Final Exam 225

A nurse is to provide nutritional counseling for an older adult. What should the nurse do first? 1. Plan educational sessions in the late afternoon 2. Speak louder when talking 3. Provide large-print books 4. Assess for readiness

4. If the patient does not recognize the need to learn or value the information to be learned, the patient will not be ready to learn.

What is the primary reason why nurses attend continuing education programs? 1. Update professional knowledge 2. Network within the nursing profession 3. Fulfill requirements for an advanced degree 4. Graduate from an accredited nursing program

1. Continuing education programs are formal learning experiences designed to update and enhance professional knowledge or skills. This is necessary because of the explosion in information and technology within health care. Some states require evidence of continuing education units (CEUs) for license renewal.

What clinical findings does the nurse attribute to the presence of kidney stones? Select all that apply. 1. Smoky urine 2. Odorless urine 3. Increased serum calcium 4. Increased serum phosphate 5. Urine pH of 6

1. Smoky urine 3. Increased serum calcium 4. Increased serum phosphate Smoky or rusty urine is common in clients with kidney stones, indicating hematuria. Increases in serum calcium and phosphate levels indicate that excess minerals are present and may contribute to stone formation. The urine generally has an odor, indicating infection. Normal urine is alkaline, with a pH between 5 and 6. If urine contains uric acid or cystine stones, it is highly acidic. If urine contains calcium phosphate and struvite stones, it is alkaline.

What method of emptying the bladder is helpful for a client with a large cystocele? 1. Splinting 2. Credé method 3. Double-voiding 4. Valsalva maneuver

1. Splinting The client with a large cystocele or prolapse of the bladder into the vagina may use splinting to reduce renal urinary incontinence. This is achieved by inserting fingers into the vagina and lifting the cystocele to urinate. The client using the Credé method presses over the bladder area to increase pressure. The client may also trigger nerve stimulation by tugging at the pubic hair or massaging the genital area. In the double-voiding technique, the client empties the bladder once and then attempts a second voiding within a few minutes. The Valsalva maneuver is a breathing technique that increases chest and abdominal pressure. Increased pressure is directed toward the bladder during exhalation.

A client is prescribed prophylactic immunotherapy with intravesical instillation of bacille Calmette-Guérin (BCG) to prevent recurrence of bladder tumor. What does the nurse inform the client about this therapy? 1. The procedure is done in an inpatient setting. 2. The BCG virus compound is allowed to dwell in the bladder for 2 hours. 3. Flush the toilet three times after use. 4. Dispose of clothing that comes in contact with urine in 24 hours.

2. The BCG virus compound is allowed to dwell in the bladder for 2 hours. The BCG virus compound is allowed to dwell in the bladder for 2 hours. Live virus will be excreted when the client urinates. The instillation procedure is done in an outpatient setting. The client must not share the toilet with other household members for 24 hours after instillation; the toilet must be flushed and cleaned with a solution of 10% liquid bleach. The client must wash all clothing that has come into contact with urine during the 24 hours after instillation separately with 10% liquid bleach.

A nurse is evaluating a patient's learning regarding nutrition. Which behavior reflects the highest level of learning in the cognitive domain? 1. Modifies favorite recipes by eliminating foods that have to be avoided 2. Evaluates the benefits associated with avoidance of certain foods 3. States why a mother's diet may affect breast-feeding 4. Identifies a list of foods to be avoided

2. This is an appropriate example of learning on the evaluation level and is the highest level of learning of the six levels of learning in the cognitive domain.

A client is prescribed estrogen therapy for urinary incontinence. What does the nurse teach the client about this therapy? 1. Change positions slowly, especially in the mornings. 2. Report urine output that is significantly lower than fluid intake. 3. A thin application of cream is adequate. 4. Use hard candy to moisten the mouth.

3. A thin application of cream is adequate. Teach the client that a thin application of estrogen cream is all that is needed. The client taking tricyclic antidepressants must change positions slowly, especially in the mornings, because these drugs cause dizziness, orthostatic hypotension, and increase the risk for falls. The client taking antispasmodics or anticholinergics should report urine output that is significantly lower than fluid intake as these drugs cause urine retention. Dry mouth is another side effect of antispasmodics and anticholinergics; the client can use hard candy to moisten the mouth.

What does the nurse teach a client to do to decrease the risk for urinary tract infection (UTI)? 1. Limit fluid intake. 2. Increase caffeine consumption. 3. Limit sugar intake. 4. Drink about 3 liters of fluid daily.

4. Drink about 3 liters of fluid daily. Drinking about 3 liters of fluid daily, if another medical problem does not require fluid restriction, helps prevent dehydration and UTIs. Fluids flush the system and should not be limited. Increased caffeine intake and limiting sugar intake will not prevent UTIs.

A nurse is designing a teaching-learning program for a patient who is to be discharged from the hospital. What should the nurse do first? 1. Identify the patient's locus of control 2. Use a variety of teaching methods appropriate for the patient 3. Formulate an achievable, measurable, and realistic patient goal 4. Assess the patient's current understanding of the content to be taught

4. Learners bring their own lifetimes of learning to the learning situation. The nurse needs to customize each teaching plan, capitalize on the patient's previous experience and knowledge, and identify what the patient still needs to know before teaching can begin.

A client has a urinary catheter and continuous bladder irrigation after a transurethral resection of the prostate this morning. The amount of bladder irrigation solution that has infused over the past 12 hours is 1000 mL. The amount of fluid in the urinary drainage bag is 1725 mL. The nurse records that the client has had ____ mL urinary output in the past 12 hours. (Ignatavicius & Workman, p.1505)

725 mL (Ignatavicius & Workman, p.1505)

In terms of cognitive development, the 5-year-old child would be expected to: a. Use magical thinking. b. Think abstractly. c. Understand conservation of matter. d. Be able to comprehend another person's perspective.

A Magical thinking is believing that thoughts can cause events. Abstract thought does not develop until school-age years. The concept of conservation is the cognitive task of school-age children ages 5 to 7 years. Five-year-olds cannot understand another's perspective.

b. Speech alterations

A nurse assesses a client with atrial fibrillation. Which manifestation should alert the nurse to the possibility of a serious complication from this condition? a. Sinus tachycardia b. Speech alterations c. Fatigue d. Dyspnea with activity

d. Ventricular and atrial depolarizations are initiated from different sites.

A nurse assesses a client's electrocardiograph tracing and observes that not all QRS complexes are preceded by a P wave. How should the nurse interpret this observation? a. The client has hyperkalemia causing irregular QRS complexes. b. Ventricular tachycardia is overriding the normal atrial rhythm. c. The client's chest leads are not making sufficient contact with the skin. d. Ventricular and atrial depolarizations are initiated from different sites.

b. "Avoid straining while having a bowel movement."

A nurse cares for a client who has a heart rate averaging 56 beats/min with no adverse symptoms. Which activity modification should the nurse suggest to avoid further slowing of the heart rate? a. "Make certain that your bath water is warm." b. "Avoid straining while having a bowel movement." c. "Limit your intake of caffeinated drinks to one a day." d. "Avoid strenuous exercise such as running."

b. Warfarin (Coumadin)

A nurse evaluates prescriptions for a client with chronic atrial fibrillation. Which medication should the nurse expect to find on this client's medication administration record to prevent a common complication of this condition? a. Sotalol (Betapace) b. Warfarin (Coumadin) c. Atropine (Sal-Tropine) d. Lidocaine (Xylocaine)

b. A 50-year-old who is post coronary artery bypass graft surgery

A nurse is assessing clients on a medical-surgical unit. Which client should the nurse identify as being at greatest risk for atrial fibrillation? a. A 45-year-old who takes an aspirin daily b. A 50-year-old who is post coronary artery bypass graft surgery c. A 78-year-old who had a carotid endarterectomy d. An 80-year-old with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

According to Piaget, magical thinking is the belief of which? a. Thoughts are all powerful. b. God is an imaginary friend. c. Events have cause and effect. d. If the skin is broken, the insides will come out.

ANS: A Because of their egocentrism and transductive reasoning, preschoolers believe that thoughts are all powerful. Believing God is an imaginary friend is an example of concrete thinking in a preschoolers spiritual development. Cause-and-effect implies logical thought, not magical thinking. Believing that if the skin is broken, the insides will come out is an example of concrete thinking in development of body image.

3. A client has a tracheostomy that is 3 days old. Upon assessment, the nurse notes the client's face is puffy and the eyelids are swollen. What action by the nurse takes priority? a. Assess the client's oxygen saturation. b. Notify the Rapid Response Team. c. Oxygenate the client with a bag-valve-mask. d. Palpate the skin of the upper chest.

ANS: A REF: 514 This client may have subcutaneous emphysema, which is air that leaks into the tissues surrounding the tracheostomy. The nurse should first assess the client's oxygen saturation and other indicators of oxygenation. If the client is stable, the nurse can palpate the skin of the upper chest to feel for the air. If the client is unstable, the nurse calls the Rapid Response Team. Using a bag-valve-mask device may or may not be appropriate for the unstable client. DIF: Applying/Application REF: 523 KEY: Oxygenation| tracheostomy| nursing assessment MSC: IntegratedProcess:NursingProcess:Assessment NOT: Client Needs Category: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care

A nurse in the family clinic is teaching a client newly diagnosed with osteoarthritis (OA) about drugs used to treat the disease. For which medication does the nurse plan primary teaching? a. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) b. Cyclobenzaprine hydrochloride (Flexeril) c. Hyaluronate (Hyalgan) d. Ibuprofen (Motrin)

ANS: A All of the drugs are appropriate to treat OA. However, the first-line drug is acetaminophen. Cyclobenzaprine is a muscle relaxant given to treat muscle spasms. Hyaluronate is a synthetic joint fluid implant. Ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug.

1. A nurse assesses clients on a cardiac unit. Which client should the nurse identify as being at greatest risk for the development of left-sided heart failure? a. A 36-year-old woman with aortic stenosis b. A 42-year-old man with pulmonary hypertension c. A 59-year-old woman who smokes cigarettes daily d. A 70-year-old man who had a cerebral vascular accident

ANS: A Although most people with heart failure will have failure that progresses from left to right, it is possible to have left-sided failure alone for a short period. It is also possible to have heart failure that progresses from right to left. Causes of left ventricular failure include mitral or aortic valve disease, coronary artery disease, and hypertension. Pulmonary hypertension and chronic cigarette smoking are risk factors for right ventricular failure. A cerebral vascular accident does not increase the risk of heart failure. DIF: Applying/Application REF: 679 KEY: Heart failure| health screening MSC: IntegratedProcess:NursingProcess:Assessment NOT: Client Needs Category: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care

2. A client had an embolic stroke and is having an echocardiogram. When the client asks why the provider ordered "a test on my heart," how should the nurse respond? a. "Most of these types of blood clots come from the heart." b. "Some of the blood clots may have gone to your heart too." c. "We need to see if your heart is strong enough for therapy." d. "Your heart may have been damaged in the stroke too."

ANS: A An embolic stroke is caused when blood clots travel from one area of the body to the brain. The most common source of the clots is the heart. The other statements are inaccurate. DIF: Understanding/Comprehension REF: 931 KEY: Neurologic disorders| stroke| patient education MSC: IntegratedProcess:Teaching/Learning NOT: Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity: Physiological Adaptation

5. A nurse cares for a client with right-sided heart failure. The client asks, "Why do I need to weigh myself every day?" How should the nurse respond? a. "Weight is the best indication that you are gaining or losing fluid." b. "Daily weights will help us make sure that you're eating properly." c. "The hospital requires that all inpatients be weighed daily." d. "You need to lose weight to decrease the incidence of heart failure."

ANS: A Daily weights are needed to document fluid retention or fluid loss. One liter of fluid equals 2.2 pounds. The other responses do not address the importance of monitoring fluid retention or loss. DIF: Remembering/Knowledge REF: 683 KEY: Heart failure| patient education MSC: Integrated Process: Teaching/Learning NOT: Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity: Physiological Adaptation

5. An emergency room nurse obtains the health history of a client. Which statement by the client should alert the nurse to the occurrence of heart failure? a. "I get short of breath when I climb stairs." b. "I see halos floating around my head." c. "I have trouble remembering things." d. "I have lost weight over the past month."

ANS: A Dyspnea on exertion is an early manifestation of heart failure and is associated with an activity such as stair climbing. The other findings are not specific to early occurrence of heart failure. DIF: Applying/Application REF: 635 KEY: Health screening| heart failure MSC: IntegratedProcess:NursingProcess:Assessment NOT: Client Needs Category: Health Promotion and Maintenance

5. A nurse evaluates a client with acute glomerulonephritis (GN). Which manifestation should the nurse recognize as a positive response to the prescribed treatment? a. The client has lost 11 pounds in the past 10 days. b. The client's urine specific gravity is 1.048. c. No blood is observed in the client's urine. d. The client's blood pressure is 152/88 mm Hg.

ANS: A Fluid retention is a major feature of acute GN. This weight loss represents fluid loss, indicating that the glomeruli are performing the function of filtration. A urine specific gravity of 1.048 is high. Blood is not usually seen in GN, so this finding would be expected. A blood pressure of 152/88 mm Hg is too high; this may indicate kidney damage or fluid overload.

A nurse is preparing to accompany a medical mission's team to a third world country. Marasmus is seen frequently in children 6 months to 2 years in this country. Which symptoms should the nurse expect for this condition? a. Loose, wrinkled skin b. Edematous skin c. Depigmentation of the skin d. Dermatoses

ANS: A Marasmus is characterized by gradual wasting and atrophy of body tissues, especially of subcutaneous fat. The child appears to be very old, with loose and wrinkled skin, unlike the child with kwashiorkor, who appears more rounded from the edema. Fat metabolism is less impaired than in kwashiorkor; thus, deficiency of fat-soluble vitamins is usually minimal or absent. In general, the clinical manifestations of marasmus are similar to those seen in kwashiorkor with the following exceptions: With marasmus, there is no edema from hypoalbuminemia or sodium retention, which contributes to a severely emaciated appearance; no dermatoses caused by vitamin deficiencies; little or no depigmentation of hair or skin; moderately normal fat metabolism and lipid absorption; and a smaller head size and slower recovery after treatment.

A nurse is assessing a child with kwashiorkor disease. Which assessment findings should the nurse expect? a. Thin wasted extremities with a prominent abdomen b. Constipation c. Elevated hemoglobin d. High levels of protein

ANS: A The child with kwashiorkor has thin, wasted extremities and a prominent abdomen from edema (ascites). Diarrhea (persistent diarrhea malnutrition syndrome) not constipation commonly occurs from a lowered resistance to infection and further complicates the electrolyte imbalance. Anemia and protein deficiency are common findings in malnourished children with kwashiorkor.

4. While assessing a client on a cardiac unit, a nurse identifies the presence of an S3 gallop. Which action should the nurse take next? a. Assess for symptoms of left-sided heart failure. b. Document this as a normal finding. c. Call the health care provider immediately. d. Transfer the client to the intensive care unit.

ANS: A The presence of an S3 gallop is an early diastolic filling sound indicative of increasing left ventricular pressure and left ventricular failure. The other actions are not warranted. DIF: Remembering/Knowledge REF: 683 KEY: Heart failure| assessment/diagnostic examination MSC: IntegratedProcess:NursingProcess:Assessment NOT: Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity: Reduction of Risk Potential

5. An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) was feeding a client with a tracheostomy. Later that evening, the UAP reports that the client had a coughing spell during the meal. What action by the nurse takes priority? a. Assess the client's lung sounds. b. Assign a different UAP to the client. c. Report the UAP to the manager. d. Request thicker liquids for meals.

ANS: A The priority is to check the client's oxygenation because he or she may have aspirated. Once the client has been assessed, the nurse can consult with the registered dietitian about appropriately thickened liquids. The UAP should have reported the incident immediately, but addressing that issue is not the immediate priority. DIF: Applying/Application REF: 524 KEY: Delegation| aspiration| tracheostomy| nursing assessment| unlicensed assistive personnel(UAP) MSC: IntegratedProcess:NursingProcess:Assessment NOT: Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity: Reduction of Risk Potential

1. A client is in the family practice clinic. Today the client weighs 186.4 pounds (84.7 kg). Six months ago the client weighed 211.8 pounds (96.2 kg). What action by the nurse is best? a. Ask the client if the weight loss was intentional. b. Determine if there are food allergies or intolerances. c. Perform a comprehensive nutritional assessment. d. Perform a rapid bedside blood glucose test.

ANS: A This client has had a 12% weight loss. The nurse first determines if the weight loss was intentional. If not, then the nurse proceeds to a comprehensive nutritional assessment. Food intolerances are part of this assessment. Depending on risk factors and other findings, a blood glucose test may be warranted.

A patient diagnosed with anorexia nervosa virtually stopped eating 5 months ago and lost 25% of body weight. A nurse asks, "Describe what you think about your present weight and how you look." Which response by the patient is most consistent with the diagnosis? a. "I am fat and ugly." b. "What I think about myself is my business." c. "I'm grossly underweight, but that's what I want." d. "I'm a few pounds overweight, but I can live with it."

ANS: A Untreated patients with anorexia nervosa do not recognize their thinness. They perceive themselves to be overweight and unattractive. The patient with anorexia will usually tell people perceptions of self. The patient with anorexia does not recognize his or her thinness and will persist in trying to lose more weight.

Recent studies indicate that a deficiency of which vitamin correlates with increased morbidity and mortality in children with measles? a.A b.C c.Niacin d.Folic acid

ANS: A Vitamin A deficiency is correlated with increased morbidity and mortality in children with measles. This vitamin deficiency also is associated with complications from diarrhea, and infections are often increased in infants and children with vitamin A deficiency. No correlation exists between vitamin C, niacin, or folic acid and measles.

1. A nurse assesses a client who had a myocardial infarction and is hypotensive. Which additional assessment finding should the nurse expect? a. Heart rate of 120 beats/min b. Cool, clammy skin c. Oxygen saturation of 90% d. Respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min

ANS: A When a client experiences hypotension, baroreceptors in the aortic arch sense a pressure decrease in the vessels. The parasympathetic system responds by lessening the inhibitory effect on the sinoatrial node. This results in an increase in heart rate and respiratory rate. This tachycardia is an early response and is seen even when blood pressure is not critically low. An increased heart rate and respiratory rate will compensate for the low blood pressure and maintain oxygen saturations and perfusion. The client may not be able to compensate for long, and decreased oxygenation and cool, clammy skin will occur later. DIF: Applying/Application REF: 638 KEY: Coronary perfusion| hemodynamics MSC: IntegratedProcess:NursingProcess:Assessment NOT: Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity: Physiological Adaptation

A nurse contacts the health care provider after reviewing a client's laboratory results and noting a blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 35 mg/dL and a creatinine of 1.0 mg/dL. For which action should the nurse recommend a prescription? a. Intravenous fluids b. Hemodialysis c. Fluid restriction d. Urine culture and sensitivity

ANS: A Normal BUN is 10 to 20 mg/dL. Normal creatinine is 0.6 to 1.2 mg/dL (males) or 0.5 to 1.1 mg/dL (females). Creatinine is more specific for kidney function than BUN, because BUN can be affected by several factors (dehydration, high-protein diet, and catabolism). This client's creatinine is normal, which suggests a non-renal cause for the elevated BUN. A common cause of increased BUN is dehydration, so the nurse should anticipate giving the client more fluids, not placing the client on fluid restrictions. Hemodialysis is not an appropriate treatment for dehydration. The lab results do not indicate an infection; therefore, a urine culture and sensitivity is not appropriate. DIF: Applying/Application REF: 1355

A nurse is working with a client who takes atorvastatin (Lipitor). The client's recent laboratory results include a blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 33 mg/dL and creatinine of 2.8 mg/dL. What action by the nurse is best? a. Ask if the client eats grapefruit. b. Assess the client for dehydration. c. Facilitate admission to the hospital. d. Obtain a random urinalysis.

ANS: A There is a drug-food interaction between statins and grapefruit that can lead to acute kidney failure. This client has elevated renal laboratory results, indicating some degree of kidney involvement. The nurse should assess if the client eats grapefruit or drinks grapefruit juice. Dehydration can cause the BUN to be elevated, but the elevation in creatinine is more specific for a kidney injury. The client does not necessarily need to be admitted. A urinalysis may or may not be ordered. DIF: Applying/Application REF: 709

A father calls the clinic because he found his young daughter squirting Visine eyedrops into her mouth. What is the most appropriate nursing action? a. Reassure the father that Visine is harmless. b. Direct him to seek immediate medical treatment. c. Recommend inducing vomiting with ipecac. d. Advise him to dilute Visine by giving his daughter several glasses of water to drink.

ANS: B Visine is a sympathomimetic and if ingested may cause serious consequences. Medical treatment is necessary. Inducing vomiting is no longer recommended for ingestions. Dilution will not decrease risk.

3. A nurse is reviewing laboratory values for several clients. Which value causes the nurse to conduct nutritional assessments as a priority? a. Albumin: 3.5 g/dL b. Cholesterol: 142 mg/dL c. Hemoglobin: 9.8 mg/dL d. Prealbumin: 28 mg/dL

ANS: B A cholesterol level below 160 mg/dL is a possible indicator of malnutrition, so this client would be at highest priority for a nutritional assessment. The albumin and prealbumin levels are normal. The low hemoglobin could be from several problems, including dietary deficiencies, hemodilution, and bleeding.

The clinic nurse assesses a client with diabetes during a checkup. The client also has osteoarthritis (OA). The nurse notes the client's blood glucose readings have been elevated. What question by the nurse is most appropriate? a. "Are you compliant with following the diabetic diet?" b. "Have you been taking glucosamine supplements?" c. "How much exercise do you really get each week?" d. "You're still taking your diabetic medication, right?"

ANS: B All of the topics are appropriate for a client whose blood glucose readings have been higher than usual. However, since this client also has OA, and glucosamine can increase blood glucose levels, the nurse should ask about its use. The other questions all have an element of nontherapeutic communication in them. "Compliant" is a word associated with negative images, and the client may deny being "noncompliant." Asking how much exercise the client "really" gets is accusatory. Asking if the client takes his or her medications "right?" is patronizing.

3. After teaching a client with early polycystic kidney disease (PKD) about nutritional therapy, the nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a correct understanding of the teaching? a. "I will take a laxative every night before going to bed." b. "I must increase my intake of dietary fiber and fluids." c. "I shall only use salt when I am cooking my own food." d. "I'll eat white bread to minimize gastrointestinal gas."

ANS: B Clients with PKD often have constipation, which can be managed with increased fiber, exercise, and drinking plenty of water. Laxatives should be used cautiously. Clients with PKD should be on a restricted salt diet, which includes not cooking with salt. White bread has a low fiber count and would not be included in a high-fiber diet.

4. A client has a tracheostomy tube in place. When the nurse suctions the client, food particles are noted. What action by the nurse is best? a. Elevate the head of the client's bed. b. Measure and compare cuff pressures. c. Place the client on NPO status. d. Request that the client have a swallow study.

ANS: B Constant pressure from the tracheostomy tube cuff can cause tracheomalacia, leading to dilation of the tracheal passage. This can be manifested by food particles seen in secretions or by noting that larger and larger amounts of pressure are needed to keep the tracheostomy cuff inflated. The nurse should measure the pressures and compare them to previous ones to detect a trend. Elevating the head of the bed, placing the client on NPO status, and requesting a swallow study will not correct this situation. DIF: Analyzing/Analysis REF: 523 KEY: Tracheostomy| patient safety| nursing assessment MSC: IntegratedProcess:NursingProcess:Assessment NOT: Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity: Physiological Adaptation

4. A client is receiving bolus feedings through a Dobhoff tube. What action by the nurse is most important? a. Auscultate lung sounds after each feeding. b. Check tube placement before each feeding. c. Check tube placement every 8 hours. d. Weigh the client daily on the same scale.

ANS: B For bolus feedings, the nurse checks placement of the tube per institutional policy prior to each feeding, which is more often than every 8 hours during the day. Auscultating lung sounds is also important, but this will indicate a complication that has already occurred. Weighing the client is important to determine if nutritional goals are being met.

4. A client is on intravenous heparin to treat a pulmonary embolism. The client's most recent partial thromboplastin time (PTT) was 25 seconds. What order should the nurse anticipate? a. Decrease the heparin rate. b. Increase the heparin rate. c. No change to the heparin rate. d. Stop heparin; start warfarin (Coumadin).

ANS: B For clients on heparin, a PTT of 1.5 to 2.5 times the normal value is needed to demonstrate the heparin is working. A normal PTT is 25 to 35 seconds, so this client's PTT value is too low. The heparin rate needs to be increased. Warfarin is not indicated in this situation.

5. A client is being prepared for a mechanical embolectomy. What action by the nurse takes priority? a. Assess for contraindications to fibrinolytics. b. Ensure that informed consent is on the chart. c. Perform a full neurologic assessment. d. Review the client's medication lists.

ANS: B For this invasive procedure, the client needs to give informed consent. The nurse ensures that this is on the chart prior to the procedure beginning. Fibrinolytics are not used. A neurologic assessment and medication review are important, but the consent is the priority. DIF: Applying/Application REF: 938 KEY: Neurologic disorders| stroke| informed consent MSC: Integrated Process: Communication and Documentation NOT: Client Needs Category: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care

Which is a clinical manifestation of acetaminophen poisoning? a. Hyperpyrexia b. Hepatic involvement c. Severe burning pain in stomach d. Drooling and inability to clear secretions

ANS: B Hepatic involvement is the third stage of acetaminophen poisoning. Hyperpyrexia is a severe elevation in body temperature and is not related to acetaminophen poisoning. Acetaminophen does not cause burning pain in stomach or pose an airway threat.

5. A client is hospitalized with a second episode of pulmonary embolism (PE). Recent genetic testing reveals the client has an alteration in the gene CYP2C19. What action by the nurse is best? a. Instruct the client to eliminate all vitamin K from the diet. b. Prepare preoperative teaching for an inferior vena cava (IVC) filter. c. Refer the client to a chronic illness support group. d. Teach the client to use a soft-bristled toothbrush.

ANS: B Often clients are discharged from the hospital on warfarin (Coumadin) after a PE. However, clients with a variation in the CYP2C19 gene do not metabolize warfarin well and have higher blood levels and more side effects. This client is a poor candidate for warfarin therapy, and the prescriber will most likely order an IVC filter device to be implanted. The nurse should prepare to do preoperative teaching on this procedure. It would be impossible to eliminate all vitamin K from the diet. A chronic illness support group may be needed, but this is not the best intervention as it is not as specific to the client as the IVC filter. A soft-bristled toothbrush is a safety measure for clients on anticoagulation therapy.

1. A nurse assesses a client with polycystic kidney disease (PKD). Which assessment finding should alert the nurse to immediately contact the health care provider? a. Flank pain b. Periorbital edema c. Bloody and cloudy urine d. Enlarged abdomen

ANS: B Periorbital edema would not be a finding related to PKD and should be investigated further. Flank pain and a distended or enlarged abdomen occur in PKD because the kidneys enlarge and displace other organs. Urine can be bloody or cloudy as a result of cyst rupture or infection.

1. A nursing student caring for a client removes the client's oxygen as prescribed. The client is now breathing what percentage of oxygen in the room air? a. 14% b. 21% c. 28% d. 31%

ANS: B Room air is 21% oxygen. DIF: Remembering/Knowledge KEY: Oxygen| physiology MSC: IntegratedProcess:NursingProcess:Assessment NOT: Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity: Physiological Adaptation

3. A nurse assesses a client admitted to the cardiac unit. Which statement by the client alerts the nurse to the possibility of right-sided heart failure? a. "I sleep with four pillows at night." b. "My shoes fit really tight lately." c. "I wake up coughing every night." d. "I have trouble catching my breath."

ANS: B Signs of systemic congestion occur with right-sided heart failure. Fluid is retained, pressure builds in the venous system, and peripheral edema develops. Left-sided heart failure symptoms include respiratory symptoms. Orthopnea, coughing, and difficulty breathing all could be results of left-sided heart failure. DIF: Understanding/Comprehension REF: 683 KEY: Heart failure| assessment/diagnostic examination MSC: IntegratedProcess:NursingProcess:Assessment NOT: Client Needs Category: Health Promotion and Maintenance

2. A client is scheduled to have a tracheostomy placed in an hour. What action by the nurse is the priority? a. Administer prescribed anxiolytic medication. b. Ensure informed consent is on the chart. c. Reinforce any teaching done previously. d. Start the preoperative antibiotic infusion.

ANS: B Since this is an operative procedure, the client must sign an informed consent, which must be on the chart. Giving anxiolytics and antibiotics and reinforcing teaching may also be required but do not take priority. DIF: Applying/Application REF: 522 KEY: Informed consent| autonomy MSC: Integrated Process: Communication and Documentation NOT: Client Needs Category: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care

1. A nurse answers a call light and finds a client anxious, short of breath, reporting chest pain, and having a blood pressure of 88/52 mm Hg on the cardiac monitor. What action by the nurse takes priority? a. Assess the client's lung sounds. b. Notify the Rapid Response Team. c. Provide reassurance to the client. d. Take a full set of vital signs.

ANS: B This client has manifestations of a pulmonary embolism, and the most critical action is to notify the Rapid Response Team for speedy diagnosis and treatment. The other actions are appropriate also but are not the priority.

1. A client is in the emergency department reporting a brief episode during which he was dizzy, unable to speak, and felt like his legs were very heavy. Currently the client's neurologic examination is normal. About what drug should the nurse plan to teach the client? a. Alteplase (Activase) b. Clopidogrel (Plavix) c. Heparin sodium d. Mannitol (Osmitrol)

ANS: B This client's manifestations are consistent with a transient ischemic attack, and the client would be prescribed aspirin or clopidogrel on discharge. Alteplase is used for ischemic stroke. Heparin and mannitol are not used for this condition. DIF: Remembering/Knowledge REF: 930 KEY: Neurologic disorders| antiplatelet medications| patient education MSC: IntegratedProcess:Teaching/Learning NOT: Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity: Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies

A nurse reviews the health history of a client with an oversecretion of renin. Which disorder should the nurse correlate with this assessment finding? a. Alzheimer's disease b. Hypertension c. Diabetes mellitus d. Viral hepatitis

ANS: B Renin is secreted when special cells in the distal convoluted tubule, called the macula densa, sense changes in blood volume and pressure. When the macula densa cells sense that blood volume, blood pressure, or blood sodium levels are low, renin is secreted. Renin then converts angiotensinogen into angiotensin I. This leads to a series of reactions that cause secretion of the hormone aldosterone. This hormone increases kidney reabsorption of sodium and water, increasing blood pressure, blood volume, and blood sodium levels. Inappropriate or excessive renin secretion is a major cause of persistent hypertension. Renin has no impact on Alzheimer's disease, diabetes mellitus, or viral hepatitis.

The nurse is evaluating a 3-day diet history with a client who has an elevated lipid panel. What meal selection indicates the client is managing this condition well with diet? a. A 4-ounce steak, French fries, iceberg lettuce b. Baked chicken breast, broccoli, tomatoes c. Fried catfish, cornbread, peas d. Spaghetti with meat sauce, garlic bread

ANS: B The diet recommended for this client would be low in saturated fats and red meat, high in vegetables and whole grains (fiber), low in salt, and low in trans fat. The best choice is the chicken with broccoli and tomatoes. The French fries have too much fat and the iceberg lettuce has little fiber. The catfish is fried. The spaghetti dinner has too much red meat and no vegetables. DIF: Evaluating/Synthesis REF: 708

3. A client has a pulmonary embolism and is started on oxygen. The student nurse asks why the client's oxygen saturation has not significantly improved. What response by the nurse is best? a. "Breathing so rapidly interferes with oxygenation." b. "Maybe the client has respiratory distress syndrome." c. "The blood clot interferes with perfusion in the lungs." d. "The client needs immediate intubation and mechanical ventilation."

ANS: C A large blood clot in the lungs will significantly impair gas exchange and oxygenation. Unless the clot is dissolved, this process will continue unabated. Hyperventilation can interfere with oxygenation by shallow breathing, but there is no evidence that the client is hyperventilating, and this is also not the most precise physiologic answer. Respiratory distress syndrome can occur, but this is not as likely. The client may need to be mechanically ventilated, but without concrete data on FiO2 and SaO2, the nurse cannot make that judgment.

A patient referred to the eating disorders clinic has lost 35 pounds during the past 3 months. To assess eating patterns, the nurse should ask the patient: a. "Do you often feel fat?" b. "Who plans the family meals?" c. "What do you eat in a typical day?" d. "What do you think about your present weight?"

ANS: C Although all the questions might be appropriate to ask, only "What do you eat in a typical day?" focuses on the eating patterns. Asking if the patient often feels fat focuses on distortions in body image. Questions about family meal planning are unrelated to eating patterns. Asking for the patient's thoughts on present weight explores the patient's feelings about weight.

2. A nurse assesses a client in an outpatient clinic. Which statement alerts the nurse to the possibility of left-sided heart failure? a. "I have been drinking more water than usual." b. "I am awakened by the need to urinate at night." c. "I must stop halfway up the stairs to catch my breath." d. "I have experienced blurred vision on several occasions."

ANS: C Clients with left-sided heart failure report weakness or fatigue while performing normal activities of daily living, as well as difficulty breathing, or "catching their breath." This occurs as fluid moves into the alveoli. Nocturia is often seen with right-sided heart failure. Thirst and blurred vision are not related to heart failure. DIF: Understanding/Comprehension REF: 682 KEY: Heart failure| assessment/diagnostic examination MSC: IntegratedProcess:NursingProcess:Assessment NOT: Client Needs Category: Health Promotion and Maintenance

4. A nurse cares for a middle-aged female client with diabetes mellitus who is being treated for the third episode of acute pyelonephritis in the past year. The client asks, "What can I do to help prevent these infections?" How should the nurse respond? a. "Test your urine daily for the presence of ketone bodies and proteins." b. "Use tampons rather than sanitary napkins during your menstrual period." c. "Drink more water and empty your bladder more frequently during the day." d. "Keep your hemoglobin A1c under 9% by keeping your blood sugar controlled."

ANS: C Clients with long-standing diabetes mellitus are at risk for pyelonephritis for many reasons. Chronically elevated blood glucose levels spill glucose into the urine, changing the pH and providing a favorable climate for bacterial growth. The neuropathy associated with diabetes reduces bladder tone and reduces the client's sensation of bladder fullness. Thus, even with large amounts of urine, the client voids less frequently, allowing stasis and overgrowth of microorganisms. Increasing fluid intake (specifically water) and voiding frequently prevent stasis and bacterial overgrowth. Testing urine and using tampons will not help prevent pyelonephritis. A hemoglobin A1c of 9% is too high.

2. A client is admitted with a pulmonary embolism (PE). The client is young, healthy, and active and has no known risk factors for PE. What action by the nurse is most appropriate? a. Encourage the client to walk 5 minutes each hour. b. Refer the client to smoking cessation classes. c. Teach the client about factor V Leiden testing. d. Tell the client that sometimes no cause for disease is found.

ANS: C Factor V Leiden is an inherited thrombophilia that can lead to abnormal clotting events, including PE. A client with no known risk factors for this disorder should be referred for testing. Encouraging the client to walk is healthy, but is not related to the development of a PE in this case, nor is smoking. Although there are cases of disease where no cause is ever found, this assumption is premature.

2. A nursing student is studying nutritional problems and learns that kwashiorkor is distinguished from marasmus with which finding? a. Deficit of calories b. Lack of all nutrients c. Specific lack of protein d. Unknown cause of malnutrition

ANS: C Kwashiorkor is a lack of protein when total calories are adequate. Marasmus is a caloric malnutrition.

A nurse is working with a community group promoting healthy aging. What recommendation is best to help prevent osteoarthritis (OA)? a. Avoid contact sports. b. Get plenty of calcium. c. Lose weight if needed. d. Engage in weight-bearing exercise.

ANS: C Obesity can lead to OA, and if the client is overweight, losing weight can help prevent OA or reduce symptoms once it occurs. Arthritis can be caused by contact sports, but this is less common than obesity. Calcium and weight-bearing exercise are both important for osteoporosis.

The nurse working in the orthopedic clinic knows that a client with which factor has an absolute contraindication for having a total joint replacement? a. Needs multiple dental fillings b. Over age 85 c. Severe osteoporosis d. Urinary tract infection

ANS: C Osteoporosis is a contraindication to joint replacement because the bones have a high risk of shattering as the new prosthesis is implanted. The client who needs fillings should have them done prior to the surgery. Age greater than 85 is not an absolute contraindication. A urinary tract infection can be treated prior to surgery.

Over the past year, a woman has cooked gourmet meals for her family but eats only tiny servings. This person wears layered loose clothing. Her current weight is 95 pounds, a loss of 35 pounds. Which medical diagnosis is most likely?* a. Binge eating b. Bulimia nervosa c. Anorexia nervosa d. Eating disorder not otherwise specified

ANS: C Overly controlled eating behaviors, extreme weight loss, preoccupation with food, and wearing several layers of loose clothing to appear larger are part of the clinical picture of an individual with anorexia nervosa. The individual with bulimia usually is near normal weight. The binge eater is often overweight. The patient with eating disorder not otherwise specified may be obese. See relationship to audience response question.

4. A nurse assesses an older adult client who has multiple chronic diseases. The client's heart rate is 48 beats/min. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Document the finding in the chart. b. Initiate external pacing. c. Assess the client's medications. d. Administer 1 mg of atropine.

ANS: C Pacemaker cells in the conduction system decrease in number as a person ages, resulting in bradycardia. The nurse should check the medication reconciliation for medications that might cause such a drop in heart rate, then should inform the health care provider. Documentation is important, but it is not the priority action. The heart rate is not low enough for atropine or an external pacemaker to be needed. DIF: Applying/Application REF: 633 KEY: Medication| health screening MSC: IntegratedProcess:NursingProcess:Assessment NOT: Client Needs Category: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care

3. A nurse is gathering a history on a school-age child admitted for a migraine headache. The child states, "I have been getting a migraine every 2 or 3 months for the last year." The nurse documents this as which type of pain? a. Acute b. Chronic c. Recurrent d. Subacute

ANS: C Pain that is episodic and reoccurs is defined as recurrent pain. The time frame within which episodes of pain recur is at least 3 months. Recurrent pain in children includes migraine headache, episodic sickle cell pain, recurrent abdominal pain (RAP), and recurrent limb pain. Acute pain is pain that lasts for less than 3 months. Chronic pain is pain that lasts, on a daily basis, for more than 3 months. Subacute is not a term for documenting type of pain. DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand REF: p. 118 TOP: Integrated Process: Communication and Documentation MSC: Area of Client Needs: Physiologic Integrity

3. A nurse assesses clients on a medical-surgical unit. Which client should the nurse identify as having the greatest risk for cardiovascular disease? a. An 86-year-old man with a history of asthma b. A 32-year-old Asian-American man with colorectal cancer c. A 45-year-old American Indian woman with diabetes mellitus d. A 53-year-old postmenopausal woman who is on hormone therapy

ANS: C The incidence of coronary artery disease and hypertension is higher in American Indians than in whites or Asian Americans. Diabetes mellitus increases the risk for hypertension and coronary artery disease in people of any race or ethnicity. Asthma, colorectal cancer, and hormone therapy do not increase risk for cardiovascular disease. DIF: Understanding/Comprehension REF: 632 KEY: Health screening MSC: IntegratedProcess:NursingProcess:Assessment NOT: Client Needs Category: Safe and Effective Care Environment: Management of Care

A nurse assesses a client with renal insufficiency and a low red blood cell count. The client asks, "Is my anemia related to the renal insufficiency?" How should the nurse respond? a. "Red blood cells produce erythropoietin, which increases blood flow to the kidneys." b. "Your anemia and renal insufficiency are related to inadequate vitamin D and a loss of bone density." c. "Erythropoietin is usually released from the kidneys and stimulates red blood cell production in the bone marrow." d. "Kidney insufficiency inhibits active transportation of red blood cells throughout the blood."

ANS: C Erythropoietin is produced in the kidney and is released in response to decreased oxygen tension in the renal blood supply. Erythropoietin stimulates red blood cell production in the bone marrow. Anemia and renal insufficiency are not manifestations of vitamin D deficiency. The kidneys do not play a role in the transportation of red blood cells or any other cells in the blood. DIF: Remembering/Knowledge REF: 1349

A young boy is found squirting lighter fluid into his mouth. His father calls the emergency department. The nurse taking the call should know that the primary danger is which result? a. Hepatic dysfunction b. Dehydration secondary to vomiting c. Esophageal stricture and shock d. Bronchitis and chemical pneumonia

ANS: D Lighter fluid is a hydrocarbon. The immediate danger is aspiration. Acetaminophen overdose, not hydrocarbons, causes hepatic dysfunction. Dehydration is not the primary danger. Esophageal stricture is a late or chronic issue of hydrocarbon ingestion.

3. A nurse receives a report on a client who had a left-sided stroke and has homonymous hemianopsia. What action by the nurse is most appropriate for this client? a. Assess for bladder retention and/or incontinence. b. Listen to the client's lungs after eating or drinking. c. Prop the client's right side up when sitting in a chair. d. Rotate the client's meal tray when the client stops eating.

ANS: D This condition is blindness on the same side of both eyes. The client must turn his or her head to see the entire visual field. The client may not see all the food on the tray, so the nurse rotates it so uneaten food is now within the visual field. This condition is not related to bladder function, difficulty swallowing, or lack of trunk control. DIF: Applying/Application REF: 936 KEY: Neurologic disorders| stroke| visual disorders MSC: Integrated Process: Nursing Process: Implementation NOT: Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity: Basic Care and Comfort

1. A 2-year-old child has been returned to the nursing unit after an inguinal hernia repair. Which pain assessment tool should the nurse use to assess this child for the presence of pain? a. FACES pain rating tool b. Numeric scale c. Oucher scale d. FLACC tool

ANS: D A behavioral pain tool should be used when the child is preverbal or doesn't have the language skills to express pain. The FLACC (face, legs, activity, cry, consolability) tool should be used with a 2-year-old child. The FACES, numeric, and Oucher scales are all self-report pain rating tools. Self-report measures are not sufficiently valid for children younger than 3 years of age because many are not able to accurately self-report their pain. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply REF: p. 115 TOP: Integrated Process: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Area of Client Needs: Physiologic Integrity

2. A nurse assesses a client after administering a prescribed beta blocker. Which assessment should the nurse expect to find? a. Blood pressure increased from 98/42 mm Hg to 132/60 mm Hg b. Respiratory rate decreased from 25 breaths/min to 14 breaths/min c. Oxygen saturation increased from 88% to 96% d. Pulse decreased from 100 beats/min to 80 beats/min

ANS: D Beta blockers block the stimulation of beta1-adrenergic receptors. They block the sympathetic (fight-or-flight) response and decrease the heart rate (HR). The beta blocker will decrease HR and blood pressure, increasing ventricular filling time. It usually does not have effects on beta2-adrenergic receptor sites. Cardiac output will drop because of decreased HR. DIF: Applying/Application REF: 630 KEY: Beta blocker| medication MSC: IntegratedProcess:NursingProcess:Assessment NOT: Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity: Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies

Disturbed body image is a nursing diagnosis established for a patient diagnosed with an eating disorder. Which outcome indicator is most appropriate to monitor?* a. Weight, muscle, and fat congruence with height, frame, age, and sex b. Calorie intake is within required parameters of treatment plan c. Weight reaches established normal range for the patient d. Patient expresses satisfaction with body appearance

ANS: D Body image disturbances are considered improved or resolved when the patient is consistently satisfied with his or her own appearance and body function. This is a subjective consideration. The other indicators are more objective but less related to the nursing diagnosis.

2. The nurse is caring for a 6-year-old girl who had surgery 12 hours ago. The child tells the nurse that she does not have pain, but a few minutes later she tells her parents that she does. Which should the nurse consider when interpreting this? a. Truthful reporting of pain should occur by this age. b. Inconsistency in pain reporting suggests that pain is not present. c. Children use pain experiences to manipulate their parents. d. Children may be experiencing pain even though they deny it to the nurse.

ANS: D Children may deny pain to the nurse because they fear receiving an injectable analgesic or because they believe they deserve to suffer as a punishment for a misdeed. They may refuse to admit pain to a stranger but readily tell a parent. Truthfully reporting pain and inconsistency in pain reporting suggesting that pain is not present are common fallacies about children and pain. Pain is whatever the experiencing person says it is, whenever the person says it exists. Pain would not be questioned in an adult 12 hours after surgery. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze REF: p. 116 TOP: Integrated Process: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: Area of Client Needs: Physiologic Integrity

2. A nurse cares for a client with autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD). The client asks, "Will my children develop this disease?" How should the nurse respond? a. "No genetic link is known, so your children are not at increased risk." b. "Your sons will develop this disease because it has a sex-linked gene." c. "Only if both you and your spouse are carriers of this disease." d. "Each of your children has a 50% risk of having ADPKD."

ANS: D Children whose parent has the autosomal dominant form of PKD have a 50% chance of inheriting the gene that causes the disease. ADPKD is transmitted as an autosomal dominant trait and therefore is not gender specific. Both parents do not need to have this disorder.

The nurse suspects that a child has ingested some type of poison. Which clinical manifestation would be most suggestive that the poison was a corrosive product? a. Tinnitus b. Disorientation c. Stupor, lethargy, coma d. Edema of lips, tongue, pharynx

ANS: D Edema of lips, tongue, and pharynx indicates a corrosive ingestion. Tinnitus is indicative of aspirin ingestion. Corrosives do not act on the central nervous system (CNS).

4. Physiologic measurements in children's pain assessment are: a. the best indicator of pain in children of all ages. b. essential to determine whether a child is telling the truth about pain. c. of most value when children also report having pain. d. of limited value as sole indicator of pain.

ANS: D Physiologic manifestations of pain may vary considerably, not providing a consistent measure of pain. Heart rate may increase or decrease. The same signs that may suggest fear, anxiety, or anger also indicate pain. In chronic pain, the body adapts, and these signs decrease or stabilize. Physiologic measurements are of limited value and must be viewed in the context of a pain-rating scale, behavioral assessment, and parental report. When the child states that pain exists, it does. That is the truth. DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand REF: p. 119 TOP: Integrated Process: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Area of Client Needs: Physiologic Integrity

4. A client with a stroke is being evaluated for fibrinolytic therapy. What information from the client or family is most important for the nurse to obtain? a. Loss of bladder control b. Other medical conditions c. Progression of symptoms d. Time of symptom onset

ANS: D The time limit for initiating fibrinolytic therapy for a stroke is 3 to 4.5 hours, so the exact time of symptom onset is the most important information for this client. The other information is not as critical. DIF: Applying/Application REF: 938 KEY: Stroke| neurologic disorders| nursing assessment| fibrinolytic therapy MSC: IntegratedProcess:NursingProcess:Assessment NOT: Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity: Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies

Which vitamin is recommended for all women of childbearing age to reduce the risk of neural tube defects such as spina bifida? a.A b.C c.Niacin d.Folic acid

ANS: D The vitamin supplement that is recommended for all women of childbearing age is a daily dose of 0.4 mg of folic acid. Folic acid taken before conception and during pregnancy can reduce the risk of neural tube defects by 70%. No correlation exists between vitamins A, C, or folic acid and neural tube defects.

A nurse reviews the urinalysis of a client and notes the presence of glucose. Which action should the nurse take? a. Document findings and continue to monitor the client. b. Contact the provider and recommend a 24-hour urine test. c. Review the client's recent dietary selections. d. Perform a capillary artery glucose assessment.

ANS: D Glucose normally is not found in the urine. The normal renal threshold for glucose is about 220 mg/dL, which means that a person whose blood glucose is less than 220 mg/dL will not have glucose in the urine. A positive finding for glucose on urinalysis indicates high blood sugar. The most appropriate action would be to perform a capillary artery glucose assessment. The client needs further evaluation for this abnormal result; therefore, documenting and continuing to monitor is not appropriate. Requesting a 24-hour urine test or reviewing the client's dietary selections will not assist the nurse to make a clinical decision related to this abnormality. DIF: Applying/Application REF: 1348

A nurse reviews the urinalysis results of a client and notes a urine osmolality of 1200 mOsm/L. Which action should the nurse take? a. Contact the provider and recommend a low-sodium diet. b. Prepare to administer an intravenous diuretic. c. Obtain a suction device and implement seizure precautions. d. Encourage the client to drink more fluids.

ANS: D Normal urine osmolality ranges from 300 to 900 mOsm/L. This client's urine is more concentrated, indicating dehydration. The nurse should encourage the client to drink more water. Dehydration can be associated with elevated serum sodium levels. Although a low-sodium diet may be appropriate for this client, this diet change will not have a significant impact on urine osmolality. A diuretic would increase urine output and decrease urine osmolality further. Low serum sodium levels, not elevated serum levels, place the client at risk for seizure activity. These options would further contribute to the client's dehydration or elevate the osmolality. DIF: Applying/Application REF: 1359

A student nurse is assessing the peripheral vascular system of an older adult. What action by the student would cause the faculty member to intervene? a. Assessing blood pressure in both upper extremities b. Auscultating the carotid arteries for any bruits c. Classifying capillary refill of 4 seconds as normal d. Palpating both carotid arteries at the same time

ANS: D The student should not compress both carotid arteries at the same time to avoid brain ischemia. Blood pressure should be taken and compared in both arms. Prolonged capillary refill is considered to be greater than 5 seconds in an older adult, so classifying refill of 4 seconds as normal would not require intervention. Bruits should be auscultated. DIF: Remembering/Knowledge REF: 707

The nurse is reviewing the lipid panel of a male client who has atherosclerosis. Which finding is most concerning? a. Cholesterol: 126 mg/dL b. High-density lipoprotein cholesterol (HDL-C): 48 mg/dL c. Low-density lipoprotein cholesterol (LDL-C): 122 mg/dL d. Triglycerides: 198 mg/dL

ANS: D Triglycerides in men should be below 160 mg/dL. The other values are appropriate for adult males. DIF: Remembering/Knowledge REF: 708

In terms of fine motor development, what could the 3-year-old child be expected to do? a. Tie shoelaces. b. Use scissors or a pencil very well. c. Draw a person with seven to nine parts. d. Copy (draw) a circle.

D Three-year-olds are able to accomplish the fine motor skill of drawing a circle. Tying shoelaces, using scissors or a pencil very well, and drawing a person with multiple parts are fine motor skills of 5-year-old children.

Which accomplishment would the nurse expect of a healthy 3-year-old child? a. Jump rope b. Ride a two-wheel bicycle c. Skip on alternate feet d. Balance on one foot for a few seconds

D Three-year-olds are able to accomplish the gross motor skill of balancing on one foot. Jumping rope, riding a two-wheel bike, and skipping on alternate feet are gross motor skills of 5-year-old children.

Which statement concerning a crisis experience is true and should be used as a guideline for crisis management care? Select all that apply a. A crisis is self-limiting and usually resolves within 4-6 weeks b. The earlier interventions are implemented, the better the expected prognosis c. The nurse should maintain a nondirective role d. The patient in crisis is assumed to be mentally unhealthy and in an extreme state of disequilibrium e. The goal of crisis management is to return the patient to at least the pre-crisis level of functioning

a, b, e a. A crisis is self-limiting and usually resolves within 4-6 weeks b. The earlier interventions are implemented, the better the expected prognosis e. The goal of crisis management is to return the patient to at least the pre-crisis level of functioning

Which patient statement indicates the helpfulness of the nurse-patient relationship? a. "I appreciate the time you spent with me I have a better understanding of what I can do to manage my problem" b. "I really need to talk with you. You always give me good advice about how to address my anger issues" c. "If it wasn't for you and the hours we've spent talking, I don't think I would be on my way to getting my anxiety under control" d. "You always showed me sympathy when I was at my lowest point after the sexual assault. Knowing you had been there too was such a help"

a. "I appreciate the time you spent with me I have a better understanding of what I can do to manage my problem"

A client in sickle cell crisis is dehydrated and in the emergency department. The nurse plans to start an IV. Which fluid choice is best? a. 0.45% normal saline b. 0.9% normal saline c. Dextrose 50% (D50) d. Lactated Ringer's solution

a. 0.45% normal saline

A client presents to the emergency department in sickle cell crisis. What intervention by the nurse takes priority? a. Administer oxygen. b. Apply an oximetry probe. c. Give pain medication. d. Start an IV line.

a. Administer oxygen.

A client is in the family practice clinic. Today the client weighs 186.4 pounds (84.7 kg). Six months ago the client weighed 211.8 pounds (96.2 kg). What action by the nurse is best? a. Ask the client if the weight loss was intentional. b. Determine if there are food allergies or intolerances. c. Perform a comprehensive nutritional assessment. d. Perform a rapid bedside blood glucose test.

a. Ask the client if the weight loss was intentional.

A nurse caring for a client with sickle cell disease (SCD) reviews the client's laboratory work. Which finding should the nurse report to the provider? a. Creatinine: 2.9 mg/dL b. Hematocrit: 30% c. Sodium: 147 mEq/L d. White blood cell count: 12,000/mm3

a. Creatinine: 2.9 mg/dL

A client hospitalized with sickle cell crisis frequently asks for opioid pain medications, often shortly after receiving a dose. The nurses on the unit believe the client is drug seeking. When the client requests pain medication, what action by the nurse is best? a. Give the client pain medication if it is time for another dose. b. Instruct the client not to request pain medication too early. c. Request the provider leave a prescription for a placebo. d. Tell the client it is too early to have more pain medication.

a. Give the client pain medication if it is time for another dose.

A client had an orchiectomy and laparoscopic radical retroperitoneal lymph node dissection this morning. What is the nurse's priority for care? a) assess the client's pain level and provide pain management b) ensure that the client's urinary catheter is draining clear yellow urine c) observe the client's incision for redness, swelling, and drainage d) apply oxygen therapy via nasal cannula at 2 L/min (Ignatavicius & Workman, p. 1515)

b) ensure that the client's urinary catheter is draining clear yellow urine (Ignatavicius & Workman, p. 1515)

A client had a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) with continuous bladder irrigation yesterday. The staff nurse notes that the urinary drainage is bright red and thick. What is the nurse's best action? a) notify the charge nurse as soon as possible b) increase the rate of bladder irrigation c) document the assessment in the medical record d) prepare the patient for a blood transfusion (Ignatavicius & Workman, p. 1506)

b) increase the rate of bladder irrigation (Ignatavicius & Workman, p. 1506)

A client is receiving bolus feedings through a Dobhoff tube. What action by the nurse is most important? a. Auscultate lung sounds after each feeding. b. Check tube placement before each feeding. c. Check tube placement every 8 hours. d. Weigh the client daily on the same scale.

b. Check tube placement before each feeding.

A nurse is reviewing laboratory values for several clients. Which value causes the nurse to conduct nutritional assessments as a priority? a. Albumin: 3.5 g/dL b. Cholesterol: 142 mg/dL c. Hemoglobin: 9.8 mg/dL d. Prealbumin: 28 mg/dL

b. Cholesterol: 142 mg/dL A cholesterol level below 160 mg/dL is a possible indicator of malnutrition

A client has a serum ferritin level of 8 ng/mL and microcytic red blood cells. What action by the nurse is best? a. Encourage high-protein foods. b. Perform a Hemoccult test on the client's stools. c. Offer frequent oral care. d. Prepare to administer cobalamin (vitamin B12).

b. Perform a Hemoccult test on the client's stools.

The nurse is engaged in crisis intervention with a patient reporting, "I have no reason to keep on living." What is the nurse's initial interventions? a. Advise the patient about the services available to help them b. Ask the patient, "Have you ever been this depressed before?" c. Ask the patient, "Do you have any plan to hurt yourself or anyone else?" d. Assure the patient that he or she is in a safe place and will be well cared for

c. Ask the patient, "Do you have any plan to hurt yourself or anyone else?"

A female nurse has been sexually assaulted as a teenager. She finds it difficult to work with patients who have undergone the same trauma. What is the most helpful response? a. Discussing these feeling with the nurse supervisor b. Requesting that these patients not be a part of her patient assignment c. Discussing these feelings with a mental health professional d. Accepting her role in providing unbiased, respectful and professional care to all patients

c. Discussing these feelings with a mental health professional

A client having a tube feeding begins vomiting. What action by the nurse is most appropriate? a. Administer an antiemetic. b. Check the client's gastric residual. c. Hold the feeding until the nausea subsides. d. Reduce the rate of the tube feeding by half.

c. Hold the feeding until the nausea subsides.

A patient whose history includes experiences with abusive partners is being treats for major depressive disorder. The patient's care plan includes rape-trauma syndrome among the nursing diagnoses. What goal is directly associated with this diagnosis? a. Remains free from self-harm b. Wears appropriate clothing c. Reports feeling stronger and having a sense of hopefulness d. Demonstrates appropriate affect for both positive and negative

c. Reports feeling stronger and having a sense of hopefulness

A nursing student is studying nutritional problems and learns that kwashiorkor is distinguished from marasmus with which finding? a. Deficit of calories b. Lack of all nutrients c. Specific lack of protein d. Unknown cause of malnutrition

c. Specific lack of protein

The nurse is teaching a client about taking sildenafil (Viagra) for erectile dysfunction. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching? a) "I should have sex within an hour after taking the drug." b) "I should avoid alcohol when on the drug or it might not work well." c) "I can expect to maybe get a stuffy nose or headache when I take the drug." d) "If I have chest pain during sex, I should take a nitroglycerin tablet." (Ignatavicius & Workman, p. 1513)

d) "If I have chest pain during sex, I should take a nitroglycerin tablet." (Ignatavicius & Workman, p. 1513)