Final Exam 205
A client receiving a blood transfusion develops anxiety and low back pain. After stopping the transfusion, what action by the nurse is most important? a. Documenting the events in the client's medical record b. Double-checking the client and blood product identification c. Placing the client on strict bedrest until the pain subsides d. Reviewing the client's medical record for known allergies
B
A client who is having a tunneled central venous catheter inserted begins to report chest pain and difficulty breathing. What action does the nurse take first? a. Administer the PRN pain medication. b. Prepare to assist with chest tube insertion. c. Place a sterile dressing over the IV site. d. Place the client in the Trendelenburg position.
B
A client who is near death appears to be having difficulty breathing. What is the nurse's highest-priority intervention? a. Teach the family how to perform nasotracheal suctioning. b. Request that the physician order morphine sulfate. c. Document the finding in the client's chart. d. Call a respiratory therapist to intubate the client.
B
A client who is receiving fluid resuscitation per the Parkland formula after a serious burn continues to have urine output ranging from 0.2 to 0.25 mL/kg/hour. After the health care provider checks the client, which order does the nurse question? a. Increase IV fluids by 100 mL/hr. b. Administer furosemide (Lasix) 40 mg IV push. c. Continue to monitor urine output hourly. d. Draw blood for serum electrolytes stat.
B
A client who was malnourished is being discharged. The nurse evaluates that teaching to decrease risk for the development of metabolic acidosis has been effective when the client states, "I will: a. Increase my milk intake to at least three glasses daily." b. Be sure to eat three well-balanced meals and a snack daily." c. Avoid taking pain medication and antihistamines together." d. Not add salt to food when cooking or during meals."
B
A client with human immune deficiency virus (HIV) has had a sudden decline in status with a large increase in viral load. What action should the nurse take first? a. Ask the client about travel to any foreign countries. b. Assess the client for adherence to the drug regimen. c. Determine if the client has any new sexual partners. d. Request information about new living quarters or pets.
B
A client with rheumatoid arthritis (RA) has an acutely swollen, red, and painful joint. What nonpharmacologic treatment does the nurse apply? a. Heating pad b. Ice packs c. Splints d. Wax dip ANS: B
B
A client's chest tube is accidentally dislodged. What action by the nurse is best? a. No action is necessary because the area will reseal itself. b. Cover the insertion site with a sterile gauze and tape three sides. c. Obtain a suture kit and prepare for the physician to suture the site. d. Cover the area with an occlusive dressing.
B
A client's mean arterial pressure is 60 mm Hg and intracranial pressure is 20 mm Hg. Based on the client's cerebral perfusion pressure, what should the nurse anticipate for this client? a. Impending brain herniation b. Poor prognosis and cognitive function c. Probable complete recovery d. Unable to tell from this information
B
A community disaster has occurred and the hospital's emergency department (ED) has efficiently triaged, treated, and transferred most clients to appropriate units. The hospital incident command officer wants to "stand down" from the emergency plan. Which question by the nursing supervisor is most beneficial at this time? a. "Are you sure no more victims are coming into the ED?" b. "Do all other areas of the hospital have the supplies and personnel they need now?" c. "Have all ED staff had the chance to eat and rest recently?" d. "Are all other incident command officers and house supervisors in agreement with you?"
B
A female client with rheumatoid arthritis has taken Rheumatrex (methotrexate) for the past year to control her symptoms. The client comes to the clinic and tells the nurse that a home pregnancy test was positive. What is the nurse's best response? a. "You need to schedule a prenatal appointment with your obstetrician right away." b. "Stop taking Rheumatrex immediately. I'll tell the physician you are pregnant." c. "Continue taking the Rheumatrex, and increase the dose if you have a flare." d. "See a genetic counselor to determine whether your baby will have rheumatoid arthritis."
B
A postoperative hospitalized patient has a decrease in MAP of greater than 20 mm Hg from baseline value; elevated, thready pulse; decreased blood pressure; shallow respirations of 26/min; pale skin; moderate acidosis; and moderate hyperkalemia. The nurse recognizes that this patient is in what phase of shock? a. Compensatory/nonprogressive b. Progressive c. Refractory d. Multiple organ dysfunction
B
A pulmonary nurse cares for clients who have chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which client should the nurse assess first? a. A 46-year-old with a 30-pack-year history of smoking b. A 52-year-old in a tripod position using accessory muscles to breathe c. A 68-year-old who has dependent edema and clubbed fingers d. A 74-year-old with a chronic cough and thick, tenacious secretions
B
A student nurse is preparing morning medications for a client who had a stroke. The student plans to hold the docusate sodium (Colace) because the client had a large stool earlier. What action by the supervising nurse is best? a. Have the student ask the client if it is desired or not. b. Inform the student that the docusate should be given. c. Tell the student to document the rationale. d. Tell the student to give it unless the client refuses.
B
A student nurse is preparing to administer enoxaparin (Lovenox) to a client. What action by the student requires immediate intervention by the supervising nurse? a. Assessing the client's platelet count b. Choosing an 18-gauge, 2-inch needle c. Not aspirating prior to injection d. Swabbing the injection site with alcohol
B
After calling for assistance and a defibrillator, which action should the nurse take next? a. Perform a pericardial thump. b. Initiate cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR). c. Start an 18-gauge intravenous line. d. Ask the client's family about code status.
B
After discontinuing a nontunneled, percutaneous central catheter, it is most important for the nurse to record which information? a. Application of a sterile dressing b. Length of the catheter c. Occurrence of venospasms d. Type of ointment used to seal the tract
B
After teaching a client who has been diagnosed with hepatitis A, the nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which statement by the client indicates a correct understanding of the teaching? a. "Some medications have been known to cause hepatitis A." b. "I may have been exposed when we ate shrimp last weekend." c. "I was infected with hepatitis A through a recent blood transfusion." d. "My infection with Epstein-Barr virus can co-infect me with hepatitis A."
B
After teaching a client who has been diagnosed with hepatitis A, the nurse assesses the clients understanding. Which statement by the client indicates a correct understanding of the teaching? a. Some medications have been known to cause hepatitis A. b. I may have been exposed when we ate shrimp last weekend. c. I was infected with hepatitis A through a recent blood transfusion. d. My infection with Epstein-Barr virus can co-infect me with hepatitis A.
B
In preparing a community teaching program, which information does the nurse plan to present to address secondary cancer prevention? a. Receiving cancer treatment with chemotherapy b. Annual measurement of prostate-specific antigen levels c. Avoiding known cancer-causing substances or conditions d. Having adolescent children receive the Gardasil vaccination
B
The emergency department team is performing cardiopulmonary resuscitation on a client when the client's spouse arrives at the emergency department. What should the nurse do next? a. Request that the client's spouse sit in the waiting room. b. Ask the spouse if he wishes to be present during the resuscitation. c. Suggest that the spouse begin to pray for the client. d. Refer the client's spouse to the hospital's crisis team.
B
The home care nurse is about to administer intravenous medication to the client and reads in the chart that the peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC) line in the client's left arm has been in place for 4 weeks. The IV is patent, with a good blood return. The site is clean and free from manifestations of infiltration, irritation, and infection. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate? a. Notify the physician. b. Administer the prescribed medication. c. Discontinue the PICC line. d. Switch the medication to the oral route.
B
The intensive care nurse is caring for a client who has Guillain-Barré syndrome. The nurse notes that the client's vital capacity has declined to 12 mL/kg, and the client is having difficulty clearing secretions. Which is the nurse's priority action? a. Place the client in a high Fowler's position. b. Prepare the client for elective intubation. c. Administer oxygen via a nasal cannula. d. Auscultate for breath sounds.
B
The nurse assesses a client with Guillain-Barré syndrome during plasmapheresis. Which complication does the nurse monitor for during this procedure? a. Tachycardia b. Hypovolemia c. Hyperkalemia d. Hemorrhage
B
The nurse is administering captopril (Capoten) to a client with heart failure. What is the priority intervention for this client? a. Administer this medication before meals to aid absorption. b. Instruct the client to ask for assistance when arising from bed. c. Give the medication with milk to prevent stomach upset. d. Monitor the potassium level and check for symptoms of hypokalemia.
B
The nurse is administering prescribed sodium nitroprusside (Nipride) intravenously to a client who has shock. Which nursing intervention is a priority when administering this medication? a. Ask if the client has chest pain every 30 minutes. b. Assess the client's blood pressure every 15 minutes. c. Monitor the client's urinary output every hour. d. Observe the client's extremities every 4 hours.
B
The nurse is assessing a client who has hypovolemic shock. Which laboratory value indicates that the client is at risk for acidosis? a. Decreased serum creatinine b. Increased serum lactic acid c. Increased urine specific gravity d. Decreased partial pressure of arterial carbon dioxide
B
The nurse is assessing clients at a community clinic. Which client does the nurse assess most carefully for atrial fibrillation? a. Middle-aged client who takes an aspirin daily b. Client who is dismissed after coronary artery bypass surgery c. Older adult client after a carotid endarterectomy d. Client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
B
The nurse is caring for a client with atrial fibrillation. What manifestation most alerts the nurse to the possibility of a serious complication from this condition? a. Sinus tachycardia b. Speech alterations c. Fatigue d. Dyspnea with activity
B
The nurse is caring for an older adult who reports experiencing frequent asthma attacks and severe arthritic pain. What action by the nurse is most appropriate? a. Review pulmonary function test results. b. Assess use of medication for arthritis. c. Assess frequency of bronchodilator use. d. Review arterial blood gas results.
B
The nurse is caring for an older postoperative client. Which assessment finding causes the nurse to assess further for a wound infection? a. Moderate serosanguineous drainage is seen on the dressing. b. The client is now confused but was not confused previously. c. The white blood cell differential indicates a right shift. d. The white blood cell count is 8000/mm3.
B
The nurse is planning care for a client who has leukemia. Which intervention does the nurse include in the plan of care to prevent fatigue? a. Arrange for a family member to stay with the client. b. Plan care for times when the client has the most energy. c. Schedule for daily physicals and occupational therapy. d. Plan all activities to occur in the morning to allow for afternoon naps.
B
The nurse is reviewing a client's history. Which statement by the client indicates a need for health teaching? a. "I drink 1 to 2 glasses of red wine a week." b. "Because of my arthritis, I take a lot of Tylenol." c. "One of my cousins died of liver cancer 10 years ago." d. "I got a hepatitis vaccine before traveling last year."
B
The nursing supervisor is working with an HIV-positive nurse who has open weeping blisters on her arms after being exposed to poison ivy. Which instructions should the nursing supervisor provide to the nurse before she starts her shift? a. "You should reassure your clients that you are not contagious." b. "You should work phone triage at the desk today rather than taking clients." c. "You should wear a long-sleeved scrub jacket today while working with clients." d. "You should not care for clients who are immune compromised or in isolation."
B
Which client does the nurse assess for potential metabolic acidosis? a. Client admitted after collapsing during a marathon run b. Young adult following a carbohydrate-free diet c. Older adult with asthma who is on long-term steroid therapy d. Older client on antacids for gastroesophageal reflux disease
B
A nurse is planning care for a client with Sjögren's syndrome. At what point does the nurse determine that priority outcomes have been met? a. The client states that he or she is not as fatigued as previously. b. The client dresses attractively despite gaining a large amount of weight. c. The oral mucosa is intact and no systemic signs of infection are present. d. The client is able to complete activities of daily living with minimal shortness of breath.
C
A nurse is triaging clients in the emergency department. Which client complaint would the triage nurse classify as nonurgent? a. Chest pain and diaphoresis b. Decreased breath sounds due to chest trauma c. Left arm fracture with palpable radial pulses d. Sore throat and a temperature of 104° F
C
A nursing instructor is debriefing students who participated in a community-wide disaster drill. Several students are upset with the black-tagged triage category. Which statement by the nursing instructor is best? a. "To do the greatest good for the greatest number of people, it is necessary to sacrifice some." b. "Not everyone will survive a disaster, so it is best to identify those people early and move on." c. "In a disaster, extensive resources are not used for one person at the expense of many others." d. "With black tags, volunteers can identify those who are dying and can give them comfort care."
C
A telemetry nurse assesses a client with third-degree heart block who has wide QRS complexes and a heart rate of 35 beats/min on the cardiac monitor. Which assessment should the nurse complete next? a. Pulmonary auscultation b. Pulse strength and amplitude c. Level of consciousness d. Mobility and gait stability
C
An emergency department (ED) supervisor has noted an increase in sick calls and bickering among the ED staff after a week with multiple trauma incidents. What action by the supervisor is most helpful? a. Organize a pizza party for each shift. b. Remind staff of facility sick-leave policy. c. Arrange critical incident stress debriefing. d. Talk individually with staff members.
C
An experienced hospice nurse is training a new nurse in the practices of palliative care. What statement by the new nurse indicates understanding about drug therapy for end-of-life care? a. "I can administer as much pain medication as I want because the client is dying." b. "The administration of these medications will hasten the client's death." c. "I can administer medication per the protocol to relieve the client's symptoms." d. "The purpose of palliative sedation is to relieve family members' distress."
C
An older adult client tells the nurse that her granddaughter has chickenpox. The client is afraid to visit because she is afraid of getting shingles from her granddaughter. What is the nurse's best response? a. "If you already had chickenpox, you cannot get shingles." b. "If you already had shingles, you cannot get them again." c. "If you already had chickenpox, you can safely visit your granddaughter." d. "Shingles is caused by a different virus than the chickenpox virus."
C
The charge nurse is orienting a float nurse to an assigned client with an arteriovenous (AV) fistula for hemodialysis in her left arm. Which action by the float nurse would be considered unsafe? a. Palpating the access site for a bruit or thrill b. Using the right arm for a blood pressure reading c. Administering intravenous fluids through the AV fistula d. Checking distal pulses in the left arm
C
The community health nurse assesses clients at a health fair. Which statement assists the nurse to identify modifiable risk factors in clients with coronary artery disease? a. "Would you please state your full name and birth date?" b. "Have you ever had an exercise tolerance stress test?" c. "In what activities do you participate on a daily basis?" d. "Does anyone in your family have a history of heart disease?"
C
The emergency department (ED) nurse is assigned to triage clients. What is the purpose of triage? a. Treat clients on a first-come, first-serve basis. b. Identify and treat clients with low acuity first. c. Prioritize clients based on illness severity. d. Determine health needs from a complete assessment.
C
The nurse assesses a client admitted for chest trauma who reports dyspnea. The nurse finds tracheal deviation and a pulse oximetry reading of 86%. What is the nurse's priority intervention? a. Notify the health care provider and document the symptoms. b. Intubate the client and prepare for mechanical ventilation. c. Administer oxygen and prepare for chest tube insertion. d. Administer an intermittent positive-pressure breathing treatment.
C
The nurse assesses a client who has a hemothorax and a chest tube inserted on the right side. What finding requires immediate attention? a. Pain at the chest tube insertion site b. Fluctuation in the water seal chamber with breathing c. Puffiness of the skin around the chest tube insertion site and a crackling feeling d. Dullness to percussion on the affected side
C
The nurse assesses distended neck veins in a client sitting in a chair to eat. What intervention is the nurse's priority? a. Document the observation in the chart. b. Measure urine specific gravity and volume. c. Assess the pulse and blood pressure. d. Assess the client's deep tendon reflexes.
C
The nurse assesses distended neck veins in a client sitting in a chair to eat. What intervention is the nurse's priority? a. Document the observation in the chart. b. Measure urine specific gravity and volume. c. Assess the pulse and blood pressure. d. Assess the client's deep tendon reflexes.
C
The nurse assesses for acidosis in the client with which assessment data? a. Serum sodium level of 130 mEq per liter and peripheral edema b. Serum sodium level of 144 mEq per liter and tachycardia c. Serum potassium level of 6.5 mEq per liter and flaccid paralysis d. Serum potassium level of 4.5 mEq per liter and hyperactive deep tendon reflexes
C
The nurse has administered adenosine (Adenocard). What is the expected therapeutic response? a. Increased intraocular pressure b. A brief tonic-clonic seizure c. A short period of asystole d. Hypertensive crisis
C
The nurse has been assigned the role of triage nurse after a weather-related disaster. What is the priority action of the nurse? a. Call in additional staff to assist with care of the victims. b. Splint fractures and clean and dress lacerations. c. Perform a rapid assessment of clients to determine priority of care. d. Provide psychological support to staff and family members.
C
The nurse interprets which arterial blood gas values as partially compensated metabolic acidosis? a. pH 7.28, HCO3- 19 mEq/L, PCO2 45 mm Hg, PO2 96 mm Hg b. pH 7.45, HCO3- 22 mEq/L, PCO2 40 mm Hg, PO2 98 mm Hg c. pH 7.32, HCO3- 17 mEq/L, PCO2 25 mm Hg, PO2 98 mm Hg d. pH 7.48, HCO3- 28 mEq/L, PCO2 45 mm Hg, PO2 92 mm Hg
C
The nurse is caring for a client with a complete heart block (third-degree atrioventricular [AV] block). What is the nurse's priority intervention? a. Perform a cardioversion. b. Assist with carotid massage. c. Begin external pacing. d. Administer adenosine (Adenocard) IV.
C
The nurse is caring for a client with a new tracheostomy. Which assessment finding requires the nurse's immediate action? a. Cuff pressure readings consistently between 14 and 20 mm Hg. b. Need to change Velcro tube holders three times in 1 day. c. Crackling sensation around the neck when skin is palpated. d. Small amount of bleeding around the incision for the first few days.
C
The nurse is caring for an 80-year-old client who has had coronary artery bypass graft surgery. Which assessment does the nurse prioritize for this client? a. Skin b. Otoscopic c. Mental status d. Gastrointestinal
C
The nurse is interested in primary prevention for cancer. Which activity does the nurse most likely participate in? a. Distributing occult fecal blood test kits to people at the shopping mall b. Arranging transportation volunteers for clients undergoing radiation therapy c. Teaching high school students the dangers of using tobacco d. Educating adolescent girls about getting an annual Papanicolaou (PAP) smear
C
The nurse is preparing to administer sodium nitroprusside (Nipride) to a client. Which important action related to the administration of this drug does the nurse implement? a. Assess the client's respiratory rate. b. Administer the medication with gravity tubing. c. Protect the medication from light with an opaque bag. d. Monitor for hypertensive crisis.
C
The nurse is providing discharge teaching. Which statement by the client indicates the need for further teaching regarding increased risk for metabolic alkalosis? a. "I don't drink milk because it gives me gas and diarrhea." b. "I have been taking digoxin every day for the last 15 years." c. "I take sodium bicarbonate after every meal to prevent heartburn." d. "In hot weather, I sweat so much that I drink six glasses of water each day."
C
The nurse is teaching a community group about pancreatic cancer. Which risk factor does the nurse instruct is known for development of this type of cancer? a. Hypothyroidism b. Cholelithiasis c. BRCA2 gene mutation d. African-American ethnicity
C
The nurse is triaging clients in the emergency department. Which client should be considered urgent? a. 20-year-old female with a chest stab wound and tachycardia b. 45 year-old homeless man with a skin rash and sore throat c. 75-year-old female with a cough and of temperature of 102° F d. 50-year-old male with new-onset confusion and slurred speech
C
The nurse monitors for which acid-base imbalance in a client who has hypoxemia? a. Reduced carbon dioxide production leading to alkalosis b. Reduced carbon dioxide retention leading to alkalosis c. Excess carbon dioxide production leading to acidosis d. Excess carbon dioxide retention leading to acidosis
C
The nurse prepares to administer a blood transfusion to a client. Which means of identification does the nurse use to ensure that the blood is administered to the correct client? a. Ask the client whether his or her name is the one on the blood product tag. b. Ask the client's spouse if the client is supposed to have a transfusion. c. Compare the name and ID number on the blood product tag with the name and ID number on the client's ID band. d. Compare the unit and room number of the client with the unit and room number listed on the blood product tag.
C
The nurse teaches a client who is newly diagnosed with coronary artery disease. Which instruction does the nurse include to minimize complications of this disease? a. "Rest is the best medicine at this time. Do not start an exercise program." b. "You are a man; therefore there is nothing you can do to minimize your risks." c. "You should talk to your provider about medications to help you quit smoking." d. "Decreasing the carbohydrates in your diet will help you lose weight."
C
The rehabilitation nurse is assisting a client with heart failure to increase activity tolerance. During ambulation of the client, identification of what symptom causes the nurse to stop the client's activity? a. Decrease in oxygen saturation from 98% to 95% b. Respiratory rate change from 22 to 28 breaths/min c. Systolic blood pressure change from 136 to 96 mm Hg d. Increase in heart rate from 86 to 100 beats/min
C
The terminally ill client is prescribed morphine to help cope with increasing discomfort. A family member expresses concern that the client is on "too much morphine." What is the nurse's best response? a. "What has the physician told you about your family member's illness?" b. "Don't worry about that. We're following the physician's plan of care." c. "Tell me more about what you mean by too much morphine." d. "You should talk with your physician about this when he makes rounds."
C
What statement indicates that a client needs further teaching regarding therapy with salmeterol (Serevent)? a. "I will be certain to shake the inhaler well before I use it." b. "It may take a while before I notice a change in my asthma." c. "I will use the drug when I have an asthma attack." d. "I will be careful not to let the drug escape out of my nose and mouth."
C
Which action does the nurse teach a client to reduce the risk for dehydration? a. Restricting sodium intake to no greater than 4 g/day b. Maintaining an oral intake of at least 1500 mL/day c. Maintaining a daily oral intake approximately equal to daily fluid loss d. Avoiding the use of glycerin suppositories to manage constipation
C
Which statement made by the older adult client alerts the nurse to assess specifically for fluid and electrolyte imbalances? a. "My skin is always so dry, especially here in the Southwest." b. "I often use a glycerin suppository for constipation." c. "I don't drink liquids after 5 PM so I don't have to get up at night." d. "In addition to coffee, I drink at least one glass of water with each meal."
C
Which treatment modalities might the nurse expect for a patient who is undergoing nonsurgical management of chronic joint pain? (select all that apply) a. Immobilization to promote rest b. Weight control c. Exercise balanced with rest d. Thermal modalities
C
A client with a history of heart failure is being discharged. Which priority instruction will assist the client in the prevention of complications associated with heart failure? a. "Avoid drinking more than 3 quarts of liquids each day." b. "Eat six small meals daily instead of three larger meals." c. "When you feel short of breath, take an additional diuretic." d. "Weigh yourself daily while wearing the same amount of clothing."
D
A client with acquired immune deficiency syndrome is hospitalized and has weeping Kaposi's sarcoma lesions. The nurse dresses them with sterile gauze. When changing these dressings, which action is most important? a. Adhering to Standard Precautions b. Assessing tolerance to dressing changes c. Performing hand hygiene before and after care d. Disposing of soiled dressings properly
D
A client with cancer is admitted to a short-term rehabilitation facility. The nurse prepares to administer the client's oral chemotherapy medications. What action by the nurse is most appropriate? a. Crush the medications if the client cannot swallow them. b. Give one medication at a time with a full glass of water. c. No special precautions are needed for these medications. d. Wear personal protective equipment when handling the medications.
D
A nurse assesses clients on the medical-surgical unit. Which client should the nurse identify as at high risk for pancreatic cancer? a. A 26-year-old with a body mass index of 21 b. A 33-year-old who frequently eats sushi c. A 48-year-old who often drinks wine d. A 66-year-old who smokes cigarettes
D
A nurse evaluates the following arterial blood gas and vital sign results for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD):Arterial Blood Gas Results pH = 7.32, PaCO2 = 62 mm, HgPaO2 = 46 mm, HgHCO3- = 28 mEq/L. Vital signs Heart rate = 110 beats/min, Respiratory rate = 12 breaths/min, Blood pressure = 145/65 mm Hg, Oxygen saturation = 76%. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Administer a short-acting beta2 agonist inhaler. b. Document the findings as normal for a client with COPD. c. Teach the client diaphragmatic breathing techniques. d. Initiate oxygenation therapy to increase saturation to 92%.
D
A nurse is caring for a client with acute pericarditis who reports substernal precordial pain that radiates to the left side of the neck. Which nonpharmacologic comfort measure should the nurse implement? a. Apply an ice pack to the client's chest. b. Provide a neck rub, especially on the left side. c. Allow the client to lie in bed with the lights down. d. Sit the client up with a pillow to lean forward on.
D
A nurse is caring for several clients with dehydration. The nurse assesses the client with which finding as needing oxygen therapy? a. Tenting of skin on the back of the hand b. Increased urine osmolarity c. Weight loss of 10 pounds d. Pulse rate of 115 beats/min
D
A nurse prepares to defibrillate a client who is in ventricular fibrillation. Which priority intervention should the nurse perform prior to defibrillating this client? a. Make sure the defibrillator is set to the synchronous mode. b. Administer 1 mg of intravenous epinephrine. c. Test the equipment by delivering a smaller shock at 100 joules. d. Ensure that everyone is clear of contact with the client and the bed.
D
A nurse receives a report on a client who had a left-sided stroke and has homonymous hemianopsia. What action by the nurse is most appropriate for this client? a. Assess for bladder retention and/or incontinence. b. Listen to the client's lungs after eating or drinking. c. Prop the client's right side up when sitting in a chair. d. Rotate the client's meal tray when the client stops eating.
D
An emergency room nurse initiates care for a client with a cervical spinal cord injury who arrives via emergency medical services. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Assess level of consciousness. b. Obtain vital signs. c. Administer oxygen therapy. d. Evaluate respiratory status.
D
An industrial accident has occurred near the hospital, and many victims are brought to the emergency department (ED) for treatment of their injuries. The nurse triages the victim with which injury with a red tag? a. Dislocated right hip and an open fracture of the right lower leg b. Large contusion to the forehead and a bloody nose c. Closed fracture of the right clavicle and arm numbness d. Multiple fractured ribs and shortness of breath
D
Emergency medical services arrive to the emergency department with a client who has a cervical spinal cord injury. Which priority assessment does the emergency department nurse perform at this time? a. Level of consciousness and orientation b. Heart rate and rhythm c. Muscle strength and reflexes d. Respiratory pattern and airway
D
The RN has assigned a client with a newly placed arteriovenous (AV) fistula in the right arm to an LPN. Which information about the care of this client is most important for the RN to provide to the LPN? a. "Avoid movement of the right extremity." b. "Place gentle pressure over the fistula site after blood draws." c. "Start any IV lines below the site of the fistula." d. "Take blood pressure in the left arm."
D
The client with chronic respiratory acidosis who is receiving oxygen by nasal cannula at 6 L/min now has a respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min. What is the nurse's best action? a. Documenting the observation as the only action b. Changing the nasal cannula to an oxygen mask c. Placing the client in a high Fowler's position d. Decreasing the oxygen flow rate
D
The nurse is assisting with resuscitation of a client. What priority intervention does the nurse perform before defibrillating a client? a. Make sure the defibrillator is set to the synchronous mode. b. Deliver a precordial thump to the upper portion of the sternum. c. Test the equipment by delivering a smaller shock at 100 J. d. Ensure that all personnel are clear of contact with the client and the bed.
D
The nurse is caring for four clients with asthma. Which client does the nurse assess first? a. Client with a barrel chest and clubbed fingernails b. Client with an SaO2 level of 92% at rest c. Client whose expiratory phase is longer than the inspiratory phase d. Client whose heart rate is 120 beats/min
D
The nurse is providing care for a client admitted to the hospital with reports of chest pain. After receiving a total of three nitroglycerin sublingual tablets, the client states, "The pain has not gotten any better." What does the nurse do next? a. Place the client in a semi-Fowler's position. b. Administer intravenous nitroglycerin. c. Begin supplemental oxygen at 2 L/min. d. Notify the health care provider.
D
The nurse is providing teaching for a patient with rheumatoid arthritis who is receiving methotrexate. Which teaching point must the nurse include? A. Medication is taken every morning on an empty stomach B. Avoid driving or operating heavy machinery C. Expect some increase in swelling while taking this medication D. Avoid crowds of people who are all ill
D
The nurse monitors for which acid-base problem in a client who is taking furosemide (Lasix) for hypertension? a. Acid excess secondary to respiratory acidosis b. Acid deficit secondary to respiratory alkalosis c. Acid excess secondary to metabolic acidosis d. Acid deficit secondary to metabolic alkalosis
D
The spouse of a dying client states that she is concerned that her husband is choking to death. What is the nurse's best response? a. "Do not worry. The choking sound is normal during the dying process." b. "I will administer more morphine to keep your husband comfortable." c. "I can ask the respiratory therapist to suction secretions out through his nose." d. "I will have another nurse assist me to turn your husband on his side."
D
The stroke patient is prescribed docusate (Colace) one a day in the morning. What is the purpose of this drug specific to this patient? a. Laxative to prevent constipation b. Soften the patient's stool c. Increase fluid content of stool d. Prevent increased ICP
D
When caring for a patient with acute coronary syndrome who has returned to the coronary care unit after having angioplasty with stent placement, the nurse obtains the following assessment data. Which data indicate the need for immediate action by the nurse? a. Heart rate 102 beats/min b. Pedal pulses 1+ bilaterally c. Blood pressure 103/54 mm Hg d. Chest pain level 7 on a 0 to 10 point scale
D
Which assessment finding for a client with a peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC) line requires immediate attention? a. Initial dressing over site is 3 days old. b. Line has been in for 4 weeks. c. A securement device is absent. d. Upper extremity swelling is noted.
D
Which client is at greatest risk for dehydration? a. Younger adult client on bedrest b. Older adult client receiving hypotonic IV fluid c. Younger adult client receiving hypertonic IV fluid d. Older adult client with cognitive impairment
D
Which nursing intervention is an example of primary prevention for lung cancer? a. Teaching clients with lung cancer how to cough and deep breathe b. Teaching clients with lung cancer to avoid infection c. Teaching clients about prophylactic antibiotics d. Teaching people about smoking and secondhand smoke
D
A new nurse is securing the connections on a new IV administration set connected to a peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC) line with tape. Which action by the precepting nurse is most appropriate? a. Make sure the tape being used is from a sterile IV start kit. b. Stop the nurse and confirm that the Luer-Lok connections are tight. c. Help the new nurse document the set change appropriately. d. Show the new nurse how to turn back the corner of the tape for easy removal.
B
A nurse assesses a client after administering prescribed levetiracetam (Keppra). Which laboratory tests should the nurse monitor for potential adverse effects of this medication? a. Serum electrolyte levels b. Kidney function tests c. Complete blood cell count d. Antinuclear antibodies
B
A nurse assesses a client with atrial fibrillation. Which manifestation should alert the nurse to the possibility of a serious complication from this condition? a. Sinus tachycardia b. Speech alterations c. Fatigue d. Dyspnea with activity
B
A nurse cares for a client who has a heart rate averaging 56 beats/min with no adverse symptoms. Which activity modification should the nurse suggest to avoid further slowing of the heart rate? a. "Make certain that your bath water is warm." b. "Avoid straining while having a bowel movement." c. "Limit your intake of caffeinated drinks to one a day." d. "Avoid strenuous exercise such as running."
B
A nurse cares for a client with hepatic portal-systemic encephalopathy (PSE). The client is thin and cachectic in appearance, and the family expresses distress that the client is receiving little dietary protein. How should the nurse respond? a. "A low-protein diet will help the liver rest and will restore liver function." b. "Less protein in the diet will help prevent confusion associated with liver failure." c. "Increasing dietary protein will help the client gain weight and muscle mass." d. "Low dietary protein is needed to prevent fluid from leaking into the abdomen."
B
A nurse cares for a client with hepatic portal-systemic encephalopathy (PSE). The client is thin and cachectic in appearance, and the family expresses distress that the client is receiving little dietary protein. How should the nurse respond? a. A low-protein diet will help the liver rest and will restore liver function. b. Less protein in the diet will help prevent confusion associated with liver failure. c. Increasing dietary protein will help the client gain weight and muscle mass. d. Low dietary protein is needed to prevent fluid from leaking into the abdomen.
B
A nurse is assessing clients on a medical-surgical unit. Which client should the nurse identify as being at greatest risk for atrial fibrillation? a. A 45-year-old who takes an aspirin daily b. A 50-year-old who is post coronary artery bypass graft surgery c. A 78-year-old who had a carotid endarterectomy d. An 80-year-old with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
B
A nurse is caring for several clients at risk for shock. Which laboratory value requires the nurse to communicate with the health care provider? a. Creatinine: 0.9 mg/dL b. Lactate: 6 mmol/L c. Sodium: 150 mEq/L d. White blood cell count: 11,000/mm3
B
A nurse is in charge of the coronary intensive care unit. Which client should the nurse see first? a. Client on a nitroglycerin infusion at 5 mcg/min, not titrated in the last 4 hours b. Client who is 1 day post coronary artery bypass graft, blood pressure 180/100 mm Hg c. Client who is 1 day post percutaneous coronary intervention, going home this morning d. Client who is 2 days post coronary artery bypass graft, became dizzy this a.m. while walking
B
A nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion. What action is most important? a. Correctly identifying client using two identifiers b. Ensuring informed consent is obtained if required c. Hanging the blood product with Ringer's lactate d. Staying with the client for the entire transfusion
B
A nurse is preparing to admit a client on mechanical ventilation from the emergency department. What action by the nurse takes priority? a. Assessing that the ventilator settings are correct b. Ensuring there is a bag-valve-mask in the room c. Obtaining personal protective equipment d. Planning to suction the client upon arrival to the room
B
A nurse obtains a client's health history at a community health clinic. Which statement alerts the nurse to provide health teaching to this client? a. "I drink two glasses of red wine each week." b. "I take a lot of Tylenol for my arthritis pain." c. "I have a cousin who died of liver cancer." d. "I got a hepatitis vaccine before traveling."
B
A nurse obtains a clients health history at a community health clinic. Which statement alerts the nurse to provide health teaching to this client? a. I drink two glasses of red wine each week. b. I take a lot of Tylenol for my arthritis pain. c. I have a cousin who died of liver cancer. d. I got a hepatitis vaccine before traveling.
B
A nurse receives new prescriptions for a client with severe burn injuries who is receiving fluid resuscitation per the Parkland formula. The client's urine output continues to range from 0.2 to 0.25 mL/kg/hr. Which prescription should the nurse question? a. Increase intravenous fluids by 100 mL/hr. b. Administer furosemide (Lasix) 40 mg IV push. c. Continue to monitor urine output hourly. d. Draw blood for serum electrolytes STAT.
B
A nurse suspects a client has serum sickness. What laboratory result would the nurse correlate with this condition? a. Blood urea nitrogen: 12 mg/dL b. Creatinine: 3.2 mg/dL c. Hemoglobin: 8.2 mg/dL d. White blood cell count: 12,000/mm3
B
A nurse teaches a client with heart failure about energy conservation. Which statement should the nurse include in this client's teaching? a. "Walk until you become short of breath, and then walk back home." b. "Gather everything you need for a chore before you begin." c. "Pull rather than push or carry items heavier than 5 pounds." d. "Take a walk after dinner every day to build up your strength."
B
A patient with suspected tuberculosis (TB) is admitted to the hospital. Along with a private room, which nursing intervention is appropri- ate related to isolation procedures? a. Airborne and contact isolation for sputum only b. Strict airborne precautions and use of specially fitted respirator face masks c. Airborne isolation with surgical masks until diagnosis is confirmed d. Only standard precautions are necessary until the diagnosis is confirmed
B
A postoperative hospitalized patient has a decrease in MAP of greater than 20 mm Hg from baseline value; elevated, thready pulse; decreased blood pressure; shallow respirations of 26/min; pale skin; moderate acidosis; and moderate hyperkalemia. The nurse recognizes that this patient is in what phase of shock? a. Compensatory/nonprogressive b. Progressive c. Refractory d. Multiple organ dysfunction
B
A client hospitalized for chemotherapy has a hemoglobin of 6.1 mg/dL. What medication should the nurse prepare to administer? a. Epoetin alfa (Epogen) b. Filgrastim (Neupogen) c. Mesna (Mesnex) d. Oprelvekin (Neumega)
A
The hand grasps of a client with acidosis have diminished since the previous assessment 1 hour ago. What action does the nurse take next? a. Assess client's rate, rhythm, and depth of respiration. b. Measure the client's pulse and blood pressure. c. Document findings and continue to monitor. d. Notify the physician as soon as possible.
A
In the client with alkalosis, the nurse assesses for which clinical manifestations? (Select all that apply.) a. Positive Chvostek's sign b. Positive Trousseau's sign c. Hyporeflexia d. Bradycardia e. Elevated blood pressure f. Elevated urinary output
A, B, D
A client is admitted with hyponatremia. Four hours after the initial assessment, the nurse notes that the client has new hyperactive bowel sounds in all four quadrants. What analysis about the client's condition is correct? a. The hyponatremia is worse. b. The hyponatremia is the same. c. The hyponatremia is better. d. The client now has hypernatremia.
A
A client is being discharged and continues to be at risk for developing metabolic alkalosis. Which statement by the client indicates to the nurse that teaching has been effective? a. "I will avoid excess use of antacids." b. "I'll drink at least three glasses of milk daily." c. "I'll avoid medications containing aspirin." d. "I will not add salt to my food during meals."
A
A client is diagnosed with varicella (chickenpox). The nurse places the client on which precautions? a. Airborne b. Standard c. Contact d. Droplet
A
A client is on a dopamine infusion via a peripheral line. What action by the nurse takes priority for safety? a. Assess the IV site hourly. b. Monitor the pedal pulses. c. Monitor the client's vital signs. d. Obtain consent for a central line.
A
A client is receiving norepinephrine (Levophed) for shock. What assessment finding best indicates a therapeutic effect from this drug? a. Alert and oriented, answering questions b. Client denial of chest pain or chest pressure c. IV site without redness or swelling d. Urine output of 30 mL/hr for 2 hours
A
A client is receiving oxygen at 4 liters per nasal cannula. What comfort measure may the nurse delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? a. Apply water-soluble ointment to nares and lips. b. Periodically turn the oxygen down or off. c. Remove the tubing from the client's nose. d. Turn the client every 2 hours or as needed.
A
A client with heart failure is prescribed enalapril (Vasotec). What is the nurse's priority teaching for this client? a. "Avoid using salt substitutes." b. "Take your medication with food." c. "Avoid using aspirin-containing products." d. "Check your pulse daily."
A
A client with tachycardia is experiencing clinical manifestations. Which manifestation requires immediate intervention by the nurse? a. Mid-sternal chest pain b. Increased urine output c. Mild orthostatic hypotension d. P wave touching the T wave
A
A client's electrocardiograph (ECG) tracing shows a run of sustained ventricular tachycardia. What is the nurse's first action? a. Assess airway, breathing, and level of consciousness. b. Administer an amiodarone bolus followed by a drip. c. Cardiovert the client with a biphasic defibrillator. d. Begin cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR).
A
A marathon runner comes into the clinic and states "I have not urinated very much in the last few days." The nurse notes a heart rate of 110 beats/min and a blood pressure of 86/58 mm Hg. Which action by the nurse is the priority? a. Give the client a bottle of water immediately. b. Start an intravenous line for fluids. c. Teach the client to drink 2 to 3 liters of water daily. d. Perform an electrocardiogram.
A
A nurse admits a client who is experiencing an exacerbation of heart failure. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Assess the client's respiratory status. b. Draw blood to assess the client's serum electrolytes. c. Administer intravenous furosemide (Lasix). d. Ask the client about current medications.
A
A nurse assesses a client who is recovering from anterior cervical diskectomy and fusion. Which complication should alert the nurse to urgently communicate with the health care provider? a. Auscultated stridor b. Weak pedal pulses c. Difficulty swallowing d. Inability to shrug shoulders
A
A nurse assesses a client with tachycardia. Which clinical manifestation requires immediate intervention by the nurse? a. Mid-sternal chest pain b. Increased urine output c. Mild orthostatic hypotension d. P wave touching the T wave
A
A nurse cares for a client with burn injuries. Which intervention should the nurse implement to appropriately reduce the client's pain? a. Administer the prescribed intravenous morphine sulfate. b. Apply ice to skin around the burn wound for 20 minutes. c. Administer prescribed intramuscular ketorolac (Toradol). d. Decrease tactile stimulation near the burn injuries.
A
A nurse has educated a client on an epinephrine auto-injector (EpiPen). What statement by the client indicates additional instruction is needed? a. "I don't need to go to the hospital after using it." b. "I must carry two EpiPens with me at all times." c. "I will write the expiration date on my calendar." d. "This can be injected right through my clothes."
A
A nursing student studying acute coronary syndromes learns that the pain of a myocardial infarction (MI) differs from stable angina in what ways? (Select all that apply.) a. Accompanied by shortness of breath b. Feelings of fear or anxiety c. Lasts less than 15 minutes d. No relief from taking nitroglycerin e. Pain occurs without known cause
A, B, D, E
A nurse in the oncology clinic is providing preoperative education to a client just diagnosed with cancer. The client has been scheduled for surgery in 3 days. What action by the nurse is best? a. Call the client at home the next day to review teaching. b. Give the client information about a cancer support group. c. Provide all the preoperative instructions in writing. d. Reassure the client that surgery will be over soon.
A
A nurse is assessing clients for fluid and electrolyte imbalances. Which client is at greatest risk for developing hyponatremia? a. Client who is NPO receiving intravenous D5W b. Client taking a sulfonamide antibiotic c. Client taking ibuprofen (Motrin) d. Client taking digoxin (Lanoxin)
A
A nurse is caring for a client who has lung cancer and is dying. Which prescription should the nurse question? a. Morphine 10 mg sublingual every 6 hours PRN for pain level greater than 5 b. Albuterol (Proventil) metered dose inhaler every 4 hours PRN for wheezes c. Atropine solution 1% sublingual every 4 hours PRN for excessive oral secretions d. Sodium biphosphate (Fleet) enema once a day PRN for impacted stool
A
A nurse is caring for several clients at risk for overhydration. The nurse assesses the older client with which finding first? a. Has had diabetes mellitus for 12 years b. Uses sodium-containing antacids frequently c. Just received 3 units of packed red blood cells d. Had abdominal surgery and has a nasogastric tube
C
A nurse is caring for four clients with leukemia. After hand-off report, which client should the nurse see first? a. Client who had two bloody diarrhea stools this morning b. Client who has been premedicated for nausea prior to chemotherapy c. Client with a respiratory rate change from 18 to 22 breaths/min d. Client with an unchanged lesion to the lower right lateral malleolus
A
A nurse is changing the administration set on a client's central venous catheter. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to complete? a. Have the client hold his breath during the set change. b. Keep the slide clamp on the catheter extension open. c. Position the client in a high Fowler's position. d. Position in the client in a semi-Fowler's position.
A
A nurse obtains a focused health history for a client who is suspected of having bacterial meningitis. Which question should the nurse ask? a. "Do you live in a crowded residence?" b. "When was your last tetanus vaccination?" c. "Have you had any viral infections recently?" d. "Have you traveled out of the country in the last month?"
A
A nurse suspects that a client has serum sickness. For which manifestation does the nurse assess the client? a. Joint pain b. Allergic rhinitis c. Stridor d. Wheezing
A
A nurse teaches a client who experiences occasional premature atrial contractions (PACs) accompanied by palpitations that resolve spontaneously without treatment. Which statement should the nurse include in this client's teaching? a. "Minimize or abstain from caffeine." b. "Lie on your side until the attack subsides." c. "Use your oxygen when you experience PACs." d. "Take amiodarone (Cordarone) daily to prevent PACs."
A
A patient presents with fever, arthralgia, rash, malaise, lymphadenopathy, nephritis, and polyarthritis. The patient has been admitted to the hospital several times in the past month and was last discharged one week ago. What does the nurse suspect this patient is experiencing? a. Serum sickness b. Rheumatoid arthritis c. Systemic lupus erythematosus d. Hemolytic transfusion reaction
A
A postoperative client received six units of packed red blood cells (PRBCs) for intraoperative blood loss. The nurse monitors the client for which acid-base imbalance? a. Metabolic alkalosis b. Metabolic acidosis c. Respiratory alkalosis d. Respiratory acidosis
A
An accident has occurred near the hospital, and a victim is brought to the emergency department with severe chest pain, a pulse of 120 beats/min, blood pressure of 100/60 mm Hg, and a respiratory rate of 28 breaths/min. The nurse assesses shortness of breath and diaphoresis. Which color tag does the nurse use when triaging this client? a. Red b. Yellow c. Green d. Black
A
An older adult client with heart failure states, "I don't know what to do. I don't want to be a burden to my daughter, but I can't do it alone. Maybe I should die." What is the nurse's best response? a. "Would you like to talk about this more?" b. "You're lucky to have such a devoted daughter." c. "You must feel as though you are a burden." d. "Would you like an antidepressant medication?"
A
An older adult is on cardiac monitoring after a myocardial infarction. The client shows frequent dysrhythmias. What action by the nurse is most appropriate? a. Assess for any hemodynamic effects of the rhythm. b. Prepare to administer antidysrhythmic medication. c. Notify the provider or call the Rapid Response Team. d. Turn the alarms off on the cardiac monitor.
A
An older client is hospitalized with Guillain-Barré syndrome. A family member tells the nurse the client is restless and seems confused. What action by the nurse is best? a. Assess the client's oxygen saturation. b. Check the medication list for interactions. c. Place the client on a bed alarm. d. Put the client on safety precautions.
A
An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) was feeding a client with a tracheostomy. Later that evening, the UAP reports that the client had a coughing spell during the meal. What action by the nurse takes priority? a. Assess the client's lung sounds. b. Assign a different UAP to the client. c. Report the UAP to the manager. d. Request thicker liquids for meals.
A
During a hot summer day, an older adult client tells the clinic nurse, "I am not drinking or voiding that much these days." The nurse notes a heart rate of 100 beats/min and a blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg. Which action does the nurse take first? a. Give the client something to drink. b. Insert an intravenous catheter. c. Teach the client to drink 2 to 3 liters a day. d. Perform a bladder scan to assess urine volume.
A
A client experiences occasional premature atrial contractions (PACs) accompanied by palpitations that resolve spontaneously without treatment. What instruction does the nurse include in the client's teaching plan? a. "Minimize or abstain from caffeine." b. "Lie on your side until the attack subsides." c. "Use your oxygen when you experience PACs." d. "Take quinidine (Cardioquin) daily to prevent PACs."
A
A client has a tracheostomy that is 3 days old. Upon assessment, the nurse notes the client's face is puffy and the eyelids are swollen. What action by the nurse takes priority? a. Assess the client's oxygen saturation. b. Notify the Rapid Response Team. c. Oxygenate the client with a bag-valve-mask. d. Palpate the skin of the upper chest.
A
A client has been admitted to the acute care unit for an exacerbation of heart failure. Which is the nurse's priority intervention? a. Assess respiratory status. b. Monitor electrolyte levels. c. Administer intravenous fluids. d. Insert a Foley catheter.
A
In a client with less than the normal amount of bicarbonate in the blood and other extracellular fluids, what response does the nurse anticipate? a. Increased risk for acidosis b. Decreased risk for acidosis c. Increased risk for alkalosis d. Decreased risk for alkalosis
A
A client has been injured in a stabbing incident. Assessment reveals the following: Blood pressure: 80/60 mm Hg Heart rate: 140 beats/min Respiratory rate: 35 breaths/min Bleeding from stabbing wound site Client is lethargic Based on these assessment data, to which trauma center should the nurse ensure transport of the client? a. Level I b. Level II c. Level III d. Level IV
A
A client has mild acidosis but after a day has not compensated for it. Which action by the nurse is best? a. Review the client's daily hemoglobin and hematocrit. b. Ask the laboratory to rerun today's arterial blood gases. c. Document the finding and notify the physician. d. Apply 2 L of oxygen via nasal cannula.
A
A client has moderate acidosis. Which assessment does the nurse perform first? a. Take the client's pulse and blood pressure, and analyze the electrocardiogram (ECG) strip. b. Assess respiratory rate and depth and work of breathing. c. Perform assessments of musculoskeletal strength. d. Determine whether the client is awake, alert, and oriented.
A
A client admitted after using crack cocaine develops ventricular fibrillation. After determining unresponsiveness, which action does the nurse take next? a. Prepare for defibrillation. b. Establish IV access. c. Place an oral airway and ventilate. d. Start cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR).
A
The hospital administration has arranged for critical incident stress debriefing for the staff after a mass casualty incident. Which statement by the debriefing team leader is most appropriate for this situation? a. "You are free to express your feelings; whatever is said here stays here." b. "Let's determine what we can do better the next time we have this situation." c. "This session is only for nursing and medical staff, not for ancillary personnel." d. "Let's pass around the written policy compliance form for everyone."
A
The nurse assesses a client's chest tube and finds continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber. When the nurse clamps the chest tube close to the client's dressing, the bubbling stops. How does the nurse interpret this finding? a. An air leak is present at the chest tube insertion site or in the thoracic cavity. b. An air leak is present in the drainage system. c. More water needs to be added to the water seal. d. The system is functioning appropriately and no intervention is needed.
A
The nurse gets the hand-off report on four clients. Which client should the nurse assess first? a. Client with a blood pressure change of 128/74 to 110/88 mm Hg b. Client with oxygen saturation unchanged at 94% c. Client with a pulse change of 100 to 88 beats/min d. Client with urine output of 40 mL/hr for the last 2 hours
A
The nurse is assessing a client who has a chest tube. Which assessment finding requires intervention by the nurse? a. Pain at the insertion site b. Bloody drainage in the collection chamber c. Intermittent bubbling in the water seal chamber d. Tidaling in the water seal chamber
A
The nurse is caring for a client who had a myocardial infarction. The client develops increased pulmonary congestion; an increase in heart rate from 80 to 102 beats/min; and cold, clammy skin. Which action does the nurse implement before notifying the health care provider? a. Administer oxygen. b. Increase the IV flow rate. c. Place the client in supine position. d. Prepare the client for surgery.
A
The nurse is caring for a client who is HIV positive. The client has become confused over the course of the shift, and the client's pupils are no longer reacting to light equally. The nurse anticipates an order for which medication? a. Prednisone (Deltazone) b. Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim) c. Pentamidine isethionate (Pentam) d. Ketoconazole (Nizoral)
A
The nurse is caring for a client with leukemia who has the priority problem of fatigue. What action by the client best indicates that an important goal for this problem has been met? a. Doing activities of daily living (ADLs) using rest periods b. Helping plan a daily activity schedule c. Requesting a sleeping pill at night d. Telling visitors to leave when fatigued
A
The nurse is caring for a client with severe heart failure. What is the best position in which to place this client? a. High Fowler's, pillows under arms b. Semi-Fowler's, with legs elevated c. High Fowler's, with legs elevated d. Semi-Fowler's, on the left side
A
The nurse is providing care to a client with infective endocarditis. What infection control precautions does the nurse use? a. Standard Precautions b. Bleeding Precautions c. Reverse isolation d. Contact isolation
A
The nurse is taking the health history of a client suspected of having bacterial meningitis. Which question is most important for the nurse to ask? a. "Do you live in a crowded residence?" b. "When was your last tetanus vaccination?" c. "Have you had any viral infections recently?" d. "Have you traveled out of the country in the last month?"
A
The nurse is triaging clients in the emergency department (ED). Which is true about the presentation of client symptoms? a. Older adults frequently have symptoms that are vague or less specific. b. Young adults present with nonspecific symptoms for serious illnesses. c. Diagnosing children's symptoms often keeps them in the ED longer. d. Symptoms of confusion always represent neurologic disorders.
A
The nurse monitors the client with which condition most carefully for metabolic alkalosis? a. A critical illness receiving total parenteral nutrition b. Type 1 diabetes on once-daily insulin therapy c. Metastatic breast cancer on continuous IV morphine d. Asthma using an adrenergic agonist inhaler
A
The nurse reads in the medical record that a client has Kussmaul respirations. Which assessment finding is consistent with this condition? a. Deep, rapid respirations b. Respirations with an irregular pattern c. Shallow, grunting respirations d. Use of accessory muscles when breathing
A
What assessment finding assists in confirming a serum sickness reaction? a. Arthralgia b. Allergic rhinitis c. Stridor d. Wheezing
A
What information is most important to teach the client going home with a peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC) line? a. "Avoid carrying your grandchild with the arm that has the IV." b. "Be sure to place the arm with the IV in a sling during the day." c. "Flush the IV line with normal saline daily." d. "You can use the arm with the IV for most of the activities of daily living."
A
Which intervention by the nurse is most appropriate to reduce a client's pain after a burn injury? a. Administering morphine sulfate 4 mg intravenously b. Administering morphine sulfate 4 mg intramuscularly c. Applying ice to the burned area for 20 minutes d. Avoiding tactile stimulation near the burned area
A
Which intervention is most important for the nurse to teach the client who is recovering from an allergic reaction to a bee sting? a. How to use an EpiPen b. Wearing a medical alert bracelet c. Avoiding contact with the allergen d. Keeping diphenhydramine (Benadryl) available
A
Which response is an example of compensation for an acid-base imbalance? a. Increase in the rate and depth of respirations when exercising b. Increased urinary output when blood pressure increases during exercise c. Increased thirst when spending time in an excessively dry environment d. Increased release of acids from kidneys during exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
A
A client with a new pulmonary embolism (PE) is anxious. What nursing actions are most appropriate? (Select all that apply.) a. Acknowledge the frightening nature of the illness. b. Delegate a back rub to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). c. Give simple explanations of what is happening. d. Request a prescription for antianxiety medication. e. Stay with the client and speak in a quiet, calm voice.
A, B, C, E
A client has heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT). The student nurse asks how this is treated. About what drugs does the nurse instructor teach? (Select all that apply.) a. Argatroban (Argatroban) b. Bivalirudin (Angiomax) c. Clopidogrel (Plavix) d. Lepirudin (Refludan) e. Methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol)
A, B, D
A client is undergoing hemodialysis. The client's blood pressure at the beginning of the procedure was 136/88 mm Hg, and now it is 110/54 mm Hg. What actions should the nurse perform to maintain blood pressure? (Select all that apply.) a. Adjust the rate of extracorporeal blood flow. b. Place the client in the Trendelenburg position. c. Stop the hemodialysis treatment. d. Administer a 250-mL bolus of normal saline. e. Contact the health care provider for orders.
A, B, D
A nurse prepares to discharge a client who has heart failure. Which questions should the nurse ask to ensure this client's safety prior to discharging home? (Select all that apply.) a. "Are your bedroom and bathroom on the first floor?" b. "What social support do you have at home?" c. "Will you be able to afford your oxygen therapy?" d. "What spiritual beliefs may impact your recovery?" e. "Are you able to accurately weigh yourself at home?"
A, B, D
The triage nurse is assessing a client who has been brought to the emergency department (ED) by emergency medical services (EMS) following a mass casualty incident. Which assessment questions are used to determine the appropriate triage category for the client? (Select all that apply.) a. "Can you wiggle your toes?" b. "Are you having any difficulty breathing?" c. "Are you allergic to any medications?" d. "Does your family know that you are here?" e. "Can you tell me what day it is?" f. "Do you have any abdominal or back pain?"
A, B, E, F
A client has a peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC) line and the primary nurse is updating the care plan. For which common complications does the nurse assess? (Select all that apply.) a. Phlebitis b. Pneumothorax c. Thrombophlebitis d. Excessive bleeding e. Extravasation
A, C
Emergency medical services (EMS) brings a large number of clients to the emergency department following a mass casualty incident. The nurse identifies clients with which injuries with yellow tags? (Select all that apply.) a. Partial-thickness burns covering both legs b. Open fractures of both legs with absent pedal pulses c. Neck injury and numbness of both legs d. Small pieces of shrapnel embedded in both eyes e. Head injury and difficult to arouse f. Bruising and pain in the right lower abdomen
A, C, D, F
A nurse is caring for a client who has a tracheostomy tube. What actions may the nurse delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? (Select all that apply.) a. Applying water-soluble lip balm to the client's lips b. Ensuring the humidification provided is adequate c. Performing oral care with alcohol-based mouthwash d. Reminding the client to cough and deep breathe often e. Suctioning excess secretions through the tracheostomy
A, D
The nurse is assessing clients on site at a multi-vehicle accident. Triage clients in the order they should receive care. (Place in order of priority.) a. A 50-year-old with chest trauma and difficulty breathing b. A mother frantically looking for her 6-year-old son c. An 8-year-old with a broken leg in his father's arms d. A 60-year-old with facial lacerations and confusion e. A pulseless male with a penetrating head wound
A, D, B, C, E
The nurse is teaching a client with asthma how to avoid attacks. What information does the nurse give the client? (Select all that apply.) a. "You should not dust your furniture." b. "Stay inside as much as possible." c. "Stay away from people who are sick." d. "Do not go out in the fall." e. "Stay out of the snow." f. "Do not take aspirin."
A, F
A client is in the emergency department after an overdose of an unknown substance. Which assessment findings does the nurse correlate with possible salicylate poisoning? a. Increased deep tendon reflexes b. Increased rate and depth of respiration c. Decreased capillary refill d. Decreased intestinal motility and paralytic ileus
B
A client is in the hospital after suffering a myocardial infarction and has bathroom privileges. The nurse assists the client to the bathroom and notes the client's O2 saturation to be 95%, pulse 88 beats/min, and respiratory rate 16 breaths/min after returning to bed. What action by the nurse is best? a. Administer oxygen at 2 L/min. b. Allow continued bathroom privileges. c. Obtain a bedside commode. d. Suggest the client use a bedpan.
B
A client is prescribed levetiracetam (Keppra). Which laboratory tests does the nurse monitor for potential adverse effects of this medication? a. Serum electrolyte levels b. Kidney function tests c. Complete blood cell count d. Antinuclear antibodies
B
A client has a heart rate averaging 56 beats/min with no adverse symptoms. What activity modifications does the nurse suggest to avoid further slowing of the heart rate? a. "Make certain that your bath water is warm (100° F)." b. "Avoid bearing down or straining while having a bowel movement." c. "Avoid strenuous exercise, such as running, during the late afternoon." d. "Limit your intake of caffeinated drinks to no more than 2 cups per day."
B
A client has acute pancreatitis and a risk for acid-base imbalance. The nurse plans to assess for which manifestation consistent with this condition? a. Agitation b. Kussmaul respirations c. Seizures d. Positive Chvostek's sign
B
A client has been admitted for the second time to treat tuberculosis (TB). Which referral does the nurse initiate as a priority? a. Social worker to see if the client can afford the medications b. Visiting nurses to arrange directly observed therapy on dismissal c. Psychiatric nurse liaison to assess reasons for noncompliance d. Infection control nurse to arrange testing for drug resistance
B
A client has been diagnosed with hepatitis A. The nurse evaluates that teaching regarding the disease is understood when the client makes which statement? a. "Some medications have been known to induce hepatitis A." b. "I may have been exposed when we ate shrimp last weekend." c. "I may have been infected through a recent blood transfusion." d. "My infection with Epstein-Barr virus can co-infect me with hepatitis A."
B
A client has cirrhosis. Which nursing intervention would be most effective in controlling ascites? a. Monitoring intake and output b. Providing a low-sodium diet c. Increasing oral fluid intake d. Weighing the client daily
B
A client has just had a central venous access line inserted. What is the nurse's next action? a. Beginning the prescribed infusion as soon as possible b. Confirming placement of the catheter by x-ray c. Having the infusion team start the IV therapy d. Confirming that solutions are appropriate for the central line
B
A client has presented to the emergency department with an acute myocardial infarction (MI). What action by the nurse is best to meet The Joint Commission's Core Measures outcomes? a. Obtain an electrocardiogram (ECG) now and in the morning. b. Give the client an aspirin. c. Notify the Rapid Response Team. d. Prepare to administer thrombolytics.
B
A client is being discharged soon on warfarin (Coumadin). What menu selection for dinner indicates the client needs more education regarding this medication? a. Hamburger and French fries b. Large chef's salad and muffin c. No selection; spouse brings pizza d. Tuna salad sandwich and chips
B
A client has metabolic alkalosis. Which laboratory results is the nurse most likely to assess as consistent with this condition? a. Na+ 134 mg/dL b. Mg2+ 1.5 mg/dL c. K+ 3.1 mEq/L d. Ca2+ 11.5 mg/dL
C
Which client should the charge nurse assign to a graduate RN who has completed 2 months of orientation to the coronary care unit? a. Client with a new diagnosis of heart failure who needs a pulmonary artery catheter inserted b. Client who has just arrived after a coronary arteriogram and has vital signs requested every 15 minutes c. Client with acute electrocardiographic changes who is requesting nitroglycerin for left anterior chest pain d. Client who has many questions about the electrophysiology studies (EPS) scheduled for today
B
Which nursing intervention is a priority when administering this medication? a. Ask if the client has chest pain every 30 minutes. b. Assess the client's blood pressure every 15 minutes. c. Monitor the client's urinary output every hour. d. Observe the client's extremities every 4 hours.
B
Which statement by a client with alcohol-induced cirrhosis indicates the need for further teaching? a. "I cannot drink any alcohol at all anymore." b. "I need to avoid protein in my diet." c. "I should not take over-the-counter medications." d. "I should eat small, frequent, balanced meals."
B
A nurse assesses a client who has a chest tube. For which manifestations should the nurse immediately intervene? (Select all that apply.) a. Production of pink sputum b. Tracheal deviation c. Sudden onset of shortness of breath d. Pain at insertion site e. Drainage of 75 mL/hr
B, C
A large number of victims arrive at the emergency department after a bus is hit by a train. Which interventions are performed immediately for red-tagged victims? (Select all that apply.) a. Splinting a closed tibial fracture b. Intubating a cyanotic client in respiratory distress c. Initiating IV fluids for a client with a blood pressure of 96/60 mm Hg and a pulse of 144 beats/min d. Attaching an external pacemaker for a client with a heart rate of 44 beats/min e. Performing postmortem care for a client who has just died f. Removing glass that is embedded in a client's arm
B, C, D
Which risk factors are known to contribute to atrial fibrillation?Select all that apply. a. Use of beta-adrenergic blockers b. Excessive alcohol use c. Advancing age d. High blood pressuree. Palpitations
B, C, D
A nursing student learns about modifiable risk factors for coronary artery disease. Which factors does this include? (Select all that apply.) a. Age b. Hypertension c. Obesity d. Smoking e. Stress
B, C, D, E
A patient in the critical care unit requires an emergency ET intubation. The nurse immediately obtains and prepares which supplies to perform this procedure? (Select all that apply.) a. Tracheostomy tube or kit b. Resuscitation Ambu bag c. Source for 100% oxygen d. Suction equipment e. Airway equipment box (e.g., laryngoscope) f. Oral airway g. Bronchodilator inhaler
B, C, D, E, F
Which statements about the precautions of caring for a hospitalized patient with tuberculosis (TB) are true? Select all that apply а. Health care workers must wear a mask that covers the face and mouth. b. Negative airflow rooms are required for these patients. c. Health care workers must wear an N95 or high-efficiency particulate air (HEPA) mask d. Gown and gloves are included in appropriate barrier protection. e. Strict contact precautions must be maintained. f. Careful handwashing is required before and after providing patient care.
B, C, D, F
The nurse is assessing a patient with suspected serum sickness. Which symptoms are consistent with serum sickness? Select all that apply. a. Ptosis b. Malaise c. Arthralgia d. Blurred vision e. Lymphadenopathy
B, C, E
When caring for a client with a left forearm arteriovenous fistula created for hemodialysis, which actions must the nurse take? (Select all that apply.) A. Check brachial pulses daily. B. Auscultate for a bruit every 8 hours. C. Teach the client to palpate for a thrill over the site. D. Elevate the arm above heart level. E. Ensure that no blood pressures are taken in that arm.
B, C, E
The nurse is teaching a client with rheumatoid arthritis (RA) about joint protection principles. What information does the nurse include? (Select all that apply.) a. Use smaller joints to rest the larger ones. b. Hold objects with two hands, not one. c. Sit most often in a reclining chair. d. Use assistive-adaptive devices. e. Bend at your knees to lift objects.
B, D, E
A nurse assesses a client who has a mediastinal chest tube. Which symptoms require the nurse's immediate intervention? (Select all that apply.) a. Production of pink sputum b. Tracheal deviation c. Pain at insertion site d. Sudden onset of shortness of breath e. Drainage greater than 70 mL/hr f. Disconnection at Y site
B, D, E, F
A client has a mediastinal chest tube. Which symptoms require the nurse's immediate intervention? (Select all that apply.) a. Production of pink sputum b. Tracheal deviation c. Oxygen saturation greater than 95% d. Sudden onset of shortness of breath e. Drainage greater than 70 mL/hr f. Pain at insertion site g. Disconnection at Y site
B, D, E, G
The nurse is monitoring the electrocardiogram (ECG) of a client who has a myocardial infarction. Which changes does the nurse expect to see in the ECG tracing? (Select all that apply.) a. ST-segment depression b. T-wave inversion c. Normal Q waves d. ST-segment elevation e. T-wave elevation f. Abnormal Q wave
B, D, F
A client has the following arterial blood gases: pH 7.30, HCO3- 17 mEq/L, PCO2 25 mm Hg, PO2 98 mm Hg. Which intervention by the nurse is most appropriate? a. Prepare to give intravenous sodium bicarbonate. b. Document the findings and continue to assess. c. Assist the physician in determining the cause. d. Administer oxygen at 2 L per nasal cannula.
C
A client has a chest tube. What assessment findings require immediate intervention from the nurse? (Select all that apply.) a. Intermittent bubbling in the water seal chamber in the client with a pneumothorax b. "Silent chest" in the client with a pneumothorax c. Tidaling in the water seal chamber in a client with a pneumothorax d. Bloody drainage in the tubing of a client with a hemothorax e. Tracheal deviation in a client after chest trauma f. No drainage in the chest tube of a client with a pneumothorax g. Constant bubbling in the water seal chamber in a client post chest surgery
B, E, G
A client in the cardiac stepdown unit reports severe, crushing chest pain accompanied by nausea and vomiting. What action by the nurse takes priority? a. Administer an aspirin. b. Call for an electrocardiogram (ECG). c. Maintain airway patency. d. Notify the provider.
C
A client is admitted with Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS). What assessment takes priority? a. Bladder control b. Cognitive perception c. Respiratory system d. Sensory functions
C
A client has a prolonged fever. For which acid-base imbalance does the nurse assess the client further? a. Metabolic acidosis from excess bicarbonate production b. Metabolic alkalosis from dehydration and hyperkalemia c. Metabolic acidosis from increased production of hydrogen ions d. Respiratory alkalosis from impaired gas exchange
C
A client has been diagnosed with overhydration and is confused. Which intervention does the nurse include in the client's plan of care to relieve the confusion? a. Measuring intake and output every shift b. Slowing the IV flow rate to 50 mL/hr c. Administering diuretic agents as prescribed d. Placing the client in Trendelenburg position
C
A client has been treated for a deep vein thrombus and today presents to the clinic with petechiae. Laboratory results show a platelet count of 42,000/mm3. The nurse reviews the client's medication list to determine if the client is taking which drug? a. Enoxaparin (Lovenox) b. Salicylates (aspirin) c. Unfractionated heparin d. Warfarin (Coumadin)
C
A client is admitted with mixed respiratory and metabolic acidosis secondary to bronchitis and diabetic ketoacidosis. The nurse evaluates that teaching about the client's confusion was effective when a family member makes which statement? a. "It is too early to tell if the ketoacidosis will cause permanent changes." b. "Her memory will improve, but loss of some brain cells has occurred." c. "The confusion should clear when oxygen and electrolyte levels are normal." d. "The confusion should clear when blood glucose levels and other laboratory tests are normal."
C
A client is on a ventilator and is sedated. What care may the nurse delegate to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? a. Assess the client for sedation needs. b. Get family permission for restraints. c. Provide frequent oral care per protocol. d. Use nonverbal pain assessment tools.
C
A client is receiving an infusion of tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA). The nurse assesses the client to be disoriented to person, place, and time. What action by the nurse is best? a. Assess the client's pupillary responses. b. Request a neurologic consultation. c. Stop the infusion and call the provider. d. Take and document a full set of vital signs.
C
A client is receiving plasmapheresis. What action by the nurse best prevents infection in this client? a. Giving antibiotics prior to treatments b. Monitoring the client's vital signs c. Performing appropriate hand hygiene d. Placing the client in protective isolation
C
A client who has Guillain-Barré syndrome is scheduled for plasmapheresis. Before the procedure, which clinical manifestation does the nurse use to determine patency of the client's arteriovenous shunt? a. Palpable distal pulses b. A pink, warm extremity c. The presence of a bruit d. Shunt pressure higher than 25 mm Hg
C
A client who is receiving a unit of red blood cells begins to report chest and lower back pain. Which action does the nurse take first? a. Administer morphine sulfate 1 mg IV. b. Assess the level of the pain. c. Stop the transfusion. d. Reposition the client on the right side.
C
A client who presented with an acute myocardial infarction is prescribed thrombolytic therapy. The client had a stroke 1 month ago. Which action does the nurse take? a. Administer the medication as prescribed. b. Perform a CT scan before administering the medication. c. Contact the health care provider to discontinue the prescribed therapy. d. Administer the therapy with a normal saline bolus.
C
A client with Alzheimer's disease is admitted to the hospital. Which psychosocial assessment is most important for the nurse to complete? a. Ability to recall past events b. Ability to perform self-care c. Reaction to a change of environment d. Relationship with close family members
C
A client with a new burn injury asks the nurse why he is receiving intravenous cimetidine (Tagamet). What is the nurse's best response? a. "Tagamet will stimulate intestinal movement so you can eat more." b. "Tagamet can help prevent hypovolemic shock, which can be fatal." c. "This will help prevent stomach ulcers, which are common after burns." d. "This drug will help prevent kidney damage caused by dehydration."
C
A client with paraplegia is scheduled to participate in a rehabilitation program. The client states, "I do not understand the need for rehabilitation; the paralysis will not go away and it will not get better." How does the nurse respond? a. "If you do not want to participate in the rehabilitation program, I will cancel the order." b. "Your doctor has helped many clients with your injury and has ordered a rehabilitation program to help you." c. "The rehabilitation program will teach you how to maintain the functional ability you have and prevent further disability." d. "When new discoveries are made regarding paraplegia, people in rehabilitation programs will benefit first."
C
A nurse administers prescribed adenosine (Adenocard) to a client. Which response should the nurse assess for as the expected therapeutic response? a. Decreased intraocular pressure b. Increased heart rate c. Short period of asystole d. Hypertensive crisis
C
A nurse assesses a client with Alzheimer's disease who is recently admitted to the hospital. Which psychosocial assessment should the nurse complete? a. Assess religious and spiritual needs while in the hospital. b. Identify the client's ability to perform self-care activities. c. Evaluate the client's reaction to a change of environment. d. Ask the client about relationships with family members.
C
A nurse cares for a client who is scheduled for a total laryngectomy. Which action should the nurse take prior to surgery? a. Assess airway patency, breathing, and circulation. b. Administer prescribed intravenous pain medication. c. Assist the client to choose a communication method. d. Ambulate the client in the hallway to assess gait.
C
A nurse cares for a client with acute pancreatitis. The client states, "I am hungry." How should the nurse reply? a. "Is your stomach rumbling or do you have bowel sounds?" b. "I need to check your gag reflex before you can eat." c. "Have you passed any flatus or moved your bowels?" d. "You will not be able to eat until the pain subsides."
C
A nurse is caring for a client with paraplegia who is scheduled to participate in a rehabilitation program. The client states, "I do not understand the need for rehabilitation; the paralysis will not go away and it will not get better." How should the nurse respond? a. "If you don't want to participate in the rehabilitation program, I'll let the provider know." b. "Rehabilitation programs have helped many clients with your injury. You should give it a chance." c. "The rehabilitation program will teach you how to maintain the functional ability you have and prevent further disability." d. "When new discoveries are made regarding paraplegia, people in rehabilitation programs will benefit first."
C
A nurse is caring for a client with paraplegia who is scheduled to participate in a rehabilitation program. The client states, "I do not understand the need for rehabilitation; the paralysis will not go away and it will not get better." How should the nurse respond? a. "If you don't want to participate in the rehabilitation program, I'll let the provider know." b. "Rehabilitation programs have helped many clients with your injury. You should give it a chance." c. "The rehabilitation program will teach you how to maintain the functional ability you have and prevent further disability." d. "When new discoveries are made regarding paraplegia, people in rehabilitation programs will benefit first."
C
Which term describes infections caused by organisms that are present as part of the body's microbiome and usually are kept in check by normal immunity but may cause infection in patients with AIDS?
C. opprotunistic infections
A client has been NPO after a colectomy with nasogastric (NG) suction in place. On assessment, the nurse finds the client reporting cramps in the calves. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate? a. Document findings and notify the physician. b. Stop suction and request that the laboratory draw arterial blood gases. c. Prepare to administer lorazepam (Ativan). d. Raise the siderails and notify the physician.
D
A client has severe metabolic alkalosis. Which nursing diagnosis does the nurse choose as the client's priority problem? a. Fluid volume excess related to reduced kidney function b. Fluid volume deficit related to increased insensitive fluid loss through lungs c. Risk for impaired skin integrity related to accompanying peripheral edema d. Risk for injury related to increased neuronal sensitivity from hypocalcemia
D
A client undergoing hemodynamic monitoring after a myocardial infarction has a right atrial pressure of 0.5 mm Hg. What action by the nurse is most appropriate? a. Level the transducer at the phlebostatic axis. b. Lay the client in the supine position. c. Prepare to administer diuretics. d. Prepare to administer a fluid bolus.
D
A client who is receiving a blood transfusion suddenly exclaims to the nurse, "I don't feel right!" What does the nurse do next? A. Calls the Rapid Response Team. B. Obtains vital signs and continues to monitor. C. Slows the infusion rate of the transfusion. D. Stops the transfusion.
D
1. What is the physical exam finding associated with subcutaneous emphysema? a. respiratory depression b. hematemesis c. dyspnea and respiratory distress d. crepitus e. hypertventilation f. coughing
D
Which of the following is a CDC criteria for the progression of HIV into AIDS?
Increased viral load