FAA Private Pilot - FAA Regulations
To act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers, a pilot must show by logbook endorsement the satisfactory completion of a flight review or completion of a pilot proficiency check within the preceding A) 6 calendar months B) 24 calendar months C) 12 calendar months
24 calendar months
To maintain BasicMed privileges, you must complete a BasicMed medical education course within the preceding: A) 24 calendar months B) 48 calendar months C) 12 calendar months
24 calendar months
During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum flight visibility for VFR flight at night is A) 3 miles B) 5 miles C) 1 miles
3 miles
No person may operate an aircraft in acrobatic flight when the flight visibility is less than A) 7 miles B) 3 miles C) 5 miles
3 miles
VFR flight in controlled airspace above 1,200 feet AGL and below 10,000 feet MSL requires a minimum visibility and vertical cloud clearance of A) 3 miles, and 500 feet below or 1000 feet above the clouds in controlled airspace B) 5 miles, and 1,000 feet below or 1,000 feet above the clouds at all altitudes C) 5 miles, and 1,000 feet below or 1,000 feet above the clouds only in Class A airspace.
3 miles, and 500 feet below or 1000 feet above the clouds in controlled airspace
If a certificated pilot changes permanent mailing address and fails to notify the FAA Airmen Certification Branch of the new address, the pilot is entitled to exercise the privileges of the pilot certificate for a period of only A) 60 days after the date of the move B) 30 days after the date of the move C) 90 days after the date of the move
30 days after the date of the move
The width of a Federal Airway from either side of the centerline is A) 6 nautical miles B) 4 nautical miles C) 8 nautical miles
4 nautical miles
Which VFR cruising altitude is appropriate when flying above 3,000 feet AGL on a magnetic course of 185°? A) 4,500 feet B) 5,000 feet C) 4,000 feet
4,500 feet
What period of time must a person be hospitalized before an injury may be defined by the NTSB as a 'serious injury'? A) 48 hours; commencing within 7 days after date of the injury B) 72 hours; commencing within 10 days after date of the injury C) 10 days, with no other extenuating circumstances
48 hours; commencing within 7 days after date of the injury
You have completed your BasicMed requirements and plan on flying your friends to a football game. What is the maximum amount of passengers you can bring along? A) One B) 5 C) 4
5
The minimum flight visibility required for VFR flights above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 feet AGL in controlled airspace is A) 5 miles B) 1 mile C) 3 miles
5 miles
Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, an aircraft may not be operated closer than what distance from any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure? A) 700 feet B) 500 feet C) 1,000 feet
500 feet
FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Airmen are issued under which subject number? A) 60 B) 70 C) 90
60
A person may not act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by that person within the preceding A) 12 hours B) 8 hours C) 24 hours
8 hours
FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Air Traffic Control and General Operations are issued under which subject number? A) 90 B) 70 C) 60
90
A friend wants to ride along on a flight with you. You must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings in your aircraft within the preceding A) 90 days B) 60 days C) 30 days
90 days
Under what conditions may objects be dropped from an aircraft? A) If prior permission is received from the Federal Aviation Administration B) Only in an emergency C) If precautions are taken to avoid injury or damage to persons or property on the surface
If precautions are taken to avoid injury or damage to persons or property on the surface
NTSB Part 830 states that an aircraft operator must immediately notify them: A) If the aircraft is later to its destination than one hour of its projected arrival time B) Of any aircraft incident C) In the case of an aircraft accident
In the case of an aircraft accident
You must notify the NTSB immediately if the following occurs. A) Ground fire resulting in fire equipment dispatch B) In-flight fire C) Fire of the primary aircraft while in a hangar which results in damage to other property of more than $25,000
In-flight fire
An aircraft's annual condition inspection was performed on July 12, this year. The next annual inspection will be due no later than A) July 1, next year B) July 13, next year C) July 31, next year
July 31, next year
An aircraft's annual inspection was performed on July 12, this year. The next annual inspection will be due no later than A) July 1, next year B) July 13, next year C) July 31, next year
July 31, next year
When must a pilot who deviates from a regulation during an emergency send a written report of that deviation to the Administrator? A) Upon request B) Within 10 days C) Within 7 days
Upon request
Which V-speed represents maneuvering speed? A) VNE B) VA C) VLO
VA
Which V-speed represents maximum landing gear extended speed? A) VLE B) VLO C) VFE
VLE
Maximum structural cruising speed is abbreviated as: A) VS0 B) VNO C) VNE
VNO
If an alteration or repair substantially affects an aircraft's operation in flight, that aircraft must be test flown by an appropriately-rated pilot and approved for return to service prior to being operated A) For compensation or hire B) By any private pilot C) With passengers aboard
With passengers aboard
The plane you are flying is capable of cruising at 28,000 ft and going 330 knots. You are pilot in command operating under BasicMed, and part 91. Is this flight legal? A) Yes, as long as you receive a permit from the nearest FSDO B) Yes, as long as you do not exceed 18,000' and 250 knots C) No, the airplane must be certified at or below 18,000' max altitude and 250 knots or less
Yes, as long as you do not exceed 18,000' and 250 knots
When must a current pilot certificate be in the pilot's personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft? A) Only when passengers are carried B) Anytime when acting as pilot in command or as a required crew member C) When acting as a crew chief during launch and recovery
Anytime when acting as pilot in command or as a required crew member
How long does the Airworthiness Certificate of an aircraft remain valid? A) As long as the aircraft has a current Registration Certificate B) As long as the aircraft is maintained and operated as required by Federal Aviation Regulations C) Indefinitely, unless the aircraft suffers major damage
As long as the aircraft is maintained and operated as required by Federal Aviation Regulations
Where may an aircraft's operating limitations be found if the aircraft has an Experimental or Special light-sport airworthiness certificate? A) In the aircraft airframe and engine logbooks B) In the current, FAA-approved flight manual C) Attached to the Airworthiness Certificate
Attached to the Airworthiness Certificate
What should an owner or operator know about Airworthiness Directives (AD's)? A) For Informational purposes only B) They are mandatory C) They are voluntary
They are mandatory
Based upon the altitude indicated by altimeter #3, which course direction is appropriate for this VFR cruising altitude? A) 080° magnetic B) 0°-179° true C) 180°-359° magnetic
080° magnetic
The three takeoffs and landings that are required to act as pilot in command at night must be done during the time period from A) Sunset to sunrise B) The end of evening civil twilight to the beginning of morning civil twilight C) 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise
1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise
For VFR flight operations above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 feet AGL, the minimum horizontal distance from clouds required is A) 1 mile B) 1,000 feet C) 2,000 feet
1 mile
Outside controlled airspace, the minimum flight visibility requirement for VFR flight above 1,200 feet AGL and below 10,000 feet MSL during daylight hours is A) 3 miles B) 5 miles C) 1 mile
1 mile
What minimum visibility and clearance from clouds are required for VFR operations in Class G airspace at 700 feet AGL or below during daylight hours? A) 1 mile visibility, 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontal clearance from clouds B) 3 miles visibility and clear of clouds C) 1 mile visibility and clear of clouds
1 mile visibility and clear of clouds
What are the basic VFR weather minima required to takeoff from the Onawa, IA (K36) airport during the day? A) 3 statute miles, clear of clouds B) 3 statute miles visibility, 500 feet below the clouds, 1,000 feet above the clouds, and 2,000 feet horizontally from the clouds C) 1 statue mile, clear of clouds
1 statue mile, clear of clouds
During operations within controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance above clouds requirement for VFR flight is A) 500 feet B) 1,000 feet C) 1,500 feet
1,000 feet
Unless otherwise specified, Federal Airways include that Class E airspace extending upward from A) 1,200 feet above the surface up to and including 17,999 feet MSL B) 700 feet above the surface up to and including 17,999 feet MSL C) The surface up to and including 18,000 feet MSL
1,200 feet above the surface up to and including 17,999 feet MSL
An aircraft had a 100-hour inspection when the tachometer read 1259.6. When is the next 100-hour inspection due? A) 1349.6 hours B) 1359.6 hours C) 1369.6 hours
1359.6 hours
What regulation allows a private pilot to perform preventive maintenance? A) 14 CFR Part 91.403 B) 14 CFR Part 61.113 C) 14 CFR Part 43.7
14 CFR Part 43.7
A chair-type parachute must have been packed by a certificated and appropriately rated parachute rigger within the preceding A) 60 days B) 90 days C) 180 days
180 days
An approved chair-type parachute may be carried in an aircraft for emergency use if it has been packed by an appropriately rated parachute rigger within the preceding A) 365 days B) 120 days C) 180 days
180 days
If recency of experience requirements for night flight are not met and official sunset is 1830, the latest time passengers may be carried is A) 1859 B) 1829 C) 1929
1929
Who may perform preventive maintenance on an aircraft and approve it for return to service? 1. Student or Recreational pilot. 2. Private or Commercial pilot. 3. None of the above. A) 2 B) 1 C) Neither 1 or 2
2
Unless otherwise authorized, the maximum indicated airspeed at which aircraft may be flown when at or below 2,500 feet AGL and within 4 nautical miles of the primary airport of Class C airspace is A) 250 knots B) 230 knots C) 200 knots
200 knots
When must the battery in an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be replaced (or recharged if the battery is rechargeable)? A) After one-half the battery's useful life B) Every 24 calendar months C) During each annual and 100-hour inspection
After one-half the battery's useful life
Which records or documents shall the owner or operator of an aircraft keep to show compliance with an applicable Airworthiness Directive? A) Airworthiness and Registration Certificates B) Aircraft Maintenance Records C) Airworthiness Certificate and Pilot's Operating Handbook
Aircraft Maintenance Records
The pilot in command is required to hold a type rating in which aircraft? A) Aircraft having a gross weight of more than 12,500 pounds B) Aircraft involved in ferry flights, training flights, or test flights C) Aircraft operated under an authorization issued by the Administrator
Aircraft having a gross weight of more than 12,500 pounds
The aircraft that always has right-of-way is the: A) Balloon B) Glider C) Aircraft in distress
Aircraft in distress
As used with respect to the certification, ratings, privileges, and limitations of airmen, examples of a "category" of aircraft would be: A) Single-engine or multiengine B) Cessna 150 or F16 C) Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, and lighter-than-air
Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, and lighter-than-air
With respect to the certification of aircraft, which is a class of aircraft? A) Normal, utility, acrobatic, limited B) Transport, restricted, provisional C) Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, balloon
Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, balloon
With respect to the certification of airmen, which is a category of aircraft? A) Single-engine land and sea, multiengine land and sea B) Gyroplane, helicopter, airship, free balloon C) Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter-than-air
Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter-than-air
The required documents necessary to be onboard the airplane include: A) Airworthiness Certification, Registration, and Operating Handbook B) Registration, Engine/airframe log, and Owner's Manual C) Engine/airframe log, Airworthiness Certificate, and Owner's Manual
Airworthiness Certification, Registration, and Operating Handbook
On taxi, takeoff, and landing: A) Only front seat passengers must have fastened a seatbelt and shoulder harness B) All persons in an airplane must have a seatbelt and shoulder harness fastened C) Only the Pilot-in Command must have fastened a seatbelt and shoulder harness
All persons in an airplane must have a seatbelt and shoulder harness fastened
When approaching to land at an airport without an operating control tower in Class G airspace each pilot must make: A) All turns to the left B) A straight-in approach C) All turns to the right
All turns to the left
Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to operate an aircraft over congested areas? A) An altitude of 1,000 feet above any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure B) An altitude of 500 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 1,000 feet of the aircraft C) An altitude of 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet of the aircraft
An altitude of 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius 2,000 feet of the aircraft
What document(s) must be in your personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft while operating as pilot in command of an aircraft? A) An appropriate pilot certificate and an appropriate current medical certificate if required B) Certificates showing accomplishment of a checkout in the aircraft and a current biennial flight review C) A pilot certificate with an endorsement showing accomplishment of an annual flight review and a pilot logbook showing recency of experience
An appropriate pilot certificate and an appropriate current medical certificate if required
With certain exceptions, all aircraft within 30 miles of a Class B primary airport from the surface upward to 10,000 feet MSL must be equipped with A) Instruments and equipment required for IFR operations B) An operable transponder having either Mode S or 4096-code capability with Mode C automatic altitude reporting capability C) An operable VOR or TACAN receiver and an ADF receiver
An operable transponder having either Mode S or 4096-code capability with Mode C automatic altitude reporting capability
Advisory Circulars (ACs) are issued to inform the public of nonregulatory material: A) And are not binding B) And self-cancel after 1 year C) But are binding
And are not binding
What aircraft inspections are required for rental aircraft that are also used for flight instruction? A) Biannual condition and 100-hour inspections B) Annual condition and 100-hour inspections C) Annual condition and 50-hour inspections
Annual condition and 100-hour inspections
An airplane and a glider are on a head-on collision course. What should each pilot do? A) The glider pilot should give way to the right B) Both pilots should give way to the right C) The airplane pilot should give way to the left
Both pilots should give way to the right
To act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers, the pilot must have made three takeoffs and three landings within the preceding 90 days in an aircraft of the same A) Category, class, and type, if a type rating is required B) Make and model C) Category and class, but not type
Category, class, and type, if a type rating is required
Which is the correct traffic pattern departure procedure to use at a non-towered airport? A) Comply with any FAA traffic pattern established for the airport B) Make all turns to the left C) Depart in any direction consistent with safety, after crossing the airport boundary
Comply with any FAA traffic pattern established for the airport
An example of a "type" of aircraft would be: A) Transport, Normal, and Utility B) DC-7, Cessna 172, and F-16 C) Airplane, Glider, and Rotorcraft
DC-7, Cessna 172, and F-16
You must turn on your anti-collision lights: A) Day and night, except when the pilot-in-command determines that they constitute a hazard to safety B) At night when the visibility is less than three miles and flying in Class B airspace C) At night or in inclement weather
Day and night, except when the pilot-in-command determines that they constitute a hazard to safety
If a person is convicted of flying an airplane while intoxicated, he or she might expect: A) To write a notification of the conviction to the FAA Civil Aeromedical Institute B) To write a report to the FAA Civil Aviation Security Division (AMC-700) not later than 60 day after the conviction C) Denial of an application for an FAA certificate or rating
Denial of an application for an FAA certificate or rating
In addition to other preflight actions for a VFR flight away from the vicinity of the departure airport, regulations specifically require the pilot in command to A) Check the accuracy of the navigation equipment and the emergency locator transmitter (ELT) B) Review traffic control light signal procedures C) Determine runway lengths at airports of intended use and the aircraft's landing and takeoff distance data
Determine runway lengths at airports of intended use and the aircraft's landing and takeoff distance data
To fly in formation: A) You may fly over a densely populated area above 500 feet AGL B) Each PIC must have conferred with the other pilots as to what they would do in flight C) You may operate in Class D airspace under special VFR
Each PIC must have conferred with the other pilots as to what they would do in flight
An alternating red and green light signal directed from the control tower to an aircraft in flight is a signal to A) Not land; the airport is unsafe B) Exercise extreme caution C) Hold position
Exercise extreme caution
Which light signal from the control tower clears a pilot to taxi? A) Flashing white B) Steady green C) Flashing green
Flashing green
What exception, if any, permits a private pilot to act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers who pay for the flight? A) If the passengers pay all the operating expenses B) There is no exception C) If a donation is made to a charitable organization for the flight
If a donation is made to a charitable organization for the flight
For a student pilot solo flight, he or she must have the following on board: A) Logbook with instructor endorsement and student pilot certificate only B) Student pilot certificate and current medical certificate or other medical documentation acceptable to the FAA only C) Logbook with instructor endorsement, photo ID, student pilot certificate, and current medical certificate or other medical documentation acceptable to the FAA
Logbook with instructor endorsement, photo ID, student pilot certificate, and current medical certificate or other medical documentation acceptable to the FAA
When approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator (VASI), the pilot shall A) Remain on the glide slope and land between the two-light bar B) Maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope C) Maintain an altitude that captures the glide slope at least 2 miles downwind from the runway threshold
Maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope
While operating in class D airspace, each pilot of an aircraft approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator (VASI) shall A) Stay high until the runway can be reached in a power-off landing B) Maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing C) Maintain a 3° glide until approximately 1/2 mile to the runway before going below the VASI
Maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing
When does a plastic U.S. student pilot certificate expire? A) When your medical certificate expires B) Never C) After 60 calendar months
Never
On landing, your tire blows and the wheel is dented. What action is required to comply with NTSB Part 830? A) An immediate notification must be filed by the operator of the aircraft with the nearest NTSB field office B) A report must be filed with the nearest FAA field office within 7 days C) No notification or report is required
No notification or report is required
You are planning to go on a trip with friends to Canada. You're the pilot in command and you're operating under BasicMed. Can you go? A) Yes, as long as you apply for a waiver with Transport Canada B) Yes, BasicMed is recognized as the equivalent of a third-class medical certificate in Canada C) No, BasicMed is only valid in the United States, Mexico and the Bahamas
No, BasicMed is only valid in the United States, Mexico and the Bahamas
With respect to the certification of aircraft, which is a category of aircraft? A) Airplane, rotorcraft, glider B) Normal, utility, acrobatic C) Landplane, seaplane
Normal, utility, acrobatic
In regard to privileges and limitations, a private pilot may A) Not be paid in any manner for the operating expenses of a flight B) Act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying a passenger for compensation if the flight is in connection with a business or employment C) Not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditures, or rental fees
Not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditures, or rental fees
Which cruising altitude is appropriate for a VFR flight on a magnetic course of 135°? A) Even thousands plus 500 feet B) Even thousands C) Odd thousands plus 500 feet
Odd thousands plus 500 feet
FAA advisory circulars (some free, others at cost) are available to all pilots and are obtained by A) Ordering those desired from the Government Printing Office B) Subscribing to the Federal Register C) Distribution from the nearest FAA district office
Ordering those desired from the Government Printing Office
Unless otherwise specifically authorized, no person may operate an aircraft that has an experimental certificate A) From the primary airport within Class D airspace B) Over a densely populated area or in a congested airway C) Beneath the floor of Class B airspace
Over a densely populated area or in a congested airway
The responsibility for ensuring that an aircraft is maintained in an airworthy condition is primarily that of the A) Owner or operator B) Pilot in command C) Mechanic who performs the work
Owner or operator
Before passengers can be carried in an aircraft that has been altered in a manner that may have appreciably changed its flight characteristics, it must be flight tested by an appropriately-rated pilot who holds at least a A) Commercial Pilot Certificate with an instrument rating B) Commercial Pilot Certificate and a mechanic's certificate C) Private Pilot Certificate
Private Pilot Certificate
In order to act as pilot in command of a high-performance airplane, a pilot must have A) Made and logged three solo takeoffs and landings in a high-performance airplane B) Passed a flight test in a high-performance airplane C) Received and logged ground and flight instruction in an airplane that has more than 200 horsepower
Received and logged ground and flight instruction in an airplane that has more than 200 horsepower
A flashing white light signal from the control tower to a taxiing aircraft is an indication to A) Taxi at a faster speed B) Return to the starting point on the airport C) Taxi only on taxiways and not cross runways
Return to the starting point on the airport
Which best describes the flight conditions under which flight crewmembers are specifically required to keep their safety belts and shoulder harnesses fastened? A) Safety belts during takeoff and landing and while en route; shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing B) Safety belts during takeoff and landing; shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing and while en route C) Safety belts during takeoff and landing; shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing
Safety belts during takeoff and landing and while en route; shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing
Which operation would be described as preventive maintenance? A) Engine adjustments to allow automotive gas to be used B) Alteration of main seat support brackets C) Servicing landing gear wheel bearings
Servicing landing gear wheel bearings
With respect to the certification of airmen, which is a class of aircraft? A) Lighter-than-air, airship, hot air balloon, gas balloon B) Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter-than-air C) Single-engine land and sea, multi-engine land and sea
Single-engine land and sea, multi-engine land and sea
VSO is defined as the A) Stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed in a specified configuration B) Stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed in the landing configuration C) Stalling speed or minimum takeoff safety speed
Stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed in the landing configuration
If the control tower uses a light signal to direct a pilot to give way to other aircraft and continue circling, the light will be A) Flashing red B) Alternating red and green C) Steady red
Steady red
A pilot convicted of the manufacture or distribution of drugs might expect: A) Suspension or revocation of any certificate, rating, or authorization B) To file a written report with the FAA Civil Aviation Security Division (AMC-700) not later than 60 days after the conviction C) To file a notification of this conviction to the FAA Civil Aeromedical Institute (CAMI) within 60 days after the conviction
Suspension or revocation of any certificate, rating, or authorization
With certain exceptions, safety belts are required to be secured about passengers during A) Flight in turbulent air B) Taxi, takeoffs and landings C) All flight conditions
Taxi, takeoffs and landings
Prior to takeoff, the altimeter should be set to which altitude or altimeter setting? A) The corrected density altitude of the departure airport B) The current local altimeter setting, if available, or the departure airport elevation C) The corrected pressure altitude for the departure airport
The current local altimeter setting, if available, or the departure airport elevation
When operating an aircraft at cabin pressure altitudes above 12,500 feet MSL up to and including 14,000 feet MSL, supplemental oxygen shall be used during A) That flight time in excess of 30 minutes at those altitudes B) The entire flight time at those altitudes C) That flight time in excess of 10 minutes at those altitudes
The flight time in excess of 30 minutes at those altitudes
With respect to passengers, what obligation, if any, does a pilot in command have concerning the use of safety belts? A) The pilot in command must instruct the passengers to keep their safety belts fastened for the entire flight B) The pilot in command must brief the passengers on the use of safety belts and notify them to fasten their safety belts during taxi, takeoff, and landing C) The pilot in command has no obligation in regard to passengers' use of safety belts
The pilot in command must brief the passengers on the use of safety belts and notify them to fasten their safety belts during taxi, takeoff, and landing
Who is responsible for briefing passengers regarding the use of seat belts? A) The pilot-in-command B) The right-seat pilot C) Each passenger
The pilot-in-command
The operator of an aircraft that has been involved in an incident is required to submit a report to the nearest field office of the NTSB A) Within 10 days B) Within 7 days C) When requested
When requested
When must batteries in an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be replaced or recharged, if rechargeable? A) When the ELT has been in use for more than 1 cumulative hour B) When the ELT can no longer be heard over the airplane's communication radio receiver C) After any inadvertent activation of the ELT
When the ELT has been in use for more than 1 cumulative hour
