to treat ascites and bed rest is often more beneficial than increased mobility. Vitamin B12 injections are not necessary.

The nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has been prescribed levothyroxine (Synthroid) to treat hypothyroidism. Which of the following should the nurse include in the teaching? A. Weight gain is expected while taking this medication. B. Medication should not be discontinued without the advice of the provider. C. Follow up serum TSH levels should be obtained. D. Take the medication on an empty stomach. E. Use fiber laxatives for constipation.

B, C, D

A client asks the nurse why the provider bases his medication regimen on his HbA1C instead of his log of morning fasting blood glucose results. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the nurse? A. HB A1C measures how well insulin is regulating your blood glucose between meals. B. HB A1 C indicates how well you have regulated your blood glucose over the past 120 days. C. A test of HB A1C is the first test to determine if an individual has diabetes. D. A test of HB A1C determines if the dosage of insulin needs to be adjusted.

B

A nurse in a provider's office is reviewing laboratory results of a client who is being evaluated for secondary hypothyroidism. Which of the following laboratory findings is expected for a client with this condition? A. Elevated serum T4 B. Decreased serum T3 C. Elevated serum thyroid stimulating hormone D. Decreased serum cholesterol

B

A nurse in a providers office is reviewing the health record of a client who is being evaluated for Graves' disease. Which of the following is an expected laboratory finding for this client? A. Decreased thyrotropin receptor antibodies B. Decreased thyroid stimulating hormone C. Decreased free thyroxine index D. Decreased triiodothyronine

B

A nurse is caring for a client who has DI. Which of the following urinalysis laboratory findings should the nurse anticipate? A. Absence of glucose B. Decreased specific gravity C. Presence of ketones D. Presence of RBCs

B

A nurse is providing instructions to client who has Graves' disease and has a new prescription for propanolol (Inderal). Which of the following information should the nurse include? A. An adverse affects of this medication is jaundice. B. Take your pulse before each dose. C. The purpose of this medication is to decrease production of thyroid hormones. D. You should stop taking the medication if you have a sore throat.

B

These surgeries treat morbid obesity when other interventions have failed

Bariatric surgeries

A nurse is assessing a client during a water deprivation test. For which of the following complications should the nurse monitor the client? A. Bradycardia B. Orthostatic hypotension C. Neck vein distention D. Crackles in lungs

C

A nurse is planning to teach a client who is being evaluated for Addison's disease about the ACTH stimulation test. The nurse should base her instructions to the client on which of the following? A. The ACTH stimulation test measures the response by the kidneys to ACTH. B. In the presence of primary adrenal insufficiency, plasma cortisol levels rise in response to administration of ACTH. C. ACTH is a hormone produced by the pituitary gland. D. The client is instructed to take a dose of ACTH by mouth the evening before the test.

C

The nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who had a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include? A. Brush teeth after every meal or snack. B. Avoid bending at the knees. C. Eat a high-fiber diet. D. Notify the provider if he has sweet tasting drainage. E. Notify the provider if he has diminished sense of smell.

C, D

A nurse is assessing a client who is 12 hr postoperative following a thyroidectomy. Which of the following findings are indicative of a thyroid crisis? Select all that apply. A. Bradycardia B. Hypothermia C. Dyspnea D. Abdominal pain E. Mental confusion

C, D, E

A nurse is caring for a client who has acromegaly and is postoperative following a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan? A. Maintain the client in a low-Fowler's position. B. Encourage deep breathing and coughing. C. Encourage the client to brush his teeth when awake and alert. D. Observe dressing drainage for the presence of glucose.

D

A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new diagnosis of DI. Which of the following statements indicates an understanding of the teaching? A. "I can drink up to 2 quarts of fluid a day." B. "I will need to use insulin to control my blood glucose levels." C. "I should expect to gain weight during this illness." D. "Muscle weakness is a symptom of DI."

D

This test inserts a scope through the mouth into the esophagus, stomach, and duodenum to identify areas of bleeding, dilate an esophageal sphincter, and diagnose gastric lesions or celiac disease

EGD (Esophagogastroduodenoscopy)

This test inserts an endoscope through the mouth into the bilary tree via the duodenum. It visualizes the bilary ducts, gall bladder, liver, and pancreas. Xrays are taken after a contrast medium is injectied into the common duct

ERCP (Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography)

This is a technique used to feed clients who are unable to take in adequate nutrition. A person may be comatose, have a stroke, MS, or Parkinsons, or unable to maintain adequate oral nutrition intake because of the demand for nutrients that burns, sepsis, and cancer cause

Enteral feedings

elevated AST and ALT indicate

Hepatitis or cirrhosis

In what cases should you notify the provider following a colonoscopy?

If there is severe pain (possible perforation) or indication of hemorrhage

How should a client be positioned with a colonoscopy

Left side with knees to chest

This procedure is done by inserting a needle or trocar through the abdominal wall into the peritoneal cavity. The therapeutic goal is relief of abdominal ascites pressure

Paracentesis

This laxative is not recommended for older patients because it causes fluid and electrolyte imbalances

Polyethylene glycol

This is a hypertonic IV bolus solution. It is given to correct nutritional deficiencies and minimize the adverse effects of malnutrition

Total parenteral nutrition (TPN)

This feeding is given through a central line

TPN

This is a urine test used to determine the presence of bilirubin in the urine

Urine bilirubin

elevated bilirubin (total, conjugated, and unconjugated) indicate

altered liver function, bile duct obstruction, hepatobilary disorder

What lab tests provide useful information when assessing the GI system

amylase, lipase, alpha-fetoprotein, ammonia, ALT, ALP, AST

35. A patient with Cushing syndrome as a result of a pituitary tumor has been admitted for a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy. What would be most important for the nurse to monitor before, during, and after surgery? A) Blood glucose B) Assessment of urine for blood C) Weight D) Oral temperature

ans: A Feedback: Before, during, and after this surgery, blood glucose monitoring and assessment of stools for blood are carried out. The patients blood sugar is more likely to be volatile than body weight or temperature. Hematuria is not a common complication.

28. Following an addisonian crisis, a patients adrenal function has been gradually regained. The nurse should ensure that the patient knows about the need for supplementary glucocorticoid therapy in which of the following circumstances? A) Episodes of high psychosocial stress B) Periods of dehydration C) Episodes of physical exertion D) Administration of a vaccine

ans: A Feedback: During stressful procedures or significant illnesses, additional supplementary therapy with glucocorticoids is required to prevent addisonian crisis. Physical activity, dehydration and vaccine administration would not normally be sufficiently demanding such to require glucocorticoids.

23. A nurse works in a walk-in clinic. The nurse recognizes that certain patients are at higher risk for different disorders than other patients. What patient is at a greater risk for the development of hypothyroidism? A) A 75-year-old female patient with osteoporosis B) A 50-year-old male patient who is obese C) A 45-year-old female patient who used oral contraceptives D) A 25-year-old male patient who uses recreational drugs

ans: A Feedback: Even though osteoporosis is not a risk factor for hypothyroidism, the condition occurs most frequently in older women.

1. The nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with hypothyroidism secondary to Hashimotos thyroiditis. When assessing this patient, what sign or symptom would the nurse expect? A) Fatigue B) Bulging eyes C) Palpitations D) Flushed skin

ans: A Feedback: Symptoms of hypothyroidism include extreme fatigue, hair loss, brittle nails, dry skin, voice huskiness or hoarseness, menstrual disturbance, and numbness and tingling of the fingers. Bulging eyes, palpitations, and flushed skin would be signs and symptoms of hyperthyroidism.

32. The nurse providing care for a patient with Cushing syndrome has identified the nursing diagnosis of risk for injury related to weakness. How should the nurse best reduce this risk? A) Establish falls prevention measures. B) Encourage bed rest whenever possible. C) Encourage the use of assistive devices. D) Provide constant supervision.

ans: A Feedback: The nurse should take action to prevent the patients risk for falls. Bed rest carries too many harmful effects, however, and assistive devices may or may not be necessary. Constant supervision is not normally required or practicable.

10. You are developing a care plan for a patient with Cushing syndrome. What nursing diagnosis would have the highest priority in this care plan? A) Risk for injury related to weakness B) Ineffective breathing pattern related to muscle weakness C) Risk for loneliness related to disturbed body image D) Autonomic dysreflexia related to neurologic changes

ans: A Feedback: The nursing priority is to decrease the risk of injury by establishing a protective environment. The patient who is weak may require assistance from the nurse in ambulating to prevent falls or bumping corners or furniture. The patients breathing will not be affected and autonomic dysreflexia is not a plausible risk. Loneliness may or may not be an issue for the patient, but safety is a priority.

13. A patient presents at the walk-in clinic complaining of diarrhea and vomiting. The patient has a documented history of adrenal insufficiency. Considering the patients history and current symptoms, the nurse should anticipate that the patient will be instructed to do which of the following? A) Increase his intake of sodium until the GI symptoms improve. B) Increase his intake of potassium until the GI symptoms improve. C) Increase his intake of glucose until the GI symptoms improve. D) Increase his intake of calcium until the GI symptoms improve.

ans: A Feedback: The patient will need to supplement dietary intake with added salt during episodes of GI losses of fluid through vomiting and diarrhea to prevent the onset of addisonian crisis. While the patient may experience the loss of other electrolytes, the major concern is the replacement of lost sodium.

31. A patient is undergoing testing for suspected adrenocortical insufficiency. The care team should ensure that the patient has been assessed for the most common cause of adrenocortical insufficiency. What is the most common cause of this health problem? A) Therapeutic use of corticosteroids B) Pheochromocytoma C) Inadequate secretion of ACTH D) Adrenal tumor

ans: A Feedback: Therapeutic use of corticosteroids is the most common cause of adrenocortical insufficiency. The other options also cause adrenocortical insufficiency, but they are not the most common causes.

3. A patient with thyroid cancer has undergone surgery and a significant amount of parathyroid tissue has been removed. The nurse caring for the patient should prioritize what question when addressing potential complications? A) Do you feel any muscle twitches or spasms? B) Do you feel flushed or sweaty? C) Are you experiencing any dizziness or lightheadedness? D) Are you having any pain that seems to be radiating from your bones?

ans: A Feedback: As the blood calcium level falls, hyperirritability of the nerves occurs, with spasms of the hands and feet and muscle twitching. This is characteristic of hypoparathyroidism. Flushing, diaphoresis, dizziness, and pain are atypical signs of the resulting hypocalcemia.

11. The nurse is performing a shift assessment of a patient with aldosteronism. What assessments should the nurse include? Select all that apply. A) Urine output B) Signs or symptoms of venous thromboembolism C) Peripheral pulses D) Blood pressure E) Skin integrity

ans: A, D Feedback: The principal action of aldosterone is to conserve body sodium. Alterations in aldosterone levels consequently affect urine output and BP. The patients peripheral pulses, risk of VTE, and skin integrity are not typically affected by aldosteronism.

36. What should the nurse teach a patient on corticosteroid therapy in order to reduce the patients risk of adrenal insufficiency? A) Take the medication late in the day to mimic the body's natural rhythms. B) Always have enough medication on hand to avoid running out. C) Skip up to 2 doses in cases of illness involving nausea. D) Take up to 1 extra dose per day during times of stress.

ans: B Feedback: The patient and family should be informed that acute adrenal insufficiency and underlying symptoms will recur if corticosteroid therapy is stopped abruptly without medical supervision. The patient should be instructed to have an adequate supply of the corticosteroid medication always available to avoid - 994 running out. Doses should not be skipped or added without explicit instructions to do so. Corticosteroids should normally be taken in the morning to mimic natural rhythms.

17. The nurse is planning the care of a patient with hyperthyroidism. What should the nurse specify in the patients meal plan? A) A clear liquid diet, high in nutrients B) Small, frequent meals, high in protein and calories C) Three large, bland meals a day D) A diet high in fiber and plant-sourced fat

ans: B Feedback: A patient with hyperthyroidism has an increased appetite. The patient should be counseled to consume several small, well-balanced meals. High-calorie, high-protein foods are encouraged. A clear liquid diet would not satisfy the patients caloric or hunger needs. A diet rich in fiber and fat should be avoided because these foods may lead to GI upset or increase peristalsis.

5. The nurse is caring for a patient with Addisons disease who is scheduled for discharge. When teaching the patient about hormone replacement therapy, the nurse should address what topic? A) The possibility of precipitous weight gain B) The need for lifelong steroid replacement C) The need to match the daily steroid dose to immediate symptoms D) The importance of monitoring liver function

ans: B Feedback: Because of the need for lifelong replacement of adrenal cortex hormones to prevent addisonian crises, the patient and family members receive explicit education about the rationale for replacement therapy and proper dosage. Doses are not adjusted on a short-term basis. Weight gain and hepatotoxicity are not common adverse effects.

15. While assisting with the surgical removal of an adrenal tumor, the OR nurse is aware that the patients vital signs may change upon manipulation of the tumor. What vital sign changes would the nurse expect to see? A) Hyperthermia and tachypnea B) Hypertension and heart rate changes C) Hypotension and hypothermia D) Hyperthermia and bradycardia

ans: B Feedback: Manipulation of the tumor during surgical excision may cause release of stored epinephrine and norepinephrine, with marked increases in BP and changes in heart rate. The use of sodium nitroprusside and alpha-adrenergic blocking agents may be required during and after surgery. While other vital sign changes may occur related to surgical complications, the most common changes are related to hypertension and changes in the heart rate.

4. The nurse is caring for a patient with a diagnosis of Addisons disease. What sign or symptom is most closely associated with this health problem? A) Truncal obesity B) Hypertension C) Muscle weakness D) Moon face

ans: C Feedback: Patients with Addisons disease demonstrate muscular weakness, anorexia, gastrointestinal symptoms, fatigue, emaciation, dark pigmentation of the skin, and hypotension. Patients with Cushing syndrome demonstrate truncal obesity, moon face, acne, abdominal striae, and hypertension.

39. A patient who has been taking corticosteroids for several months has been experiencing muscle wasting. The patient has asked the nurse for suggestions to address this adverse effect. What should the nurse recommend? A) Activity limitation to conserve energy B) Consumption of a high-protein diet C) Use of OTC vitamin D and calcium supplements D) Passive range-of-motion exercises

ans: B Feedback: Muscle wasting can be partly addressed through increased protein intake. Passive ROM exercises maintain flexibility, but do not build muscle mass. Vitamin D and calcium supplements do not decrease muscle wasting. Activity limitation would exacerbate the problem.

22. The physician has ordered a fluid deprivation test for a patient suspected of having diabetes insipidus. During the test, the nurse should prioritize what assessments? A) Temperature and oxygen saturation B) Heart rate and BP C) Breath sounds and bowel sounds D) Color, warmth, movement, and sensation of extremities

ans: B Feedback: The fluid deprivation test is carried out by withholding fluids for 8 to 12 hours or until 3% to 5% of the body weight is lost. The patients condition needs to be monitored frequently during the test, and the test is terminated if tachycardia, excessive weight loss, or hypotension develops. Consequently, BP and heart rate monitoring are priorities over the other listed assessments.

18. A patient with a diagnosis of syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH) is being cared for on the critical care unit. The priority nursing diagnosis for a patient with this condition is what? A) Risk for peripheral neurovascular dysfunction B) Excess fluid volume C) Hypothermia D) Ineffective airway clearance

ans: B Feedback: The priority nursing diagnosis for a patient with SIADH is excess fluid volume, as the patient retains fluids and develops a sodium deficiency. Restricting fluid intake is a typical intervention for managing this syndrome. Temperature imbalances are not associated with SIADH. The patient is not at risk for neurovascular dysfunction or a compromised airway.

26. The nurses assessment of a patient with thyroidectomy suggests tetany and a review of the most recent blood work corroborate this finding. The nurse should prepare to administer what intervention? A) Oral calcium chloride and vitamin D B) IV calcium gluconate C) STAT levothyroxine D) Administration of parathyroid hormone (PTH)

ans: B Feedback: When hypocalcemia and tetany occur after a thyroidectomy, the immediate treatment is administration of IV calcium gluconate. This has a much faster therapeutic effect than PO calcium or vitamin D supplements. PTH and levothyroxine are not used to treat this complication.

37. The nurse is caring for a patient at risk for an addisonian crisis. For what associated signs and symptoms should the nurse monitor the patient? Select all that apply. A) Epistaxis B) Pallor C) Rapid respiratory rate D) Bounding pulse E) Hypotension

ans: B, C, E Feedback: The patient at risk is monitored for signs and symptoms indicative of addisonian crisis, which can include shock; hypotension; rapid, weak pulse; rapid respiratory rate; pallor; and extreme weakness. Epistaxis and a bounding pulse are not symptoms or signs of an addisonian crisis.

25. A patient has been admitted to the critical care unit with a diagnosis of thyroid storm. What interventions should the nurse include in this patients immediate care? Select all that apply. A) Administering diuretics to prevent fluid overload B) Administering beta blockers to reduce heart rate C) Administering insulin to reduce blood glucose levels D) Applying interventions to reduce the patients temperature E) Administering corticosteroids

ans: B, D Feedback: Thyroid storm necessitates interventions to reduce heart rate and temperature. Diuretics, insulin, and steroids are not indicated to address the manifestations of this health problem.

20. The nurse is assessing a patient diagnosed with Graves disease. What physical characteristics of Graves disease would the nurse expect to find? A) Hair loss B) Moon face C) Bulging eyes D) Fatigue

ans: C Feedback: Clinical manifestations of the endocrine disorder Graves disease include exophthalmos (bulging eyes) and fine tremor in the hands. Graves disease is not associated with hair loss, a moon face, or fatigue.

29. A 30 year-old female patient has been diagnosed with Cushing syndrome. What psychosocial nursing diagnosis should the nurse most likely prioritize when planning the patients care? A) Decisional conflict related to treatment options B) Spiritual distress related to changes in cognitive function C) Disturbed body image related to changes in physical appearance D) Powerlessness related to disease progression

ans: C Feedback: Cushing syndrome causes characteristic physical changes that are likely to result in disturbed body image. Decisional conflict and powerless may exist, but disturbed body image is more likely to be present. Cognitive changes take place in patients with Cushing syndrome, but these may or may not cause spiritual distress.

9. The nurse caring for a patient with Cushing syndrome is describing the dexamethasone suppression test scheduled for tomorrow. What does the nurse explain that this test will involve? A) Administration of dexamethasone orally, followed by a plasma cortisol level every hour for 3 hours B) Administration of dexamethasone IV, followed by an x-ray of the adrenal glands C) Administration of dexamethasone orally at 11 PM, and a plasma cortisol level at 8 AM the next morning D) Administration of dexamethasone intravenously, followed by a plasma cortisol level 3 hours after the drug is administered

ans: C Feedback: Dexamethasone (1 mg) is administered orally at 11 PM, and a plasma cortisol level is obtained at 8 AM the next morning. This test can be performed on an outpatient basis and is the most widely used and sensitive screening test for diagnosis of pituitary and adrenal causes of Cushing syndrome.

16. A patient has returned to the floor after having a thyroidectomy for thyroid cancer. The nurse knows that sometimes during thyroid surgery the parathyroid glands can be injured or removed. What laboratory finding may be an early indication of parathyroid gland injury or removal? A) Hyponatremia B) Hypophosphatemia C) Hypocalcemia D) Hypokalemia

ans: C Feedback: Injury or removal of the parathyroid glands may produce a disturbance in calcium metabolism and result in a decline of calcium levels (hypocalcemia). As the blood calcium levels fall, hyperirritability of the nerves occurs, with spasms of the hands and feet and muscle twitching. This group of symptoms is known as tetany and must be reported to the physician immediately, because laryngospasm may occur and obstruct the airway. Hypophosphatemia, hyponatremia, and hypokalemia are not expected responses to parathyroid injury or removal. In fact, parathyroid removal or injury that results in hypocalcemia may lead to hyperphosphatemia.

2. A patient has been admitted to the post-surgical unit following a thyroidectomy. To promote comfort and safety, how should the nurse best position the patient? A) Side-lying (lateral) with one pillow under the head B) Head of the bed elevated 30 degrees and no pillows placed under the head C) Semi-Fowlers with the head supported on two pillows D) Supine, with a small roll supporting the neck

ans: C Feedback: When moving and turning the patient, the nurse carefully supports the patients head and avoids tension on the sutures. The most comfortable position is the semi-Fowlers position, with the head elevated and supported by pillows.

38. A patient has been assessed for aldosteronism and has recently begun treatment. What are priority areas for assessment that the nurse should frequently address? Select all that apply. A) Pupillary response B) Creatinine and BUN levels C) Potassium level D) Peripheral pulses E) BP

ans: C, E Feedback: Patients with aldosteronism exhibit a profound decline in the serum levels of potassium, and hypertension is the most prominent and almost universal sign of aldosteronism. Pupillary response, peripheral pulses, and renal function are not directly affected.

27. A patient has been taking prednisone for several weeks after experiencing a hypersensitivity reaction. To prevent adrenal insufficiency, the nurse should ensure that the patient knows to do which of the following? A) Take the drug concurrent with levothyroxine (Synthroid). B) Take each dose of prednisone with a dose of calcium chloride. C) Gradually replace the prednisone with an OTC alternative. D) Slowly taper down the dose of prednisone, as ordered.

ans: D Feedback: Corticosteroid dosages are reduced gradually (tapered) to allow normal adrenal function to return and to prevent steroid-induced adrenal insufficiency. There are no OTC substitutes for prednisone and neither calcium chloride nor levothyroxine addresses the risk of adrenal insufficiency.

19. A patient with hypofunction of the adrenal cortex has been admitted to the medical unit. What would the nurse most likely find when assessing this patient? A) Increased body temperature B) Jaundice C) Copious urine output D) Decreased BP

ans: D Feedback: Decreased BP may occur with hypofunction of the adrenal cortex. Decreased function of the adrenal cortex does not affect the patients body temperature, urine output, or skin tone.

30. A patient with pheochromocytoma has been admitted for an adrenalectomy to be performed the following day. To prevent complications, the nurse should anticipate preoperative administration of which of the following? A) IV antibiotics B) Oral antihypertensives C) Parenteral nutrition D) IV corticosteroids

ans: D Feedback: IV administration of corticosteroids (methylprednisolone sodium succinate [Solu-Medrol]) may begin on the evening before surgery and continue during the early postoperative period to prevent adrenal insufficiency. Antibiotics, antihypertensives, and parenteral nutrition do not prevent adrenal insufficiency or other common complications of adrenalectomy.

24. A patient with a recent diagnosis of hypothyroidism is being treated for an unrelated injury. When administering medications to the patient, the nurse should know that the patients diminished thyroid function may have what effect? A) Anaphylaxis B) Nausea and vomiting C) Increased risk of drug interactions D) Prolonged duration of effect

ans: D Feedback: In all patients with hypothyroidism, the effects of analgesic agents, sedatives, and anesthetic agents are prolonged. There is no direct increase in the risk of anaphylaxis, nausea, or drug interactions, although these may potentially result from the prolonged half-life of drugs.

12. The home care nurse is conducting patient teaching with a patient on corticosteroid therapy. To achieve consistency with the bodys natural secretion of cortisol, when would the home care nurse instruct the patient to take his or her corticosteroids? A) In the evening between 4 PM and 6 PM B) Prior to going to sleep at night C) At noon every day D) In the morning between 7 AM and 8 AM

ans: D Feedback: In keeping with the natural secretion of cortisol, the best time of day for the total corticosteroid dose is in the morning from 7 to 8 AM. Large-dose therapy at 8 AM, when the adrenal gland is most active, produces maximal suppression of the gland. Also, a large 8 AM dose is more physiologic because it allows the body to escape effects of the steroids from 4 PM to 6 AM, when serum levels are normally low, thus minimizing cushingoid effects.

14. The nurse is caring for a patient with hyperparathyroidism. What level of activity would the nurse expect to promote? A) Complete bed rest B) Bed rest with bathroom privileges C) Out of bed (OOB) to the chair twice a day D) Ambulation and activity as tolerated

ans: D Feedback: Mobility, with walking or use of a rocking chair for those with limited mobility, is encouraged as much as possible because bones subjected to normal stress give up less calcium. Best rest should be discouraged because it increases calcium excretion and the risk of renal calculi. Limiting the patient to getting out of bed only a few times a day also increases calcium excretion and the associated risks.

40. The nurse is providing care for an older adult patient whose current medication regimen includes levothyroxine (Synthroid). As a result, the nurse should be aware of the heightened risk of adverse effects when administering an IV dose of what medication? A) A fluoroquinalone antibiotic B) A loop diuretic C) A proton pump inhibitor (PPI) D) A benzodiazepine

ans: D Feedback: Oral thyroid hormones interact with many other medications. Even in small IV doses, hypnotic and sedative agents may induce profound somnolence, lasting far longer than anticipated and leading to narcosis (stupor like condition). Furthermore, they are likely to cause respiratory depression, which can easily be fatal because of decreased respiratory reserve and alveolar hypoventilation. Antibiotics, PPIs and diuretics do not cause the same risk.

34. A patient on corticosteroid therapy needs to be taught that a course of corticosteroids of 2 weeks duration can suppress the adrenal cortex for how long? A) Up to 4 weeks B) Up to 3 months C) Up to 9 months D) Up to 1 year

ans: D Feedback: Suppression of the adrenal cortex may persist up to 1 year after a course of corticosteroids of only 2 weeks duration.

In what cases would you notify the provider following an EGD of ERCP?

bleeding, abdominal or chest pain, evidence of infection

A fecal occult blood test and stool samples are used to detect

blood, ova and parasites (Giardia), and bacteria (C-diff), and DNA changes in vimentin gene.

in preparation to a colonoscopy, a pt will have instructions for bowel prep- they use laxatives such as ________ and _______

bisacodyl and polyethylene glycol

Name some GI scope procedures (Endoscopy)

colonoscopy, esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD), endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP), small bowel capsue endoscopy, sigmoidoscopy

A change in the vimentin gene can be an indicator of

colorectal cancer