Exam Stimulation 1

Sue and Sue (2003) propose that culturally competent therapists work toward achieving goals in which of the following domains?

1. Awareness 2. Knowledge 3. Skills Self-awareness, Cultural knowledge, & appropriate skills

Jack and Joe are friends who both have recently taken jobs as life insurance salesmen and Jack is not certain that he is happy with his new job. When Jack is asked why he and Joe took these jobs, he is most likely to reply: Select one: A. I did so because I needed the money; Joe did so because he likes sales. Correct B. We both did so because we needed the money. C. We both did so because we like sales. D. I did so because I like sales; Joe did so because he needed the money.

A. I did so because I needed the money; Joe did so because he likes sales. People tend to attribute 1. beh of others to Dispositional (internal) factors = "Fundamental Attribution Bias." 2. Attribute own beh to Situational (External) factors -"Actor-Observer Effect." - One exception -indiv's likely to attribute their beh to dispositional factors when the has positive consequences - "self-serving bias.") Jack attributing own beh to an external, situational factor & Joe's beh to an internal, dispositional factor.

Factor analyses of Raven's Progressive Matrices has found that it is a reliable measure of which of the following? Select one: A. Spearman's "g" Correct B. Horn and Cattell's fluid and crystallized intelligence C. Luria's simultaneous and sequential processing D. Guilford's convergent and divergent thinking

A. Spearman's "g" RAVEN & SPEARMAN ARE FRIENDS - RAVEN PROGRESSIVE MATRICES- NONVERBAL IQ Raven's Progressive Matrices originally designed to be measure of Spearman's "g" factor & usefulness for this purpose confirmed by factor analytic studies.

A meta-analysis of the research conducted by Roberts, Walton, and Viechtbauer (2006) found that scores on which of the following personality traits continue to increase into later adulthood? Select one: A. agreeableness and conscientiousness Correct B. neuroticism and social vitality C. social vitality and agreeableness D. openness to experience and conscientiousness

A. agreeableness and conscientiousness Investigators found that - Agreeableness - Conscientiousness - Social Dominance, and - Emotional Stability continue to increase over the lifespan.

Which of the following are common symptoms of both Broca's and Wernicke's aphasia? Select one: A. anomia and problems with repetition B. anomia and paraphasia C. paraphasia and problems with repetition Incorrect D. paraphasia, anomia, and problems with repetition

A. anomia and problems with repetition Broca's & Wernicke's aphasia both involve - ANOMIA (inability to name familiar object, attribute, or action) and - problems w REPETITION.. PARAPHASIA - sx of WERNICKE'S Aphasia ONLY! WERNICKE'S PAIR

Conger's (1956) tension reduction hypothesis emphasizes the role of which of the following in substance addiction? Select one: A. anxiety and other negative emotions Correct B. environmental cues C. higher-order conditioning D. heredity

A. anxiety and other negative emotions According to Tension Reduction Hypothesis, ppl drink to - alleviate Anxiety, Fear, & other NEGATIVE Emotions & -are Reinforced for doing so because alcohol does reduce Tension.

For practitioners of humanistic psychotherapy, psychopathology is the result of: Select one: A. blocked potential. B. dis-integration. C. unresolved conflicts. Incorrect D. severe trauma.

A. blocked potential. HUMANISTIC = MASLOW - POTENTIAL FOR SELF-ACTUALIZATION Humanist Therapists share belief in inherent capacity for humans to grow toward Achievement of their Potential (self-actualization). Neurosis & psychosis viewed as result of interference w Natural Potential for Growth & Self-Actualization.

Cocaine is believed to exert its effects primarily by: Select one: A. increasing the availability of dopamine. Correct B. decreasing the availability of serotonin. C. increasing sensitivity to epinephrine. D. decreasing sensitivity to norepinephrine.

A. increasing the availability of dopamine. Correct COKE MAKES YOU A DOPE Cocaine exerts its effects primarily on neurons in Limbic System & areas of Midbrain. Cocaine Blocks Reuptake of DOPAMINE, allowing to accumulate in synapses & continue to stimulate receiving cells.

Which of the following is a cause of conductive deafness? Select one: A. infection of the middle ear Correct B. damage to the hair cells C. cochlear damage D. lesions in the auditory cortex

A. infection of the middle ear There are three types of deafness: 1. Conductive 2. Sensorineural, and 3. Central. Conductive Deafness - failure of mechanical stimulation to reach Cochlea due to Infection or Obstruction in OUTER or MIDDLE Ear.

In the context of the serial position effect, the "primacy effect": Select one: A. is due to transfer of information from short- to long-term memory. B. is due to interference that prohibits transfer from short- to long-term memory. C. is due to the repetition of information so that it is maintained in short-term memory. D. is due to distractions that make it difficult to retrieve information from long-term memory. Incorrect

A. is due to transfer of information from short- to long-term memory. PRIMACY - INFO RECALLED BECAUSE HAS GONE FROM SHORT TERM TO LTM. Serial position effect - tendency to recall items in beginning & end of word list better than middle of list. Ability to recall items in beginning of the list (primacy effect) is believed to be due to the fact that these items have been transferred from short- to long-term memory, while - ability to recall items in end of list (recency effect) is due to fact that they are STILL IN STM. PRIMACY E - TRANSFERRED FROM STM TO LTM. RECENCY E - STILL IN STM

According to Hersey and Blanchard's situational leadership model, a manager will be most effective with an employee who is low in both ability and motivation when the manager: Select one: A. provides specific instructions and closely supervises the employee's work. Correct B. encourages the employee to take responsibility for decision-making. C. shares ideas with the employee and supports the employee's participation in decision-making. D. acts as a supportive coach.

A. provides specific instructions and closely supervises the employee's work. "Telling" Style appropriate for employees Low in both ability and motivation. Situational leadership theory proposes that, to be effective, managers must adopt LEADERSHIP STYLE that Matches employee's MATURITY Determined by employee's 1. Ability & 2. Motivation. "Delegating" Style - best for employees who are High in BOTH ability and motivation. "Participating" Style, - best for employees who are High Ability but Low Motivation. "Selling" Style, - best for employees who are Low Ability but High Motivation.

In a research study, an investigator interested in the genetic contributors to suicide compares certain demographic, behavioral, and genetic characteristics of a sample of psychiatric patients who attempted suicide in the past month with the characteristics of the first degree and second degree biological relatives of the psychiatric patients and with "healthy controls" (non-patients). The probands in this study are the: Select one: A. psychiatric patients. B. third-degree relatives. C. first-degree relatives. Incorrect D. first- and second-degree relatives.

A. psychiatric patients. PROBAND = STUDIED INDIV WHO ARE FOCUS OF STUDY/W DISEASE DX In research, probands (aka ) are 1st individuals who are brought to attention of investigator - i.e., ppl who are manifesting the disease or other CHARACTERISTIC OF INTEREST. - Psychiatric pts who attempted suicide in past month are the probands in this study.

The failure to take into account the prior probability of an event when considering its current probability is referred to as: Select one: A. the base-rate fallacy. B. the fundamental attribution bias. C. illusory correlation. D. the discounting principle. Incorrect

A. the base-rate fallacy. Base-rate fallacy is failure to take base rate into account when making decisions or forming attitudes. IE: tendency of ppl to be more afraid of flying than of driving a car despite more ppl killed on road than in sky.

Criterion deficiency" refers to: Select one: A. the degree to which the conceptual criterion is not measured by the actual criterion. B. the degree to which the actual criterion systematically measures something other than the conceptual criterion. Incorrect C. the degree to which the actual criterion is entirely unrelated to the conceptual criterion. D. the degree to which the actual criterion provides inconsistent information about the conceptual criterion.

A. the degree to which the Conceptual Criterion is NOT Measured by the ACTUAL CRITERION Actual criterion (criterion measure) is deficient to extent that it doesnt measure conceptual (or hypothetical) criterion. In other words, job performance is due to several factors, but most criterion measures deficient because they measure only one or two of those factors.

Kohlberg argued that there is a monotonic relationship between moral judgment and moral action and proposed that, as one moves from a lower to a higher stage of moral development: Select one: A. the range of possible moral actions becomes narrower and the individual assumes greater responsibility for relating his/her judgments to actions. B. the range of possible moral actions becomes broader and the individual assumes greater responsibility for relating his/her judgments to actions. Incorrect C. the range of possible moral actions remains the same but the individual assumes greater responsibility for relating his/her judgments to actions. D. the range of possible moral actions becomes narrower but the individual's sense of responsibility for relating his/her judgments to actions remains about the same.

A. the range of possible moral Actions becomes NARROWER and the individual assumes Greater Responsibility for relating his/her judgments to Actions. Although Kohlberg believed that theres positive relationship btwn moral Judgment & moral Action, he proposed that this relationship is much stronger at Higher levels of moral development. Stronger relationship btwn Judgment & Action at higher stages is attributable to two factors: f 1. Range of Actions suggested by judgment NARROWS 2. Ppl exper an Increasing sense of responsibility to Act. INCREASED AGE = - LESS POSSIBLE OPTIONS/NARROWER OPTIONS - MORE NEED TO ACT IN MORAL WAY THERES ONLY ONE WAY, THE RIGHT WAY

The magnitude of the standard error of means decreases when: Select one: A. the sample size increases and the population standard deviation decreases. B. the sample size decreases and the population standard deviation increases. Incorrect C. the number of samples increases and the population standard deviation decreases. D. the number of samples decreases and the population standard deviation increases.

A. the sample size increases and the population standard deviation decreases. LESS ERROR WHEN INCREASE SAMPLE SIZE Knowing formula for standard error of means would have helped: Standard error of means calculated by - dividing standard deviation of population - by square root of the sample size. Decreasing numerator (population standard deviation) and/or increasing sample size would reduce size of standard error of means.

According to George Kelly (1995), a fully functioning person is one: Select one: A. whose predictions about events and other people are usually correct. B. whose self and self-image are in a state of congruence. C. who is able to first identify and then achieve realistic goals in a responsible manner. Incorrect D. who routinely experiences events with here-and-now immediacy.

A. whose predictions about events and other people are usually correct. KELLY'S PERSONAL CONSTRUCT THEORY How you CONSTRUE - PREDICT ppl/events - Identify, Revise, Improve Predictions Kelly's Personal Construct Theory -how person "Construes" 1. (Perceives, 2. Interprets, and 3. Predicts) events. Primary goals - Identify and then - Revise Maladaptive Personal Constructs so can make - better predictions about Events & other Ppl.

An ipsative score provides information about: Select one: A. an examinee's score on a test relative to scores obtained by examinees in the same age group. B. an examinee's score on a test relative to scores obtained by examinees in the same academic grade. C. an examinee's score on one scale of a test relative to his/her scores on the other scales. D. an examinee's score on a test relative to a predefined standard of performance. Incorrect

An ipsative score provides information about: IPSATIVE = "I" SAPTIVE COMPARED SCORES TO I/SELF on Varous other scales of test C. examinee's score on one scale of a test relative to his/her OWN scores on other scales. D. an examinee's score on a test relative to a predefined standard of performance. Incorrect Ipsative score is diff from most other types of scores which either provide info on examinee's standing in a norm group or standing in terms of an absolute standard of performance. Ipsative score indicates relative strength of examinee's status or performance on Various scales of Test.

When a test's reliability coefficient is equal to ____, this means that 81% of variability in test scores is attributable to true score variability. Select one: A. 0.9 B. 0.81 Correct C. 0.65 D. 0.19

B. 0.81 Test Reliability Coefficient - interpreted Directly in terms of True Score Variability. When reliability coefficient is equal to .81, this means - 81% of variability in test scores reflects True Score Variability and - 10% reflects Measurement Error.

When the item discrimination index (D) equals _____, this means that all of the examinees in the upper-scoring group and none of the examinees in the lower-scoring group answered the item correctly. Select one: A. 50 B. 1 Correct C. -1 D. 0

B. 1 Item Discrimination Index - ranges from -1.0 to +1.0. +1.0 indicates maximum discrimination btwn high & low-scoring grps, w all in upper grp answering item correctly & non in lower group answering correctly.

An infant's first expression of fear is often in response to unfamiliar adults. The onset and severity of this "stranger anxiety" depends on several factors -- for instance, the child's temperament and previous experience with strangers -- but is ordinarily first evident when the child is _____ months of age. Select one: A. 4 to 6 B. 8 to 10 Correct C. 10 to 12 D. 13 to 15

B. 8 to 10 Separation Anx - 6-8 mo Stranger Anx - 8-10 mo Stranger anxiety -considered one manifestation of attachment to primary caregiver(s).

Research investigating comorbidity in children suggests that, when depression occurs in conjunction with ____________, the depression is often associated with a different course and a different family background than when it occurs alone. Select one: A. an Anxiety Disorder B. Conduct Disorder C. somatic complaints D. learning problems Incorrect

B. Conduct Disorder Some experts suggest that Dep occurring in conjunction w Conduct Disorder is actually dif type of dep since associated w lower rate of dep in adulthood as well as w lower rate of dep among relatives.

Which of the following imaging techniques would be used to obtain a "metabolic map" of the brain during various mental and physical activities? Select one: A. CT B. PET C. MRI Incorrect D. NMR

B. PET I need a MAP of my PETs BRAIN. METABOLIC MAP IS ACTIVITY/FUNCTION, NOT STRUCTURE. In this situation, function of brain that is of interest. PET scans provide info on functions of brain (metabolic functions). - SPECT, PET, FMRI CT - Structural imaging technique. MRI - also a structural technique. NMR (nuclear magnetic resonance) other name for MRI, which is a structural imaging technique.

The developer of a new predictor realizes that the predictor's criterion-related validity coefficient has been affected by "criterion contamination." If the developer conducts a new validity study and eliminates the effects of criterion contamination, he/she can expect which of the following to occur? Select one: A. The new validity coefficient will be larger in magnitude than the original coefficient. Incorrect B. The new validity coefficient will be smaller in magnitude than the original coefficient. C. The new validity coefficient will be either larger or smaller in magnitude than the original coefficient. D. The new validity coefficient will be neither larger nor smaller in magnitude than the original coefficient.

B. The new validity coefficient will be smaller in magnitude than the original coefficient. CRITERION CONTAMINATION INFLATES CORRELATION COEFFICIANT. - REMOVE CONTAMINATION/INFLATION = SMALLER COEFFICIENT. When rater's knowledge of ratees' predictor scores affects his ratings of the ratees on criterion measure (i.e., when rater rates a ratee high on criterion because ratee has scored high on predictor & vice-versa), an artificially strong relationship created btwn predictor & criterion. Criterion contamination artificially INFLATES correlation coefficient. Therefore, elimination of criterion contamination would LOWER coefficient.

According to Ridley (1984), "cultural paranoia" is: Select one: A. a sign of depression, anxiety, or a psychotic disorder. B. a healthy reaction to racism. Correct C. a manifestation of racist beliefs. D. a sign of internalized oppression.

B. a healthy reaction to racism. Ridley -interested in nondisclosure by African American therapy cts. Result of two types of paranoia 1. cultural - Healthy 2. functional - FUNCTIONAL OF PSYCHOSIS One result of cultural paranoia is ct may mistrust White therapist & be unwilling to self-disclose in therapy.

According to Murray Bowen, when two family members experience stress, they may recruit a third family member to reduce the tension in their relationship. Then, if the stress continues, the resulting tension may spread to other family members and, as more people become involved, _________ develops. Select one: A. a destablized ("runaway") system B. a series of interlocking triangles Correct C. emotional cutoff D. emotional flooding

B. a series of interlocking triangles Bowen - EXTENDED FAMILY SYSTEMS = TRIANGLES EXTEND THE BOW INTO THE TRIANGLE When 3-person system (triangle) doesnt reduce stress btwn 2 family members, others may be recruited, & family system may eventually include series of Interlocking Triangles. Positive Feedback amplifies deviation or change & in some situations, can produce a runaway system. Emotional cutoff - Extreme emotional distancing by family member in an attempt to cut ties w other mmbrs. Emotional flooding- uncontrollable and uncontrolled emotional expression.

DSM-5 diagnosis of Tourette's Disorder requires the presence of: Select one: A. at least one vocal tic and one motor tic. Incorrect B. at least one vocal tic and multiple motor tics. C. multiple vocal tics and at least one motor tic. D. multiple vocal and multiple motor tics.

B. at least one vocal tic and multiple motor tics. TOURETTES - MIN 1 VOCAL TIC - 2 OR MORE MOTOR TICS - MIN 1 YR - ONSET BEFORE 18 YO Tourette's Disorder- at least one vocal tic and multiple motor tics that have persisted for more than one year and had an onset before 18 years of age.

Which of the following types of biofeedback is likely to be most effective for reducing migraine headaches? Select one: A. skin conductance Incorrect B. blood volume pulse C. EMG (electromyography) D. EEG (electroencephalograph)

B. blood volume pulse MIGRAINE = BLOOD VOLUME THEN THERMAL Blood Volume Pulse Biofeedback - AS or MORE effective than Skin Temperature biofeedback for migraines. Measured using (PPG) that monitors change in blood flow in blood vessels beneath skin. EMG Biofeedback - Muscle TENSION headaches but NOT been found to be more effective than blood volume pulse biofeedback for treating migraines. Skin Conductance Biofeedback - provides info on Autonomic Arousal. Used to reduce Stress & Anxiety. EEG biofeedback provides info on Brain Activity and is not used as a treatment for migraine headaches.

There is evidence that stimulus exposure and antidepressants that increase serotonin levels both alleviate the symptoms of Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder by reducing activity in the: Select one: A. locus coeruleus. B. caudate nucleus. C. reticular activating system. Incorrect D. inferior colliculus.

B. caudate nucleus. CAUDATE NUCLEUS = OCD & DEP ANTIDEPRESSANTS REDUCE SERATONON IN CAUDATE NUCLEUS = Reduced Dep & OCD Sx. CAUDATE IS DEPRESSED & OBSESSED! L. R. Baxter & associates found evidence Behavioral & Drug tx for OCD both reduce activity in Caudate Nucleus, which is involved in Converting Sensory input into Cognition & Action & Over-active in ppl w OCD

A primary distinction between Freud and those psychologists who are collectively identified as "neo-Freudians" (e.g., Fromm, Horney, and Sullivan) is that the latter: Select one: A. emphasized the "innate wisdom" of the individual. B. placed greater emphasis on the ego functions and the impact of social influences. Correct C. extended the number of and placed greater emphasis on instinctual (unconscious) forces. D. adopted a teleological approach that viewed behavior as being "pulled" rather than "pushed."

B. placed greater emphasis on the EGO functions and the impact of SOCIAL Influences. LESS ID, MORE SOCIAL EGO The neo-Freudians adopted many of Freud's basic assumptions about personality development but placed less emphasis on id functions and greater emphasis on the functions of the ego. LESS ID Fromm viewed indiv as product of Social forces, & Sullivan emphasized Interpersonal aspects of behavior.

Learning a sequence of operant responses that each act as a secondary reinforcer and that eventually end in a primary reinforcer is known as: Select one: A. shaping. B. chaining. C. differential reinforcement. Incorrect D. classical conditioning.

B. chaining. Accounts for acquisition of COMPLEX beh, involves assoc of responses such that each response acts as a Secondary Reinforcer & as Discriminative Stimulus for following response. Final Reinforcer (Reinforcer delivered at end of "chain") is a Primary Reinforcer. CHAINING - ALL STEPS IMPORTANT. Can be either Forward or Backward (reverse order). Bake cake. OPERANT CONDITIONING - REINFORCED. Procedure described is a type of operant conditioning (term "reinforcer" is a clue) and be familiar w various operant conditioning techniques. SHAPING - reinforcing successive approximations to desired behavior. Involves Reinforcing Successive Approximations to desired beh; providing Reinforcement only for beh that come closer & closer to desired one.- ie: teach mute children w autism to speak. First imitate trainers voice, reinforced w food. ONLY END GOAL MATTERS. SPEAKING. Differential Reinforcement - Target Behavior Decreased by Reinforcing behaviors OTHER THAN Target Behavior. Classical conditioning - neutral stimulus repeatedly paired w unconditioned stimulus so that neutral (conditioned) stimulus eventually elicits response similar to one elicited by unconditioned stimulus. CHAIN - ALL STEPS MATTER. CAKE. CANT HAVE A BROKEN CHAIN. SHAPING - ONLY FINAL STEP MATTERS.

A parent yells at her 5-year-old son whenever he misbehaves. The boy quickly figures out that, if he apologizes for his misbehavior, his mother will stop yelling at him. Consequently, he begins to say, "I'm sorry" as soon as his mother starts yelling at him. The boy's apologizing is best described as the result of which of the following? Select one: A. avoidance conditioning Incorrect B. escape conditioning C. stimulus control D. stimulus generalization

B. escape conditioning Boy's apologizing is maintained because it allows him to "escape" his mother's yelling once it has started. Avoidance conditioning - presenting stimulus that signals aversive event is about to occur so eventually stimulus elicits behavior that allows indiv to avoid aversive event. - If mom's nose would flare up before screaming & boy would run away before started. Stimulus control - Beh brought under stimulus control when stimulus signals whether or not beh will be reinforced. Stimulus generalization - when stimuli similar to original CS elicit the CR.

Feature-integration theory (Treisman & Gelade, 1980) would be of most interest to a reasearcher who is investigating: Select one: A. focused auditory attention. B. focused visual attention. Correct C. divided attention. D. selective attention.

B. focused visual attention. Feature-integration theory is used to explain how we perceive objects as complete entities rather than as meaningless collections of features (color, texture, size). Treisman & Gelade -focused visual attention necessary to perceive objects as objects rather than collection of unrelated features.

Baltes et al.'s (1999) meta-analysis of research on the compressed (four-day) workweek found that it results in: Select one: A. an increase in job satisfaction but a decrease in supervisor ratings of performance. B. increases in job satisfaction and supervisor ratings of performance. C. increases in objective measures of productivity and organizational commitment. Incorrect D. a decrease in objective measures of productivity and an increase in absenteeism.

B. increases in job satisfaction & supervisor ratings of performance. Effect on SUPERVISOR RATING OF PERFORMANCE Not much on SELF-RATING OF PERFORMANCE Baltes - compressed workweek had Positive effects on - SUPERVISOR ratings of employee PERFORMANCE -employee overall JOB SATISFACTION - employee Satisfaction with the WORK SCEHDULE, effects being Strongest for employee ATTITUDES

In Ainsworth's Strange Situation, children classified as __________may or may not cry when their mother leaves, ignore her when she returns, and, if they do become distressed, are just as likely to be comforted by a stranger as by their own mother. Select one: A. secure B. insecure/avoidant C. insecure/resistant Incorrect D. disorganized/disoriented

B. insecure/avoidant AVOID MOM, LIKE STRANGER Ainsworth originally identified three attachment patterns 1. secure, 2. insecure/avoidant, and 3. insecure/resistant. 4. Maine added disorganized/disoriented pattern. - Secure in-exhibit some distress when mom leaves & Unlikely to be comforted by Stranger. - Avoidant - Little Distress to mom's departure, ignore her when returns, & MORE FRIENDLY TO Stranger. - Resistant- VERY Upset when mom leaves & not comforted by her return. Disorganized/disoriented - contradictory, disoriented behavior during events of the Strange Situation.

Because of a series of misbehaviors, your adolescent daughter has been restricted from participating in a number of activities over the next few months. To Increase her Positive Behaviors, you decide to remove a restriction each time she engages in one of the desired behaviors. This is an example of: Select one: A. positive reinforcement. B. negative reinforcement. C. response cost. Incorrect D. shaping.

B. negative reinforcement. In this situation, youre removing a stimulus in order to increase a behavior. Removal of a stimulus (restriction) after a behavior in order to increase that behavior is referred to as negative reinforcement. Punishment -used to decrease a behavior. Response Cost - type of Punishment. Used to DECREASE occurrence of a behavior. Shaping -type of Positive Reinforcement. Involves APPLYING (not removing) a stimulus following a behavior in order to INCREASE that behavior.

Herzberg's two-factor theory predicts that, if a worker's job is redesigned so that she has less autonomy and responsibility but is also given a raise in salary, the worker will be: Select one: A. dissatisfied. Incorrect B. neither satisfied nor dissatisfied. C. satisfied. D. both satisfied and dissatisfied.

B. neither satisfied nor dissatisfied. MOTIVATIONAL FACTORS - ADDS MOTIVATION WHEN ADDED, YET DOESNT REMOVE MOTIVATION IF NO PRESENT. Neither satisfied or dissatisfied. HYGEINE FACTORS - DISSATISFACTION WHEN NOT PRESENT, NO EFFECT WHEN PRESENT. Herzberg's theory predicts that motivator factors produce satisfaction WHEN PRESENT - but have NO EFFECT ON SATISFACTION if NOT PRESENT In contrast, Hygiene factors produce Dissatisfaction when Not Adequate but have NO EFFECT WHEN ADEQUATE. Consequently, if worker's job redesigned so produces few motivator factors (less autonomy & responsibility) and more adequate hygiene factors (pay), will be neither satisfied nor dissatisfied.

Constructional apraxia is caused by damage to the: Select one: A. corpus callosum. B. parietal lobe. Correct C. basal ganglia. D. temporal lobe.

B. parietal lobe. Correct Constructional apraxia -inability to - Copy or Draw Figures or to - arrange Blocks in a Pattern. Apraxia involves inability to perform skilled mvmnts that are not due to muscle weakness, sensory loss, general intellectual deterioration, or lack of cooperation. - Most forms of apraxia (including constructional apraxia) are caused by damage to the parietal lobe.

A psychophysicist is measuring "just noticeable differences" while investigating the relationship between changes in the intensity of light and her research participants' perceptions of those changes. The measuring scale being used has: Select one: A. physically equal intervals. B. psychologically equal intervals. Correct C. physically and psychologically equal intervals. D. physically and psychologically unequal intervals.

B. psychologically equal intervals. Psychophysics is study of relationship btwn stimulus Magnitude & Perception of that stimulus. Use just noticeable differences (JNDs) & similar measurements to study relationship btwn changes in Physical stimuli & Psychological Responses to those changes. JNDs considered to be Equal; but corresponding Physical Stimuli usually are NOT. - EG:, may take only addition of 1 pound to notice difference when start w 10 pounds but addition of 10 pounds to notice a difference when start w 100 pounds. = In each case, JND is equal to 1, but Physical differences in weight are NOT SAME. PSYCHOLOGICAL JND =-SAME PHYSICAL DIFFERENCE - NOT SAME

According to Selye (1956), during the ______ stage of the general adaptation syndrome, the hypothalamus signals the pituitary gland to release adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), which causes the adrenal cortex to release cortisol. Select one: A. alarm Incorrect B. resistance C. preparation D. exhaustion

B. resistance GAS = RESISTANCE STAGE = ADRENAL GLAND RELEASES CORTISOL General Adaptation Sydrome - adaption to Stress ALARM, RESISTANCE, EXHAUSTION. Resistance stage occurs when Stress PERSISTS, as a result, - Hypothalamus signals - Pituitary gland to - release ACTH which then - activates Adrenal Cortex to - release the stress hormone CORTISOL

A meta-analysis of the research by Baltes and his colleagues (1999) found that instituting flextime in an organization is likely to have the LEAST beneficial effects on which of the following? Select one: A. absenteeism B. self-rated performance Correct C. satisfaction with work schedule D. overall job satisfaction

B. self-rated performance Correct Baltes found flextime had substantial positive effects on -Absenteeism - Satisfaction w work Schedule - Overall job Satsifaction But had little effect on self-rated performance. -HOWEVER, DID HAVE EFFECT ON SUPERVISOR RATINGS ON EMPLOYEE PERFORMANCE

B. F. Skinner attributed which of the following to accidental, noncontingent reinforcement? Select one: A. experimental neurosis B. superstitious behavior Correct C. overshadowing D. satiation

B. superstitious behavior ACCIDENTAL NONCONTINGENT REINFORCEMENT = SUPERSTITIOUS BEH Skinner found that animal subjects would repeat beh that were accidentally reinforced & proposed that noncontingent reinforcement may account for acquisition of superstitious behaviors in humans.

A teacher administers a math achievement test to the 25 students in her 6th grade class on the first day of the semester and then again on the last day of the semester to see how much they gained in math ability. To analyze the data she obtains, the teacher should use which of the following statistical tests? Select one: A. t-test for a single sample B. t-test for correlated samples Correct C. t-test for uncorrelated samples D. t-test for multiple means

B. t-test for correlated samples Correct T-test for Correlated (dependent) samples used to compare 2 RELATED MEANS - means obtained from SAME SAMPLE at TWO DIFF TIMES. T-test for Single Sample is used to compare obtained sample mean to a known POPULATION MEAN. T-test for UNCorrelated (independent) means used to compare TWO MEANS obtained from UNRELATED SAMPLES.

Erikson identified identity formation as the key issue during adolescence. At around age 18 or 19, this issue begins to be replaced by which of the following? Select one: A. the need to "repudiate one's choices." B. the need to develop interpersonal closeness and solidarity. C. the need to achieve a higher degree of individuation. D. the need to be productive and creative. Incorrect

B. the need to develop interpersonal closeness and solidarity. Erikson's stage of Identity vs. Role Confusion is followed by Intimacy vs. Isolation. Psychosocial issues of early adulthood center on intimacy & solidarity vs Isolation. Generativity vs. Stagnation - middle adulthood. Freud/Erikson Stages Psychosocial Dev 1. Oral Stage 0-1/Basic Trust vs Mistrust 2. Anal S 1-3/Autonomy vs shame & doubt 3. Phallic S 3-6/initiative vs guilt stage. 4. Latency S 6-12/Industry vs inferiority (School) 5. Genital S 12+/Identity vs Role Confusion (Erikson - dev task as teen is- dev COHERENT IDENTITY. Erikson only 6. Intimacy vs Isolation (18 yo. young adult) - love, friends. 7. Generativity vs Stagnation (middle adulthood) - 8. Ego-Integrity vs Despair (old age) - humankind. Wisdom, Integrity, limitations & mortality.

In the context of exposure to the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), the term "seroconversion" refers to: Select one: A. the point in time at which transmission of the virus occurred. B. the process of converting from antibody negative to antibody positive. Correct C. the period during which the infected individual is asymptomatic. D. the bodys reaction to an anti-retroviral drug.

B. the process of converting from antibody negative to antibody positive. Seroconversion - conversion from HIV negative (SeroNegative) to HIV positive (SeroPositive) as result of presence of Antibodies. Seroconversion often does not occur until wks after infection, so may develop acute HIV infection sx while still having neg HIV antibody test.

The research suggests that about _____ percent of children who receive a diagnosis of ADHD continue to meet the diagnostic criteria for the disorder in adolescence. Select one: A. 20 to 35 B. 40 to 55 Incorrect C. 65 to 80 D. 85 to 90

C. 65 to 80 65-80% of ADHD KIDS ARE ADHD TEENS Studies indicate btwn 65 - 80% of children who receive ADHD dx continue to exhibit sx that meet criteria for dx in adolescence.

In their often-cited study of community mental health services and ethnicity, Sue and his colleagues (1991) found that, with regard to treatment outcomes: Select one: A. Hispanic and African American clients showed substantially less improvement than Anglo and Asian American clients. B. Hispanic American clients showed somewhat less improvement than African, Anglo, and Asian American clients. C. African American clients showed somewhat less improvement than Hispanic, Anglo, and Asian American clients. Correct D. Hispanic, African, and Asian American clients showed less improvement than Anglo American clients.

C. African American clients showed somewhat less improvement than Hispanic, Anglo, and Asian American clients. HISPANIC AMERICANS -BEST AFRICAN AMERICAN - WORST OUTCOMES From Community Mental Health Tx Sue et al. (1991) compared outcomes of therapy for African, Hispanic, Asian, and Anglo American individuals receiving outpatient mental health services in LA. Found that 1. Hispanic American -BEST outcomes followed by 2. Anglo 3. Asian 4. LASTLY AFRICAN AMERICAN

Which of the following theories proposes that the development of gender-role identity involves recognizing what males and females are "supposed to do" in one's own sociocultural environment and then adapting one's behaviors and attitudes to fit those expectations? Select one: A. Freuds psychodynamic theory B. Mischels social learning theory C. Bems gender schema theory Correct D. Kohlbergs cognitive-developmental theory

C. Bems Gender Schema theory BEM SOCIOCULTURAL GENDER SCHEMA - LEARN THEN APPLY Bem's Gender Schema Theory - a Social-Cognitive approach because emphasizes both - Social (especially SocioCultural) factors and - Cognitive processes. Kids develop schemas about whats expected of girls or boys, then apply those schemas to own behavior. Freud's theory of gender-role identity focuses on resolution of Psychosexual Crisis of Phallic stage of dev. Mischel's social learning theory does emphasize Social factors, but focuses primarily on impact of PUNISHMENT & REINFORCEMENT on dev of gender-role identity. Kohlberg's Cognitive-Developmental theory - Cognitive processes underlie development of gender-role identity. KOHLBERG - COGNITIVE FREUD - PHALLIC STAGE MICHEL - SOCIAL REWARD PUNSISHMENT BEM - SOCIAL & CULTURAL SCHEMAS

Which of the following best describes current views regarding the use of drugs to treat delirium in older adults? Select one: A. Antipsychotic drugs are contraindicated for older adults because of their ineffectiveness. B. Newer (atypical) antipsychotic drugs are substantially more effective than haloperidol. C. Haloperidol is effective but should be administered initially at a low dose and then gradually increased if necessary. Correct D. Haloperidol is effective only when administered in conjunction with a benzodiazepine.

C. Haloperidol is effective but should be administered initially at low dose & gradually increased if necessary. DELERIUM - HALPERDOL DRUG OF CHOICE - Elderly - start low go slow APA's guidelines for tx of Delirium identify haloperidol as drug-of-choice for tx. -as effective for older adults as is for younger adults. Because older adults more sensitive to therapeutic & SE of antipsychotics (as well as other drugs), experts recommend initiating treatment w low dose then increasing if necessary to achieve desired effects.

The use of implosive therapy is based on the assumption that: Select one: A. pairing stimuli associated with an undesirable response with a stimulus that produces a more adaptive response will result in elimination of the undesirable response. B. consistently withholding reinforcement from an undesirable conditioned response will eventually result in extinction of that response. C. repeatedly presenting stimuli associated with an undesirable conditioned response without the unconditioned stimulus will eventually result in extinction of that response. D. consistently applying an aversive (unconditioned) stimulus following an undesirable conditioned response will eventually eliminate that response. Incorrect

C. Repeatedly Presenting stimuli Assoc w Undesirable Conditioned Response w/o Unconditioned Stimulus will eventually result in Extinction of that response. IMPLOSIVE THERAPY = EXTINCTION OF CONDITIONED RESPONSE TO PHOBIA - Thru repeated pairing w conditioned stimulus w/o unconditioned stimulus. IMPLODE = MAKE IT EXTINCT/GET RID OF IT IMPLODE MY PHOBIA Implosive Therapy is based on classical conditioning & uses extinction to eliminate an undesirable response. Used to treat Phobic responses & involves repeatedly presenting feared stimulus (conditioned stimulus) ELEVATOR in imagination without unconditioned stimulus FALLING so that feared stimulus no longer produces an anxiety response. - Incorporates psychodynamic principles by embellishing images w psychodynamic themes.

An assumption underlying Marlatt and Gordon's (1985) relapse prevention (RP) model is that: Select one: A. abstinence is the only goal since any drug use will trigger the "latent disease." B. addictive behaviors are acquired through classical conditioning and, therefore, must be eliminated through the use of aversive conditioning and other classical conditioning techniques. C. addictive habit patterns can be changed through the application of self-management and self-control procedures. D. relapse is a result of a "treatment failure" rather than an "individual failure." Incorrect

C. addictive habit patterns can be changed through the application of self-management and self-control procedures. RELAPSE PREVENTION MODEL - CHANGE ADDITIVE HABITS thru SELF-CONTROL & SELF-MANAGEMENT Marlatt & Gordon's Relapse Prevention Model - based on Social Learning Theory - views Addictive Behaviors as acquired (overlearned) habit patterns. - Focus on acquiring Skills to reduce Risk for Relapse. - SELF MANAGEMENT & SELF CONTROL

When asked about their abusive activities, child sex abusers are most likely to: Select one: A. acknowledge what they did was wrong but say they werent able to control their impulses. Incorrect B. initially deny the abuse but eventually admit their actions and express remorse. C. admit their actions but minimize the harmful effects of those actions on the child. D. admit their actions, express shame and embarrassment, and say they will never do it again.

C. admit their actions but minimize the harmful effects of those actions on the child. Research on child sex abusers found they share number of characteristics. Study - Largest proportion of sample (57%) admitted engaging in sexual beh w child but Minimized behavior in some way - deny child was HARMED or BLAMED CHILD. Consistent w many other studies indicating Majority of child sex abusers & sex offenders Minimize, Rationalize, or Justify abusive behaviors. SEX OFFENDERS - ADMIT CRIME - MINIMIZE HARM TO OR BLAME VICTIM

Alfred Adler believed that a client's earliest memories provide information about his/her: Select one: A. defense mechanisms. B. internal working models. C. basic mistakes. Correct D. ego-state.

C. basic mistakes. ADLER - EARLY MEMORIES provide info on BASIC MISTAKES (Distorted Beliefs & Attitudes) - connected to ct's STYLE OF LIFE. Adlerians use a variety of techniques to obtain info about client's style of life. Basic mistakes are distorted beliefs and attitudes that contribute to a person's style of life and may be revealed in the client's earliest memories.

Bouchard and McGue (1981) reported a correlation coefficient of .45 for the IQ test scores of: Select one: A. biological parent and child (together). Incorrect B. biological parent and child (apart). C. biological siblings raised together. D. biological siblings raised apart.

C. biological siblings raised together. IQ Correlation STRONGER CORRELATION BTWN SIBLINGS THAN PARENT/CHILD .22 - Biological parent & child raised APART .24 - Biological siblings reared APART .39 - Biological parent & child raised by parent. .45 - Biological SIBLINGS reared Together.

A woman's clothing store hires only females as sales clerks because one of the clerks' tasks is to assist women in the store's dressing room. In this case, the store would use which of the following standards to justify hiring only women as sales clerks? Select one: A. quid pro quo B. business necessity Incorrect C. bona fide occupational qualification D. systematic discrimination

C. bona fide occupational qualification Bona fide occupational qualification (BFOQ) is another defense to a charge of adverse impact and applies when characteristic is essential determinant of genuineness of job or must be taken into consideration to maintain - Community Standards of Morality or Propriety. = Gender is BFOQ for job described in this question. Quid pro quo is - term assoc w sexual harassment. Occurs when hiring or Employment Decision based on person's Submission or Rejection of sexual advances. Business Necessity- defense to charge of adverse impact. Using discriminatory hiring practice on ground that job related & necessary for safe & efficient operation of business. Considering only applicants w specific education is business necessity when necessary to perform job at a minimum level of competence. Systematic discrimination- pattern of discrimination at place of employment due to pervasive, interrelated Policies and Procedures.

Which of the following aspects of the central nervous system is least well-developed at birth? Select one: A. diencephalon B. midbrain C. cerebral cortex D. cerebellum Incorrect

C. cerebral cortex CEREBRAL CORTEX - LAST BRAIN AREA TO DEVELOP. - INCLUDES FRONTAL CORTEX Brain develops both before & after birth in orderly sequence. At birth, infant's brain is about one-fourth size of an adult brain. Cortex is not well-developed at birth, which suggests newborn behaviors are primarily reflexive (i.e., mediated by the lower centers of brain). Some areas of cortex (those involved in problem-solving, self-concept, & planning) do not fully develop until adolescence or early adulthood.

Damage to the right hippocampus is most likely to cause: Select one: A. psychic blindness. B. interruption of the normal sleep-wake cycle. C. deficits in spatial memory. D. deficits in procedural memory. Incorrect

C. deficits in spatial memory. R HIPPOCAMPUS - SPACIAL TEMPORAL R HIPPO remains same thru SPACE & TIME Right hippocampus is involved in memory for NONVERBAL Info - Spatial Memory - Temporal memory. Hippocampus - Declarative Memory (Episodic & Semantic) Study of cabdrivers, PET scans - Right Hippocampus responsible for ability to form & recall complex routes. Psychic blindness - sx of Kluver-Bucy syndrome caused by damage to Amygdala & Temporal lobes. Hippocampus plays a role in Declarative memory, NOT Procedural memories.

A person with anosognosia will: Select one: A. be unable to recognize parts of her own body. B. be unable to recognize familiar faces. Incorrect C. deny the paralysis in her left leg. D. report an area of blindness in her left visual field.

C. deny the paralysis in her left leg. Anosognosia is one of several types of agnosia. All agnosias - failure of recognition that is NOT due to sensory deficit or verbal or intellectual impairment. Failure to recognize one's own neurological symptoms (e.g., paralysis). Often accompanies asomatognosia. Asomatognosia- damage to somatosensory cortex, which creates inability to recognize parts of own body usually to L side. Prosopagnosia - inability to recognize familiar faces. Scotoma -damage to Primary Visual Cortex causing blindness in L Visual Field.

In adults, Major Depressive Disorder occurs about twice as often in females than in males. This gender difference: Select one: A. is the opposite of what is found in prepubertal children. B. is the same as what is found in prepubertal children. Incorrect C. does not become evident until adolescence. D. does not become evident until early adulthood.

C. does not become evident until adolescence. Although some evidence that young girls exhibit more risk factors for dep during childhood, not until puberty that gender diff in rates of MDD becomes evident. MDD - SAME RATES IN CHILDREN GENDER DIFF OF MORE FEMALE - Evident in ADOLESCENCE SAME % OF DEP - M/F TILL TEENS THEN MORE F %.

A college freshman is being pressured by his parents to make a career choice and choose a college major. The young man is leaning toward a career in agriculture, but both of his parents are accountants and they want him to choose accounting so that he can eventually take over the family business. In terms of Marcia's "identity statuses," if the young man acquiesces to his parents' wishes, this will represent: Select one: A. moratorium. B. diffusion. C. foreclosure. Correct D. pseudo-achievement.

C. foreclosure. Marcia -distinguished btwn four IDENTITY STATUSES. - Diffusion - no identity crisis. Not interested in career. - Foreclosure - no identity crisis. Take parents choices. - Moratorium -EXP IDENTITY CRISIS. Try roles & explore - Achievement. - made & committed to career choice. Identity-foreclosed-made commitment to identity that has been imposed by parents or other authority figures.

The use of clomipramine in the treatment of Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD): Select one: A. is effective only for reducing accompanying depressive symptoms. B. has anti-obsessional effects both during administration and after cessation of drug use. C. has both antidepressant and anti-obsessional effects for as long as the drug is administered. Correct D. eliminates the need for psychosocial treatment, especially in mild to moderate cases of OCD.

C. has both antidepressant and anti-obsessional effects for as long as the drug is administered. CLOMIPRAMINE (TCA)- Reduce OCD Sx of Dep & Obsessions Research has shown that some antidepressants - including tricyclic clomipramine - not only reduce DEPRESSIVE sx that often accompany OCD but also reduce OBESSIONS. - When not used in conjunction w EXPOSURE w RESPONSE PREVENTION, sx Return once drug stopped.

As a treatment for Borderline Personality Disorder, Linehan's (1987) dialectical behavior therapy emphasizes which of the following? Select one: A. altering the client's dysfunctional behaviors using modeling and behavior rehearsal Incorrect B. using family therapy to alter the client's social and emotional environment C. improving the client's problem-solving and social skills D. strengthening the client's weak ego

C. improving the client's problem-solving and social skills DBT = PROBLEM SOLVING & SOCIAL SKILL DEV. Knowing (DBT) includes group skills training aimed at improving ct's Social & Coping skills.

For Miller and Dollard (1941), the approach-approach conflict: Select one: A. is a dilemma because as soon as the individual approaches one positive goal, the pull of the other positive goal increases in strength. B. is a dilemma that is often resolved by "leaving the field" and choosing a third goal. C. is not really a dilemma since, once the individual begins to approach one positive goal, the strength of the pull of the other positive goal decreases. Correct D. is an unpredictable dilemma because it is impossible to ever know if the appropriate goal has been selected.

C. is not really a dilemma since, once the individual begins to approach one positive goal, the strength of the pull of the other positive goal decreases. Miller & Dollard distinguish btwn 3 conflicts: 1. approach-avoidance - Something you want & don't want together. Food and shock at end of maze. Approach & avoidance gradients at work. 2. avoidance-avoidance - conflict btwn two things you don't like. Creates Avoidance in making choice. 3. approach-approach. - choice btwn two things you like. Assuming no major diff btwn them, you pick closest or most convenient. - Not a dilemma. When does arouse conflict, its because hidden or latent avoidance conditions operating.

In a multitrait-multimethod matrix, the __________ coefficients are correlation coefficients that provide information about a test's convergent validity. Select one: A. heterotrait-heteromethod Incorrect B. heterotrait-monomethod C. monotrait-heteromethod D. monotrait-monomethod

C. monotrait-heteromethod = CONVERGENT V A multitrait-multimethod matrix provides info about test's CONVERGENT & DIVERGENT (discriminant) Validity. Heterotrait-Heteromethod = DIVERGENT VALIDITY. Heterotrait-monomethod = also DIVERGENT V. Monotrait-monomethod = RELIABILITY MT-HM = CONVERGENT (1 Trait, Multi Method) HT/HM or HT/MM = DIVERGENT (Any Hetrotrait = Div) MM= RELIABILITY

Moffitt (1993) attributes the life-course-persistent type of antisocial behavior to which of the following? Select one: A. a maturity gap B. behavioral disinhibition C. neurological vulnerability Correct D. a personality disorder

C. neurological vulnerability Moffitt - 2 types of Antisocial Behavior that differ in terms of Onset, symptom Severity, & Etiology. Attributes - Adolescence-Limited type to Maturity Gap, & - Life-course Persistent type to a combo of 1. Neurological Vulnerability, 2. difficult Temperament, and 3. Criminogenic Environment (parental criminality, inept parenting). MATURITY GAP - TEENS NEUROLOGICAL, TERMPERMENTAL, & CRIMINAL ENVIRONMENT - LIFETIME PREVALENCE

In the context of test validity, ________ is said to occur when a criterion-related validity coefficient is smaller in size for a cross-validation sample than it was for the initial sample. Select one: A. criterion deficiency B. contracture C. shrinkage Correct D. attenuation

C. shrinkage Cross-validation involves re-assessing test's criterion-related validity on a New Sample to check Generalizability of original Validity Coefficient. Validity coefficient usually "shrinks" on cross-validation because chance factors operating in original sample are not all present in the cross-validation sample.

When making the appointment with a new client for her first therapy session, Dr. Steven Sue asks the client to notice whether any changes in her behavior occur between their phone conversation and her first therapy session. Then, during the first session, Dr. Sue asks the client what she noticed. Apparently, Dr. Sue is a practitioner of: Select one: A. motivational interviewing. B. interpersonal therapy. C. solution-focused therapy. D. reality therapy. Incorrect

C. solution-focused therapy. Asking ct to notice if any changes in behavior occur btwn initial phone conversation & first therapy session is one technique used by solution-focused therapists to obtain info that can help identify Solutions to ct's prob.

The analysis of covariance (ANCOVA) is used to: Select one: A. analyze data when a "fully crossed" research design has been used. B. analyze data when a study involves two or more independent variables. C. statistically remove the effects of an extraneous variable. Correct D. statistically analyze the main and interaction effects of an extraneous variable.

C. statistically remove the effects of an extraneous variable. ANCOVA -used to statistically Remove Effects of Extraneous Variable on DV so effects of one or more IV's can be more easily detected. MANOVA - used to statistically Analyze MAIN & INTERACTION Effects of an Extraneous Variable.

Tiedeman and O'Hara's (1963) model of career development emphasizes which of the following? Select one: A. basic interests B. basic instinctual needs C. vocational identity Correct D. locus of control

C. vocational identity TIEDEMAN & OHARA - Balanced EGO VOCATIONAL IDENTITY - Joining career world & maintaining own Identity Tiedeman & O'Hara - career development Is process involving acquisition of Personal vocational identity. Achievement of Personal Vocational Identity involves Balancing Integration 1. (being Part of a career field) with 2. Differentiation (retaining Individuality & Uniqueness).

Cross-cultural research has identified several universal emotions that are associated with similar facial expressions by individuals from diverse cultures. Which of the following is NOT one of these? Select one: A. fear B. anger Incorrect C. disgust D. shame

D. shame SHAME IS NOT A UNIVERSAL EMOTION - DIFF IN DIFF CULTURES Universal emotions 1. Happiness, 2. Sadness, 3. Fear, 4. Anger, 5. Disgust, 6. Surprise, and 7. Contempt. Ppl from diverse cultural backgrounds use very similar facial expressions to express these emotions.

_________________ has been used as a pharmacologic model for Schizophrenia because drugs that alleviate the former also reduce the symptoms of the latter. Select one: A. Serotonin syndrome Incorrect B. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome C. Alcohol delirium tremens D. Amphetamine psychosis Feedback Answer D is correct: Research on amphetamine psychosis has provided support for the dopamine hypothesis for Schizophrenia: First, amphetamines exert their effects by altering dopamine activity. Second, a high dose of amphetamine produces symptoms similar to those associated with Schizophrenia, and amphetamines exacerbate the symptoms of Schizophrenia. Third, drugs that reduce dopamine levels alleviate the symptoms of amphetamine psychosis and Schizophrenia.

D. Amphetamine psychosis Research on AMPHETAMINE PYSCHOSIS provided support for DOPAMINE HYPOTHESIS for Schizophrenia: - Amphetamines exert effects by Altering DOPAMINE Activity. - High dose of amphetamine produces sx similar to Schizophrenia, & Amphetamines Exacerbate sx of Schizophrenia. - Drugs that reduce Dopamine Levels alleviate sx of Amphetamine Psychosis & Schizophrenia.

Problems involving sensation in the inner forearm and the ring and little fingers are most likely due to spinal injury at the ______ level. Select one: A. L1 - Lumbar - Thighs & Hips B. S1 to S4 - Sacral - Foot, Leg C. T2 to T12 - Trunk D. C8 to T1 - Forearm, Ring & Little Fingers

D. C8 to T1 T1 - first segment of Thoracic Spinal Cord. Contains nerves that innervate forearm & C8 innervates ring & little fingers. Spinal Cord divided into 4 regions - from top to bottom, these are 1. cervical, 2. thoracic, 3. lumbar, and 4. sacral. Lumbar region - nerves that connect to thigh, hip, & leg. Sacral Region -nerves that innervate Foot & Posterior and Lateral aspects of the leg. T2 through T12 innervate the trunk.

The basic assumptions and procedures of motivational interviewing (Miller & Rollnick, 1991) were derived from: Select one: A. Sullivan's interpersonal therapy and Bandura's notion of self-efficacy. B. Sullivan's interpersonal therapy and Meyer's psychobiological approach. C. Rogers' person-centered therapy and Maslow's need hierarchy. D. Rogers' person-centered therapy and Bandura's notion of self-efficacy. Correct

D. Rogers' person-centered therapy and Bandura's notion of self-efficacy. MOTIVATIONAL INTERVIEWING - ROGERIAN - PERSON CENTERED (empathy) & BANDURA'S SELF EFFICACY (belief of being able to change) As its name implies, motivational interviewing was developed for clients who are ambivalent about changing their behavior. Motivational interviewing stresses therapist 1. Empathy, 2. Reflective listening, and 3. Responding to resistance in nonconfrontational way 4. addresses ct's beliefs about ability to change.

Which of the following are required for a DSM diagnosis of Antisocial Personality Disorder? Select one: A. a pervasive pattern of disregard for and violation of the rights of others that began prior to age 15 plus a current age of 16 or older B. a pervasive pattern of disregard for and violation of the rights of others that began prior to age 15 plus a current age of 18 or older C. a pervasive pattern of disregard for and violation of the rights of others since age 14, a history of Conduct Disorder symptoms prior to age 14, plus a current age of 16 or older D. a pervasive pattern of disregard for and violation of the rights of others since age 15, a history of Conduct Disorder symptoms prior to age 15, plus a current age of 18 or older Correct

D. a pervasive pattern of disregard for and violation of the rights of others since age 15, a history of Conduct Disorder symptoms prior to age 15, plus a current age of 18 or older Antisocial Personality Disorder - 15+, 15-, 18 - pervasive pattern of disregard for & violation of rights of others SINCE 15 YO - SX of Conduct Disorder PRIOR TO 15 YO and - Current age of 18 YO

Richard Stuart's operant interpersonal therapy combines the principles of operant conditioning with: Select one: A. social role theory. B. social constructionism. C. object relations theory. D. social exchange theory.

D. social exchange theory. STUARTS OPERANT INTERPERSONAL THERAPY = SOCIAL EXCHANGE OF COST/REWARDS. Must have more BENEFIT THAN COST for MARRIAGE TO WORK. Stuart's operant interpersonal therapy - Reinforcement Stuart describes successful MARRIAGES as involving a high degree of Reciprocal Positive Behavioral Exchanges. Stuart's approach to BEHAVIORAL MARITAL THERAPY was Social Exchange Theory. Views Satisfaction in relationships in terms of Cost-Reward Ratios.

The Final Conclusions of the American Psychological Association Working Group on Investigation of Memories of Childhood Abuse (APA, 2000) recommends that, when a therapy client seeks hypnosis as a means of retrieving forgotten memories of childhood abuse, the therapist should: Select one: A. provide such services only if he/she has adequate training and experience. B. provide such services only if he/she has adequate training and experience and seeks supervision in order to ensure objectivity. C. advise the client of the potential risks of hypnosis in this context before using it. Incorrect D. advise the client that hypnosis is not an appropriate procedure for retrieving forgotten memories.

D. advise the client that hypnosis is not an appropriate procedure for retrieving forgotten memories. NO HYPNOSIS FOR RETRIEVING MEMORIES - SAY NO!!!!! Warn cts that hypnosis increases the risk for pseudo memories as well as confidence in the veracity of those memories. WARNING IS NOT ENOUGH. SAY NO TO HYPNOSIS FOR MEMORY RETRIEVAL

Which of the following is LEAST characteristic of Huntington's disease? Select one: A. anxiety, depression, and apathy B. a "dance-like" gait Incorrect C. slow writhing movements D. apraxia, aphasia, and agnosia

D. apraxia, aphasia, and agnosia Huntington's disease produces a form of Subcortical Dementia and, therefore, has symptoms that differ somewhat from dementia due to Alzheimer's disease and other forms of cortical dementia. SX do Include - Emotional & Personality changes -1st signs of HD. Anx, Dep, Apathy. - Dance-like gait - Slow Writing movements (athetosis) Apraxia, Aphasia, and Agnosia = sx of Alzheimer's disease & other Cortical Dementias.

When working with clients with severe depression, Aaron Beck is most likely to begin therapy with which of the following? Select one: A. hypnosis B. pharmacotherapy C. cognitive restructuring exercises D. behavioral tasks Correct

D. behavioral tasks Correct Beck's approach incorporates cognitive & behavioral techniques. Beck notes that therapy may begin somewhat differently for indiv w Severe vs Mild to Moderate dep. - Severe - Behavioral techniques to increase Activity level (e.g., graded task assignments). - Mild to Moderate - start w Cognitive techniques .

When determining a treatment plan for mild to moderate hypertension, it is important to keep in mind that: Select one: A. EMG feedback is the most effective treatment. B. EKG feedback plus medication is the most effective treatment. Incorrect C. biofeedback is ineffective for hypertension. D. blood pressure feedback is an effective training in general relaxation.

D. blood pressure feedback is an effective training in general relaxation. HYPERTENTION TX = BLOOD PRESSURE FEEDBACK & RELAXATION EQUALLY EFFECTIVE for Mild/Mod cases BEST answer to this type of question is usually one that doesnt claim one treatment to be superior to all others. - Although EMG feedback found useful, hasn't been found to be most effective treatment for hypertension. - EKG provides info about Cardiac Functioning - Biofeedback (especially blood pressure feedback) IS USEFUL treatment for mild to moderate hypertension.

Which of the following is the LEAST common side effect of the beta-blocker propranolol (Inderal)? Select one: A. bradycardia B. fatigue and malaise C. sexual dysfunction D. coldness in extremities Correct

D. coldness in extremities Correct I BET Brady is Tired, Sexless, & Cold 1% of the time. BETA BLOCKERS - Bradycardia - 10% of cases. - Fatigue & Malaise 10% of cases. Mis-Dx of Depression. - Decreased sexual ability - 10% of cases. - Coldness in extremities -less than 1% of cases

A practitioner of cognitive therapy is most likely to conceptualize a personality disorder as a consequence of: Select one: A. impulsive action tendencies. B. cognitive enactments. C. maladaptive life scripts. Incorrect D. compelling schemata.

D. compelling schemata. COGNITIVE THERAPY - PERSONALITY DIS = COMPELLING SCHEMAS. Ppl w personality disorders are "generally governed by very compelling schemata," which are not easily challenged or surrendered".

When conducting a research study, you want to ensure that you will detect a difference between the treatment group and the control (no treatment) group. Therefore, you will: Select one: A. decrease error variance by decreasing the magnitude of the independent variable. B. increase experimental variance by increasing the magnitude of the independent variable. C. decrease the probability of making a Type I error by decreasing alpha. Incorrect D. decrease the probability of making a Type II error by increasing beta.

D. decrease probability of making a Type II error by increasing beta. DETECT DIFF BTWN TX GRP & CONTROL GRP = DECREASE PROB OF MAKING TYPE 2 ERROR BY INCREASING BETA. Rephrased- "how do you INCREASE POWER?" To identify correct answer, understanding of power must be beyond definitional level ( - "power is 1 - beta," or - "power is probability of correctly rejecting false null hypothesis,") and at an abstract or conceptual level. Power - the sensitivity of an empirical study. If sig diff exist btwn grps, a powerful study will be sensitive enough to detect the differences. Increasing magnitude of IV would increase experimental variance by increasing diff btwn experimental & control (no tx) grps. This would increase power, or ability to detect effects of IV. - If studying effects of new learning procedure on performance, more likely to detect its effects if you administer learning procedure to experimental grp subjects for 6 wks rather than 1 wk. Decreasing alpha DOES decrease probability of making a Type I error but ALSO REDUCES POWER.

In a scatterplot, the regression lines for a test for two different groups of examinees differ substantially in terms of slope. This suggests that the test has: Select one: A. a lack of factorial validity. B. a lack of convergent validity.. Incorrect C. divergent validity D. differential validity.

D. differential validity. Slope of a regression line for test is directly related to test's Criterion-RELATED Validity: Steeper the slope, greater the Validity. Test has DIFFERENTIAL Validity when - has diff Validity Coefficients for Diff Groups, - Same as Diff Regression Line Slopes in a scatterplot. REGRESSION LINE = VALIDITY COEFFICIENT DIFF = DIFF VALIDITY Factorial Validity -degree Test or Item correlates w FACTORS would be Expected to correlate w in Factor Analysis. Convergent Validity- degree test Correlates w measures of Same or a Similar CONSTRUCT. Divergent Validity - degree test DOESNT Correlate w measures of an Unrelated CONSTRUCT.

Although most health care workers recognize the importance of hand washing for reducing hospital-based infection, frequency of hand washing by hospital personnel is low. Studies evaluating the effectiveness of various strategies for increasing hand washing by health care workers suggest that the most effective approach combines: Select one: A. rewards, sanctions, and provision of moisturized soaps. B. automated sinks and provision of moisturized soaps. C. continuous performance feedback with appropriate rewards and sanctions. D. education, reminders, and continuous performance feedback.

D. education, reminders, and continuous performance feedback. Multi-Component Approach that incorporates EDUCATION is most effective. Hayward conclude that "multifaceted approaches which combine - EDUCATION w written materials, - REMINDERS & - continued FEEDBACK of Performance can have an important effect on handwashing compliance & rates of hospital-acquired infection"

Research has consistently linked increasing age with decreases in scores on measures of ____________ and suggests that these decreases may be related to declines in the efficiency of working memory. Select one: A. verbal comprehension B. nonverbal comprehension C. crystallized intelligence D. fluid intelligence Correct

D. fluid intelligence IQ FLUID INTELLIGENCE DECLINES- 20'S-30'S CRYSTALIZED INTELLIGENCE - MID 50'S + - Crystalized IQ - Can continue to increase into 60's + Evidence decreases in Fluid Intelligence attributable to Declines in Working Memory.

Older adults often experience an advanced sleep phase which means that they: Select one: A. begin a sleep period with REM (versus non-REM) sleep. B. begin a sleep period with Stage 3 sleep. C. have trouble falling asleep at night and wake up later in the morning. D. get sleepier earlier in the evening and wake up earlier in the morning. Correct

D. get sleepier earlier in the evening and wake up earlier in the morning. ADVANCED SLEEP PHASE - Earlier time of Going to bed & Earlier waking time of elderly. Older adults exp advanced sleep phase- shift in timing of sleep - sleep earlier in pm & waking earlier in am.

The Health Belief Model predicts that, to modify an individual's health-related behaviors, an intervention should focus on: Select one: A. the external rewards associated with being healthy. B. the severity, duration, and stage of the individual's illness. C. the individuals locus of control. D. the individuals knowledge, motivation to act, and self-efficacy beliefs.

D. individuals knowledge, motivation to act, and self-efficacy beliefs. Correct HEALTH BELIEF MODEL- PERCEPTIONS & BELIEFS rather than External conditions (rewards & punishments) that influence health-related behaviors. - Willingness to take health-related actions related to BELIEFS about (1) Susceptibility to the illness (2) Consequences of illness; and (3) Benefits & Barriers to taking approp action. Interventions based on Health Belief Model focus on 1. individual's KNOWLEDGE about the illness and 2, methods for Avoiding it 3. MOTIVATION to take action 4. SELF EFFICACY BELIEFS

According to Wolfgang Kohler, learning: Select one: A. is largely the result of trial-and-error. B. is the result of repeated exposure to the same or similar conditions. C. involves using effective encoding and retrieval cues. D. involves discovering relationships between elements of the problem. Correct

D. involves discovering relationships between elements of the problem. Kohler - Insight Learning -sudden understanding of Relationships among a Set of Elements relevant to a problem that leads to recognition of solution to the problem. Insight learning -when there are relationships in problem to be discovered & discovery of those relationships is in organism's COGNITIVE CAPACITY.

Super's life-career rainbow depicts the relationship between the individual's life stages and his/her: Select one: A. level of career differentiation. B. stage of ego identity development. C. career interests. D. life roles. Correct

D. life roles. SUPER LIFE STAGE LIFE ROLES RAINBOW Super's Life-Space, Life-Span Theory of career development integrates several concepts, and his life-career rainbow depicts the relationship between two of these concepts. Super used life-career rainbow to depict impact of person's LIFE STAGE & & LIFE ROLES in career dev.

A brief period of electrical stimulation of the hippocampus enhances nerve cell electrical activity in that area of the brain for minutes to hours. This is referred to as: Select one: A. graded potentiation. B. hyperpolarization. Incorrect C. absolute refractory period. D. long-term potentiation.

D. long-term potentiation. LONG TERM POTENTIATION = ELECTRICAL STIMULATION OF HIPPOCAMPUS = ELECTRICAL ACTIVITY IN NERVE CELL (MIN TO HRS) THE HIPPO HAS LONG TERM POTENTIAL FOR GETTING ON MY NERVES Long-term potentiation (LTP) is believed to underlie certain types of learning and memory.

On the MMPI-2, higher-than-normal L and K scale scores with a lower-than-normal F scale score has been linked to which of the following? Select one: A. Malingering Incorrect B. Schizophrenia C. somatization of psychological problems D. parental alientation syndrome

D. parental alientation syndrome Siegel & Langsford compared MMPI-2 profiles of mothers undergoing Custody Eval as part of divorce proceeding. - Found both had Defensive pattern on L, K, & F scales Mothers who also exhibited beh assoc w Parental Alientation Syndrome had - even more extreme scores on these scales w - L & K being higher-than-normal & - F being lower-than-normal. L, K, and F scales are validity scales. Malingering - linked to several score patterns, including - L and K scale scores around 50 with a - slightly Elevated F scale and a - "saw-toothed" pattern on the clinical scales. L & K - about 50 F - Elevated Schizophrenia - "Psychotic Valley" - 6 & 8 substantially higher than 7. Somatization of psychological prob "Neurotic Triad" - 1 & 3 substantially higher than 2. PARENTAL ALIENATION = LOW F, HIGH L & K MALINGERING = HIGH F, Around 50 on L & K

Carstensen's (1993) socioemotional activity theory predicts that changes in ________ over the lifespan are related to changes in time perspective. Select one: A. social self-esteem B. personality traits C. emotional reactivity Incorrect D. social goals

D. social goals SOCIOEMOTIONAL ACTIVITY THEORY - SOCIAL GOALS THROUGHOUT LIFESPAN. Limited Time = Emotional Focus Unlimited Time = Info Gathering Focus Activity in relationship seeking based on Time Left. SocioEmotional Activity Theory -motivational processes that underlie changes in Quality & Quantity of social relationships over lifespan. People w limited time perspective focus on Emotional aspects of relationships while those w Unlimited time perspective focus more on Informational aspects.

Cognitive preparation, skills acquisition and rehearsal, and application and follow-through are the three phases of which of the following interventions? Select one: A. self-control therapy B. self-instructional training Incorrect C. attribution retraining D. stress inoculation training

D. stress inoculation training Feedback STRESS INOCULATION TRAINING - designed to help deal w stress by improving Coping Skills. - Cognitive Preparation - Skill Acquisition - Rehearsal Prepare self, attain Coping SKILLS, Rehearse using them under stress.

Joining and accommodating are the initial steps in __________ family therapy. Select one: A. object relations B. strategic Incorrect C. Milan systemic D. structural

D. structural MINUCHIN'S STRUCTUAL FAMILY THERAPY = JOIN & ACCOMMODATE (Initial For the exam, you want to have joining and accommodating associated with Minuchin's structural family therapy. a. Incorrect See explanation for response d. b. Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. Incorrect See explanation for response d. d. CORRECT Minuchin viewed joining and accomodating as necessary initial processes that reduce family members' resistance to change.

Absence (petit mal) seizures appear to have their origin in which area of the brain? Select one: A. motor cortex Incorrect B. occipital lobe C. amygdala D. thalamus

D. thalamus ABSENCE PETIT MAL SEIZURES = TOO MUCH GABA IN THALAMUS - Loss of CONSCIOUSNESS w Absence of Motor Sx Absence seizures are characterized by an altered level of Consciousness W/O Motor SX. Research w animals & humans indicates that petit mal seizures begin in THALAMUS, which is considered "Gateway to Consciousness." - Research w rats linked Overabundance of GABA receptors in THALAMUS to petit mal seizures.

To evaluate the effectiveness of a training program designed to promote safe behaviors at work, Dr. Juarez observes and records each employee's behavior for 30 minutes each day for one week before and one week after his/her participation in the training program. Dr. Juarez is using which of the following research designs? Select one: A. multiple baseline Incorrect B. changing criterion C. time sampling D. time series

D. time series Study measures safety beh of workers at Regular Intervals before & after participation in training. - When using time series design, DV (outcome) assessed several times at Regular Intervals before & after administration of IV. Multiple Baseline design is Single-Case (single-subject) design involving sequentially applying Tx across diff baselines (across participants, behaviors, or settings). Changing Criterion design-aka: Single-Case design. Criterion (desired freq of target beh) progressively Increased or Decreased during course of study. Time Sampling- Behavioral Observation technique involving observing an indiv or grp of indiv's during prespecified periods of time & recording whether or not target behavior(s) occurred during each period.

For the assessment of Huntington's disease, magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is: Select one: A. not useful because it is not sufficiently sensitive to detect the brain anomalies associated with this disorder. B. not useful because it provides information only on brain morphology, which is not helpful for assessing this disorder. C. useful for distinguishing between active and older inactive plaques in the periventricular regions. D. useful for detecting volume reduction in the basal ganglia, even in some asymptomatic individuals. Correct

D. useful for detecting volume reduction in Basal Ganglia, even in some asymptomatic individuals. HUNTING FOR BASAL HUNTINGTONS DISEASE - MRI SHOWS ABNORMALITIES IN BASAL GANGLIA Knowing Huntington's disease caused by abnormalities in basal ganglia would help identify correct answer Structural & Functional brain imaging techniques BOTH used to assess brain pathology related to Huntington's disease. - MRI (STRUCTURAL Technique) can identify REDUCED VOLUME in BASAL GANGLIA among Genetically at-risk indiv's who havnt yet exhibited overt sx of disorder.

A 36-year-old woman has extensive deficits in declarative memory as the result of a severe head trauma. This means that she will have trouble recalling: Select one: A. what she ate for dinner the previous evening. Incorrect B. how to ride a bicycle and what she ate for dinner. C. the definition of amnesia. D. what she ate for dinner and the definition of amnesia.

D. what she ate for dinner and the definition of amnesia. DECLARATIVE MEMORY= EPISODIC & SEMANTIC Mem. - FACTS & PERSONAL EXPERIENCE Episodic memory - Personally experienced Events. Semantic memory - memory for Factual knowledge

DSM-5 requires that which of the following be ruled out as the cause of an individual's symptoms before assigning a diagnosis of a sexual dysfunction? Select one: A. other mental disorders, physiological/medical factors, and partner factors B. a nonsexual mental disorder, severe relationship distress, and the effects of a substance, medication, or other medical condition Correct C. a nonsexual mental disorder, the effects of a substance/medication, and a lack of information about sexuality D. other mental disorder/condition, the effects of a substance/medication, and psychosocial factors

Not better explained by 1. Nonsexual Mental Disorder, 2. severe Relationship Distress, and the 3. effects of a Substance, Medication, or Other Medical Condition DSM-5 diagnosis of Erectile Disorder, Premature Ejaculation, and other sexual dysfunctions: "The sexual dysfunction is not better explained by a nonsexual mental disorder or as a consequence of severe relationship distress or other significant stressors and is not attributable to the effects of a substance/medication or another medical condition."

When a newly developed test consists of 100 true/false items, the ______________ can be used as an alternative to coefficient alpha for evaluating its internal consistency reliability. Select one: A. Spearman-Brown formula B. coefficient of concordance Incorrect C. Cohen's kappa statistic D. Kuder-Richardson Formula 20

Kuder-Richardson Formula 20 T/F has KUDIES Kuder-Richardson Formula 20 (KR-20) is alternative to coefficient alpha when items scored dichomotously (right/wrong), which would be case for true/false items.