FCC GROL Element 3 (Part 1 and 2)

3-85N4 Maximum allowable frequency deviation for VHF marine radios is: A. +/- 5 kHz. B. +/- 15 kHz. C. +/- 2.5 kHz. D. +/- 25 kHz.

A. +/- 5 kHz.

3-99Q4 At what aggregate power level is an MPE (Maximum Permissible Exposure) study required? A. 1000 Watts ERP. B. 500 Watts ERP. C. 100 Watts ERP. D. Not required.

A. 1000 Watts ERP.

3-83M3 Which of the following codes has gained the widest acceptance for exchange of data from one computer to another? A. Gray. B. Baudot. C. Morse. D. ASCII.

D. ASCII.

3-67J3 What is the effective radiated power of a repeater with 75 watts transmitter power output, 5 dB feedline loss, 4 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 6 dB antenna gain? A. 37.6 watts B. 237 watts C. 150 watts D. 23.7 watts

A 37.6 watts

3-90O6 If the elapsed time for a RADAR echo is 62 microseconds, what is the distance in nautical miles to the object? A. 5 nautical miles. B. 87 nautical miles. C. 37 nautical miles. D. 11.5 nautical miles.

A. 5 nautical miles.

3-87N3 In which frequency band does a search and rescue transponder operate? A. 9 GHz B. 3 GHz C. S-band D. 406 MHz

A. 9 GHz

3-81L3 A common method of programming portable or mobile radios is to use a: A. A laptop computer. B Dummy load. C. A wattmeter. D. A signal generator.

A. A laptop computer.

3-86N4 Which of the following statements concerning SITOR communications is true? A. ARQ message transmissions are made in data groups consisting of three-character blocks. B. ARQ transmissions are acknowledged by the Information Receiving Station only at the end of the message. C. ARQ communications rely upon error correction by time diversity transmission and reception. D. Forward error correction is an interactive mode.

A. ARQ message transmissions are made in data groups consisting of three-character blocks.

3-1A1 The product of the readings of an AC voltmeter and AC ammeter is called: A. Apparent power. B. True power. C. Power factor. D. Current power.

A. Apparent power.

3-95P6 How does the COSPAS-SARSAT satellite system determine the position of a ship in distress? A. By measuring the Doppler shift of the 406 MHz signal taken at several different points in its orbit. B. The EPIRB always transmits its position which is relayed by the satellite to the Local User Terminal. C. It takes two different satellites to establish an accurate position. D. None of the above.

A. By measuring the Doppler shift of the 406 MHz signal taken at several different points in its orbit.

3-97P5 When INMARSAT-B and INMARSAT-C terminals are compared: A. INMARSAT-C antennas are small and omni-directional, while INMARSAT-B antennas are larger and directional. B. INMARSAT-B antennas are bulkier but omni-directional, while INMARSAT-C antennas are smaller and parabolic, for aiming at the satellite. C. INMARSAT-B antennas are parabolic and smaller for higher gain, while INMARSAT-C antennas are larger but omni-directional. D. INMARSAT-C antennas are smaller but omni-directional, while INMARSAT-B antennas are parabolic for lower gain.

A. INMARSAT-C antennas are small and omni-directional, while INMARSAT-B antennas are larger and directional.

3-53G4 How does the modulation index of a phase-modulated emission vary with RF carrier frequency? A. It does not depend on the RF carrier frequency. B. Modulation index increases as the RF carrier frequency increases. C. It varies with the square root of the RF carrier frequency. D. It decreases as the RF carrier frequency increases.

A. It does not depend on the RF carrier frequency.

3-93O2 What type of antenna or pickup device is used to extract the RADAR signal from the wave guide? A. J-hook. B. K-hook. C. Folded dipole. D. Circulator.

A. J-hook.

3-52G3 The class C amplifier output is present for what portion of the input cycle? A. Less than 180 degrees. B. Exactly 180 degrees. C. 360 degrees. D. More than 180 but less than 360 degrees.

A. Less than 180 degrees.

3-87N5 Which of the following statements concerning satellite EPIRBs is true? A. Once activated, these EPIRBs transmit a signal for use in identifying the vessel and for determining the position of the beacon. B. The coded signal identifies the nature of the distress situation. C. The coded signal only identifies the vessel's name and port of registry. D. If the GMDSS Radio Operator does not program the EPIRB, it will transmit default information such as the follow-on communications frequency and mode.

A. Once activated, these EPIRBs transmit a signal for use in identifying the vessel and for determining the position of the beacon.

3-91O1 The ATR box: A. Prevents the received signal from entering the transmitter. B. Protects the receiver from strong RADAR signals. C. Turns off the receiver when the transmitter is on. D. All of the above.

A. Prevents the received signal from entering the transmitter.

3-88N4 Which of the following statements about NAVTEX is true? A. Receives MSI broadcasts using SITOR-B or FEC mode. B. The ship station transmits on 518 kHz. C. The ship receives MSI broadcasts using SITOR-A or ARQ mode. D. NAVTEX is received on 2182 kHz using SSB

A. Receives MSI broadcasts using SITOR-B or FEC mode.

3-83M2 The GSM (Global System for Mobile Communications) uses what type of CODEC for digital mobile radio system communications? A. Regular-Pulse Excited (RPE). B. Code-Excited Linear Predictive (CLEP). C. Multi-Pulse Excited (MPE). D. Linear Excited Code (LEC).

A. Regular-Pulse Excited (RPE).

3-23C4 What is the transistor called that is fabricated as two complementary SCRs in parallel with a common gate terminal? A. TRIAC. B. Bilateral SCR. C. Unijunction transistor. D. Field effect transistor.

A. TRIAC.

3-54G3 What is the resonant frequency in an electrical circuit? A. The frequency at which capacitive reactance equals inductive reactance. B. The highest frequency that will pass current. C. The lowest frequency that will pass current. D. The frequency at which power factor is at a minimum.

A. The frequency at which capacitive reactance equals inductive reactance.

3-100Q6 What is a GFI electrical socket used for? A. To prevent electrical shock by sensing ground path current and shutting the circuit down. B. As a gold plated socket. C. To prevent children from sticking objects in the socket. D. To increase the current capacity of the socket.

A. To prevent electrical shock by sensing ground path current and shutting the circuit down.

3-10B6 What is the maximum rated current-carrying capacity of a resistor marked "2000 ohms, 200 watts"? A. 0.316 amps B. 3.16 amps C. 10 amps D. 100 amps

A: 0.316 amps I(squared) = P/R

3-36E4 How many bits of information can be stored in single flip-flop circuit? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

A: 1

3-3A2 What is the relative dielectric constant for air? A. 1 B. 2 C. 4 D. 0

A: 1

3-61I1 When an emergency transmitter uses 325 watts and a receiver uses 50 watts, how many hours can a 12.6 volt, 55 ampere-hours battery supply full power to both units? A. 1.8 hours B. 6 hours C. 3 hours D. 1.2 hours

A: 1.8 hours

3-67J5 What is the effective radiated power of a repeater with 100 watts transmitter power output, 5 dB feedline loss, 4 Db duplexer and circulator loss, and 10 dB antenna gain? A. 126 watts B. 800 watts C. 12.5 watts D. 1260 watts

A: 126 watts

3-71K1 What is the frequency range of an aircraft's Automatic Direction Finding (ADF) equipment? A. 190 kHz to 1750 kHz B. 190 MHz to 1750 MHz C. 108.10 MHz to 111.95 MHz D. 108.00 MHz to 117.95 MHz

A: 190 kHz to 1750 kHz

3-15B6 What is the time constant of a circuit having two 220-microfarad capacitors and two 1-megohm resistors all in series? A. 220 seconds B. 55 seconds C. 110 seconds D. 440 seconds

A: 220 seconds

3-16B3 In rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a network composed of a 10-microhenry inductor in series with a 40-ohm resistor, at 500 MHz? A. 40 +j31400 B. 40 -j31400 C. 31400 +j40 D. 31400 -j40

A: 40 +j31400

3-11B1 What is the most the actual transmit frequency could differ from a reading of 462,100,000 hertz on a frequency counter with a time base accuracy of +/- 0.1 ppm? A. 46.21 Hz B. 0.1 MHz C. 462.1 Hz D. 0.2 MHz

A: 46.21 Hz To solve this problem, remember to multiply the frequency in MHz times the time base accuracy. 462.1 x 0.1 = 46.21 Hz.

3-18B4 What turns ratio does a transformer need in order to match a source impedance of 500 ohms to a load of 10 ohms? A. 7.1 to 1 B. 14.2 to 1 C 50 to 1 D. None of these

A: 7.1 to 1

3-37E3 What is a monostable multivibrator? A. A circuit that can be switched momentarily to the opposite binary state and then returns after a set time to its original state B. A "clock" circuit that produces a continuous square wave oscillating between 1 and 0 C. A circuit designed to store one bit of data in either the 0 or the 1 configuration D. A circuit that maintains a constant output voltage, regardless of variations in the input voltage

A: A circuit that can be switched momentarily to the opposite binary state and then returns after a set time to its orginal state

3-31D1 What frequency synthesizer circuit uses a phase comparator, look-up table, digital-to-analog converter, and a low-pass antialias filter? A. A direct digital synthesizer B. Phase-locked-loop synthesizer C. A diode-switching matrix synthesizer D. A hybrid synthesizer

A: A direct digital synthesizer

3-68K4 What is the main underlying operating principle of an aircraft's Distance Measuring Equipment (DME)? A. A measurable amount of time is required to send and receive a radio signal through the Earth's atmosphere B. The difference between the peak values of two DC voltages may be used to determine an aircraft's Distance to another aircraft C. A measurable frequency compression of an AC signal may be used to determine an aircraft's altitude above the earth D. A phase inversion between two AC voltages may be used to determine an aircraft's Distance to the exit ramp of an airport's runway

A: A measurable amount of time is required to send and receive a radio signal through the Earth's atmosphere

3-65J4 To increase the resonant frequency of a 1/4 wavelength antenna: A. Add a capacitor in series B. Lower capacitor value C. Cut antenna D. Add an inductor

A: Add a capacitor in series

3-77L3 What does the vertical axis of a spectrum analyzer display? A. Amplitude B. Duration C. Frequency D. Time

A: Amplitude

3-5A6 How does the input impedance of a field-effect transistor compare with that of a bipolar transistor? A. An FET has high input impedance; a bipolar transistor has low input impedance B. One cannot compare input impedance without first knowing the supply voltage C. An FET has low input impedance; a bipolar transistor has high input impedance D. The input impedance of FETs and bipolar transistors is the same

A: An FET has high input impedance; a bipolar transistor has low input impedance

3-19C4 What is the description of an optoisolator? A. An LED and a photosensitive device B. A P-N junction that develops an excess positive charge when exposed to light C. an LED and a capacitor D. An LED and a lithium battery cell

A: An LED and a photosensitive device

3-23C2 What are the three terminals of an SCR? A. Anode, cathode, and gate B. Gate, source, and sink C. Base, collector, and emitter D. Gate, base , and base 2

A: Anode, cathode, and gate

3-25C4 What are the elements of a unijunction transistor? A. Base 1, base 2 and emitter B. Gate, cathode, and anode C. Gate, base 1, and base 2 D. Gate, source, and sink

A: Base 1, base 2 and emitter

3-43F4 Which type of oscillator circuit is commonly used in a VFO (variable frequency oscillator)? A. Colpitts B. Pierce C. Hartley D. Nagative feedback

A: Colpitts

3-73K4 Before ground testing an aircraft RADAR, the operator should: A. Ensure that the area in front of the antenna is clear of other maintenance personnel to avoid radiation hazards B. Be sure the receiver has been properly shielded and grounded C. First test the transmitter connected to a matched load D. Measure power supply voltages to prevent circuit damage

A: Ensure that the area in front of the antenna is clear of other maintenance personnel to avoid radiation hazards

3-37E5 What is a bistable multivibrator circuit? A. Flip-flop B. AND gate C. OR gate D. Clock

A: Flip-flop

3-35E4 In a positive-logic circuit, what level is used to represent logic 1? A. High level B. Low level C. Positive-transition level D. Negative-transition level

A: High level

3-21C1 A capacitor is sometimes placed in series with the primary of a power transformer to: A. Improve the power factor B. Improve output voltage regulation C. Rectify the primary windings D. None of these

A: Improve the power factor

3-50F6 Pulse type interference to automobile radio receivers that appears related to the speed of the engine can often be reduced by: A. Installing resistances in series with spark plugs wires B. Using heavy conductors between the starting battery and the starting motor C. Connecting resistances in series with the battery D. Grounding the negative side of the battery

A: Installing resistances in series with spark plugs wires

3-20C6 What is the purpose of a coupling capacitor? A. It blocks direct current and passes alternating current B. It blocks alternating current an passed direct current C. It increases the resonant frequency of the crcuit D. It decreases the resonant frequency of the circuit

A: It blocks direct current and passes alternating current

3-63J4 What is an advantage of using a trap antenna? A. It may be used for multiband operation B. It has high directivity in the high-frequency bands C. It has high gain D. It minimizes harmonic radiation

A: It may be used for multiband operation

3-1A3 What is the term used to express the amount of electrical energy stored in an electrostatic field? A. Joules. B. Coulombs. C. Watts. D. Volts.

A: Joules

3-63J2 Why is the value of the radiation resistance of an antenna important? A. Knowing the radiation resistance makes it possible to match impedances for maximum power transfer B. Knowing the radiation resistance makes it possible to measure the near-field radiation density from transmitting antenna C. The value of the radiation resistance represents the front-to-side ratio of the antenna D. The value of the radiation resistance represents the front-to-back ratio of the antenna

A: Knowing the radiation resistance makes it possible to match impedances for maximum power transfer

3-69K1 All directions associated with a VOR station are related to: A. Magnetic north B. North pole C. North stare D. None of these

A: Magnetic north

3-28C4 What is the piezoelectirc effect? A. Mechanical vibration of a crystal by the application of a voltage B. Mechanical deformation of a crystal by the application of a magnetic field C. The generation of electrical energy by the application of light D. Reversed conduction states when a P-N junction is exposed to light

A: Mechanical vibration of a crystal by the application of a voltage

3-27C5 An LED facing a photodiode in a light-tight enclosure is commonly known as a/an: A. Optoisolator B. Seven segment LED C. Optointerrupter D. Infra-red (IR) detector

A: Optoisolator

3-6A3 What is the easiest voltage amplitude to measure by viewing a pure sine wave signal on an oscilloscope? A. Peak-to-peak B. RMS C. Average D. DC

A: Peak-to-peak

3-69K4 Lines drawn from the VOR station in a particular magnetic direction are: A. Radials B. Quadrants C. Bearings D. Headings

A: Radials

3-7A5 What type of wave is made up of sine waves at the fundamental frequency and all the harmonics? A. Sawtooth wave B. Square wave C. sine wave D. Cosine wave

A: Sawtooth wave

3-45F6 How should the filter bandwidth of a receiver IF section compare with the bandwidth of a received signal? A. Slightly greater than the received-signal bandwidth B. Approximately half the received-signal bandwidth C. Approximately two times the received-signal bandwidth D. Approximately four times the received-signal bandwidth

A: Slightly greater than the received-signal bandwidth

3-56G4 What term describes a wide-bandwidth communications system in which the RF carrier varies according to some pre-determined sequence? A. Spread-spectrum communication B. AMTOR C. SITOR D Time-domain frequency modulation

A: Spread-spectrum communication

3-7A3 What type of wave is made up of sine waves of the fundamental frequency and all the odd harmonics? A. Square B. Sine C. Cosine D. Tangent

A: Square

3-59H1 What is an important factor in pulsecode modulation using time-division miltiplex? A. Synchronization of transmitter and receive clock pulse rates B. Frequency separation C. Overmodulation and undermodulation D. Slightly variattions in power supply voltage

A: Synchronization of transmitter and receive clock pulse rates

3-75L4 On an analog wattmeter, what part of the scale is most accurate and how much does that accuracy extend to the rest of the reading scale? A. The accuracy is only at full scale, and that absolute number reading is carried through to the rest of the range. The upper 1/3 of the meter is the only truly calibrated part B. The accuracy is constant throughout the entire range of the meter C. The accuracy is only there at the upper 5% of the meter, and is not carried through at any other reading D. The accuracy cannot be determined at any reading

A: The accuracy is only at full scale, and that absolute number reading is carried through to the rest of the range. The upper 1/3 of the meter is the only truly calibrated part

3-26C4 What conditions exists when a transistor is operating in saturation? A. The base-emitter junction and collector-base junction are both forward biased B. The base-emitter junction and collector-base junction are both reverse biased C. The base-emitter junction is reverse biased and the collector-base junction is forward biased D. The base-emitter junction is forward biased and the collector-base junction is reverse biased

A: The base-emitter junction and collector-base junction are both forward biased

3-25C6 What does it mean for a transistor to be fully saturated? A. The collector current is at its maximum value B. The collector current is at its minimum value C. The transistor's Alpha is at its maximum value D. The transistor's Beta is at its maximum value

A: The collector current is at its maximum value

3-59H4 Which of the following best describes a pulse modulation system? A. The peak transmitter power is nomrally much greater than the average power B. Pulse modulation is sometimes used in SSB voice transmitters C. The average power is normally only silghtly below the peak power D. The peak power is normally twice as high as the average power

A: The peak transmitter power is normally much greater than the average power

3-79L4 The ideal method of removing insulation from wire is: A. The thermal stripper B. The pocket knife C. A mechanical wire stripper D. The scissors action stripping tool

A: The thermal stripper

3-71K3 What are the transmitted and receive frequencies of an aircraft's mode C transponder operating in the Air Traffic Control RADAR Beacon System (ATCRBS)? A. Transmit at 1090 MHz, and receive at 1030 MHz B. Transmit at 1030 kHz, and receive at 1090 kHz C. Transmit at 1090 kHz, and receive at 1030 kHz D. Transmit at 1030 MHz, and receive at 1090 MHz

A: Transmit at 1090 MHz, and receive at 1030 MHz

3-43F2 What is the oscillator stage called in a frequency synthesizer? A. VCO B. Divider C. Phase detector D. Reference standard

A: VCO

3-39E1 In a microprocessor-controlled two-way radio, a "watchdog" timer: A. Verifies that the microprocessor is executing the program B. Assures that the transmission is exactly on frequency C. Prevents the transmitter from exceeding allowed power out D. Connects to the system RADAR presentation

A: Verifies that the microprocessor is executing the program

3-22C3 What device is usually used as a stable reference voltage in a linear voltage regulator? A. Zener diode B. Tunnel diode C. SCR D. Varactor diode

A: Zener diode

3-4A5 How would you calculate the total capacitance of three capacitors in parallel? A. C (Sub T) = C (Sub 1) + C (Sub 2) / C (Sub 1) - C (Sub 2) + C (Sub 3) B. C (Sub T) = C (Sub 1) + C (Sub 2) + C (Sub 3) C. C (Sub T) = C (Sub 1) + C (Sub 2) / C (Sub 1) X C (Sub 2) + C (Sub 3) D. C (Sub T) = 1/C (Sub 1) + 1/C (Sub 2) + 1/C (Sub 3)

Answer B: C (Sub T) = C (Sub 1) + C (Sub 2) + C (Sub 3)

3-3A4 What is the purpose of a bypass capacitor? A. It increases the resonant frequency of the circuit B. It removes direct current from the circuit by shunting DC to ground C. It removes alternating current by providing a low impedance path to ground D. It forms part of an impedance transforming circuit

Answer C: It removes alternating current by providing a low impedance path to ground

3-90O3 What is the normal range of pulse widths? A. .05 us to 0.1 us. B. .05 us to 1.0 us. C. 1.0 us to 3.5 us. D. 2.5 us to 5.0 us.

B. .05 us to 1.0 us.

3-55G5 What is the output peak envelope power from a transmitter as measured on an oscilloscope showing 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm load resistor? A. 1,000 watts. B. 100 watts. C. 200 watts. D. 400 watts.

B. 100 watts.

3-88N2 What is the standard scan rate for high-frequency 3 MHz - 23 MHz weather facsimile reception from shore stations? A. 240 lines per minute. B. 120 lines per minute. C. 150 lines per second. D. 60 lines per second.

B. 120 lines per minute.

3-98P2 The GPS transmitted frequencies are: A. 1626.5 MHz and 1644.5 MHz. B. 1227.6 MHz and 1575.4 MHz. C. 2245.4 and 2635.4 MHz. D. 946.2 MHz and 1226.6 MHz.

B. 1227.6 MHz and 1575.4 MHz.

3-96P1 What is the orbital altitude of INMARSAT Satellites? A. 16, 436 miles. B. 22,177 miles. C. 10, 450 miles. D. 26,435 miles.

B. 22,177 miles.

3-99Q2 Sites having multiple transmitting antennas must include antennas with more than _______% of the maximum permissible power density exposure limit when evaluating RF site exposure. A. Any B. 5 C. 1 D. 12.5

B. 5

3-94O5 Exposure to microwave energy from RADAR or other electronics devices is limited by U.S. Health Department regulations to _______ mW/centimeter. A. 0.005 B. 5.0 C. 0.05 D. 0.5

B. 5.0

3-93O6 To couple energy into and out of a waveguide use: A. Wide copper sheeting. B. A thin piece of wire as an antenna. C. An LC circuit. D. Capacitive coupling.

B. A thin piece of wire as an antenna.

3-81L2 The tachometer of a building's elevator circuit experiences interference caused by the radio system nearby. What is a common potential "fix" for the problem? A. Replace the tachometer of the elevator. B. Add a .01 μF capacitor across the motor/tachometer leads. C. Add a 200 μF capacity across the motor/tachometer leads. D. Add an isolating resistor in series with the motor leads.

B. Add a .01 μF capacitor across the motor/tachometer leads.

3-99Q5 Why must you never look directly into a fiber optic cable? A. High power light waves can burn the skin surrounding the eye. B. An active fiber signal may burn the retina and infra-red light cannot be seen. C. The end is easy to break. D. The signal is red and you can see it.

B. An active fiber signal may burn the retina and infra-red light cannot be seen.

3-94O2 Prior to testing any RADAR system, the operator should first: A. Check the system grounds. B. Assure the display unit is operating normally. C. Inform the airport control tower or ship's master. D. Assure no personnel are in front of the antenna.

B. Assure the display unit is operating normally.

3-79L5 A "hot gas bonder" is used: A. To apply solder to the iron tip while it is heating the component. B. For non-contact melting of solder. C. To allow soldering both sides of the PC board simultaneously. D. To cure LCA adhesives.

B. For non-contact melting of solder.

3-51G5 What class of amplifier is distinguished by the bias being set well beyond cutoff? A. Class A. B. Class C. C. Class B. D. Class AB.

B. Class C.

3-89N5 An NMEA 2000 system with devices in a single location may be powered using this method: A. Dual mid-powered network. B. End-powered network. C. Individual devices individually powered. D. No 12 volts needed for NMEA 2000 devices.

B. End-powered network

3-97P1 What is the best description for the INMARSAT-C system? A. It provides slow speed telex and voice service. B. It is a store-and-forward system that provides routine and distress communications. C. It is a real-time telex system. D. It provides world-wide coverage.

B. It is a store-and-forward system that provides routine and distress communications.

3-83M6 The International Organization for Standardization has developed a seven-level reference model for a packet-radio communications structure. The _______ level arranges the bits into frames and controls data flow. A. Transport layer. B. Link layer. C. Communications layer. D. Synchronization layer.

B. Link layer.

3-51G2 What is the distinguishing feature of a Class A amplifier? A. Output for less than 180 degrees of the signal cycle. B. Output for the entire 360 degrees of the signal cycle. C. Output for more than 180 degrees and less than 360 degrees of the signal cycle. D. Output for exactly 180 degrees of the input signal cycle.

B. Output for the entire 360 degrees of the signal cycle.

3-84M1 What is a SDR? A. Software Deviation Ratio. B. Software Defined Radio. C. SWR Meter. D. Static Dynamic Ram.

B. Software Defined Radio.

3-89N2 How should shielding be grounded on an NMEA 0183 data line? A. Unterminated at both ends. B. Terminated to ground at the talker and unterminated at the listener. C. Unterminated at the talker and terminated at the listener. D. Terminated at both the talker and listener.

B. Terminated to ground at the talker and unterminated at the listener.

-84M5 Which of the following statements is true? A. The Signal Repetition character (1001100) is used as a control signal in SITOR-ARQ. B. The Idle Signal (a) (0000111) is used for FEC Phasing Signal 1. C. The Idle Signal (b) (0011001) is used for FEC Phasing Signal 2. D. The Control Signal 1 (0101100) is used to determine the time displacement in SITOR-B.

B. The Idle Signal (a) (0000111) is used for FEC Phasing Signal 1.

3-88N6 What determines whether a NAVTEX receiver does not print a particular type of message content? A. The message does not concern your vessel. B. The subject indicator matches that programmed for rejection by the operator. C. The transmitting station ID covering your area has not been programmed for rejection by the operator. D. All messages sent during each broadcast are printed.

B. The subject indicator matches that programmed for rejection by the operator.

3-17B2 In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network composed of a 100-ohm-reactance inductor in series with a 100-ohm resistor? A. 121 ohms, / 35 degrees B. 141 ohms, / 45 degrees C. 161 ohms, / 55 degrees D. 181 ohms, / 65 degrees

B: 141 ohms, / 45 degrees

3-86N1 What is a common occurrence when voice-testing an SSB aboard a boat? A. Ammeter fluctuates down with each spoken word. B. Voltage panel indicator lamps may glow with each syllable. C. Automatic tuner cycles on each syllable. D. Minimal voltage drop seen at power source.

B. Voltage panel indicator lamps may glow with each syllable.

3-61I2 What current will flow in a 6 volt storage battery with an internal resistances of 0.01 ohms, when a 3-watt, 6-volt lamp is connected? A. 0.4885 amps B. 0.4995 amps C. 0.5566 amps D. 0.5795 amps

B: 0.4995 amps

3-61I5 A 6 volt battery with 1.2 ohms internal resistances is connected across two light bulbs in parallel whose resistance is 12 ohms each. What is the current flow? A. 0.57 amps B. 0.83 amps C. 1.0 amps D. 6.0 amps

B: 0.83 amps

3-44F1 What is the image frequency info the normal channel is 151.000 MHz, the IF is operating at 11.000 MHz, and the LO is at 140.000MHz? A. 131.000 MHz B. 129.000 MHz C. 162.000 MHz D. 150.000 MHz

B: 129.000 MHz

3-14B6 After two time constants, the capacitor in an RC circuit is discharged to what percentage of the starting voltage? A. 86.5% B. 13.5% C. 63.2% D. 36.8%

B: 13.5%

3-60I3 What capacity in amperes does a storage battery need to be in order to operate a 50 watt transmitter for 6 hours? Assume a continuous trasmitter load of 70% of the key-locked demand of 40 A, and an emergency light load of 1.5 A. A. 100 ampere-hours B. 177 ampere-hours C. 249 ampere-hours D. None of these

B: 177 ampere-hours

3-58H2 In Figure 3H17, which block diagram symbol (labeled 1 through 4) represents where audio intelligence is inserted? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

B: 2

3-47F1 A good Crystal band-pass filter for a single-sideband phone would be? A. 5 KHz B. 2.1 KHz C. 500 Hz D. 15 KHz

B: 2.1 KHz

3-16B4 In rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a network composed of a 1.0-millihenry inductor in series with a 200-ohm resistor, at 30 kHz? A. 200 - j188 B. 200 + j188 C. 188 + j200 D. 188 - j200

B: 200 + j188

3-17B5 In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprised of a 400-ohm-reactance inductor in parallel with a 300-ohm resistor? A. 240 ohms, / -36.9 degrees B. 240 ohms, / 36.9 degrees C. 500 ohms, / 53.1 degrees D. 500 ohms, / -53.1 degrees

B: 240 ohms, / 36.9 degrees

3-64J5 An antenna radiates a primary signal of 500 watts output. If there is a 2nd harmonic output of 0.5 watt, what attenuation of the 2nd hamronic has occurred? A. 10 dB B. 30 dB C. 40 dB D. 50 dB

B: 30 dB

3-9B5 If a current of 3 amperes flows through a resistor connected to 90 volts, what is the resistance? A. 3 ohms B. 30 ohms C. 93 ohms D. 270 ohms

B: 30 ohms

3-67J1 What is the effective radiated power of a repeater with 50 watts transmitter power output, 4 dB feedline loss, 3 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 6 dB antenna gain? A. 158 watts B. 39.7 watts C. 251 watts D. 69.9 watts

B: 39.7 watts

3-15B2 What is the time constant of a circuit having two 100-microfarad capacitors and two 470-kilohm resistors all in series? A. 470 seconds B. 47 seconds C. 4.7 seconds D 0.47 seconds

B: 47 seconds

3-15B5 What is the time constant of a circuit having two 100-microfarad capacitors and two 470-kilohm resistors all in parallel? A. 470 seconds B. 47 seconds C. 4.7 seconds D. 0.47 seconds

B: 47 seconds

3-78L6 What is the maximum FM deviation for voice operating of a normal wide-band channel of VHF and UHF? A. 2.5 kHz B. 5.0 kHz C. 7.5 kHz D. 10 kHz

B: 5.0 kHz

3-64J1 What is the current flowing through a 52 ohm line with an input of 1,872 watts? A. 0.06 amps B. 6 amps C. 28.7 amps D. 144 amps

B: 6 amps

3-75L2 What is a frequency standard? A. A well-known (standard) frequency used for transmitting certain messages B. A device used to produce a highly accurate reference frequency C. A device for accurately Measuring frequency to within 1 Hz D. A device used to generate wide-band random frequencies

B: A device used to produce a highly accurate reference frequency

3-41F2 What is the definition of the term "receiver desensitizing"? A. A burst of noise when the squelch is set too low B. A reduction in receiver sensitivity because of a strong signal on a nearby frequency C. A burst of noise when the squelch is set too high D. A reduction in receiver sensitivity when the AF gain control is turned down

B: A reduction in receiver sensitivity because of a strong signal on a nearby frequency

3-7A1 What is a sine wave? A. A constant-voltage, varying-current wave. B. A wave whose amplitude at any given instant can be represented by the projection of a point on a wheel rotating at a uniform speed. C. A wave following the laws of the trigonometric tangent function. D. A wave whose polarity changes in a random manner.

B: A wave whose amplitude at any given instant can be represented by the projection of a point on a wheel rotating at a uniform speed.

3-72K6 What type of antenna is attached to an aircraft's Mode C transponder installation and used to receive 1030 MHz interrogation signals from the Air Traffic Control RADAR Beacon System (ATCRBS)? A. An electronically steerable phased-array directional antenna B. An L-band monopole blade-type Omnidirectional antenna C. A folded dipole reception antenna D. An internally mounted, mechanically rotable loop antenna

B: An L-band monopole bland-type Omnidirectional antenna

3-29D2 What is the approximate magnitude of the impedance of the series circuit at resonance? A. High, as compared to the circuit resistance B. Approximately equal to the circuit resistance C. Approximately equal to X (sub L) D. Approximately equal to X (sub C)

B: Approximately equal to the circuit resistance

3-25C2 What are the three terminals of a bipolar transistor? A. Cathode, plate and grid B. Base, collector and emitter C. Gate, source and sink D. Input, output and ground

B: Base, collector and emitter

3-56G1 How can intermodulation interference between two transmitters in close proximity often be reduced or eliminated? A. By using a Class C final amplifier with high driving power B. By installing a terminated circulator or ferrite isolator in the Fed line to the transmitter and duplexer C. By installing a band-pass filter in the antenna Fed line D. By installing a low-pass filter in the antenna Fed line

B: By installing a terminated circulator or ferrite isolator in the Fed line to the transmitter and duplexer

3-38E6 What is the name of the Random-Accessed semiconductor memory IC that must be refreshed periodically to maintain reliable data storage in its memory matrix? A. ROM - Read-Only Memory B. DRAM - Dynamic Random-Access Memory C. PROM - Programmable Read-Only Memory D. PRAM - Programmable Random-Access Memory

B: DRAM - Dynamic Random-Access Memory

3-48F2 Which circuit is used to detect FM-phone signals? A. Balanced modulator B. Frequency discriminator C. Product detector D. Phase splitter

B: Frequency discriminator

3-46F1 What is the primary purpose of the final IF amplifier stage in a receiver? A. Dynamic response B. Gain C. Noise figure performance D. Bypass Undesired signals

B: Gain

3-33E6 What do the initials TTL stand for? A. Resistor-transistor logic B. Transistor-transistor logic C. Diode-transistor logic D. Emitter-coupled logic

B: Transistor-transistor logic

3-73K5 What type of antenna is used in an aircraft's Very High Frequency Omnidirectional Range (VOR) and Localizer (LOC) installations? A. Vertically polarized antenna that radiates an Omnidirectional antenna pattern B. Horizontally polarized Omnidirectional reception antenna C. Balanced loop transmission antenna D. Folded dipole reception antenna

B: Horizontally polarized Omnidirectional reception antenna

3-9B2 Which of the following Ohms Law formulas is incorrect? A. I = E/R B. I = R/E C. E = IXR D. R = E/I

B: I = R/E

3-70K3 Which of the following is a required component of an Instrument Landing System (ILS)? A. Altimeter: shows aircraft height above sea-level B. Localizer: shows aircraft deviation horizontally from center of runway C. VHF Communications: provide Communications to aircraft D. Distance Measuring Equipment: Shows aircraft distance to VORTAC station

B: Localizer: shows aircraft deviation horizontally from center of runway

3-29D5 What is the characteristic of the current flow within the parallel elements in a parallel R-L-C circuit at resonance? A. Minimum B. Maximum C. DC D. Zero

B: Maximum

3-26C1 A common base amplifier has: A. More current gain than common emitter or common collector B. More voltage gain than common emitter or common collector C. More power gain than common emitter or common collector D. Highest input impedance of the three amplifier configurations

B: More voltage gain than common emitter or common collector

3-28C6 In which oscillator circuit would you find a quartz crystal? A. Hartley B. Pierce C. Colpitts D. All of the above

B: Pierce

3-34E5 What is a characteristic of a NOT gate? A. Does not allow data transmission when it's input is high B. Produces a logic "0" at its output when the input is logic "1" and vice versa C. Allows data trasmission only when it's input is high D. Produces a logic "1" at its output when the input is logic "1" and vice versa

B: Produces a logic "0" at its output when the input is logic "1" and vice versa

3-71K5 What type of encoding is used in an aircraft's mode C transponder transmission to a ground station of the Air Traffic Control RADAR Beacon System (ATCRBS)? A. Differential phase shift keying B. Pulse position modulation C. Doppler effect compressional encryption D. Amplitude modulation at 95%

B: Pulse position modulation

3-24C1 What is one common use for PIN diodes? A. Constant current source B. RF switch C. Constant voltage source D. RF rectifier

B: RF switch

3-75L5 Which of the following frequency standards is used as a time base standard by field technicians? A. Quartz Crystal B. Rubidium Standard C. Cesium Beam Standard D. LC Tank Oscillator

B: Rubidium Standard

3-73K6 What is the funcTIon of a commercial aircraft's SELCAL installation? SELCAL is a type of aircraft communications _________. A. Device that all's an aircraft's receiver to. be continuously calibrated from signal lelectivity B. System where a ground-based transmitter can call a selected aircraft or group of aircraft without the flight crew monitoring the ground-station frequency C. Transmission that uses sequential logic algorithm encryption to prevent public "eavesdropping" of crucial aircraft light data D. System where an airborne transmitter can selectively calculate the line-of-sight distance to several ground-station receivers

B: System where a ground-based transmitter can call a selected aircraft or group of aircraft without the flight crew monitoring the ground-station frequency

3-21C5 A power transformer has a single primary winding and three secondary windings producing 5.0 volts, 12.6 vols, and 150 volts. Assuming similar wire sizes, which of the three secondary windings will have the highest measured DC resistance? A. The 12.6 volt winding B. The 150 volts winding C. The 5.0 volt winding D. All will have equal resistance values

B: The 150 volts winding

3-78L2 Which of the following answers is true? A. The RF Power reading on a CDMA (code division multiple access) radio will be very accurate on an analog power meter B. The RF Power reading on a CDMA radio is not accurate on an analog power meter C. Power cannot be measured using CDMA modulation

B: The RF Power reading on a CDMA radio is not accurate on an analog power meter

3-63J6 What is meant by the term antenna bandwidth? A. Antenna length divided by the number of elements B. The frequency range over which an antenna can be expected to perform well C. The angle between the half-power radiation points D. The angle formed between two imainary lines drawn through the ends of the elements

B: The frequency range over which an antenna can be expected to perform well

3-19C2 What is the photoconductive effect? A. the conversion of photon energy to electromotive energy B. The increased conductivity of an illuminated semiconductor junction C. the conversion of electromotive energy to photon energy D. The decreased conductivity of an illuminated semiconductor junction

B: The increased conductivity of an illuminated semiconductor junction

3-2A6 Permeability is defined as: A. The magnetic field created by a conductor wound on a laminated core and carrying current B. The ratio of magnetic flux density in a substance to the magnetizing force that produces it C. Polarized molecular alignment in a ferromagnetic material while under the influence of a magnetizing force D. None of these

B: The ratio of magnetic flux density in a substance to the magnetizing force that produces it

3-48F6 What is the definition of detection in a radio receiver? A. The process of making out the intelligence on a received carrier to make an S-meter operational B. The recovery of intelligence form the modulated RF signal C. The modulation of a carrier D. The mixing of noise with the received signal

B: The recovery of intelligence from the modulated RF signal

3-68K2 The Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) measures the distance from the aircraft to the DME ground station. This is referred to as: A. DME bearing B. The slant range C. Glide Slope angle of approach D. Localizer course width

B: The slant range

3-49F5 What makes a CTCSS squelch work? A. Noise B. Tones C. Absence of noise D. Digital codes

B: Tones

3-58H6 What to go fsignals are used to conduct an SSB two-tone test? A. Two audio signals of the same frequency, but shifted 90 degrees in phase B. Two non-harmonically related audio signals that are within the modulation band pass of the transmitter C. Two different audio frequency square wave signals of equal amplitude D. Any two audio frequencies as long as they are homonically related

B: Two non-harmonically related audio signals that are within the modulation band pass of the transmitter

3-79L2 Which of the following is the preferred method of cleaning solder from plated-through circuit-board holes? A. Use a rental pick B. Use a vacuum device C. Use a soldering iron tip that has a temperature above 90 degrees F D. Use an air jet device

B: Use a vacuum device

3-24C5 What type of semiconductor diode varies its internal capacitance as the voltage applied to its terminal varies? A. Tunnel diode B. Varactor diode C. Silicon-controlled rectifier D. Zener diode

B: Varactor diode

3-49F2 What is the purpose of de-emphasis in the receiver audio stage? A. When copuled with the transmitter pre-emphasis, flat audio is achieved B. When coupled with the transmitter pre-emphasis, flat audio and noise reduction is received C. No purpose is achieved D. To conserve bandwidth by squelching no-audio periods in the transmission

B: When coupled with the transmitter pre-emphasis, flat audio and noise reduction is received

3-92O2 When a RADAR is being operated on the 6 mile range setting what is the most appropriate pulse width and pulse repetition rate? A. 1.0 us PW and 500 pps. B. 2.0 us PW and 3,000 pps. C. 0.25 us PW and 1,000 pps. D. 0.01 us PW and 500 pps.

C. 0.25 us PW and 1,000 pps.

3-89N6 What voltage drop at the end of the last segment will satisfy NMEA 2000 network cabling plans? A. 0.5 volts B. 2.0 volts C. 1.5 volts D. 3.0 volts

C. 1.5 volts

3-98P3 How many GPS satellites are normally in operation? A. 8 B. 18 C. 24 D. 36

C. 24

3-53G1 What is the modulation index in an FM phone signal having a maximum frequency deviation of 3,000 Hz on either side of the carrier frequency when the modulating frequency is 1,000 Hz? A. 0.3 B. 3,000 C. 3 D. 1,000

C. 3

3-72K5 What is the frequency range of an aircraft's radio altimeter? A. 962 MHz to 1213 MHz. B. 329.15 MHz to 335.00 MHz. C. 4250 MHz to 4350 MHz. D. 108.00 MHz to 117.95 MHz.

C. 4250 MHz to 4350 MHz.

3-85N3 What VHF Channel is used for Digital Selective Calling and acknowledgement? A. 16 B. 21A C. 70 D. 68

C. 70

3-96P2 Which of the following describes the INMARSAT Satellite system? A. AOR at 35 W, POR-E at 165 W, POR-W at 155 E and IOR at 56.5 E. B. AOR-E at 25 W, AOR-W at 85 W, POR at 175 W and IOR at 56.5 E. C. AOR-E at 15.5 W, AOR-W at 54 W, POR at 178 E and IOR at 64.5 E. D. AOR at 40 W, POR at 178 W, IOR-E at 109 E and IOR-W at 46 E

C. AOR-E at 15.5 W, AOR-W at 54 W, POR at 178 E and IOR at 64.5 E.

3-80L2 What is most important when routing cables in a mobile unit? A. That cables be cut to the exact length. B. Assuring accessibility of the radio for servicing from outside the vehicle. C. Assuring radio or electronics cables do not interfere with the normal operation of the vehicle. D. Assuring cables are concealed under floor mats or carpeting.

C. Assuring radio or electronics cables do not interfere with the normal operation of the vehicle.

3-95P3 What services are provided by the Iridium system? A. Analog voice and Data at 4.8 kbps. B. Digital voice and Data at 9.6 kbps. C. Digital voice and Data at 2.4 kbps. D. Analog voice and Data at 9.6 kbps.

C. Digital voice and Data at 2.4 kbps.

3-84M4 Which is the code used for SITOR-A and -B transmissions? A. The 5 bit baudot telex code. B. Each character consists of 7 bits with 3 "zeros" and 4 "ones". C. Each character consists of 7 bits with 4 "zeros" and 3 "ones". D. Each character has 7 bits of data and 3 bits for error correction.

C. Each character consists of 7 bits with 4 "zeros" and 3 "ones"

3-100Q4 What class of fire is one that is caused by an electrical short circuit and what is the preferred substance used to extinguish that type of fire? A. FE28. B. FE29. C. FE30. D. FE31.

C. FE30.

3-94O4 Which of the following is NOT a precaution that should be taken to ensure the magnetron is not weakened: A. Keep metal tools away from the magnet. B. Do not subject it to excessive heat. C. Keep the TR properly tuned. D. Do not subject it to shocks and blows.

C. Keep the TR properly tuned.

3-100Q2 What is the purpose of not putting sharp corners on the ground leads within a building? A. No reason. B. It is easier to install. C. Lightning will jump off of the ground lead because it is not able to make sharp bends. D. Ground leads should always be made to look good in an installation, including the use of sharp bends in the corners.

C. Lightning will jump off of the ground lead because it is not able to make sharp bends.

3-92O5 What pulse width and repetition rate should you use at short ranges? A. Wide pulse width and fast repetition rate. B. Narrow pulse width and slow repetition rate. C. Narrow pulse width and fast repetition rates. D. Wide pulse width and slow repetition rates.

C. Narrow pulse width and fast repetition rates.

3-54G6 Which network provides the greatest harmonic suppression? A. L network. B. Pi network. C. Pi-L network. D. Inverse L network.

C. Pi-L network

3-65J3 An excited 1/2 wavelength antenna produces: A. Residual fields B. An electro-magnetic field only C. Both electro-magnetic and electro-static fields D. An electro-flux field sometimes

C: both electro-magnetic and electro-static fields

3-80L4 What is the 6th pair color code in a 25 pair switchboard cable as is found in building telecommunications interconnections? A. Blue/Green, Green/Blue. B. Red/Blue, White/Violet. C. Red/Blue, Blue/Red. D. White/Slate, Slate/White.

C. Red/Blue, Blue/Red.

3-55G3 In a single-sideband phone signal, what determines the PEP-to-average power ratio? A. The frequency of the modulating signal. B. The degree of carrier suppression. C. The speech characteristics. D. The amplifier power.

C. The speech characteristics.

3-82M5 Which of the following statements about SSB voice transmissions is correct? A. They use A3E emission which are produced by modulating the final amplifier. B. They use F3E emission which is produced by phase shifting the carrier. C. They normally use J3E emissions, which consists of one sideband and a suppressed carrier. D. They may use A1A emission to suppress the carrier.

C. They normally use J3E emissions, which consists of one sideband and a suppressed carrier.

3-91O4 What is the purpose of a synchro transmitter and receiver? A. Synchronizes the transmitted and received pulse trains. B. Prevents the receiver from operating during the period of the transmitted pulse. C. Transmits the angular position of the antenna to the indicator unit. D. Keeps the speed of the motor generator constant.

C. Transmits the angular position of the antenna to the indicator unit.

3-62I2 If a shunt motor running with a load has its shunt field opened, how would this affect the speed of the motor? A. It will show down B. It will stop suddenly C. It will speed up D. It will be unaffected

C: It will speed up

3-81L4 In a software-defined transceiver, what would be the best way for a technician to make a quick overall evaluation of the radio's operational condition? A. Set up a spectrum analyzer and service monitor and manually verify the manufacturer's specifications. B. Use another radio on the same frequency to check the transmitter. C. Use the built-in self-test feature. D. Using on-board self-test routines are strictly prohibited by the FCC in commercial transmitters. Amateur Radio is the only service currently authorized to use them.

C. Use the built-in self-test feature.

3-12B2 At 150 Degrees, what is the amplitude of a sine-wave having a peak value of 5 volts? A. -4.3 volts B. -2.5 volts C. +2.5 volts D. +4.3 volts

C: +2.5 volts

3-13B1 What does the power factor equal in an R-L circuit having a 60 degree phase angle between the voltage and the current? A. 0.414 B. 0.866 C. 0.5 D. 1.73

C: 0.5

3-6A5 By what factor must the voltage measure in an AC circuit, as indicated on the scale of an AC voltmeter, be multiplied to obtain the average voltage value? A. 0.707 B. 1.414 C. 0.9 D. 3.14

C: 0.9

3-6A2 By what factor must the voltage of an AC circuit, as indicated on the scale of an AC voltmeter, be mutipled to obtain the peak voltage value? A. 0.707 B. 0.9 C. 1.414 D. 3.14

C: 1.414

3-12B5 What is the RMS value of a 340-volt peak-to-peak pure sine wave? A. 170 volts AC B. 240 volts AC C. 120 volts AC D. 350 volts AC

C: 120 volts AC

3-60I4 What is the total voltage when 12 Nickel-Cadmium batteries are connected in series? A. 12 volts B. 12.6 volts C. 15 volts D. 72 volts

C: 15 volts

3-11B4 What is the most the actual transmitter frequency could differ from a reading of 156,520,000 hertz on a frequency counter with a time base accuracy of +/- 1.0 ppm? A. 165.2 Hz B. 15.625 kHz C. 156.52 Hz D. 1.4652 MHz

C: 156.52 Hz Multiply the frequency in MHz times the time base accuracy (156,520,000 x 0.000001 = 156.52 Hz? )

3-36E2 What is a flip-flop circuit? A binary sequential logic lement with ___ stable states. A. 1 B. 4 C. 2 D. 8

C: 2

3-32D2 Which lamps would be lit in the circuit shown in Figure 3D8? A. 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 B. 5, 6, 8 and 9 C. 2, 3, 4, 7 and 8 D. 1, 3, 5, 7 and 8

C: 2, 3, 4, 7 and 8

3-16B1 What is the impedance of a network composed of a 0.1-microhenry inductor in series with a 20-ohm resistor, at 30 MHz? Specify your answer in rectangular coordinates. A. 20 -j19 B. 19 +j20 C. 20 +j19 D. 19 -j20

C: 20 +j19

3-18B3 Given a power supply with a no load voltage of 12 volts and a full load voltage of 10 volts, what is the percentage of voltage regulation? A. 17% B. 80% C. 20% D. 83%

C: 20%

3-10B2 What is the maximum DC or RMS voltage that may be connected across a 20 watt, 2000 ohm resistor? A. 10 volts B. 100 volts C. 200 volts D. 10,000 volts

C: 200 volts

3-62I5 A 3 horsepower, 100 Very DC motor is 85% efficient when developing it's rated output. What is the current? A. 8.545 amps B. 20.345 amps C. 26.300 amps D. 25.000 amps

C: 26.300 amps

3-21C4 What is the ratio of the output frequency to the input frequency of a single-phase full-wave rectifier? A. 1:1 B. 1:2 C. 2:1 D. None of these

C: 2:1

3-20C4 In Figure 3C5, which capacitor (labeled 1 through 4) is being used as a bypass capacitor? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

C: 3

3-32D5 In Figure 3D10 with a square wave input what would be the output? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

C: 3

3-9B6 A relay coil has 500 ohms resistance, and operates on 125 mA. What value of resistance should be connected in series with it to operate from 110 V DC? A. 150 ohms B. 220 ohms C. 380 ohms D. 470 ohms

C: 380 ohms Must calculate voltage drop before applying ohms law formula: 500 ohms x .125 amps = 62.5 volts 110 volts - 62.5 volts = 47.5 volts 47.5 volts / 0.125 Amps = 380 Ohms

3-15B3 What is the time constant of a circuit having a 100-microfarad capacitor and a 470-kilohm resistor in series? A. 4700 seconds B. 470 seconds C. 47 seconds D. 0.47 seconds

C: 47 seconds

3-10B4 In figure 3B1, what is the voltage drop across R1? A. 9 volts B. 7 volts C. 5 volts D. 3 volts

C: 5 volts Look at Figure 3B1 and notice that the diode is reverse biased, and will look like an open circuit to this series resistance circuit problem. Current will be the same throughout all of the circuit, and voltage drops will equal the source voltage. Combine R3 and R2 as a total of 300 ohms, R3 + R2 equals the resistance of R1, 300 ohms, so each will drop 5 volts (1/2 of total voltage, 10 volts). The voltage drop across R1 equals 5 volts.

3-2A2 What will produce a magnaetic field? A. A DC source not connected to a circuit B. The presence of a voltage across a capacitor C. A current flowing through a conductor D. The force that drives current through a resistor

C: A current flowing through a conductor

3-35E3 For the logic input levels given in Figure 3E13, what are the logic levels of test oints A, B and C in this circuit? (Assume positive logic.) A. A is low, B is low and C is high B. A is low, B is high and C is low C. A is high, B is high and C is high D. A is high, B is low and C is low

C: A is high, B is high and C is high

3-69K6 What is the main underlying operating principle of the Very-high-frequency Omnidirectional Range (VOR) aircraft navigational system? A. A definite amount of time is required to send and receive a radio signal B. The difference between between the peak values of two DC voltages may be used to determine an aircrat's altitude above a selected VOR station C. A phase difference between two AC voltages may be used to determine an aircraft's azimuth position in relation to a selected VOR station D. A phase difference between two AC voltages may be used to determine an aircraft's Distance from a selected VOR station

C: A phase difference between two AC voltages may be used to determine an aircraft's azimuth position in relation to a selected VOR station

3-59H6 What is one way that voice is trasmitter in a pulse-wideth modulation system? A. A standard pulse is varied in amplitude by an amount depending on the voice waveform at that instant B. The position of a standard pulse is varied by an amount depending on the voice waveform at that instant C. A standard pulse is varied in duration by an amount sending on the voice waveform at that instant D. The number or is tandard pulses per second varies depending on the voice waveform at that instant

C: A standard pulse is varied in duration by an amount depending on the voice waveform at that instant

3-34E6 Which of the following logic Gates will provide an active high out when both inputs are active high? A. NAND B. NOR C. AND D. XOR

C: AND

3-19C6 what is the description of an optocoupler? A. A resistor and a capacitor B. Two light sources modulated onto a mirrored surface C. An LED and a photosensitive device D. An amplitude modulated beam encoder

C: An LED and a photosensitive device

3-74L6 What instrument may be used to verify proper radio antenna functioning A. Digital oh meter B. Hewlett-Packard frequency meter C. An SWR meter D. Different radio

C: An SWR meter

3-40E2 What does the term 'BCD" mean? A. Binaural coded digit B. Bit count decimal C. Binary coded decimal D. Broad course digit

C: Binary coded decimal

3-31D4 What spectral impurity components might be generated by a phase-locked-loop synthesizer? A. Spurs at discrete frequencies B. Random Spurs which gradually drift up in frequency C. Broadband noise D. Digitial conversion noise

C: Broadband noise

3-56G2 How can parasitic oscillations be eliminated in a power amplifier? A. By tuning for maximum SWR B. By tuning for maximum power output C. By neutralization D. By tuning the output

C: By neutralization

3-28C3 What do the initials CMOS stand for? A. Common mode oscillating system B. Complementary mica-oxide silicon C. Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor D. Complementary metal=oxide substrate

C: Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor

3-22C5 A three-terminal regulator: A. Supplies three voltages with variable current B. Supplies three voltages at a constant current C. contains a voltage reference, error amplifier, sensing resistors and transistors, and a pass element D. Contains three error amplifiers and sensing trasistors

C: Contains a voltage reference, error amplifier, sensing resistors and transistors, and a pass element

3-39E6 What circuit interconnects the microprocessor with the memory and input/output system? A. Control logic bus B. PLL line C. Data bus line D. Directional coupler

C: Data bus line

3-57H6 In an FM-phone signal, what is the term for the maximum deviation from the carrier frequency divided by the maximum audio modulating frequency? A. Deviation index B. Modulating index C. Deviation ratio D. Modulation ratio

C: Deviation ratio

3-66J2 What determines the velocity factor in a transmission line? A. The termination impedance B. The line length C. Dielectrics in th eline D. The center conductor resistivity

C: Dielectrics in the line

3-8A3 Halving the cross-sectional area of a conductor will: A. Not affect the resistance B. Quarter the resistance C. Double the resistance D. Halve the resistance

C: Double the resistance

3-42F5 What is the advantage of a GaAsFET peramplifier in modern VHF radio receiver? A. Increased selectivity and flat gain B. Low gain but high selectivity C. High gain and low noise floor D. High gain with high noise floor

C: High gain and low noise floor

3-46F2 What factors should be considered when selecting an intermediate frequency? A. Cross-modulation distortion and interference B. Interference to other services C. Image rejection and selectivity D. Noise figure and distortion

C: Image rejection and selectivity

3-50F2 How can ferrite beads be used to suppress ignition noise? Install them: A. In the resistive high voltage cable every 2 years B. Between the starter solenoid and the starter motor C. Install them in the primary and secondary ignition leads D. In the antenna lead

C: Install them in the primary and secondary ignition leads

3-46F5 What are the distinguishing features of a Chebyshev filter? A. It has a maximally flat response over its passband B. It only requires inductors C. It allows ripple in the passband D. A filter whose product of the series- and shunt-element impedances is a constant for all frequencies

C: It allows ripple in the passband

3-47F6 What are the distinguishing features of a Butterworth filter? A. A filter whose product of the series- and shunt-element impedances is a constant for all frequencies B. It only requires capacitors C. It has a maximally flat response over its passband D. It requires only inductors

C: It has a maximally flat response over its passband

3-30D2 What are the characteristics of an inverting operational amplifier (op-amp) circuit? A. It has input and output signals in phase B. Input and output signals are 90 degrees out of phase C. It has input and output signals 180 degrees out of phase D. Input impedance is low while the output impedance is high

C: It has input and output signals 180 degrees out of phase

3-74L4 What is the purpose of a shunt resistor used with an ammeter? A. A shunt resistor is not used with an ammeter B. It is used to decrease the ampere indicating range of the ammeter C. It is used to increase the ampere indicating range of the ammeter D. It is used to increase the voltage-indicating indicating range of the voltmeter, not the ammeter

C: It is used to increase the ampere indicating range of the ammeter

3-76L5 An oscilloscope can be used to accomplish all of the following except: A. Measure electronically flow with the aid of a resistor B. Measure phase difference between two signals C. Measure velocity of light with the aid of a light emitting diode D. Measure electrical voltage

C: Measure velocity of light with the aid of a light emitting diode

3-50F4 What is the cross-modulation interference? A. Interference between two transmitters of different modulation type B. Interference caused by audio rectification in the receiver preamp C. Modulation from an unwanted signla heard in addition to the desired signal D. Harmonic distortion of the transmitter signal

C: Modulation from an unwanted signal heard in addition to the desired signal

3-38E1 What is the name of the semiconductor memory IC whose digital data can be written or read, and whose memory word address can be accessed randomly? A. ROM - Read-Only Memory B. PROM - Programmable Read-Only Memory C. RAM Random-Access Memory D. EPROM - Electrically Programmable Read-Only Memory

C: RAM - Random-Access Memory

3-8A1 What is the term used to identify an AC voltage that would cause the same heating in a resistor as a corresponding value of DC voltage? A. Cosine voltae B. Power factor C. Root mean square D. Average voltage

C: Root mean square

3-58H1 In Figure 3H17, the block labeled 4 would indicated that this schematic is most likely a/an: A. Audio amplifier B. Shipboard RADAR C. SSB radio transmitter D. Wireless LAN (local area network) computer

C: SSB radio transmitter

3-45F3 A receiver selectivity of 2.4 kHz in the IF circuitry is optimum for what type of signals? A. CW B. Double-sideband AM voice C. SSB voice D. FSK RTTY

C: SSB voice

3-7A6 What type of wave is characterized by a rise time significantly faster than the fall time (or vice versa)? A. Cosine wave B. Square wave C. Sawtooth wave D. sine wave

C: Sawtooth wave

3-27C6 What circuit component must be connected in series to protect an LED? A. Bypass capacitor to ground B. Electrolytic capacitor C. Series resistor D. Shunt coil in series

C: Series resistor

3-44F6 What might occur in a receiver if excessive amounts of signal energy overdrive the mixer circuit? A. Automatic limiting occurs B. Mixer blanking occurs C. Spurious mixer products are generaged D. The mixer circuit becomes unstable and drifts

C: Spurious mixer products are generated

3-22C2 A switching electronic voltage regulator: A. Varies the conduction of a control element in direct proportion to the line voltage or load current B. Provides more than one output voltage C. Switches the control device on or off, with the duty cycle proportional to the line or load conditions D. Gives a ramp voltage at its output

C: Switches the control device on or off, with the duty cycle proportional to the line or load conditions

3-41F4 What is meant by the term noise figure of a communications receiver? A. The level of noise entering the receiver from the antenna B. The relative strength of a received signal 3 kHz removed from the carrier frequency C. The level of noise generated in the front end and succeeding stages of a receiver D. The ability of a receiver to reject unwanted signals at frequencies close to the desired one

C: The level of noise generated in the front end and succeeding stages of a receiver

3-44F4 What are the principal frequencies that appear at the output of a mixer circuit? A. Two and four times the original frequency B. The sum, difference and square root of the input frequencies C. the original frequencies and the sum and difference frequencies D. 1.414 and 0.707 times the input frequency

C: The original frequenices and the sum and difference frequencies

3-76L2 How does a spectrum analyzer differ from a conventional oscilloscope? A. The oscilloscope is used to display electrical signals while the spectrum analyzer is used to measure ionospheric reflection B. The oscilloscope is used to display electrical signals in the frequency domain while the spectrum analyzer is used to display electrical signals in the time domain C. The oscilloscope is used to display electrical signals in the time domain while the spectrum analyzer is used to display electrical signals in the frequency domain D. the oscilloscope is used for displaying audio frequencies and the spectrum analyzer is used for displaying radio frequencies

C: The oscilloscope is used to display electrical signals in the time domain while the spectrum analyzer is used to display electrical signals in the frequency domain

3-70K2 What is the frequency range of the marker beacon system used to indicate an aircraft's position during an Instrument Landing System (ILS) approach to an airport's runway? A. The outer, middle, and inner marker beacons' UHF frequencies are unique for each ILS equipped airport to provide unambiguous frequency-protected reception areas in the 329.15 to 335.00 MHz range B. The outer marker beacon's carrier frequency is 400 MHz, the middle marker beacon's carrier frequency is 1300 MHz, and the inner marker beacon's carrier frequency is 3000 MHz C. The outer, the middle, and the inner marker beacon's carrier frequencies are all 75 MHz but the marker beacons' are 95% tone-modulated at 400 Hz (outer), 1300 Hz (middle), and 3000 Hz (inner). D. The outer, marker beacon's carrier frequency is 3000 kHz, the middle marker beacon's carrier frequency is 1300 kHz, and the inner marker beacon's carrier frequency is 400 kHz

C: The outer, the middle, and the inner marker beacon's carrier frequencies are all 75 MHz but the marker beacons' are 95% tone-modulated at 400 Hz (outer), 1300 Hz (middle), and 3000 Hz (inner)

3-78L1 Can a P25 radio system be monitored with a scanner? A. Yes, regardless if it has P25 decoding or not B. No C. Yes, if the scanner has P25 decoding D. Yes, but it must also have P26 decoding

C: Yes, if the scanner has P25 decoding

3-5A3 MOSFETs are manufactured with THIS protective devise built into their gate to protect the device from static charges and excessive voltages: A. Schottky didoe B. Metal oxide varistor (MOV) C. Zener diode D. Tunnel diode

C: Zener diode

3-33E1 What is the voltage range considered to be valid logic low input in a TTL device operating at 5 volts? A. 2.0 to 5.5 volts B. -2.0 to -5.5 volts C. Zero to 0.8 volts D. 5.2 to 34.8 volts

C: Zero to 0.8 volts

3-3A1 What metal is usually employed as a sacrificial anode for corrosion control purposes? A. Platinum bushing B. Lead bar C. Zinc bar D Brass rod

C: Zinc bar

3-52G4 What is the approximate DC input power to a Class AB RF power amplifier stage in an unmodulated carrier transmitter when the PEP output power is 500 watts? A. 250 watts. B. 600 watts. C. 800 watts. D. 1000 watts.

D. 1000 watts.

3-72K1 What type of antenna pattern is radiated from a ground station phased-array directional antenna when transmitting the PPM pulses in a Mode S interrogation signal of an aircraft's Traffic alert and Collision Avoidance System (TCAS) installation? A. 1090 MHz directional pattern B. 1030 MHz Omnidirectional pattern C. 1090 MHz Omnidirectional pattern D. 1030 MHz directional pattern

D. 1030 MHz directional pattern

3-52G1 The class B amplifier output is present for what portion of the input cycle? A. 360 degrees. B. Greater than 180 degrees and less than 360 degrees. C. Less than 180 degrees. D. 180 degrees.

D. 180 degrees.

3-85N1 What is the channel spacing used for VHF marine radio? A. 10 kHz. B. 12.5 kHz. C. 20 kHz. D. 25 kHz.

D. 25 kHz.

3-98P5 How many satellites must be received to provide complete position and time? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

D. 4

3-95P1 What is the orbiting altitude of the Iridium satellite communications system? A. 22,184 miles. B. 11,492 miles. C. 4,686 miles. D. 485 miles

D. 485 miles

3-90O1 What is the normal range of pulse repetition rates? A. 2,000 to 4,000 pps. B. 1,000 to 3,000 pps. C. 500 to 1,000 pps. D. 500 to 2,000 pps.

D. 500 to 2,000 pps.

3-66J6 If a transmission line has a power loss of 6 dB per 100 feet, what is the power at the feed point to the antenna at the end of a 200 foot transmission line ed by a 100 watt transmitter? A. 70 watts B. 50 watts C. 25 watts D. 6 watts

D. 6 watts

3-54G2 What is a pi-network? A. A network consisting of a capacitor, resistor and inductor. B. The Phase inversion stage. C. An enhanced token ring network. D. A network consisting of one inductor and two capacitors or two inductors and one capacitor.

D. A network consisting of one inductor and two capacitors or two inductors and one capacitor.

3-96P6 Which of the following conditions can render INMARSAT -B communications impossible? A. An obstruction, such as a mast, causing disruption of the signal between the satellite and the SES antenna when the vessel is steering a certain course. B. A satellite whose signal is on a low elevation, below the horizon. C. Travel beyond the effective radius of the satellite. D. All of these.

D. All of these.

3-87N4 Which piece of required GMDSS equipment is the primary source of transmitting locating signals? A. Radio Direction Finder (RDF). B. A SART transmitting on 406 MHz. C. Survival Craft Transceiver. D. An EPIRB transmitting on 406 MH

D. An EPIRB transmitting on 406 MH

3-97P4 Which INMARSAT systems offer High Speed Data at 64/54 kbps? A. C. B. B and C. C. Mini-M. D. B, M4 and Fleet.

D. B, M4 and Fleet.

3-53G5 How can a single-sideband phone signal be generated? A. By driving a product detector with a DSB signal. B. By using a reactance modulator followed by a mixer. C. By using a loop modulator followed by a mixer. D. By using a balanced modulator followed by a filter.

D. By using a balanced modulator followed by a filter.

3-51G6 Which class of amplifier has an operating angle of more than 180 degrees but less than 360 degrees when driven by a sine wave signal? A. Class A. B. Class B. C. Class C. D. Class AB.

D. Class AB.

3-93O3 What happens to the beamwidth of an antenna as the gain is increased? The beamwidth: A. Increases geometrically as the gain is increased. B. Increases arithmetically as the gain is increased. C. Is essentially unaffected by the gain of the antenna. D. Decreases as the gain is increased.

D. Decreases as the gain is increased.

3-55G1 What will occur when a non-linear amplifier is used with a single-sideband phone transmitter? A. Reduced amplifier efficiency. B. Increased intelligibility. C. Sideband inversion. D. Distortion.

D. Distortion.

3-86N3 What type of wire connects an SSB automatic tuner to an insulated backstay? A. RG8U. B. RG213. C. 16-gauge two-conductor. D. GTO-15 high-voltage cable.

D. GTO-15 high-voltage cable.

3-80L1 What color is the binder for pairs 51-75 in a 100-pair cable? A. Red B. Blue C. Black D. Green

D. Green

3-80L5 What tolerance off of plumb should a single base station radio rack be installed? A. No tolerance allowed. B. Just outside the bubble on a level. C. All the way to one end. D. Just inside the bubble on a level.

D. Just inside the bubble on a level.

3-91O6 The component or circuit providing the transmitter output power for a RADAR system is the: A. Thyratron. B. SCR. C. Klystron. D. Magnetron.

D. Magnetron.

3-5A1 What are the two most commonly-used specifications for a junction diode? A. Maximum forward current and capacitance B. Maximum reverse current and PIV (peak inverse voltage) C. Maximum reverse current and capacitance D. Maximum forward current and PIV (peak inverse voltage)

D. Maximum forward current and PIV (peak inverse voltage)

3-26C3 An emitter-follower amplifier has: A. More voltage gain than common emitter or common base B. More power gain than common emitter or common base C. Lowest input impedance of the three amplifier configurations D. More current gain than common emitter or common base

D. More current gain than common emitter or common base

3-82M4 A TDMA radio uses what to carry the multiple conversations sequentially? A. Separate frequencies. B. Separate pilot tones. C. Separate power levels. D. Separate time slots.

D. Separate time slots.

3-82M1 What term describes a wide-bandwidth communications system in which the RF carrier frequency varies according to some predetermined sequence? A. Amplitude compandored single sideband. B. SITOR. C. Time-domain frequency modulation. D. Spread spectrum communication.

D. Spread spectrum communication.

3-92O4 What pulse width and repetition rate should you use at long ranges? A. Narrow pulse width and slow repetition rate. B. Narrow pulse width and fast repetition rate. C. Wide pulse width and fast repetition rate. D. Wide pulse width and slow repetition rate.

D. Wide pulse width and slow repetition rate.

3-74L2 A 50 microampere meter movement has not internal resistance of 2,000 ohms. What applied voltages is required to indicate half-scale deflection? A. 0.01 volts B. 0.10 volts C. 0.005 volts D. 0.05 volts

D: 0.05 volts

3-13B5 What does the power factor equal in an R-L circuit having a 45 degree phase angle between the voltage and the current? A. 0.866 B. 1.0 C. 0.5 D. 0.707

D: 0.707

3-57H2 What is the deviation ration for an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus or minus 7.5 kHz and accepting a maximum modulation rate of 3.5kHz? A. 60 B. 0.16 C. 0.6 D. 1.66

D: 1.66

3-70K1 What is the frequency range of the localizer beam system used by aircraft to find the centerline of a runway during an Instrument Landing System (ILS) approach to an airport? A. 108.10 kHz to 111.95 kHz B. 329.15 MHz to 335.00 MHz C. 329.15 kHz to 335.00 kHz D. 108.10 MHz to 111.95 MHz

D: 108.10 MHz to 111.95 MHz

3-45F1 What degree of selectivity is desirable in the IF circuitry of a wideband FM phone receiver? A. 1kHz B. 2.4 kHz C. 4.2 kHz D. 15 kHz

D: 15 kHz

3-36E3 How many flip-flops are required to divide a signal frequency by 4? A. 1 B. 4 C. 8 D. 2

D: 2

3-15B1 What is the time constant of a circuit having two 220-microfarad capacitors and two 1-megohm resistors all in parallel? A. 22 seconds B. 44 seconds C. 440 seconds D. 220 seconds

D: 220 seconds

3-17B1 What is the impedance of a network composed of a 100-picofarad capacitor in parallel with a 4000-ohm resistor, at 500 KHz? Specify your answer in polar coordinates. A. 2940 ohms, / 51.5 degrees B. 4000 ohms, / 38.5 degrees C. 5112 ohms, / -38.5 degrees D. 2490 ohms, /-51.5 degrees

D: 2490 ohms, / -51.5 degrees

3-18B5 Given a power supply with a full load voltage of 200 volts and a regulation of 25%, what is the no load voltage? A. 150 volts B. 160 volts C. 240 volts D. 250 volts

D: 250 volts

3-16B2 In rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a network composed of a 0.1-microhenry inductor in series with a 30-ohm resistor, at 5 MHz? A. 30 -j3 B. 3 +j30 C. 3 -j30 D. 30 +j3

D: 30 +j3

3-16B6 In rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a network composed of a 0.001-microfarad capacitor in series with a 400-ohm resistor, at 500 kHz? A. 318 - j400 B. 400 + j318 C. 318 + j400 D. 400 - j318

D: 400 - j318

3-14B2 What is the meaning of the term "time constant of an RC circuit"? The time required to charge the capacitor in the circuit to: A. 23.7% of the supply voltage B. 36.8% of the supply voltage C. 57.3% of the supply voltage D. 63.2% of the supply voltage

D: 63.2% of the supply voltage

3-38E5 How many individual memory cells would be contained in a memory IC that has 4 data bus input/output pins and 4 address pins for connection to the address bus? A. 8 B. 16 C. 32 D. 64

D: 64

3-37E2 What is an astable multivibrator? A. A circuit that alternates between two stable states B. A circuit that alternates between a stable state and an unstable state C. A circuit set to block either a 0 pulse or a 1 pulse and pass the other D. A circuit that alternates between two unstable states

D: A circuit that alternates between two unstable states

3-47F4 What is an m-derived filter? A. A filter whose input impedance varies widely over the design bandwidth B. A filter whose product of the series- and shunt-element impedances is a constant for all frequencies C. A filter whose schematic shape is the letter "M" D. A filter that uses a trap to attenuate undesired frequencies too near cut-off for a constant-k filter

D: A filter that uses a trap to attenuate Undesired frequencies too near cut-off for a constant-k filter

3-31D6 What is the definition of a phase-locked-loop (PLL) circuit? A. A servo loop consisting of a ratio detector, reactance modulator, and a voltage-controlled oscillator B. A circuit also known as a monostable multivibrator C. A circuit consisting of a precision push-pull amplifier with a differential input D. A servo loop consisting of a phase detector, a low-pass filter and voltage-controlled oscillator

D: A servo loop consisting of a phase detector, a low-pass filter and voltage-controlled oscillator

3-64J2 The voltage produced in a receiving antenna is: A. Out of phase with the current if connected properly B. Out of phase with the current if cut to 1/3 wavelength C. Variable depending on the station's SWR D. Always proportional to the received field strength

D: Always proportional to the received field strength

3-57H4 How can an FM-phone signal be produced in a transmitter? A. By modulating the supply voltage to a class-B amplifier B. By modulating the supply voltage to a class-C amplifier C. By using a banlanced modulator D. By feeding the audio directly to the oscillator

D: By feeding her audio directly to the oscillator

3-42F1 How can selectivity be achieved in the front-end circuitry of a communcations receiver? A. By using an audio filter B. By using an additional RF amplifier stage C. By using an additional IF amplifier stage D. By using a preselector

D: By using a preselector

3-30D5 Which of the following op-amp circuits is operated ope-loop? A. Non-inverting amp B. Inverting amp C. Active filter D. Comparator

D: Comparator

3-40E5 What integrated circuit device converts digital signals to analog signals? A. ADC B. DCC C. CDC D. DAC

D: DAC

3-49F3 What makes a Digital Coded Squelch work? A. Noise B. Tones C. Absence of noise D. Digital codes

D: Digital codes

3-48F5 In a CTCSS controlled FM receiver, the CTCSS tone is filtered out after the: A. IF stage but before the mixer B. Mixer but before the IF C. IF but before the discriminator D. Discriminator but before the audio section

D: Discriminator but before the audio section

3-68K5 What radio navigation and determines the distance from an aircraft's to a selected VORTAC station by Measuring the length of time the radio signal takes to travel to and from the station? A. RADAR B. Loran C C. Distance Marking (DM) D. Distance Measuring Equipment (DME)

D: Distance Measuring Equipment (DME)

3-20C1 What factors determine the capacitance of a capacitor? A. Voltage on the plates and distance between the plates B. Voltage on the plates and the dielectric constant of the material between the plates C. Amount of charge on the plates and the dielectric constant of the material between the plates D. Distance between the plates and the dielectric constant of the material between the plates

D: Distance between the plates and the dielectric constant of the material between the plates

3-40E1 What is the purpose of the prescaler circuit? A. Converts the output of a JK flip-flop to that of an R-S flip-flop B. Multiplies an HF signal so a low-frequency counter can display the operating frequency C. Prevents oscillation in a low frequency counter circuit D. Divides an HF signal so that a low-frequency counter can display the operating frequency

D: Divides an HF signal so that a low-frequency counter can display the operating frequency

3-41F6 What is the term for the ratio between the largest tolerable receiver input signal and the minimum discernible signal? A. Intermodulation distortion B. Noise floor C. Noise figure D. Dynamic range

D: Dynamic range

3-60I1 When a lead-acid storage battery is being charged, a harmful effect to humans is: A. Internal plate sulfation may occur under constant charging B. Emission of oxygen C. Emission of chlorine gas D. Emission of hydrogen gas

D: Emission of hydrogen gas

3-65J1 A vertical 1/4 wave antenna receives signals: A. In the microwave band B. In one vertical direction C. In one horizontal direction D. Equally from all horizontal directions

D: Equally from all horizontal directions

3-77L2 What does the horizontal axis of a specturm analyzer display? A. Amplitude B. Voltage C. Resonance D. Frequency

D: Frequency

3-77L4 What instrument is most accurate when checking antennas and transmission lines at the operating frequency of the antenna? A. Time domain reflectometer B. Wattmeter C. DMM D. Frequency domain reflectometer

D: Frequency domain reflectometer

3-3A5 Corrosion resulting from the electric current flow between dissimilar metals is called: A. Electrolysis B. Stray current corrosion C. Oxygen starvation corrosion D. Galvanic corrosion

D: Galvanic corrosion

3-23C5 What are the three terminals of a TRIAC? A. Emitter, base 1, and base 2 B. Base, emitter, and collector C. Gate, source, and sink D. Gate, anode 1, and anode 2

D: Gate, anode 1, and anode 2

3-43F5 What condition must exist for a circuit to oscillate? It must: A. Have a gain of less than 1 B. Be neutralized C. Have sufficient negative feedback D. Have sufficient positive feedback

D: Have sufficient positive feedback

3-35E1 In a negative-logic circuit, what level is used to represent a logic "0"? A. Low level B. Positive-transition level C. Negative-transition level D. High level

D: High level

3-62I1 What occurs if the load is removed from an operating series DC motor? A. It will stop running B. Speed will increase slightly C. No change occurs D. It will accelerate until it falls apart

D: It will accelerate until it falls apart

3-33E5 Which of the following instruments would be best for checking a TTL logic circuit? A. VOM B. DMM C. Continuity tester D. Logic probe

D: Logic probe

3-4A2 Good conductors with minimum resistance have what type of electrons? A. Few free electrons B. No electrons C. Some free electrons D. Many free electrons

D: Many free electrons

3-8A5 How do you compute true power (power dissipated in the circuit) in a circuit where AC voltage and current are out of phase? A. Multiply RMS voltage times RMS current B. Subtract apparent power from the power factor C. Divide apparent power by the power factor D. Multiply apparent power times the power factor

D: Multiply apparent power times the power factor

3-13B3 746 Watts, corresponding to the lifting of 550 pounds at the rate of one-foot-per-second, is the equivalent of how much horsepower? A. One-quarter horsepower B. One-half horsepower C. Three-quarters horsepower D. One horsepower

D: One horsepower

3-30D1 What is the main advantage of using an op-amp audio filter over a passive LC audio filter? A. Op-amps are largely immune to vibration and temperature change B. Most LC filter manufacturers have retooled to make op-amp filters C. C Op-amps are readily available in a wide variety of operational voltages and frequency ranges D. Op-amps exhibit gain rather than insertion loss

D: Op-amps exhibit gain rather than insertion loss

3-76L6 What instrument is used to check the signal quality of a single-sideband radio transmission? A. Field strength meter B. Signal level meter C. Sidetone monitor D. Oscilloscope

D: Oscilloscope

3-66J3 Nitrogen is placed in the transmission lines to: A.Improve the "skin-effect" of microwaves B. Reduce arcing in the line C. Reduce the standing wave ration of the line D. Prevent moisture from entering the line

D: Prevent moisture from entering the line

3-34E2 What is a characteristic of a NAND gate? A. Produces a logic "0" at its output only when all inputs are logic "0" B. Produces a logic "1" at its output only when all inputs are logic "1" C. Produces a logic "0" at its output if some but not all of its inputs are logic "1" D. Produces a logic "0" at its output only when all inputs are logic "1"

D: Produces a logic "0" at this output only when all inputs are logic "1"

3-1A6 What is the term for the out-of-phase power associated with inductors and capacitors? A. Effective power B. True power C. Peak envelope power D. Reactive power

D: Reactive power

3-2A4 The opposition to the creation of magnetic lines of force in a magnetic circuit is known as: A. Eddy currents B. Hysteresis C. Permeability D. Reluctance

D: Reluctance

3-29D3 How could voltage be greater across reactances in series than the applied voltage? A. Resistance B. Conductance C. Capacitance D. Resonance

D: Resonance

3-42F4 Too much gain in a VHF receiver front end could result in this: A. Local signals become weaker B. Difficult to match receiver impedances C. Dramatic increase in receiver current D. Susceptibility of intermodulation interference from nearby transmitters

D: Susceptibility of intermodulation interference from nearby transmitters

3-12B4 What is the equivalent to the root-mean-square value of an AC voltage? A. AC voltage is the square root of the average AC value B. The DC voltage causing the same heating in a a given resistor at the peak AC voltage C. The AC voltage found by taking the square of the average value of the peak AC voltage D. The DC voltage causing the same heating in a given resistor as the RMS AC voltage of the same value

D: The DC voltage causing the same heating in a given resistor as the RMS AC voltage of the same value

3-27C2 What determines the visible color radiated by an LED junction? A. The color of a lens in an eyepiece B. The amount of voltage across the device C. The amount of current through the device D. The materials used to construct the device

D: The materials used to construct the device

3-32D4 In Figure 3D9, determine if there is a probelm with this regulated power supply and identify the problem. A. R1 value is too low which would cause excessive base current and instantly destroy TR1 B. D1 and D2 are reversed. The power supply simply would not function C. TR1 is shown as an NPN and must be changed to a PNP D. There is no probelm with the circuit

D: There is no problem with the circuit

3-24C2 What is a common use of a hot-carrier diode? A. Balanced inputs in SSB generation B. Variable capacitance in an automatic frequency control circuit C. Constant voltage reference in a power supply D. VHF and UHF mixers and detectors

D: VHF and UHF mixers and detectors

3-39E3 Which of the following is not part of a MCU processor? A. RAM B. ROM C. I/O D. Voltage Regulator

D: Voltage Regulator